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The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The greatest challenge in understanding the role of randomness in life is that although the basic principles of randomness arise from everyday logic, many of the consequences that follow from those principles prove counterintuitive. In the mid-1960s, Daniel Kahneman, a psychologist, was lecturing a group of Israeli air force flight instructors on the conventional wisdom of behaviour modification and its application to the psychology of flight training. He drove home the point that rewarding positive behaviour works, but punishing mistakes does not. One of his students interrupted, saying ‘I’ve often praised people warmly for beautifully executed manoeuvres, and the next time they always do worse. And I’ve screamed at people for badly executed manoeuvres, and by and large the next time they improve. Don’t tell me that reward works and punishment doesn’t.’ The other flight instructors agreed. To Kahneman the flight instructors’ experiences rang true. On the other hand, he believed in the animal experiments that demonstrated that reward works better than punishment. He ruminated on this apparent paradox. The answer lies in a phenomenon called regression towards the mean. That is, in any series of random events an extraordinary event is most likely to be followed, purely due to chance, by a more ordinary one. Here is how it works: The student pilots all had a certain personal ability to fly fighter planes. Raising their skill level involved many factors and required extensive practice, so although their skill was slowly improving through flight training, the change wouldn’t be noticeable from one manoeuvre to the next. Any especially good or especially poor performance was thus mostly a matter of luck. So if a pilot made an exceptionally good landing – one far above his normal level of performance – then the odds would be good that he would perform closer to his norm – that is, worse – the next day. And if his instructor had praised him, it would appear that the praise had done no good. But if a pilot made an exceptionally bad landing, then the odds would be good that the next day he would perform closer to his norm – that is, better. And if his instructor had a habit of screaming ‘you clumsy ape’ when a student performed poorly, it would appear that his criticism did some good. In reality, it made no difference at all. This error in intuition spurred Kahneman’s thinking. How widespread, he wondered, was this misunderstanding of uncertainty? Do we make other misjudgements when faced with uncertainty? And what are its implications for human decision making? Kahneman found that even among sophisticated subjects, when it came to random processes, people’s beliefs and intuition very often let them down. Suppose four publishers have rejected the manuscript for your novel. Your intuition might say that the rejections by all those publishing experts mean that your manuscript is no good. But is your intuition correct? Is your novel unsellable? We all know from experience that if several tosses of a coin come up heads, it doesn’t mean we are tossing a two-headed coin. Could it be that publishing success is so unpredictable that even if our novel is destined for the best-seller list, numerous publishers could miss the point and reject it? One book in the 1950s was initially rejected by publishers with such comments as ‘very dull’ and ‘a dreary record of typical family bickering, petty annoyances and adolescent emotions’. Today, that book, The Diary of a Young Girl by Anne Frank, has sold 30 million copies, making it one of the best-selling books in history. 1) According to the passage, which of the following best explains the apparently paradoxical observation that ‘reward doesn’t improve performance but punishment does’? The basic principle of randomness is that rewarding positive behaviour works but punishing mistakes does not. Experiments in animal behaviour have proved that reward works better than punishment. Punishing mistakes merely preceded the improvement but contrary to appearances, did not cause it. Punishing mistakes tends to force the person making a mistake to be more careful the next time, hence causes an improvement the next time, just as praise makes one complacent. Video Explanation: Explanation: The second paragraph explains the flight instructor’s argument that rewards don’t work, but punishment helps to improve performance. The paragraph ends with, “he (Daniel Kahneman) ruminated on this paradox.” Then, his explanation is given in the next paragraph. “The answer lies in a phenomenon called regression towards the mean. That is, in any series of random events an extraordinary event is most likely to be followed, purely due to chance, by a more ordinary one.” This is then explained with the example of student pilots – that there is no cause-effect or any kind of relation between punishment/reward and performance (except randomness). Options 1, 2 and 4 are thus incorrect because a cause-effect relationship is implied in them. Option 3 states Kahneman’s explanation explicitly. Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Punishing mistakes merely preceded the improvement but contrary to appearances, did not cause it.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 33 % 2) Which of the following can be inferred from the student-pilots’ flight training example? An excellent performance of a student at any time is an aberration and has no basis in behaviour modification and its application in psychology. Students should be complimented constantly if they have to improve their performance gradually. Students who have been screamed at with regularity, in spite of how they perform, are more likely to better their performance than others who have never been screamed at. Students who maintain regularity of practice are more likely to gradually improve their performance which may not be noticeable from one test to the next. Video Explanation: Explanation: Options 2 and 3 are eliminated because they imply a cause effect relationship between screaming/rewarding and improvement in performance whereas the passage shows such an observation is merely coincidence. Option 1 is incorrect because an excellent performance need not always be an aberration, but a result of skill achieved through long periods of practice. Option 4 is correct because the passage states, “The student pilots all had a certain personal ability to fly fighter planes. Raising their skill level involved many factors and required extensive practice, so although their skill was slowly improving through flight training, the change wouldn’t be noticeable from one manoeuvre to the next.” Hence the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Students who maintain regularity of practice are more likely to gradually improve their performance which may not be noticeable from one test to the next.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 % 3)All these are examples of ‘regression towards the mean’ EXCEPT: When there was a sudden increase in burglaries in a particular city, the number of policemen in the city were increased, due to which the number of burglaries went down. Mahesh, a politician, seemed set to win the next election, but his popularity went down abruptly after a scandal regarding his personal life became known. Diego, a football player, broke the record for goals scored in one season, but the next season, he scored far fewer goals, leading critics to wonder if he had lost his talent. Previously, Sonia didn’t believe in homeopathic medicine, but when her particularly bad migraine got better after she took some homeopathic medicine, she decided that there must be something to it. Video Explanation: Explanation: The definition of regression towards the mean given in the passage is: ‘in any series of random events, an extraordinary event is most likely to be followed, purely due to chance, by a more ordinary one’. In option [1], the sudden increase in burglaries could be a purely random event, which would go down to ordinary levels – i.e. regress towards the mean – on its own, so the attribution of the decrease to the increase in policemen is a misunderstanding of a case of regression towards the mean. Similarly, extreme events such as breaking a record for goals scored and a particularly bad migraine in [3] and [4] respectively could simply have regressed to the mean – i.e. the number of goals could have gone down and the migraine would have got better – due to chance, so both [3] and [4] also demonstrate a misunderstanding of a case of regression towards the mean. Only [2] is not necessarily such a case: a scandal would have a clear and sudden negative effect on a politician’s popularity, which would not be the result of random chance. Note: there is no series of random events in [2]. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Mahesh, a politician, seemed set to win the next election, but his popularity went down abruptly after a scandal regarding his personal life became known. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 % 4)The example of Anne Frank’s book proves that … Publishers are not good judges of the quality of literature. Writers should keep trying to get their books published, even if they are rejected by multiple publishers. Success in publishing depends mainly on chance, not the quality of the work.

Intuition is not a good guide to predicting which books will be successful. Video Explanation: Explanation: The example of Anne Frank’s book is given as a way of showing how intuitions about the possible success of a book (in this case, the publishers’ intuitions) are not a good guide to predicting whether or not a book will be successful, which depends considerably on chance. So [4] sums up the point it is meant to prove. [3] may be inferable, but it is not the point of the example. [2], while being good advice for writers, is irrelevant to the issues of chance and intuition that the passage focuses on. Similarly, [1] doesn’t keep the bigger picture in mind and doesn’t tie up the example to the main idea of the passage. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Intuition is not a good guide to predicting which books will be successful. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The possibility of untimely death is frightening, but the inevitability of ageing and dying casts the longest shadow on human life. Humankind’s efforts to overcome aging have been impressively persistent. We have, however, not succeeded. By age 80, half of us will die; by age 100, 99 percent; and by about age 115, every one of us will be dead, medical breakthroughs notwithstanding. During the past few hundred years, the average length of life (expectancy) in modern societies has steadily increased, but the maximum duration of life (span) has not. Centuries ago a few people may have lived to 115; today this maximum remains aboutthe same. All the wonders of medicine, all the advances in public health have not demonstrably increased the maximum duration of life. If ageing is a disease, it seems to be incurable. Technically, we are not really talking about ageing, the process of growing older from birth onwards, but senescence, the process of bodily deterioration that occurs at older ages. Senescence is not a single process but is manifested in an increased susceptibility to many diseases and a decreasing ability to repair damage. Death rates in modern developed countries are very low at age 10 to 12, about 0.2 per 1000 children per year. The death rate increases slowly to 1.35 per 1000 at age 30, then increases exponentially, doubling every 8 years. By age 90, the death rate is 169 per 1000. A person aged 100 has only a one-in-three chance of living another year. Every year the mortality curve becomes steeper, until eventually we all are gone. Imagine a world in which all causes of premature death have been eliminated, so that all deaths result from the effects of ageing. We would live hearty, healthy lives, until, in a sharp peak of a few years centred at age 85, we would nearly all die. Conversely, imagine a world in which senescence is eliminated, so that death rates do not increase with age but remain throughout life at the level for eighteenyear-olds, that is, about 1 per 1000 per year. Some people would still die at all ages, but half the population would live to age 693, and more than 13 percent would live to age 2000! Even if death rates were much higher, say 10 per 1000, eliminating the effects of senescence would still give a substantial advantage, with some people living to age 300. From an evolutionist’spoint of view, an individual who did not senesce would have, to put it mildly, a substantial reproductive advantage. This brings us to the mystery. If senescence so devastates our fitness, why hasn’t natural selection eliminated it? This possibility seems preposterous only because senescence is such an inescapable part of our experience. Consider, however, the miracle of development: from a single cell with forty-six strands of nucleic acid, a body gradually forms, with each often trillion cells in the right place, making tissues and organs that function together for the good of the whole. Certainly it should be easier to maintain this body than to form it! Furthermore, our bodies have remarkable maintenance capacities. Skin and blood cells are replaced every few weeks. Our teeth get replaced once. Damaged liver tissue can be rapidly replaced. Most wounds heal quickly. Broken bones grow back together. Our bodies do have some capacity to repair damage and replace worn-out parts; it is just that this capacity is limited. The body can’t maintain itself indefinitely. Why not? 1) All of the following are true according to the passage EXCEPT: During the past few hundred years human life span has steadily increased. Improved life expectancy is attributable to advances in medicine and public health. As an evolutionary principle, senescence is a puzzling phenomenon. Eliminating senescence would substantially improve our life span. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 2 is stated in the second paragraph – where it is stated that in the past few hundred years average length of life (life expectancy) has increased – but all the wonders of medicine and public health have not impacted maximum duration of life (life span). This makes option 1 the exception. The end question ‘why not?’ justifies option 3. Paragraph 4 explains how life span would be affected if senescence was eliminated. Hence the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: During the past few hundred years human life span has steadily increased.

Time taken by you: 1714 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 % 2) Which of the following most accurately expressses the main idea of the passage? The inevitability of death worries mankind the most, and all efforts to overcome senescence are doomed to ultimate failure in the face of evolution. It is a mystery that though natural selection has the capacity to eliminate senescence and the inevitability of death, it does not do so. Ageing is an incurable disease; neither medicine nor advances in science can eliminate senescence which is integral to natural selection. Though mankind is persistent in its efforts to overcome ageing, the inevitability of death arises from senescence which, mysteriously, evolution does not try to correct. Video Explanation: Explanation: Options 1, 2, and 3 side-track the question and present facts stated in the passage. They don’t sufficiently capture the main idea of the passage. Option 1 is also problematic because ‘doomed to ultimate failure’ is not something that passage intends to communicate. Option 2 emphasises the mystery and option 3 emphasise s ageing, hence not complete the theme. Option 4 summarises the passage well. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Though mankind is persistent in its efforts to overcome ageing, the inevitability of death arises from senescence which, mysteriously, evolution does not try to correct.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 198 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 % 3)Senescence is best described as: The miracle of development from a single cell to trillion cells in the right place making tissues and organs that function together for the good of the whole. The process of ageing in which one grows older from birth onwards ultimately leading to death. Bodily deterioration and an increased susceptibility to diseases and a decreased ability to repair the damage at older ages. The remarkable maintenance capacities of our bodies in which damaged tissues are rapidly replaced. Video Explanation: Explanation: Senescence is explained in the third paragraph. “Technically, we are not really talking about ageing, the process of growing older from birth onwards, but senescence, the process of bodily deterioration that occurs at older ages. Senescence is not a single process but is manifested in an increased susceptibility to many diseases and a decreasing ability to repair damage.” Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Bodily deterioration and an increased susceptibility to diseases and a decreased ability to repair the damage at older ages. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 90 % 4) According to the author, which of the following indicates that it is possible for evolution to do away with senescence? Senescence is an inescapable part of our experience and it is preposterous to think of that possibility. From the point of view of evolution, it is easier to create a new body than to maintain an existing one. Our bodies have remarkable maintenance capacity by which damage is easily repaired and worn out parts are replaced. Our ability to live hearty, healthy lives, until the age of around 85. Video Explanation: Explanation: Senescence in brief is the deterioration of the body leading to death. The capacity of evolutionary processes to do away with this deterioration would prove that evolution could have done away with senescence. Option 1 is contrary to this. Option 2 shows why senescence will not be away with as new bodies can be created more easily. Option 3 shows that nature/evolution has the capability to repair and replace parts – that means has the capacity to do away with senescence. Option 4 does not mean that senescence could be done away with. Hence the correct answer is option [3]

Correct Answer: Our bodies have remarkable maintenance capacity by which damage is easily repaired and worn out parts are replaced.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

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undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Barely a century ago, conventional wisdom held that our universe was static and eternal. Now, we can feel smug for having discovered the underlying expansion of the universe, the cosmic microwave background, dark matter and dark energy. But what will the future bring? Poetry ... of a sort. The domination of the expansion of our universe by dark energy was inferred from the fact that this expansion is speeding up. Our observable universe is at the threshold of expanding faster than the speed of light. And with time, because of the accelerated expansion, things will only get worse.

This means that, the longer we wait, the less we will be able to see. Galaxies that we can now see will one day in the future be receding away from us at faster-than lightspeed, which means that they will become invisible to us. The light they emit will not be able to make progress against the expansion of space, and it will never again reach us. These galaxies will have disappeared from our horizon. The way this works is a little different than you might imagine. The galaxies will not suddenly disappear or twinkle out of existence in the night sky. Rather, as their recession speed approaches the speed of light, the light from these objects gets ever more redshifted. Eventually, all their visible light moves to infrared, microwave, radio wave, and so on, until the wavelength of light they emit ends up becoming larger than the size of the visible universe, at which point they become officially invisible. We can calculate about how long this will take. Since the galaxies in our local cluster of galaxies are all bound together by their mutual gravitational attraction, they will not recede with the background expansion of the universe. Galaxies just outside our groupare about 1/5000th the distance out to the point where the recession velocity of objects approaches the speed of light. By about 2 trillion years, their light will have become completely invisible, and the rest of the universe, from the perspective of our local cluster, will literally have disappeared. Two trillion years may seem like a long time, and it is. In a cosmic sense, however, it is nowhere near an eternity. The longest living ‘main sequence’ stars have lifetimes far longer than our Sun and will still be shining in 2 trillion years (even as our own Sun dies out in about only 5 billion years). And so in the far future there may be civilizations on planets around those stars. And there may be astronomers with telescopes on those planets. But when they look out at the cosmos, essentially everything we can now see,all 400 billion galaxies currently inhabiting our visible universe, will have disappeared! In any case, those astronomers in the far future would be in for a big surprise, if they had any idea what they were missing, which they won’t. Because not only will the rest of the universe have disappeared, but essentially all of the evidence that now tells us we live in an expanding universe that began in a Big Bang will also have disappeared, along with all evidence of the existence of the dark energy that will be responsible for this disappearance. While less than a century ago conventional wisdom still held that the universe was static and eternal, in the far future, long after any remnants of our planet and civilization have likely receded into the dustbin of history, the illusion that sustained our civilization until1930 will be an illusion that will once again return, with a vengeance. 1) What does the author mean by ‘Poetry ... of a sort’, with respect to what the future will bring? It is rather poetic that our past incorrect view of the universe will become correct in the far distant future. It is rather poetic that in the far distant future, the scientific evidence will support a view of the universe that we held in the past. It is rather poetic that our current illusions about the nature of the universe will be repeated in the far distant future. It is rather poetic that the inhabitants of the universe in the far distant future will hold a similar view of the universe that we held till a century ago. Video Explanation: Explanation: ‘Poetry ... of a sort’ is the author’s answer to the question ‘But what will the future bring?’ The author returns to this point in the last paragraph, where he states that our past view of the universe was that it was static and eternal. In the distant future (in about two trillion years), the galaxies beyond our local cluster will no longer be visible, and even the evidence that now tells us we live in an expanding universe will have disappeared. So the people of that time would once again mistakenly think that the universe is static and eternal. So [1] is incorrect: our past view will not become correct in the future. It is not that the scientific evidence in the future will support this mistaken view, but rather the lack of evidence will; so [2] is wrong. Option 3 says “current illusions” which is incorrect. The writer does not suggest that our view about the universe currently also is an illusion, so, [3] is not right. Only [4] correctly sums up why the author thinks this mistake will be ‘poetic’ in a sense. Hence [4].

Correct Answer: It is rather poetic that the inhabitants of the universe in the far distant future will hold a similar view of the universe that we held till a century ago.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 % 2) What is the main point of this passage?

Two trillion years into the future, the expansion of the universe will have stopped and it will have again become static. For inhabitants of the universe in two trillion years, the evidence of the Big Bang and the expansion of the universe will have completely disappeared. In two trillion years, all the galaxies except our local cluster will have ceased to exist. Universe has a cyclic existence. In two trillion years the current universe will end and a new one will begin. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not state or imply that the expansion will stop. Option 3 is incorrect because ‘ceased to exist’ is not supported. Option 4 is incorrect as the cyclic existence is not hinted at in the passage. Hence the correct answer is Option [2].

Correct Answer: For inhabitants of the universe in two trillion years, the evidence of the Big Bang and the expansion of the universe will have completely disappeared.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 % 3) Which of the following is true according to the passage? Nothing in the universe can move faster than light. In our local cluster of galaxies gravitational attraction is stronger than in the galaxies just outside it. When light becomes red shifted, its wavelength is smaller, until it is no longer visible. As our universe expands, the speed of light increases. 4) According to the passage, all these contribute to our understanding of a constantly expanding universe EXCEPT: The idea that the universe originated in a Big Bang. The discovery of the dark energy and the cosmic microwave background. The domination of dark energy over gravitational force. The discovery of ‘main sequence’ stars in our local cluster that will outlive the Sun.

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undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Why do the songs I heard when I was teenager sound sweeter than anything I listen to as an adult? I’m happy to report that my own failures of discernment as a music critic may not be entirely to blame. In recent years, psychologists and neuroscientists have confirmed that these songs hold disproportionate power over our emotions. And researchers have uncovered evidence that suggests our brains bind us to the music we heard as teenagers more tightly than anything we’ll hear as adults – a connection that doesn’t weaken as we age.

Musical nostalgia, in other words, isn’t just a cultural phenomenon: it’s a neuronic command. And no matter how sophisticated our tastes might otherwise grow to be, our brains may stay jammed on those songs we obsessed over during the high drama of adolescence. To understand why we grow attached to certain songs, it helps to understand the brain’s relationship with music. When you listen to a song that triggers personal memories, your prefrontal cortex, which maintains information relevant to your personal life and relationships, will spring into action. But memories are meaningless without emotion – and aside from love and drugs, nothing spurs an emotional reaction like music. Brain imaging studies show that our favourite songs stimulate the brain’s pleasure circuit, which releases an influx of dopamine, serotonin, oxytocin and other neurochemicals that make us feel good. The more we like a song, the more we get treated to neurochemical bliss, flooding our brains with some of the same neurotransmitters that cocaine chases after. Music lights these sparks of neural activity in everybody. But in young people, the spark turns into a fireworks show. Between the ages of 12 and 22, our brains undergo rapid neurological development – and the music we love during that decade seems to get wired into our lobes for good. When we make neural connections to a song, we also create a strong memory trace that becomes laden with heightened emotion, thanks partly to a surfeit of pubertal growth hormones. These hormones tell our brains that everything is incredibly important – especially the songs that form the soundtrack to our teenage dreams (and embarrassments). On its own, these neurological pyrotechnics would be enough to imprint certain songs into our brain. But there are other elements at work. First, some songs become memories in and of themselves, so forcefully do they worm their way into memory. Many of us can vividly remember the first time we heard that one Beatles (or Backstreet Boys) song that, decades later, we still sing at every karaoke night. Second, these songs form the soundtrack to what feel, at the time, like the most vital and momentous years of our lives. The music that plays during our first kiss or our first dance gets attached to that memory and takes on a glimmer of its profundity. We may recognize in retrospect that the dance wasn’t really all that profound. But even as the importance of the memory itself fades, the emotional afterglow tagged to the music lingers. As fun as these theories may be, their logical conclusion – you’ll never love another song the way you loved the music of your youth – is a little depressing. It’s not all bad news, of course: Our adult tastes aren’t really weaker; they’re just more mature, allowing us to appreciate complex aesthetic beauty on an intellectual level. No matter how adult we may become, however, music remains an escape hatch from our adult brains back into the raw, unalloyed passion of our youths. The nostalgia that accompanies our favourite songs isn’t just a fleeting recollection of earlier times; it’s a neurological wormhole that gives us a glimpse into the years when our brains leapt with joy at the music that’s come to define us. Those years may have passed. But each time we hear the songs we loved, the joy they once brought surges anew. 1) What is the passage trying to convey? Why one gets attached to the music one heard as a teenager and not to the music that one would hear as an adult. Why no other music is as good as the music that one heard as a teenager. Why one loves the music one heard as a teenager more than any other music one would listen to later. How the connection between music and the working of the brain makes listening to music a memorable experience during teenage. Video Explanation: Explanation: The passage is precisely about why one loves the music one heard as a teenager. The writer explains the reason why the experience in our youth (w.r.t. music) which will not be replicated in our adult life. Option 3 describes the same idea. Option 1 is incorrect – the passage is not about attachment. Option 2 is incorrect – other music may be as good as or better than the music we heard in teenage – we just don’t love them as much, that’s all. Option 4 does not talk about the teenager experience. Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Why one loves the music one heard as a teenager more than any other music one would listen to later.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 30 % 2) When the writer says his “own failures of discernment as a music critic may not be entirely to blame,” he means: The critical appreciation of music that he now provides may not be reflective of the true beauty of the music under review. The music that he reviews now are much less beautiful than the music he listened to in his teens. He is able to appreciate the beauty of the music he reviews currently more intellectually than emotionally.

He is unable to provide an objective criticism of the music that he is currently reviewing. Video Explanation: Explanation: When the writer refer to his ‘own falure of discernement’ as a music critic, he is emphasizing the intense impressions that music created in him during his teenage. He expalins this phenomenon using psychology and neuroscience. As one matures, one’s appreciation of music becomes more intellectual and complex. Hence music fails to evoke strong emotional reaction as it did in our teenage. So the failure is not actually a failure – it is only a less emotional but more intelelctual experience. Option 3 explains the above more accurately than any pther option. Options 1 and 4 are implicitly contrary to the passage. Since the ‘true beauty of music’ is vague and is commented on in the passage, option 2 is incorrect. Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: He is able to appreciate the beauty of the music he reviews currently more intellectually than emotionally.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 3)Which of the following is true as per the passage? The author’s failures as a music critic had more to do with the quality of the music than with his own sensitivity. The connection that our brain establishes with music when we are teenagers does not become weak as we grow old. The brain’s relationship with music is something that is not fully understood in neurological studies. The taste for music is strongest when we are in our teenage and weaken as we age beyond 22 years. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is not true. The second sentence states the contrary. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage explains the relationship in detail. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage (last paragraph) says our taste doesn’t weaken, but mature over time, and it becomes more intellectual. The first paragraph states the connection that ‘doesn’t weaken as we age’. Hence the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: The connection that our brain establishes with music when we are teenagers does not become weak as we grow old. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 % 4) All these are reasons for our loving the music we heard as teenagers, EXCEPT: Music leaves a permanent imprint on the teenage brain. The teenage brain associates a soundtrack with the teenage experiences. The teenage brain comes under the influence of powerful hormones. The teenage brain is not concerned about the genre or the quality of a song. Video Explanation: Explanation: Paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 support all the options from 1 to 3. Option 4 is not stated or implied. The writer does not comment on the quality of the music that a teenager loves. The writer explains the processes in the brain when we “grow attached to certain songs.” Why a teenager likes a certain song is definitely related to the quality of the song and the teenager’s preferences. The article does not explain why a particular teenager would prefer jazz over rock, or classical over pop. Hence option 4 is irrelevant to the question. Hence the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: The teenage brain is not concerned about the genre or the quality of a song.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 83 % 5) “Why do the songs I heard when I was teenager sound sweeter than anything I listen to as an adult?” Which of the following provides the best explanantion for the question? These songs stimulate the brains pleasure circuit and we get treated to neurochemical bliss. These songs form the soundtrack to what we feel like at the time - the most vital and momentous years of our lives. These songs express the best experiences of our lives at a time when we are going through rapid neurological development. These songs trigger memories of the best and worst experiences of our lives at a stage when we are going through emotional upheavals. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 does not explain why the songs sound sweeter than what one listens to in adult life. Option 2 explains the imprint – soundtrack to what we feel (emotional aspect) and the stage in our life which is important. Hence 2 is correct. Option 3 is incorrect – the songs don’t express the best experience but are associated emotionally with them. Option 4 is incorrect in ‘emotional upheavals’. The best answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: These songs form the soundtrack to what we feel like at the time - the most vital and momentous years of our lives.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 15 % 6)The passage supports all the following inferences EXCEPT: Neurochemistry sufficiently explains musical nostalgia in adults. The music that we listen to in our youth leaves lasting impressions on our minds. Teenagers’ love for music is a manifestation of their heightened neural activity in youth. The prefrontal cortex of a teen and of an adult work differently.

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undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Populists abhor restraints on the political executive. Since they claim to represent “the people” writ large, they regard limits on their exercise of power as necessarily undermining the popular will. Such constraints can only serve the “enemies of the people” – minorities and foreigners or financial elites. This is a dangerous approach to politics, because it allows a majority to ride roughshod over the rights

of minorities. Without separation of powers, an independent judiciary, or free media – which all populist autocrats, from Vladimir Putin and Recep Tayyip Erdoğan to Viktor Orbán and Donald Trump detest – democracy degenerates into the tyranny of whoever happens to be in power. Periodic elections under populist rule become a smokescreen. In the absence of the rule of law and basic civil liberties, populist regimes can prolong their rule by manipulating the media and the judiciary at will. Populists’ aversion to institutional restraints extends to the economy, where exercising full control “in the people’s interest” implies that no obstacles should be placed in their way by autonomous regulatory agencies, independent central banks, or global trade rules. Start with why restraints on economic policy may be desirable in the first place. Economists tend to have a soft spot for such restraints, because policymaking that is fully responsive to the push and pull of domestic politics can generate highly inefficient outcomes. In particular, economic policy is often subject to the problem of what economists call time-inconsistency: short-term interests frequently undermine the pursuit of policies that are far more desirable in the long term. A canonical example is discretionary monetary policy. Politicians who have the power to print money at will may generate “surprise inflation” to boost output and employment in the short run – say, before an election. But this backfires, because firms and households adjust their inflation expectations. In the end, discretionary monetary policy results only in higher inflation without yielding any output or employment gains. The solution is an independent central bank, insulated from politics, operating solely on its mandate to maintain price stability.Another example is official treatment of foreign investors. Once a foreign firm makes its investment, it essentially becomes captive to the host government’s whims. Promises that were made to attract the firm are easily forgotten, replaced by policies that squeeze it to the benefit of the national budget or domestic companies. But there are other scenarios as well, in which the consequences of restraints on economic policy may be less salutary. In particular, restraints may be instituted by special interests or elites themselves, to cement permanent control over policymaking. In such cases, delegation to autonomous agencies or signing on to global rules does not serve society, but only a narrow caste of “insiders.” Part of today’s populist backlash is rooted in the belief, not entirely unjustified, that this scenario describes much economic policymaking in recent decades. Multinational corporations and investors have increasingly shaped the agenda of international trade negotiations, resulting in global regimes that disproportionately benefit capital at the expense of labor. Stringent patent rules and international investor tribunals are prime examples. So is the capture of autonomous agencies by the industries they are supposed to regulate. Banks and other financial institutions have been especially successful at getting their way and instituting rules that give them free rein. Independent central banks played a critical role in bringing inflation down in the 1980s and 1990s. But in the current low-inflation environment, their exclusive focus on price stability imparts a deflationary bias to economic policy and is in tension with employment generation and growth. Such “liberal technocracy” may be at its apogee in the European Union, where economic rules and regulations are designed at considerable remove from democratic deliberation at the national level. And in virtually every member state, this political gap – the EU’s so-called democratic deficit – has given rise to populist, Euro skeptical political parties. In such cases, relaxing the constraints on economic policy and returning policymaking autonomy to elected governments may well be desirable. We should constantly be wary of populism that stifles political pluralism and undermines liberal democratic norms. Political populism is a menace to be avoided at all costs. Economic populism, by contrast, is occasionally necessary. Indeed, at such times, it may be the only way to forestall its much more dangerous political cousin. 1) In the context of the passage, which of the following has been identified as being more dangerous than economic populism? Disproportionate control of corporations Majoritarian identity-based politics Religious sectarianism Political populism. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The last paragraph of the passage states the answer explicitly. “We should constantly be wary of populism that stifles political pluralism and undermines liberal democratic norms. Political populism is a menace to be avoided at all costs. Economic populism, by contrast, is occasionally necessary. Indeed, at such times, it may be the only way to forestall its much more dangerous political cousin.” His point of view is that while political populism is to be avoided at all costs, economic populism is necessary at times, and sometimes economic populism may be the only way we can avoid political populism which is dangerous. Thus the answer is option 4. The fourth paragraph talks about multinational corporations when its states that, ‘Multinational corporations and investors have increasingly shaped the agenda of international trade negotiations, resulting in global regimes that disproportionately benefit capital at the expense of labor’. However, this domination of multinational corporations has not being compared with the state’s economic populism. Also, it has not been implied that this disproportionate control of corporations is worse than economic populism. Hence, option 1 is eliminated. Majoritarianism is a political philosophy or agenda that asserts that a majority (sometimes categorized by religion or some other identifying factor) is entitled to a certain degree of primacy in society. The passage states that ‘popular will allows a majority to ride roughshod over the rights of minorities’. However, it has not been compared with economic populism. Hence, option 2 is incorrect. ‘Religious sectarianism’ is a form of discrimination or hatred arising from attaching inferiority to people belonging to a particular religion. The passage does not dwell on Religious sectarianism. Hence, option 3 is irrelevant. Hence the answer is option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Political populism.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 260 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 % 2) The central idea of this passage is that: Populists abhor institutional restraints where they oppose obstacles placed in their way by autonomous regulatory agencies, independent central banks, and global trade rules. Populists abhor restraints on the political executive, which is a dangerous approach to politics as it ends in the marginalization or persecution of minorities. Populists’ aversion to institutional restraints extends to the economy; while populism in the political domain is almost always harmful, economic populism can sometimes be justified. Economists tend to support restraints on the executive as discretionary monetary policy as it almost always leads to economic populism for electoral gains. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy main idea question. The passage makes two major points. One is that political populism in which political leaders – examples given are Putin, Trump, Recep Tayyip Erdogen, and Victor Orban) end up becoming autocrats as they abhor institutional restraints. Hence political populism ought to be avoided at all costs. The other major point is that while restraints on economic policy may be desirable, economic populism may be desirable under certain circumstances in which relaxing constraints on economic policy and returning policy making autonomy to elected governments (instead of independent central institutions like the Central Bank) may also be desirable. Hence economic populism is not always harmful like political populism These points are captured in option 3. Option 1 is incorrect. It does not include the point about the desirability of economic populism under circumstances. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1 it presents only one point of view, the defense of economic populism is not mentioned. Eliminate Option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 highlights only the economists’ view about the need for independent regulatory bodies in an economy. It doesn’t capture the political populism aspect. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Populists’ aversion to institutional restraints extends to the economy; while populism in the political domain is almost always harmful, economic populism can sometimes be justified.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 3) All these are advanced as reasons to justify the restraints on economic policy EXCEPT: Stringent patent rules and international investor tribunals. Short term interests may undermine the pursuit of policies more desirable in the long term. Creation of “surprise inflation” to boost output and employment in the short term for immediate electoral gains. Introduction of protectionist policies. 4) Why does the passage refer to minorities, foreigners and financial elites as ‘enemies of the people’? As an ironical reference to populists’ view that restraints on the populist leader are contrary to popular will. To point out that they are an elite or special interest group that asserts excessive power not commensurate with their numbers. In disapproval of the populist leader riding roughshod over the rights of the minorities, foreigners and the financial elites. To highlight that minorities, foreigners or financial elites should have no political relevance in a true democracy. Video Explanation: Explanation:

This is an easy question. The first paragraph of the passage states, “Populists abhor restraints on the political executive. Since they claim to represent “the people” writ large, they regard limits on their exercise of power as necessarily undermining the popular will. Such constraints can only serve the “enemies of the people” – minorities and foreigners or financial elites. It is the populists’ view that their leader represents the will of the people, hence should be given complete freedom without any restraints to impose his/her will on the state. These restraints on the supreme leader will only help the minorities (w.r.t. their civil and political rights), foreigners (with respect to their investments in the economy) and financial elites (against w.r.t their wealth and businesses) – hence these people become enemies of the people at large. In truth, they are not. Hence it is an ironical reference to the misguided belief of the populists that there should be no check on the populist leader. Hence option 1 is correct. Option 2 is incorrect because the passage does not imply that minorities ‘assert excessive power not commensurate with their numbers’. Option 3 is likewise incorrect. Though a disapproval is implied, the reference to minorities etc. as enemies of the people is not from the point of view of the suppression of minorities. Option 4 is contrary to the writer’s point of view. He does not believe that minorities etc. do not have any political relevance in a democracy. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: As an ironical reference to populists’ view that restraints on the populist leader are contrary to popular will.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 5) With respect to “discretionary monetary policy”, the writer is of the view that … Such policies will be isolated from the pull and push of domestic policies and their consequent ill-effects. It always backfires and creates higher inflation without yielding any output or employment gains.

An independent central bank operating on its own mandate can solve the ill- effects of such policies. It undermines short term interests in pursuit of policies that are desirable in the long term. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph almost defines ‘discretionary monetary policy’ as determined by the push and pull of domestic policy resulting in long term ill-effects. Option 1 which states that it is isolated from such the influence of domestic policies is contrary to the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In fact, under certain circumstances the writer would prefer economic populism and ‘discretionary policy’. Hence it is incorrect to say to say such policy “always” backfires. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The writer explicitly states in the third paragraph that cure for “surprise inflation’ to boost output resorted by the executive as a populist measure finally backfires. And “the solution is an independent central bank, insulated from politics, operating solely on its mandate to maintain price stability.” Retain Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that discretionary monetary policy undermines sacrifices long term interests for short term interests. Hence option 4 is contrary to the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option [3]. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: An independent central bank operating on its own mandate can solve the ill- effects of such policies.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 6) It can be inferred from the passage that the “liberal technocracy” is a reference to: central banks in the European Union whose regulations bordered on the undemocratic. independent central banks that were instrumental in bringing inflation down in the 1980s and 1990s. the Euroskeptical political parties that relax the constraints on economic policy and return policy making to elected governments. banks and other financial institutions that have been successful in instituting rules that give them a free rein. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. When the last paragraph says “such liberal technocracy may be at its apogee in the European Union”, the reference is not directly to such banks, though they are the examples. Hence option 1 does not fully answer the question. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The end of the penultimate paragraph refers to the ‘independent central banks which brought down the inflation in the 1980s and 1990s before referring to “such liberal technocracy”. The technocracy thus includes the independent central banks. However, the passage expands the scope of this technocracy prior to that. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The technocracy does not refer to political parties of any kind, but to financial institutions and banks. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The penultimate paragraph states “Banks and other financial institutions have been especially successful at getting their way and instituting rules that give them free rein.” Then he refers ‘to the banks of 1980s and 1990s and ‘such liberal technocracy’. Thus the reference is clearly to the independent financial institutions and banks who have managed to remain autonomous. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: banks and other financial institutions that have been successful in instituting rules that give them a free rein.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. Norway is currently the world’s demonstration project for green transport solutions. It has the highest EV penetration rate in the world. Nearly 40% of new cars sold are EVs. Infrastructure, technologies and solutions are being developed, tested and assessed in Norway. Valuable lessons have been learnt from looking at customer behavior. For example, the fear of running out of battery power, or range anxiety, has been highlighted as a barrier to EV uptake. While many drivers experience range anxiety at first, this fear quickly subsides. In fact, only 4% of Norwegian EV drivers report having run out of battery power. Businesses and governments from all over the world are looking to Norway to gain insights into how the beginnings of a mass market for EVs functions in practice. With the highest Electric Vehicle penetration, Norway is the mass-market demonstration project in the world in terms of Infrastructure, technologies and customer behavior. Businesses and governments all over the world consider Norway as the mass market demonstration project for electric vehicles in terms of penetration, Infrastructure, and customer behavior. With the highest Electric Vehicle sales, Norway provides insights to governments and businesses into the beginnings of a market for Electric Vehicles in terms of Infrastructure, technologies and customer behavior. With the highest Electric Vehicle penetration and high sales of electric cars, with infrastructure, technologies and solutions being developed and tested, Norway is the demonstration project for green transport solutions in the world. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The main points in the paragraph are: 1. Norway is the mass market demonstration project for green transportation for the world. 2. It has the highest EV penetration in the world. 3. Infrastructure, technologies and solutions are being developed, tested and assessed. 4. Customer behavior is being studied. 5. For Governments and businesses, Norway is the initial prototype of a mass market. Option 1 is incorrect. It misses several points. The most important being about governments and businesses. It also has no reference to the green transport solutions being developed and tested, which is the very reason why Norway is the demonstration project. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect – it misses on the technologies and the testing parts. It makes the assumption that electric vehicles and green transport revolutions are the same, thus missing the larger picture. The option also misses the government and businesses part. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The ‘highest Electric Vehicle sales…’ is a misrepresentation – the paragraph mentions only new cars sold. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. By capturing most of the points in the paragraph succinctly and without distortion, option 4 is the best précis of the paragraph. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: With the highest Electric Vehicle penetration and high sales of electric cars, with infrastructure, technologies and solutions being developed and tested, Norway is the demonstration project for green transport solutions in the world. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. The economic emancipation of women had to wait till after World War II, when permanent male labor shortages – the result, incidentally, of Keynesian full-employment policies – pulled ever more women out of domesticity and into factories and shops. This wave of emancipation concentrated on economic inequalities, especially discrimination in job selection and disparities in pay and property rights. These battles have also mainly been won. Discrimination in inheritance is long gone, and equal pay for equal work is accepted in theory, though a gender bias persists, as it does for selection to senior posts. Male labor shortages after World War II helped bring economic equality of women in job selection, pay and property rights; however, gender bias persists in their selection to senior posts. The permanent male labor shortages and Keynesian policies helped the emancipation of women during World War II. Though the battle of gender equality has been mainly won, bias persists in their section to senior posts. The emancipation of women in terms of economic inequalities, discrimination in job selection and disparities in pay and property rights happened after World War II as a result of Keynesian full employment policies and male labor shortages. As result of Keynesian full-employment policies the economic emancipation of women which began after World War II has been mainly won in job selection and pay and property rights. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question The main points in the passage are: • After WW II Keynesian policies led to male labor shortages and helped bring women into the labor force. • In this phase of emancipation, women could achieve equality in job selection, pay, and property rights. • Gender bias still persists e.g. in their selection to senior posts. Option 1 is correct. It captures the essence of the paragraph without any distortion. The point about Keynesian full employment policies is missing in this option. However, options 2, 3 and 4 incorrectly and directly attribute women’s economic emancipation to Keynesian full employment policies, whereas the paragraph says that Keynesian policies only created male labor shortages, which in turn led to women coming out of domesticity. Retain Option 1 Option 2 is incorrect. Apart from misrepresentation of shortages of male labor and Keynesian polices as two independent causes, option 2 misses the most important aspect of emancipation – the economic emphasis. Women’s emancipation and women’s economic emancipation are two different in implication. Option 2 mentions women’s emancipation in broad terms and not the specific economic emancipation of women. Also, “during WW II” is not precise summary of the paragraph. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Apart from stating the broader “emancipation of women” instead of “economic emancipation”, option 3 leaves out the important point about the prevailing gender bias in promotions to senior posts. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses two important points in the paragraph – that of male labor shortages and gender bias in selection to senior posts. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Male labor shortages after World War II helped bring economic equality of women in job selection, pay and property rights; however,

gender bias persists in their selection to senior posts. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. Multipolarity is back, and with it strategic rivalry among the great powers. The re-emergence of China and the return of Russia to the forefront of global politics are two of the most salient international dynamics of the century thus far. In recent years, the tension between the United States and these two countries increased markedly. As the US domestic political environment has deteriorated, so, too, have America’s relations with those that are perceived as its principal adversaries. Multipolarity is back among the powers in global politics with the reemergence of China, Russia and the increasing tensions with the US owing to a worsening of its relations with adversaries. The reemergence of China and Russia as global powers, the deterioration of the US domestic politics and the increasing tensions with its adversaries have created a multipolar world. The return of China and Russia to the forefront of global politics and the increasing tensions with the US exacerbated by its deteriorating domestic politics have created a multipolar world. The salient dynamics of this century are the reemergence of China and Russia and the increasing tensions with the US in the face of its deteriorating domestic political environment. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The main points in the passage, to be captured in a précis are as follows: • China and Russia have reemerged as global powers in this century • America’s relations have deteriorated with its adversaries owing to its deteriorating domestic political environment. • Multipolarity is back, and with it strategic rivalry among the great powers. This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. “Multipolarity is back among the powers in global politics…” is incorrect. Multipolarity is back in international politics and not among the powers. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The causes for the world becoming multipolar are the reemergence of China and Russia in global politics, and their increasing tensions with the US. The deteriorating domestic political situation in the US is also leading to deteriorating relations with its adversaries. However, Option 2 appears to communicate that the US domestic situation is also a direct cause of a multipolar world. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The main points in the passage are captured accurately by option 3. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses the main point of the passage which is the emergence of a multipolar world. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The return of China and Russia to the forefront of global politics and the increasing tensions with the US exacerbated by its deteriorating domestic politics have created a multipolar world. Time taken by you: 754 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Enter your answer in the space provided below.

1. Earth’s oxygen content has varied as life has evolved, because oxygen produced by land plants during photosynthesis is the primary source of oxygen in the atmosphere. 2. Earth’s atmospheric oxygen content is intimately tied to the recycling of Earth’s rocky crust as well. 3. Oxygen levels were restored to some sort of equilibrium only by the subsequent decay of the organic materials, a process that consumes oxygen. 4. In other words, as plant life evolved and became more abundant leading up to the Carboniferous, 300 million years ago, it added increasing amounts of oxygen to the atmosphere.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence [1] introduces the topic of the variation in Earth’s oxygen content due to plants; [4] talks about the increase in oxygen due to the same reason; [3] is about the restoration of the oxygen level. So these three sentences form a coherent sequence. On the other hand, [2], which introduces a new point about oxygen content being related to the recycling of Earth’s rocky crust, does not fit into the sequence. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

1. From the early 12 th century onwards, the legend of King Arthur bloomed into myriad tales in numerous different languages, and by 1300 or thereabouts all the well-known characters, places and objects associated with him had made their appearance: Lancelot, Guinevere, Galahad, Gawain, Merlin, Excalibur, the Lady in the Lake, the Sword in the Stone, and Camelot, Arthur’s capital. 2. On one side were the Arthurian hard-liners who claimed that the evidence for Arthur was poor, and thus consigned him wholly to the sphere of legend (by now separable from history), and on the other were the believers in ‘no smoke without fire’, happy to accept that the Arthur attested in certain first-millennium sources had a real existence, giving rise to these tales. 3. Over time, attitudes towards the claim that there was a figure of the name Arthur, alive around 500 AD, divided into two camps.

4. After the blossoming of Arthurian romance in the Victorian period, the historical and legendary Arthurs began to separate from each other, unsurprisingly, when the discipline of history established itself as a scientific exercise with its own academic practices, distinct from philosophy or literature.

Section Video Explanation:

1. Here, too, existing regulatory principles, and the agencies that apply and enforce them, should be given an opportunity to prove themselves. 2. As in all previous years, human error of various kinds was responsible for most of these deaths. 3. There were 40,000 road fatalities in 2016 in the US from self-driving cars, and more than one million worldwide, according to the latest WHO data from self-driving cars. 4. Reducing road fatalities is an important goal, and the growing engagement of tech companies should be welcomed, in the interest of improving road safety.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The 40,000 road fatalities mentioned in sentence 3 is referred to as ‘most of these deaths’ in sentence 2, making sentence 3 and 2 in that order a mandatory pair. The topic can be identified as fatalities arising from self-driving cars and rather than tech, human errors being the cause. Sentence 4 which talks about the larger goal of reducing road fatalities directly related to this theme and sentence 1 has no link to any other sentence. Hence the answer is 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

1. Wild wheat uses the wind to propagate: when its pods become full and heavy, their brittle casings burst, spreading the seed far and wide upon the breeze. 2. Realizing that a wheat that kept its seeds was a useful plant, humans seized upon it, 3. A type of wheat that cannot spread its seeds on its own is an aberration, a variation that would have come about by accident. 4. To select its desirable characteristics,they eliminated the competition by stripping away weeds and wild wheat plants, leaving only the tougher stuff that required harvesting. 5. However, Einkorn wheat – a strain of wild wheat from 8500 BCE – is tougher: its pods yield their seed only when deliberately broken with a tool.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Comparison of five sentences rules out sentences 5 (‘tougher’ – than what?) 4 ( To selects its … they – the pronouns need to have

Comparison of five sentences rules out sentences 5 (‘tougher’ – than what?) 4 ( To selects its … they – the pronouns need to have antecedents) and 2 (starts with ‘but’ ) for the starter. Between sentence 3 and 1, we see that sentence 1 introduces the paragraph, which can then be followed by 5. So 1-5 is a mandatory pair and the beginning of the paragraph. Sentence 3 comes next because it is an elaboration of the Einkorn wheat mentioned in sentence 5. (1-5-3) Placing 2-4 after 1-5-3 is easy because ‘they’ in sentence 4 refers to ‘humans’ in 2 and ‘a wheat that kept its seeds’ in 3 is continued in 2 as “a type that cannot spread its seeds on its own” . Hence the correct sequence is 15324. Correct Answer: 15324 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 18 %

1. But let’s take it seriously for a moment. 2. Today, the book is such a symbol of learning and knowledge that we laugh at this argument. 3. Nonetheless, Socrates’s point is valid: a technology that gives no opportunity for discussion, explanation or debate is a poor technology. 4. Over two thousand years ago, Socrates argued that the book would destroy people’s ability to reason, because, as he claimed, one cannot debate with a book: the written word cannot answer back. 5. Despite Socrates’s claims, writing does instruct because we can debate its content with each other rather than with the author.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Only sentence 4 can start the paragraph – all the other sentences have abrupt beginnings or reference to something else for them to make sense. Since 4 is about Socrates said two thousand years ago, sentence 2 beginning with ‘today’ immediately after. 4-2 is a mandatory pair. Of the remaining three sentences only sentence 1 can be placed after sentence 2making the sequence 421. Placing sentences 5 and 3 in that order is easy because ‘nonetheless Socrates’s point is valid’ ’ in 3 can be placed only after the point is contradicted as “writing does instruct…’ which is in sentence 5. Hence the correct sequence is 42153. Correct Answer: 42153 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

1. When they melted, these earthen kettles filled with fossil water, leaving countless mirrors that sequin the tundra. 2. Canada, situated north of the 60th parallel, contains more lakes than the rest of the world combined. 3. Now, as the permafrost thaws around these kettles, glacial water held in place by frozen soil for thousands of years is seeping away. 4. Here, ice ages gouged cavities into which icebergs dropped when the glaciers retreated. 5. Nearly half of Canada’s Northwest Territories isn’t land at all, but water.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The starter sentence stands out form the others. Sentence 2 introduces the geographical aspect about Canada and the abundance of lakes. Sentence 5 is an elaboration of sentence 2. Hence 2-5 is a mandatory pair. More than the connection between sentences 5 and 4, sentences 1 and 3 cannot be placed after 2-5. So sentence 4 has to be placed after 5 and we get 2-5-4. Now, it is easier to place sentences 1 and 3 in that order because ‘they’ in 1 refers to ‘icebergs’ and ‘glaciers’ of sentence 4. Also, ‘these kettles’ in 3 is a reference to ‘earthen kettles’ in 1. So the correct answer is 25413. Correct Answer: 25413 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 %

1. To understand where these differences come from, we can start with an evolutionary story about sugary fruits and fatty animals, which were good food for our common ancestors. 2. It takes a lot of additional work to connect the universal taste receptors to the specific things that a particular person eats and drinks. 3. All humans have the same five taste receptors, but they don’t like the same foods.

4. Just knowing that everyone has sweetness receptors can’t tell you why one person prefers Thai food to Mexican, or why hardly anyone stirs sugar into beer. 5. However, we will also have to examine the history of each culture, and we’ll have to look at the childhood eating habits of each individual too.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentences 1, 2, and 5 can be quickly ruled out for the starter. Between sentences 3 and 4, sentence 3 introduces the theme that is continued in 4. Hence sentence 3 begins the paragraph. Sentence 1 follows sentence 3 logically with ‘these differences’ referring to ‘but they don’t like the same foods’. 3-1 pair is then logically followed by sentence 5 as ‘we will also have to examine…’ is a continuation from “we can start with an evolutionary story…’ 3-1-5 sequence is then followed by sentence 4 and 2 in that order as “just knowing … can’t tell you why…’ continues logically to ‘it takes a lot of additional work…’ Hence the correct answer is 31542. Correct Answer: 31542 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 4 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Samsung has branch offices in six cities in India – Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Chennai & Bangalore. 1400 employees work in all of the six offices in total. The number of employees in each of the six offices is a multiple of 100. The table given below provides information about the number of employees, average weight (in kg), average years of experience in Samsung, average years of overall experience, and average height (in cm).

1) What is the number of employees in the Mumbai office? 100 200 300 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Number of employees in the Mumbai office is 200. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 200

Time taken by you: 751 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 359 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2) What is the average weight of the employees in the Hyderabad office? 70 kg 75 kg 60 kg Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Average weight of employees is 60 kg. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 60 kg

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 3)In all, 100 employees having an average experience of 5 years in Samsung left the Chennai office. As a result, the average experience (in Samsung) of employees in the Chennai office was reduced to 3 years. What was the initial average experience (in Samsung) of employees in the Chennai office?

Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 4) What is the approximate average weight of the employees in these six Samsung offices? 71 kg 70 kg 69 kg Cannot be determined

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 69 kg

Time taken by you: 78 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs

Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

National Institute of Management Lucknow (NIM-L) conducts its entrance test called National Admission Test (NAT) for admission to its flagship two-year MBA course. The QA section of NAT-2018 had 34 questions, all of which were multiple choice format questions. The following was the marking scheme for NAT-2018: 1. Each correct answer fetched 12 marks. There was negative marking for incorrect answers. For each incorrect answer, four marks were deducted from the score of a student. 2. Additionally, there was a progressive penalty for skipped questions, as specified in the table below:

For example, a student who skipped 6 questions lost 0 × 4 + 1 × (6 – 4) = 2 marks on account of these 6 skipped questions. Similarly, a student who skipped 18 questions lost 0 × 4 + 1 × 4 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 4 + 4 × 2 = 32 marks on account of these 18 skipped questions. 3. The exam is computerized and the questions are presented to students one at a time. Once a student sees the question, he/she has only two options before seeing the next question: either attempt the question or skip the question. After a student attempts/skips a question, the next question is presented and he/she is not able to revisit the questions that are already attempted/skipped. 4. All the questions that a student is unable to answer in the stipulated time of one hour are considered to be ‘skipped’ by the student. For example, if a student is able to answer only 30 questions in the section at the end of one hour, the remaining 4 questions in the section are considered to be skipped by the student. 5. Cumulative score of a student at the end of each question (considering the penalty on account of incorrect and skipped questions) is calculated. For example, if a student gets one answer correct, one answer incorrect and skips one question out of the first three, his/her cumulative score at the end of the 3rd question will be 12 – 4 – 0 = 8.

Similarly, the total score of a student at the end of the stipulated time is calculated after deducting the marks on account of penalty for the questions that were not visited by the student (and hence were considered to be skipped). 1) Which of the following cannot be a valid cumulative score that a student could have obtained at the end of 10 questions in that section? 43 34 27 30 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Each correct answer fetches 12 marks while each incorrect answer deducts 4 marks from the score. Therefore the score of a student on account of attempted (either correct or incorrect) questions is a multiple of 4. If a student attempts 6 or more questions, there will be no penalty for skipped questions. Therefore the score of the student in that case will be a multiple of 4. None of the options for the question is a multiple of 4. Therefore the student attempted fewer than 6 questions. If a student attempts 5 questions and skips 5 questions, he/she will lose one mark on account of skipped questions (0 × 4 + 1 × (5 – 4) = 1. Therefore the score of the student can be of the form 4n – 1. Two options, 43 and 27 are of the form 4n – 1. A student can score 43 if he/she gets 4 answers correct, 1 incorrect and skips 5. Similarly a student can get 27 if he/she gets 3 answers correct, 2 incorrect and skips 5. If a student attempts 4 questions and skips 6 questions, he/she will lose two marks on account of skipped questions (0 × 4 + 1 × (6 – 4) = 2. Therefore the score of the student will be of the form 4n – 2. Both the remaining options are of the form 4n – 2. A student can score 30 marks if he/she gets 3 answers correct, 1 incorrect and skips 6. If a student attempts 3 questions, the number of questions skipped would be 7. In that case, he/she will lose 3 marks on account of skipped questions 0 × 4 + 1 × (7 – 4) = 3. In that case, the maximum score a student can score can be 12 × 3 – 3 = 33. If a student attempted fewer than 3 questions, the maximum score will be even lower. Therefore it is not possible to score 34. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 34

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 215 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 2) Which of the following can be a valid score that a student could have obtained in the section if it is known that he/she attempted 28 questions in the section? 62 74 86 98 Video Explanation: Explanation: If a student attempted 28 questions, the number of questions skipped = 6 and the number of marks lost on account of skipped questions = (0 × 4) + 1 × (6 – 4) = 2 If out of 28 questions attempted, a student gets (x) correct and (28 – x) incorrect, the score of the student will be 12 × x – 4(28 – x) – 2 = 16x – 112 – 2 = 16 × (x – 7) – 2. Therefore the score of the student will be of the form 16n – 2. Out of the given options, only 62 is of the form 16n – 2. If a student gets 11 answers correct, 17 incorrect and skips 6, the score will be 11 × 12 – 17 × 4 – 2 = 62. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 62

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 3) It is known that a student scored exactly 100 marks in the section. What can be the maximum number of questions that the student could have attempted (either correctly or incorrectly) in the section?

(Write 35 if it is not possible to score 100 marks in the section) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The score of the student is 100, a multiple of 4. If a student doesn’t lose any mark on account of skipped questions, his/her score will be a multiple of 4, as seen in the explanatory answers to previous questions. Let’s first check if a score of 100 can be obtained in the section if up-to 4 questions are skipped (or 30/31/32/33/34 questions are attempted). If x is the number of correct answers and y is the number of incorrect answers, we have 12x – 4y = 100 and x + y = 30 or 31 or 32 or 33 or 34. A valid solution is the one that gives values of x and y that are natural numbers. We have, x = 14 and y = 17 are the natural number values of x and y that satisfy the equations. Therefore, the maximum number of questions that a student can attempt and get a score of 100 is 31. Therefore, the required answer is 31.

Correct Answer: 31

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 657 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 25 % 4) It is known that a student scored exactly 100 marks in the section. What can be the minimum number of questions that a student could have attempted (either correctly or incorrectly) in the section? (Write 35 if it is not possible to score 100 marks in the section) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: As seen in the explanatory answers to the previous questions, the marks obtained by a student due to attempted questions is a multiple of 4. Since the score of the student is 100 (a multiple of 4), the marks lost by the student from skipped questions is also a multiple of 4. The marks that are multiples of 4 that a student can lose on account of skipped questions can be 4/8/12/24/28/32/36…. Accordingly, we get the following table.

It can be seen that a student can score 100 marks if he/she gets 13 answers correct, 13 answers incorrect and skips 8 questions. However, it is not possible to get the marks equal to the marks shown in the fourth row of the table by attempting the number of questions equal to the number in the second row of the table for other cases. Therefore, the required answer is 26.

Correct Answer: 26

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 6 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 4 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr. Trump has a number of boxes with him. These boxes are painted with exactly one of the following four colours: Red, Green, Blue or Black. Each box has a number of chocolates named ‘Seven Star’ in it. The number of ‘Seven Stars’ in the boxes can be one of the following five numbers: 6, 10, 12, 15 or 20. No two boxes coloured with the same colour have equal number of ‘Seven Stars’. The following bar graph shows the number of boxes painted with different colours.

The following column graph shows the distribution of the number of boxes containing different number of ‘Seven Stars’.

1) If it is known that the green boxes contain the maximum possible number of ‘Seven Stars’, what is the total number of ‘Seven Stars’ in all the green boxes taken together? (Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose we denote the number of boxes with 6 Seven Stars as B6, the number of boxes with 10 Seven Stars as B10 and so on. Since there are 12 boxes with at least 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the total number of boxes = 12. There are 5 boxes with at most 10 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 = 5. There are 7 boxes with at least 12 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B12 + B15 + B20 = 7. There are 11 boxes with at most 15 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 + B12 + B15 = 11. Using these four statements, we can get B20 = 1 and B12 + B15 = 6. There are five red boxes, each with different number of ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, the five boxes have 6, 10, 12, 15 and 20 ‘Seven Stars’ respectively. Therefore we have,

Now all the questions can be answered. If Green boxes contain maximum possible number of ‘Seven Stars’, the three green boxes have 10, 12 and 15 Seven Stars. Therefore we have,

Therefore, the number of ‘Seven Stars’ in the green boxes = 10 + 12 + 15 = 37. Therefore, the required answer is 37.

Correct Answer: 37

Time taken by you: 431 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 25 % 2) If it is known that there are maximum possible boxes with 15 ‘Seven Stars’, what is the number of boxes with 12 ‘Seven Stars’? (Use information from the previous questions. Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. We know that B12 + B15 = 6. We have already figured out that one Red box and one Green box have 12 ‘Seven Stars’. That means the minimum value of B12 = 2. Therefore, the maximum value of B15 = 4. Therefore, we have the following:

Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) If it is known that there are minimum possible boxes with 6 ‘Seven Stars’, what is the total number of ‘Seven Stars’ in all the black boxes taken together? (Use information from the previous questions. Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. We know that B6 + B10 = 5. We have already figured out that one red box has 6 ‘Seven Stars’. If there are minimum possible boxes with 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the value of B6 = 1 and B10 = 4. Therefore, we have the following

Therefore, the number of ‘Seven Stars’ in the boxes having Black colour = 10 + 15 = 25. Therefore, the required answer is 25. Correct Answer: 25

Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 23 % 4) What is the total number of ‘Seven Stars’ with Mr. Trump? (Use information from the previous questions. Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. The total number of ‘Seven Stars’ = 6 × 1 + 10 × 4 + 12 × 2 + 15 × 4 + 20 × 1 = 150. Therefore, the required answer is 150.

Correct Answer: 150

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 22 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Ramesh has an apple orchard in the state of Himachal Pradesh. On a particular day, his associate Suresh plucked 103 distinct apples (each apple of a distinct size). He distributed these 103 apples in four distinct boxes – P, Q, R and S at 10:00 AM.

Later at multiple times during the day (12:00 noon, 2:00 PM, 4:00 PM and 8:00 PM), Ramesh tested some of the apples that were present in some or all of the four boxes at those times. He performed one of the following three operations – I, II and III on the apples he tested:

Operation I: If Ramesh liked any apple in a box, he plucked a new apple of the same size and placed in one of the other three boxes. Operation II: If Ramesh did not like the box in which a particular apple was placed, he removed the apple from that box and placed it in another box. Operation III: If Ramesh did not like any apple, he discarded the apple from the box.

The following table provides information about the number of apples in each of the boxes – P, Q, R and S at different times during the entire day. Ramesh was very lazy and hence performed minimum possible number of operations. An operation is said to have been performed, when any of I, II or III is performed.

1) Find the total number of operations performed by Ramesh between 10:00 AM and 8:00 PM. 63 67 64 62 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 noon to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5

4:00 PM to 8:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23

Number of operations performed by Ramesh = 18 + 17 + 5 + 23 = 63. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 63

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 2) How many times did Ramesh perform operation III between 10:00 AM and 8:00 PM? 6 5 4 3 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 noon to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23

Now all the questions can be answered. Four times between 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 300 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) At least how many times was operation II performed to remove an apple from box S and place it in box R between 10:00 AM and 8:00 PM? 1 2 3 More than 3 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 noon to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5

4:00 PM to 8:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23 Now all the questions can be answered. From 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon: 8 – (25 – 23) – (31 – 27) = 2 From 12:00 noon to 2:00 PM: 5 – (29 – 25) = 1 From 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM: 0 From 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM: 0 Therefore, the required answer = 2 + 1 = 3. Hence [3]

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 4) How many times did Ramesh perform operation II between 10:00 AM to 8:00 PM? 25 24 23 22 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 PM Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 PM to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5 4:00 PM to 6:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23 Now all the questions can be answered.

8 + 5 + 1 + 10 = 24 times. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 24

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are the eight professors teaching in different departments of a University. They are seated across a rectangular table on chairs, such that each longer side of the table has four chairs each. One professor belongs to the Department of Accountancy. The following points are known: 1. The professor of Sociology is seated opposite to the professor of Law. 2. A is seated opposite to the professor of Political Science. 3. The professor of History is seated second to the left of the professor of Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Economics sits opposite to D. 4. Exactly one professor is seated between the professors of Law and Humanities on the same side of the table. 5. The professor of Taxation is seated third to the right of H on the same side of the table. H is seated opposite to the professor of Humanities. 1) If G is seated second to the right of C, which of the following departments can G belong to? Law Economics History Political Science Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If G is seated second to the right of C, we get the following:

Thus G can belong to either Economics or Humanitiesdepartment. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Economics

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 401 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) If B is the only professor who is seated between F and the professor of Accountancy, which department does B belong to? Sociology Taxation Law Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If B is the only professor seated between F and the professor of Accountancy, only possibility 1 is valid. We get the following:

Therefore B belongs toDepartment of Sociology. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Sociology

Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 3) Additional information: H and the professor of History swap their seats. Which of the following statements cannot be correct? Professors of Accountancy and Law are seated next to each other. Professors of History and Accountancy are seated next to each other. Professors of Political Science and Economics are seated next to each other. Professors of History and Accountancy are seated farthest apart from each other. Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If H and the professor of History swap their seats, we get the following:

It can be seen that the professors of Political Science and Economics cannot beseated next to each other. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Professors of Political Science and Economics are seated next to each other.

Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 4) Additional information: H and the professor of History swap their seats. Which of the following statements can be correct? The professor of Accountancy is seated between the professors of History and Sociology on the same side of the table. The professor of Sociology is seated between the professors of Taxation and History on the same side of the table. The professor of Law is seated between the professors of Humanities and Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Accountancy is seated between the professors of Taxation and Economics on the same side of the table. Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If H and the professor of History swap their seats, we get the following:

It can be seen that only statement [1] can be correct. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: The professor of Accountancy is seated between the professors of History and Sociology on the same side of the table.

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. RVP is a very popular multiplex in the garden city of Bangalore. It has five screens – Screen N, Screen C, Screen W, Screen B and Screen E. Five different movies – TKR, SP, TGST, PC and EQ – were screened over five consecutive days on these screens. Each movie was shown on a different screen every day. Similarly, each screen showed a different movie every day. The following points are known:

i. In all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. ii. TKR was the third movie to be screened on screen B, and it was screened after PC. iii. PC was screened on two other screens prior to W, and was screened on N immediately after it was screened on W. 1)Which movie was screened on the first day at screen C? TGST EQ PC Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screened on the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on this screen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [2] Correct Answer: EQ Time taken by you: 902 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 162 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 42 % 2)On which screen was SP screened on the fourth day? B N C

Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screened on the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on thisscreen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [1] Correct Answer: B Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) Which of the following is the correct order of screens (from first day to fifth day) on which TGST was screened? B, N, C, W, E W, E, N, C, B E, B, C, W, N Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screenedon the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on thisscreen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [3]

Correct Answer: E, B, C, W, N

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 % 4)On which screen was EQ screened immediately on the next day after it was screened on screen N? B E C Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screened on the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on thisscreen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [2] Correct Answer: E Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a game named ‘Pelton wheel’, natural numbers 1 to 12 are arranged along the circumference of a circle in a way similar to the dial of a clock. In the game, the pointer is placed initially on any of the 12 numbers. In one move, a player can move the pointer by one place in the clockwise direction or in the counter-clockwise direction or move it to the diametrically opposite number on the wheel. Following are the rules of the game: 1. One round consists of three consecutive moves. The pointer has to be at different number every time in a given round. 2. Initially, a player starts with zero points. In each move of each round, a player gets certain number of points according to the rules (given below). It is possible to score negative points in a move. 3. The second and each subsequent round begins from the same number and with the same points where the previous round has ended. 4. If the pointer is moved in a clockwise direction in a move to number ‘N’, the player gets ‘N’ points in that move. 5. If the pointer is moved in a counter-clockwise direction in a move to number ‘N’, the player gets ‘N – 1’ points in that move. 6. If the pointer is moved to a diametrically opposite number ‘N’, the player gets ‘N – 2’ points in that move. 7. A player must have exactly one move in each round, wherein the pointer is moved to a diametrically opposite number. 1) What is the maximum possible score at the end of the first round if a player can select the number where he/she wants to place the pointer at the beginning of the round? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

It can be seen that the maximum score that can be obtained in the first round is 31. Therefore, the required answer is 31.

Correct Answer: 31

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 18 % 2) On which of the following positions should the pointer be placed at the beginning of the first round such that a player scores a maximum of 29 points in that round? 3 6 10 It is not possible to obtain a score of 29 in the first round Video Explanation: Explanation: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

As seen in the table developed for the answer to the first question in the set, a player should place the pointer at 6 so as to obtain a score of 29 in the first round. Hence [2]

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 3) Additional information: Suppose a player plays the game for two rounds and can decide the placement of the pointer (say at number X) at the beginning of the first round. Further: N 1 = The maximum possible score in the first round corresponding to pointer position X. N 2 = The score in the second round. What is the maximum possible value of N 1 + N 2 ? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

We can generate the following table:

Therefore, the maximum possible value of N1 + N2 is 56. Therefore, the required answer is 56.

Correct Answer: 56

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 8 % 4) Additional information: Suppose a player plays the game for two rounds and can decide the placement of the pointer (say at number X) at the beginning of the first round. Further: N 1 = The maximum possible score in the first round corresponding to pointer position X. N 2 = The score in the second round. Which of the following positions can be chosen for placing the pointer at the beginning of the first round if a player wants to maximize

the value of N1 + N 2 ? 3 4 6 8 Video Explanation: Explanation: The important point to note the following point maximization strategies: a. If a player begins a round from any number between 1 and 4 (both included), the points will be maximized by moving the pointer to a diametrically opposite number in the first move of the round and then move it in clockwise direction in the following two moves. b. If a player begins a round from 5, the points will be maximized by moving the pointer in the following order: 5 to 6 to 12 to 11 c. If a player begins a round from 6, the points will be maximized by moving the pointer in the following order: 6 to 12 to 11 to 10. Accordingly we can develop the following table of the moves in a round: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

We can generate the following table:

The maximum possible score in the first two rounds can be 56. This score can be obtained if the pointer is placed at 6 or 10 at the beginning of the first round. Hence [3].

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Five cricketers – Ambrose, Botham, Chris, David and Elgar – are standing in a queue, in that order, from first to last. These five cricketers are the top five rankers not necessarily in that order, in each of three ICC competitions – A, B and C. No cricketer got the same rank in any two competitions and no two cricketers got the same rank in any competition. Further, for any cricketer, none of his ranks is the same as his position in the queue Further, it is known that: i. Ambrose got the second rank in the competition A. ii. Botham got the third rank in competition B. iii. Elgar got the first rank in competition C. iv. The sum of ranks obtained by David is 9. v. The sum of the ranks obtained by Botham is not more than that obtained by Chris. 1)

The sum of ranks obtained by Elgar is 6 7 8 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that in any competition, Ambrose did not get the first rank, Botham did not get the second rank, Chris did not get the third rank, David did not get the fourth rank and Elgar did not get the fifth rank. Therefore, David’s rank must be 1, 3 and 5 As X is less than or equal to Y, if Botham’s ranks are 3, 4, 5 then Chris’s ranks must be 3, 4, 5, which is not possible as Chris cannot get the third rank. Therefore, Botham’s ranks cannot be 3, 4 and 5. This implies that Botham got the first rank in one of the subjects. As it cannot be competitions B or C, Botham got the first rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the first rank in competition B. This implies that Chris’s ranks are 2, 4 and 5 and he got the second rank in competition C, since Ambrose, Botham, David and Elgar cannot get the second rank in competition C. Now, Chris or Elgar secured the fourth rank in competition A.Let us assume that Chris got the fourth rank in competition A, this means he got fifth rank in competition B. Therefore, Elgar got the third rank and David got the fifth rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the third rank in competition C. This implies that Elgar for the second rank in competition B and Ambrose got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, in competition C, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Let us assume that Elgar got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, Chris got the fifth rank in competition A and the fourth rank in competition B. This implies that David got the third rank in competition A and the fifth rank in competition C. Therefore, in competition B, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Elgar got the second rank. This implies in competition C, Ambrose got the third rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 566 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 2) The rank of Elgar in competition B is 4 3 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 % 3) What is the absolute value of the difference between the ranks of David and Elgar in Competition B? 3 2 1 Cannot be determined

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 % 4) If the sum of ranks obtained by two cricketers is the same, then which of the following statements is definitely true? Ambrose got the fifth rank in competition C. David got the fifth rank in competition A. Both of the above None of the above Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both of the above

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs

% Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined Classic Antiques employs male and female workers to create designer pots for their stores. 5 males and 3 females can create as many pots in 4 days as 3 males and 3 females in 5 days. If one man and one woman work together and complete an assignment of creating 400 pots in 50 days, then how many pots can be created by 6 males and 2 females in 7 days? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 196 Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined While working alone, A can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B in 15 days and C in 20 days. Initially, all the three started working together but C left midway. The remaining work was completed by A and B together. If the entire work was completed in 6 days, then after how many days did C leave? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined What is the minimum value of the function f(x) = (x – 3) 2 + (5 – x)2 ? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: f(x) = (x – 3)2 + (5 – x)2 = x2 – 6x + 9 + 25 – 10x + x2 = 2x2 – 16x + 34 = 2(x2 – 8x + 17) = 2(x2 – 8x + 16 + 1) = 2[(x – 4)2 + 1] The minimum value of this function will be at x = 4 and the minimum value = 2 × 1 = 2. Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined The lengths of the medians of an isosceles triangle are 6, 4.5 and 4.5. Find the area of the triangle (in sq. units).

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The compound interest (compounded annually) at a certain rate on a certain principal for 2 years is same as the simple interest at the same rate for 4 years on the same principal. Find the rate of interest per annum. 100% 125% 150% 200%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 200% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 %

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1:2

1:4

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1:2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Anjum and Divyansh live in cities Deepapur and Armapur respectively. Deepapur is on a higher elevation than Armapur. Due to this, whenever someone drives from Deepapur towards Armapur, their driving speed becomes 10% more than their speed on plain ground. Also, whenever someone drives from Armapur towards Deepapur, their driving speed becomes 10% less than their speed on plain ground. Anjum and Divyansh simultaneously start driving from their respective cities towards the other city. When they reach the other city, they immediately turn back and return to their own cities. When they reach their own cities, they immediately turn back towards the other city and meet exactly at the midpoint between the two cities. What is the ratio of the speeds of Anjum and Divyansh on plain ground? 9 : 11 29 : 31 39 : 41 49 : 51

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 49 : 51 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 %

undefined Class 10 of a school has 2 sections, namely section A and section B. Each section has students in either Red house or Blue house. The number of students in Red and Blue houses of sections A and B are in the ratio 4 : 1 and 9 : 1 respectively. If 3 students from section A’s red house are transferred to section B’s blue house and 3 students from section B’s red house are transferred to section A’s blue house, then the ratio of the number of students in Red and Blue houses of both the sections A and B becomes 3 : 2. What is the total number of students in class 10?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined There are 15 baskets of apples and some baskets of oranges. Each basket has only one kind of fruit. All the children of Shishuvan School came and took some apples and oranges from the respective baskets. The number of students taking apples from each basket is 6 and the number of students taking oranges from each basket is 8. Also, each child took apples from exactly 5 baskets and oranges from exactly 4 baskets. How many baskets of orange were there? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Number of times apples were picked = 15 × 6 = 90 Each child took apples from exactly 5 baskets. Therefore, the total number of children = 90 ÷ 5 = 18 Let the number of baskets of orange be ‘n’.

Therefore, the number of times oranges were picked = n × 8 Each child took oranges from exactly 4 baskets. Therefore, n × 8 = 18 × 4. Therefore, n = 9 Therefore, the required answer is 9. Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 %

undefined Gajodhar sells milk after adulterating X litres of pure milk with 0.5 litres of tap water. If he sold milk after adulterating X litres of pure milk with 0.5 litres of mineral water instead, his profit would reduce by 20%. What is the cost of pure milk per litre? (The cost of mineral water is Rs. 12 per litre and tap water comes for free. Gajodhar always sells at cost price.) Rs. 30 Rs. 60 Rs. 45 More information is needed to answer the question

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 60 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

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By what minimum distance should the point (1, 3) be shifted so that it is collinear with the points (–7, –1) and (–3, 3)? 2 units

3 units

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 98 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined

1 –1 m+n mn

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined In how many points do the line y = 2 and the curve y = |x 2 – 6x + 6| meet? 2 3 4 5

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined Five politicians – A, B, C, D & E – contested the elections. The number of votes earned by A, C and E are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The number of votes earned by B, C and D are in the ratio 1 : 5 : 2. If 10% of the total votes were to candidates other than these five, then

what percentage of the total votes was won by C? 10% 15% 25% 35%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 126 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined Radii OA and OB divide the circle into two sectors with central angles 60° and 300°. Find the ratio of the areas of the largest circles that can be fitted inside each of the two sectors.

1:2 1:5 1:3 4:9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4:9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 23 %

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Here, min [a, b] refers to the minimum value between a and b. Which of the following will have the highest value? f(500, 350) f(1000, 700)

f(2000, 1950) f(4000, 3950)

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: f(500, 350) = f(150, 350) = f(200, 150) = f(50, 150) = f(100, 50) = f(50, 50) = 100 f(1000, 700) = f(300, 700) = f(300, 400) = f(100, 300) = f(200, 100) = f(100, 100) = 200 f(2000, 1950) = f(50, 1950) = f(1900, 50) = f(1850, 50) = … = f(100, 50) = f(50, 50) = 100 f(4000, 3950) = f(50, 3950) = f(3900, 50) = … = f(100, 50) = f(50, 50) = 100 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: f(1000, 700) Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 140 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined It takes 18 minutes to paint the outer surface of a cube. This cube is cut into 216 smaller identical cubes. All these 216 smaller cubes are separated into three groups such that in each group, all the cubes can be glued together to form an individual larger cube. How much total time (in minutes) will it take to paint the outer surface of all the three new cubes? 20 27 30 25

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 %

undefined The average of the first ‘3m’ natural numbers is ‘x’. What will be the average of the first ‘5m’ natural numbers?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 106 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined If (b + c)2 – 2a(b + c) + a2 = 0, then which of the following is true? a=b+c b=a+c c=a+b None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: (b + c)2 – 2a(b + c) + a2 = 0 b2 + c2 + 2bc – 2ab – 2ac + a2 = 0 (a – b – c)2 = 0 a=b+c Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: a=b+c Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined If log2 3 = 1.58, then find the approximate value of log 48 72. 1.1 1.2 1.4 1.5

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1.1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined The sum of the roots of the equation x 2 – 16|x| + 55 = 0 is ____. 0 16 32 –16

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If x = 0, the equation becomes x 2 – 16x + 55 = 0. Therefore, (x – 5)(x – 11) = 0 Therefore, the roots in this case are 5 & 11. If x < 0, the equation becomes x 2 + 16x + 55 = 0. Therefore, (x + 5)(x + 11) = 0 Therefore, the roots in this case are –5 & –11. Required sum of roots = 5 + 11 – 5 – 11 = 0 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined A rectangle with perimeter 36 cm is such that it can be divided into squares with each side equal to 2 cm. Find the maximum possible area of such a rectangle. 56 cm 2 64 cm 2 72 cm 2 80 cm 2 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be ‘l’ cm and ‘b’ cm respectively. Therefore, 2(l + b) = 36 Therefore, l + b = 18 Now, l and b have to be even numbers for the rectangle to be divided into squares with side 2 cm. Therefore, all possible pairs of l and b (in no particular order) are (16, 2), (14, 4), (12, 6) and (10, 8). Therefore, the maximum possible area is 10 × 8 = 80 cm2. Hence, [4]

Correct Answer: 80 cm 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined If 2 × 25x + 3 × 52x = 0.008, then find x. –2 –1 1 2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined If x, y > 0 and 3x2 + 5y2 = 10, then find the maximum value of 125x 4 y6 . 144 288 384 768

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 384 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined How many of the first 1000 natural numbers contain at least one odd digit? 875 872 876 880

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let’s calculate the number of natural numbers up to 1000 that do not contain any odd digit. Single-digit numbers include 2, 4, 6 and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 Two-digit numbers will have digits 0, 2, 4, 6, and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 × 5 = 20 Three-digit numbers will have digits 0, 2, 4, 6, and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 × 5 × 5 = 100 Total numbers = 4 + 20 + 100 = 124 Therefore, the number of natural numbers up to 1000 that contain at least one odd digit Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 876 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined

7:3 7:4 7:2

= 1000 – 124 = 876

7:1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

= 1000 – 124 = 876

Correct Answer: 876 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined A container contains a total of 160 ml of a solution of alcohol, acid and water such that the volumes (in ml) of these three liquids in the container are in AP in that order. 100 ml of acid-water solution is added into this container such that the volumes of the three liquids are still in AP in the same order. What is the concentration of the acid-water solution that was added? 16.67% 33.33% 50% Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let the volumes of alcohol, acid and water initially be ‘a – d’, ‘a’ and ‘a + d’ ml respectively. Let the concentration of acid solution be p%. Therefore, 100 ml of acid solution has ‘p’ ml acid and ‘100 – p’ ml water. Now, when the acid solution is added to the container, then the volumes of alcohol, acid and water will become ‘a – d’, ‘a + p’ and ‘a + d + 100 – p’ respectively. Since they are also in AP, we have (a + p) – (a – d) = (a + d + 100 – p) – (a + p) Therefore, p + d = d + 100 – 2p Therefore, p = 33.33% Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 33.33% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined

20% 22% 25% 30%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 125 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined Arfa’s expenses are 20% of the income of Ben. Arfa’s savings are 40% of her income. By what percentage is Ben’s income more than Arfa’s? 50% 100% 150% 200%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the incomes of Arfa and Ben be Rs. A and Rs. B respectively. Arfa’s savings are Rs. 0.4A and her expenses are Rs. 0.6A. 0.6A = 0.2B B = 3A Ben’s income is 200% more than Arfa’s income. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 200% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

undefined A numerical lock can be opened using the code 2542 or any possible combination of these four digits (2, 5, 4 and 2). Pratik used all possible incorrect combinations on the 4-digit lock before finally opening the lock at the next attempt. How many total attempts did he make? The digits available on the lock are from 0 to 6. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Since there are 7 digits (0-6) available, the total number of combinations will be 74 = 2401. Out of these, the number of combinations that will open the lock will be all possible combinations of 2, 5, 4 and 2, that is, 12. Therefore, the number of incorrect combinations is 2401 – 12 = 2389. Therefore, Pratik made 2390 attempts. Therefore, the required answer is 2390.

Correct Answer: 2390 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined Starting from 180, every natural number that follows the series 180, 187, 194 … is selected such that the final number selected does not exceed 980. What is the sum of the last 50 numbers of this series? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 40325 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined A shopkeeper sells rice after marking up the price by 55.55% per kg. During Christmas, he wants to offer 10 kg of rice free to any customer who buys more than a certain quantity of rice. What should be the least value of the quantity bought (ordered for) by a customer so that the shopkeeper does not suffer any loss? 15 kg 18 kg 20 kg 22.5 kg

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18 kg

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 164 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. It is our misfortune to live through the largest increase in expressive capability in the history of the human race – a misfortune because surplus is always more dangerous than scarcity. Scarcity means that valuable things become more valuable, a conceptually easy change to integrate. Surplus means that previously valuable things stop being valuable, which upsets and confuses people. To make a historical analogy with the last major spread of new publishing technology: you could earn a living in 1500 simply by knowing how to read and write. The spread of those abilities in the subsequent century had the curious property of making literacy both more essential and less professional; literacy became critical at the same time as the scribes lost their jobs. The same thing is happening with publishing due to the Internet. In the twentieth century, the mere fact of owning the apparatus to make something public – whether a printing press or a TV tower – made you a person of considerable importance. Today, though, publishing, in the sense of making things public, is becoming similarly deprofessionalized. YouTube is now in the position of having to stop eightyear-olds from becoming global publishers of video. The mere fact of being able to publish to a global audience is the new literacy – formerly valuable, now so widely available that you can’t make any money with the basic capability anymore. So it falls to us to make sure that that isn’t the only consequence. The twentieth-century model of publishing is inadequate to the kind of sharing possible today. As we know from Wikipedia, post hoc peer review can support astonishing creations of shared value. As we know from the search for Mersenne primes, whole branches of mathematical exploration are now best taken on by groups. As we know from open-source efforts such as Linux, collaboration between loosely joined parties can work at scales and over time frames previously unimagined. As we know from NASA clickworkers, groups of amateurs can sometimes replace single experts. As we know from www.patientslikeme.com, patient involvement accelerates medical research. And so on. The beneficiaries of the system in which making things public was a privileged activity – academics, politicians, reporters, doctors – will complain about the way the new abundance of public thought upends the old order, but those complaints are like keening at a wake: the change they are protesting is already in the past. The real action is elsewhere. The Internet’s primary effect on how we think will reveal itself only when it affects the cultural milieu of thought, not just the behaviour of individual users. We will not live to see what use humanity makes of a medium for sharing that is cheap, instant and global (both in the sense of ‘comes from everyone’ and in the sense of ‘goes everywhere’). We are, however, the people who are setting the earliest patterns for this medium. Our fate won’t matter much, but the norms we set will. 1) The author likens the effect of the Internet to that of the spread of literacy after 1500 in order to show that: Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals. Publishing as a profession is considered less important. Publishing is no longer a valuable skill in today’s world. The medium of publication is no longer vital for publishing. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is correct. Refer to the last sentence of paragraph 2 and the first sentence of paragraph 3: ‘The spread of those abilities in the subsequent century had the curious property of making literacy both more essential and less professional ... The same thing is happening with publishing due to the Internet.’ Thus, the author likens the publishing capabilities granted by the Internet with the spread of literacy, in order to show that both these led to the capabilities that had previously rested with professionals (publishing and literacy respectively) being spread among everybody. Retain option [1]. Option [2] is incorrect. The spread of literacy made it more important, not less, and the same can be inferred about publishing. Option [2] is thus ruled out. Option [3] can be rejected on the same grounds as option [2]. Option [4] is incorrect. The passage does not comment on the medium of publishing. So option [4] can be eliminated. . Hence, the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals.

Time taken by you: 280 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 49 % 2) The word ‘publishing’ is used in this passage primarily to refer to: Submitting content online. Making content widely known or available. Preparing content for sale to the public. Issuing printed material for sale or distribution. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is easy. Option [1] is an incomplete answer – while the passage undoubtedly refers to publishing in this sense, especially in the context of the Internet, it also talks about older methods of publishing, such as ‘a printing press or a TV tower’. So option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is correct. In paragraph 3, the author clarifies that he is referring to publishing ‘in the sense of making things public’, irrespective of medium. Option [2] refers to this broad sense of the word ‘publishing’, and so must be retained. Option [3] is incorrect. A major point of the passage is that people can no longer make money through publishing, so a definition like option [3], which involves selling content, cannot be correct. Option [4] is incorrect on the same grounds as both option [1] and [3] – it restricts itself to a specific medium (print) and involves sale. So option [4] is also rejected. Thus, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Making content widely known or available.

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 3) All of the following are kinds of sharing made possible by the Internet, EXCEPT: Groups of amateurs replacing single experts. Patient involvement speeding up medical research. Groups taking on whole branches of mathematical exploration. Creations of shared value made without peer review. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is an easy one. Option [1] is stated to be one of the kinds of sharing made possible by the Internet in paragraph 5 (in reference to NASA clickworkers), so it cannot be the answer. Option [2] can be ruled out on the same grounds – it is stated in paragraph 5 (in reference to www.patientslikeme.com). Option [3] is similarly ruled out, as it is also stated in paragraph 5 (in reference to the search for Mersenne primes). Option [4] is correct, as it is not stated in the passage. According to paragraph 5, ‘post hoc peer review can support astonishing creations of shared value’ in reference to Wikipedia, but option [4] talks about creations made without peer review. Thus, the right answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Creations of shared value made without peer review.

Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 82 % 4) The author considers the current spread of publishing technology to be a ‘misfortune’ because: People are no longer able to make money out of owning publishing technology. A number of people will lose their jobs when their skills become too widely available. Publishing is now in the hands of amateurs instead of professionals who know what they are doing. People have difficulty dealing with the idea of valuable things no longer being valuable. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option [1] is incorrect. While it is factually correct, the author does not seem to consider it a bad thing, and in fact compares it to the spread and deprofessionalisation of literacy in the 16th century. So option [1] is ruled out. Option [2] is not mentioned in the passage. The author mentions scribes losing their jobs when literacy became widespread, but makes no mention of people in the publishing industry losing theirs. So option [2] can be rejected as well. Option [3] can be dismissed instantly, as nothing of that sort is mentioned in the passage. Option [4] is correct. Refer to the first paragraph: ‘It is our misfortune to live through the largest increase in expressive capability in the history of the human race – a misfortune because surplus is always more dangerous than scarcity ... Surplus means that previously valuable things stop being valuable, which upsets and confuses people.’ The author’s point in calling the current spread of publishing technology a ‘misfortune’, therefore, is not that it is a bad thing in itself, but rather that people have difficulty coping with this change. Therefore, option [4] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: People have difficulty dealing with the idea of valuable things no longer being valuable.

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 % 5) In the penultimate paragraph the writer says that complaining about the easy sharing of information is futile. He believes it to be a futile exercise because? This trend is unlikely to be reversed in the foreseeable long run One can only wait and see if the assumed damage from a change is real or imagined The results of this change can only be evaluated after a generation or more The beneficiaries of an earlier system will naturally complain about its end Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer does not see it as reversible at all. Hence one cannot say that the reason he believes the complaints to be futile is because he does not think that the trend will be reversed in the “foreseeable” long run. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The writer does not believe that the impact of the change can be evaluated by the current generation, which he says will not be alive to make the evaluation. Therefore, reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. Refer to the penultimate paragraph: ‘“……the change they are protesting is already in the past. The real action is elsewhere. The Internet’s primary effect on how we think will reveal itself only when it affects the cultural milieu of thought, not just the behaviour of individual users. We will not live to see what use humanity makes of a medium for sharing that is cheap, instant and global”. Thus according to the writer, it is futile to complain because the results of the change can be seen only after a generation or more”Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer says that the complaining is futile because we will not live to see its impact. He does not say that it is futile because it is natural for the beneficiaries of an earlier system to complain. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The results of this change can only be evaluated after a generation or more

Time taken by you: 196 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 6) According to the passage, the Internet is: A great misfortune, as it upends our views regarding publishing. Changing how we think and how we disseminate those thoughts. Revolutionizing the way information is shared. As much of a boon to the modern world as the spread of literacy was in the 16 th century. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. It is a ‘main idea’ type question. Option [1] is incorrect. While the author does begin by calling the increase in expressive capacity made possible by the Internet a ‘misfortune’, this is only because people have a difficulty dealing with the idea of surplus. This is not the author’s own opinion regarding the Internet, and nor is it the main point he is making regarding it. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is only partially correct. While the second half is correct, the first half is not: in the last paragraph, the author says that the Internet has the potential to change how we think, but does not suggest that this change is already in progress. So option [2] is ruled out. Option [3] is correct. Throughout the passage, the author praises the Internet’s capacity for allowing anyone to share anything with anyone else. He also points out that the Internet makes it possible to share information in new ways: see paragraph 5 – ‘The twentieth-century model of publishing is inadequate to the kind of sharing possible today’ – and the numerous examples mentioned in that paragraph. So option [3] must be retained. Option [4] is incorrect. The comparison of the Internet to the spread of literacy is merely an analogy used by the author to drive home his point; it is not the main point of the passage. So option [4] can be ruled out. Hence, the right answer is option [3]. Correct Answer: Revolutionizing the way information is shared. Time taken by you: 39 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. In the 1930s, Niko Tinbergen and David Lack began pioneering the systematic, scholarly observation of individual animals. In his bestselling The Life of the Robin (1943), Lack argued that in order to study animal life you had to know the animals individually. Colour-coded rings on the legs of each robin meant that the daily observations of individual birds could accumulate into individual histories, enabling Lack to set present-day behaviour in the context of past events. Similarly, in Curious Naturalists (1958) Tinbergen used coloured dots to identify individual wasps on the sands of Hulshorst in the Netherlands. These two men, founders in the fields of ethology and ecology, realized that individual identification was the first stage in adopting the animal perspective and exploring the lived consciousness of other species. Rather than using human experiences – that sense of selfconscious subjectivity – as their yardstick, they focused instead on individual animal behaviour as it occurred within the environment in which it had evolved. In many ways, they took the first steps towards being able to see what it might mean to be an animal. Tinbergen and Lack (among others) were critical of both field scientists who indulged in lazy anthropomorphism, and those who insisted on setting up ‘artificial standards of simplicity’. In particular, they objected to the dismissal of any apparently sophisticated animal action as ‘instinctive’. Such behaviour needed to be investigated, not marginalized: what was instinct, after all? At the same time, they argued that assuming parity between animal and human mental processes was not just wrong, but foolish. Lack was clear that speculating about an animal’s emotional state could provide valuable clues to guide future study, but one should never presume that a bird feels or perceives in the same way as a human. Lack demonstrated the point with great elegance using a stuffed robin. This was presented to individual birds to see how they would respond to a stranger’s presence; since the ornament itself never changed, it could, argued Lack, be used as a means of objectively testing robin personality or temperament. One day, however, it did change – fatally. An ‘exceptionally violent hen robin attacked [it] so strongly

that she removed his head. For a moment, the bird seemed rather startled, but then continued to attack … as violently as before.’ Further investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke a brutal response that might continue even after the feathers’ complete disappearance. Lack wrote: ‘We tend to think that, clothed in a robin’s body, but retaining a human mind, we would do much the same things in much the same way … We tend to assume that the world the robin sees is much like the world which we see. Suitable experiments show how false this impression is. Even the empty air can contain a rival to be destroyed.’ Tinbergen and others agreed: while their aim was to see the world with animal eyes, they worked with the caveat that animal mentalities were neither similar to nor less than those of humans. They were, instead, different – and different animals possessed different minds, often prioritizing different senses. No matter how hard a human tried to see through animal eyes, they would find it impossible to figure out how a pig’s biography would smell. 1) What is the central idea of this passage? In order to study animal mentalities, it is important to observe individual animals’ behaviour, and not compare them to human mentalities. In order to figure out how animals think, it is important to study their behaviour in their natural surroundings, and keep in mind that they use different senses than humans. Animals think differently than humans do, as they use different senses, so it is important not to stick to human criteria when trying to understand them. Animals do not think in the same way that humans do, so it is impossible for humans to understand how an animal’s mind works. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. It is a ‘main idea’ type question. Option [1] is correct. This passage is primarily about two scientists’ (Tinbergen and Lack) attempts to understand how animals think, by observing individual animals. They emphasize that animal minds work differently from humans, so it is important not to conflate the two: ‘animalmentalities were neither similar to nor less than those of humans. They were, instead, different’. Retain option [1]. Option [2] is not quite correct, as it does not include the vital point that animals think differently from humans. Option [2] can therefore be rejected. Option [3] is incomplete, as it fails to mention the point about observing animal behaviour, which forms an important aspect of this passage, and of Tinbergen and Lack’s work. So option [3] can be negated. Option [4] is incorrect as well. Not only does it not mention the point about observing animal behaviour, but it is also too negative in suggesting that humans can never understand an animal’s mind. So option [4] can be ruled out as well. Hence, the right answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: In order to study animal mentalities, it is important to observe individual animals’ behaviour, and not compare them to human mentalities.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 2) Which of the following is true about David Lack, as per this passage? He observed individual birds and wasps daily. He considered speculating about animals’ emotional states to be futile. He believed that animal behaviour could be explained by instincts. He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect. According to the first paragraph, David Lack observed robins (which is also borne out by the experiments described in paragraph 4), while Niko Tinbergen observed wasps. So option [1] is false. Option [2] is incorrect as well. In paragraph 3, it is stated that Lack believed that ‘speculating about an animal’s emotional state could provide valuable clues to guide future study’. So option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is also incorrect. In paragraph 3, it is stated that Tinbergen and Lack criticized scientists who dismissed animal behaviour as ‘instinctive’. He questioned the meaning of “instinct” implying that instinct was essentially a human concept or experience. So option [3] is rejected. Option [4] is correct. See paragraph 1: ‘In the 1930s, Niko Tinbergen and David Lack began pioneering the systematic, scholarly observation of individual animals.’ We can therefore conclude that he did pioneer the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour. Option 4 should be retained. Thus, option [4] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.

Time taken by you: 154 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) What does Lack mean when he says ‘Even the empty air can contain a rival to be destroyed’? Robins attack potential rivals violently, continuing to attack them even after they behead them. Robins can see potential rivals in just a tuft of feathers and where none exists to the human eye. Robins are violent birds who attack and destroy any potential rivals, including stuffed birds and tufts of feathers. Robins tend to attack both real and imaginary potential rivals with extreme ferocity and violence. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is not quite correct. It refers to the first experiment mentioned in paragraph 4 (in which a robin beheaded a stuffed bird), whereas Lack’s quote is regarding the second experiment (in which robins attack tufts of feathers). So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is correct. Refer to paragraph 4 – Lack’s quote is in response to this experiment involving robins: ‘Further investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke a brutal response that might continue even after the feathers’ complete disappearance.’ “… We tend to assume that the world the robin sees is much like the world which we see” – the implication is that animal perception is completely different from that of the human. Retain option [2]. Option [3] is incorrect. It goes a little too far in calling robins ‘violent birds’, while the passage merely describes their behaviour, in specific circumstances, without ascribing any qualities to them. So option [3] is ruled out. Option [4] is incorrect as well. The passage does not mention any instance of robins attacking real rivals, and mentions the fictitious ones as an example of how animal mentalities cannot be compared to human mentalities. Thus the hypothetical comparison in the option is baseless. . Option [4] is thus negated. Hence, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Robins can see potential rivals in just a tuft of feathers and where none exists to the human eye.

Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) Tinbergen and Lack criticized field scientists who called any animal behaviour ‘instinctive’, because:

Both of them deemed that such behaviour should be investigated rather than dismissed as ‘instinctive’. They felt that these scientists failed to recognize the importance of instinct in animal behaviour. They thought that these scientists did not realize how animal behaviour could be understood on human behaviour. The duo believed that this resulted in ignoring the importance of animals’ emotional states. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option [1] is correct. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘they objected to the dismissal of any apparently sophisticated animal action as “instinctive”. Such behaviour needed to be investigated, not marginalized: what was instinct, after all?’ Thus, the two felt that scientists were assuming an understanding of the situation by labelling behaviour as “instinctive” when they should have further investigated the behaviour. Retain option [1]. Option [2] has no basis in the passage, so it can be dismissed immediately. Option [3] is incorrect It is contrary to the passage. The two scientists were against interpreting or trying to understand animal behaviour on the basis of human behaviour or anthropomorphism. So, option [3] can be eliminated. . Option [4] is a misinterpretation of another point made in paragraph 3; it has no connection to the ‘instinct’ issue either. So option [4] can be rejected as well. Thus, the right answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: Both of them deemed that such behaviour should be investigated rather than dismissed as ‘instinctive’.

Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 5) What is the incident with the stuffed robin meant to show? Robins cannot distinguish between a live rival bird and a stuffed ornament. Robins will react with brutal violence to a supposed stranger’s presence. Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human. Certain individual robins can display a surprisingly violent temperament. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Refer to paragraph 4, in which David Lack’s experiment with a female robin’s reaction to a stuffed robin is described. Option [1] is incorrect, as it is an overly simplistic and rather negative reading of the incident. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is an incomplete answer – while it is a true description of the behaviour of the female robin who beheaded the stuffed one, it is not true that this is the usual and expected behaviour for robins, with all strangers. a Such a conclusion cannot be derived from that incident. So option [2] can be ruled out as well. Option [3] is correct. The female robin continued to attack the stuffed one even after she had beheaded it. Further investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke the same behaviour… and even after the disappearance of the feathers… We tend to think that, clothed in a robin’s body, but retaining a human mind, we would do much the same things in much the same way’. He then concludes in the last paragraph that no matter how hard a human tried to see through animal eyes… they would find it impossible to figure out how a pig’s biography would smell.” Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incorrect. Though the experiment was meant as a way of gauging individual robins’ temperaments, the purpose of the experiment was to find out what the behaviour would be and why. Thus option [4] option 4 does not explain the experiment’s purpose. Eliminate option 4. Therefore, the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human.

Time taken by you: 85 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 % 6) The reference to ‘how a pig’s biography would smell’ is meant to indicate that: Pigs are known to think about the world around them in terms of smell. Animals experience the world through different kinds of senses unknown to humans. Not all animals have a good sense of vision, so they have to focus on their other senses. Human beings should not just try to see through animals’ eyes, but through their other senses as well.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The starting point for understanding inequality in the context of human progress is to recognize that income equality is not a fundamental component of well-being. It is not like health, prosperity, knowledge, safety, peace and the other areas of progress. The reason is captured in an old joke from the Soviet Union. Igor and Boris are both dirt-poor peasants, barely able to feed their families. The only difference between them is that Boris owns a scrawny goat. One day a fairy appears to Igor and grants him a wish. Igor says, ‘I wish that Boris’s goat would die.’ The point of the joke, of course, is that the two peasants have become more equal but that neither is better off, aside from Igor’s indulging his spiteful envy. The point is made with greater nuance by the philosopher Harry Frankfurt in his book On Inequality. Frankfurt argues that inequality itself is not morally objectionable; what is objectionable is poverty. If a person lives a long, healthy, pleasurable and stimulating life, then how much money his neighbours earn, how big their house is, and how many cars they drive are morally irrelevant. Frankfurt writes, ‘From the point of view of morality, it is not important everyone should have the same. What is morally important is that each should have enough.’ Indeed, a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one. The confusion of inequality with poverty comes straight out of the lump fallacy – the mindset in which wealth is a finite resource, like an antelope carcass, which has to be divvied up in zero-sum fashion, so that if some people end up with more, others must have less. But wealth is not like that: since the Industrial Revolution, it has expanded exponentially. That means that when the rich get richer, the poor can get richer, too. Even experts repeat the lump fallacy, presumably out of rhetorical zeal rather than conceptual confusion. Thomas Piketty, whose bestseller Capital in the Twenty-First Century became a talisman in the uproar over inequality, wrote, ‘The poorer half of the population are as poor today as they were in the past, with barely 5 per cent of total wealth in 2010, just as in 1910.’ But total wealth today is vastly greater than it was in 1910, so if the poorer half own the same proportion, they are far richer, not ‘as poor’. A more damaging consequence of the lump fallacy is the belief that if some people get richer, they must have stolen more than their share from everyone else. The following illustration shows why this is wrong. Among the world’s billionaires is J. K. Rowling, author of the Harry Potter novels, which were also made into movies. Suppose that a billion people have handed over $10 each for the pleasure of a Harry Potter paperback or movie ticket, with a tenth of the proceeds going to Rowling. She has become a billionaire, increasing inequality, but she has made people better off, not worse off (which is not to say that every rich person has made people better off). This doesn’t mean that Rowling’s wealth is just deserts for her effort or skill; no committee ever judged that she deserved to be that rich. Her wealth arose as a by-product of the voluntary decisions of billions of book buyers and moviegoers. 1) The author uses the joke about the Soviet peasants to show all these EXCEPT: Inequality leads people to destructive acts.

Poverty is morally objectionable. Inequality in itself is not morally objectionable. Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. The joke in brief is this: Igor and Boris are both dirt-poor peasants. In other words they were equal and poor. However there was a degree of inequality between them because Boris owned a scrawny goat which Igor did not – in this respect they was inequality between them (poverty being constant) Igor’s wish to the fairy is that Boris’s goat would die. “The point of the joke, of course, is that the two peasants have become more equal but that neither is better off, aside from Igor’s indulging his spiteful envy.” This makes option 1 correct, that inequality and (not poverty) leads people to destructive acts. Also, the end of the second paragraph we find, “Indeed, a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one.” Eliminate option 1 as it is not an exception. The writer continues the explanation of the joke in the second paragraph, “The point of the joke … is made with greater nuance by the philosopher Harry Frankfurt in his book On Inequality. Frankfurt argues that inequality itself is not morally objectionable; what is objectionable is poverty. This makes option 2 correct and not an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct: The explanation of the joke from the morality perspective is continued in the second paragraph. “If a person lives a long, healthy, pleasurable and stimulating life, then how much money his neighbours earn, how big their house is, and how many cars they drive are morally irrelevant. Frankfurt writes, ‘From the point of view of morality, it is not important everyone should have the same. This makes option 3 correct and not an objection. Option 4 is correct. It is an exception. It is at best data inadequate, as the passage does not contain any information about the economic conditions in the Soviet Union. Hence the correct answer is option [4]

Correct Answer: Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union.

Time taken by you: 233 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 232 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following is true? In equality is morally and economically objectionable. Economic inequality breeds envy and hence to violence. Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being. Economic inequality is a result of the lump fallacy. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph states that philosopher Harry Frankfurt does not find inequality morally objectionable. The end of the second paragraph the writer comments that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive.’ However, the third paragraph the objection to economic inequality arises from the lump fallacy and accepts the fact that ‘when the rich get richer, the poor can get richer too. Writer finds this natural and not objectionable. Thus option 1 which states the contrary is incorrect. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive’ – however, the option translates this destructiveness as necessarily leading to envy and violence, which is somewhat far-fetched – a possibility is expressed as something that generally occurs. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The first sentence of the passage states this explicitly.” The starting point for understanding inequality in the context of human progress is to recognize that income equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.” Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The third paragraph states that the “the confusion of inequality with poverty comes straight out of the lump fallacy. The passage does nto dicuss the casues of economic inequality. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.

Time taken by you: 120 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 3) Why, according to the author, is Thomas Piketty’s reasoning incorrect? Piketty wrongly states that the poor own the same per cent of total wealth in 2010 as they did in 1910. Piketty fails to take into consideration the fact that total wealth has increased greatly over the past century. Piketty fails to take into account the large number of people who have become richer following the Industrial Revolution. Piketty is confused regarding the concept of the lump fallacy, and believes that if some people get richer, others get poorer. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3. The author does not disagree with Piketty’s factual statement that the poor half of the population own only 5 percent of the wealth in 2010, just as they did in 1910. So option [1] is ruled out. Option [2] is correct. According to the author, Piketty is repeating the lump fallacy, which suggests that wealth is a finite resource; so his reasoning is incorrect, in that he does not acknowledge that wealth has increased greatly in the past century: ‘But total wealth today is vastly greater than it was in 1910, so if the poorer half own the same proportion, they are far richer, not “as poor”.’ Retain option [2]. Option [3] is ambiguous, as it does not specify whether poor people got richer (which would cast doubt on Piketty’s views), or alreadyrich people got richer (which would support his views). So option [3] is not a suitable answer. Option [4] is incorrect as well. While the author does accuse Piketty of repeating the lump fallacy, he suggests that this is not the result of ‘conceptual confusion’ on Piketty’s part, but rather ‘rhetorical zeal’. So option [4] is rejected. Thus, the right answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Piketty fails to take into consideration the fact that total wealth has increased greatly over the past century.

Time taken by you: 37 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) What does the author imply by saying in paragraph 2 that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into

killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one’? Trying to reduce inequality is likely to be pointless in the long run. Trying to ameliorate inequality could become counterproductive. Ameliorating inequality could lead to undesirable consequences. Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [1] is too negative. Nowhere in the passage does the author suggest that trying to reduce inequality is or will be pointless. So option [1] can be dismissed at once. Option [2] is not quite correct, because of the word ‘counterproductive’ – it is not clear how trying to ameliorate inequality would result in an increase in inequality. So option [2] can be ruled out as well. Option [3] is incorrect as well. The author urges the amelioration of inequality by eradicating poverty and does not mention any undesirable consequences of ameliorating inequality. . So option [3] is rejected. Option [4] is correct. In the joke the author is referring to, inequality between Boris and Igor is eradicated by killing Boris’s goat – i.e. by a destructive action – rather than getting a goat for Igor – i.e. a constructive action. The author’s implication is, therefore, that we should be using constructive, not destructive, methods for eradicating inequality, such as trying to help people rise out of poverty (as opposed to trying to reduce the amount of money the rich have). Therefore, the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty.

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 5) The author brings up the example of J. K. Rowling in order to show that: It is unfair that she is a billionaire, as this results in greater inequality in the world. She does not deserve to be so wealthy, despite the fact that she has made some people better off. She deserves to be a billionaire because of her talent as a writer. Her immense wealth does not result in a loss to anyone else in the world. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question . Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to the last paragraph. Though J. K. Rowling’s wealth does increase the inequality in the world, the author does not consider it unfair, as she has made people better off. Option [1] is thus rejected. Option [2] is also incorrect. While the author admits that Rowling’s wealth has nothing to do with what she deserves, he does not criticize her wealth, and his attitude towards her and her wealth is much more positive than implied in this option. Therefore, option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect as well, as it contradicts the author’s assertion that Rowling’s wealth is not a reward for her skill or efforts, but rather, the simple economic effect of the popularity of her work. So option [3] is eliminated. Option [4] is correct. The author brings up the example of J. K. Rowling in order to show the error in ‘the belief that if some people get richer, they must have stolen more than their share from everyone else’. Rowling’s wealth is not the result of her taking other people’s share – rather, ‘She has become a billionaire, increasing inequality, but she has made people better off, not worse off’. Hence, option [4] is the right answer. Correct Answer: Her immense wealth does not result in a loss to anyone else in the world. Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 6) The author mentions the lump fallacy in order to: Explain why people tend to equate inequality with poverty. Suggest that a zero-sum mindset is applicable to wealth distribution.

Prove that wealth is not a finite resource. Demonstrate that wealth has increased since the Industrial Revolution.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Home, according to the Oxford English Dictionary, is ‘A dwelling place; a person’s house or abode; the fixed residence of a family or household; the seat of domestic life and interests’. But more than that, while a house is the physical structure, a home is ‘The place where one lives or was brought up, with reference to the feelings of belonging, comfort, etc., associated with it’. It is a state of being as well as the place where one lives or one’s place of origin. To speakers of English, or the Germanic and Scandinavian languages, or the Finno-Ugric group – that is, the languages of north-western Europe, from Hungary to Finland and Scandinavia, the German-speaking lands, and then descending to the Netherlands and across the Channel to the British Isles – to these peoples, the differences between home and house are obvious. They are two related but distinct things, and therefore they have two separate words. These are languages of what I call ‘home’ countries. Speakers of Romance and Slavic languages, living in ‘house’ countries, have by contrast just one word for both meanings. The existence of what I call home and house languages suggests something about the societies in which they developed. The latter are societies where the community space, the town, village or hamlet, is the canvas on which life is painted, and where an individual house is only a more private area within that primary space. On the other hand, the former are societies where the house is the focal point, while the town, village or hamlet functions mainly as the route through which one passes in order to reach the essential privacies of the houses. The reason for such differences is frequently put down to climate, and it is certainly more pleasant to spend an autumn afternoon in a market square on the Mediterranean than it is in Oslo. But while the weather is an element in the distinction between home and house countries, it is only one element among many. 1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? Point out the difference in the importance of home life in different parts of Europe Suggest a connection between the climate of a region and the emphasis on private/public life in them Compare attitudes towards the house/home in different societies based on the languages spoken by them Chart out some languages which do or do not differentiate between ‘house’ and ‘home’ Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is easy. Option [1] is an incomplete answer, as it fails to mention the distinction of ‘home’ and ‘house’ languages, which makes up a major portion of this passage. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is incorrect as well, as it too fails to mention the importance of the linguistic differences. Additionally, it focuses on a minor point regarding climate mentioned only in the last paragraph. So option [2] is also ruled out. Option [3] is correct. In the first paragraph, the author differentiates between the connotations of the words ‘house’ and ‘home’; in the second paragraph, the author specifies which European languages distinguish between these two words and which do not; and in the last paragraph, she draws connections between these languages and the attitudes towards the house/home in the societies where they are spoken. Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incomplete, as it mentions only the linguistic difference, but not its relationship to societal attitudes towards the house/home. So option [4] is rejected. Therefore, the correct answer is option [3]. Correct Answer: Compare attitudes towards the house/home in different societies based on the languages spoken by them Time taken by you: 198 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) In what way do ‘home’ countries primarily differ from ‘house’ countries, as per this passage? The home countries distinguish between the words ‘home’ and ‘house’. Life in home countries revolves around the individual house rather than the community. The inhabitants in home countries tend to live closer to their place of origin. Home countries have a relatively less congenial climate. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect. It states the basis on which the author differentiates between the two types of countries she discusses, home countries have two words, and house countries have just one word. Option 1 does not answer the question. So option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is correct. The actual difference between home and house countries is stated in the last paragraph: ‘The latter are societies where the community space, the town, village or hamlet, is the canvas on which life is painted, and where an individual house is only a more private area within that primary space. On the other hand, the former are societies where the house is the focal point, while the town, village or hamlet functions mainly as the route through which one passes in order to reach the essential privacies of the houses.’ Retain option [2]. Option [3] is incorrect. ‘the place of origin’ is cited only as nuance of the word ‘home’ ant to suggest that people live closer the place of origin’.. Eliminate option 3. Option [4] is a plausible secondary difference between home and house countries, as mentioned in the last paragraph, but the author does not consider it the primary difference. So option [4] can be rejected. Thus, option [2] is the correct answer. Correct Answer: Life in home countries revolves around the individual house rather than the community. Time taken by you: 130 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 57 % 3) The author begins this passage with a dictionary definition in order to: Provide the precise meaning of the word ‘home’. Demonstrate that the word ‘home’ means something different to everyone. Underline the difference between the official definitions of ‘house’ and ‘home’. Introduce the idea that words suggest something about the societies in which they developed. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is an incomplete answer, as it does not tie the definition to the larger point being made in the passage. So option [1] is ruled out. Option [2] contradicts a major point in the passage, which shows that the word ‘home’ has similar connotations in various languages that differentiate between ‘house’ and ‘home’. So option [2] can be rejected. Option [3] is incorrect as well. The first paragraph provides the official definition of ‘home’, but not ‘house’. So option [3] is also negated. Option [4] is correct. The definition is used by the writer to introduce the larger thesis that he is presenting in the essay, that the technical definition of home, its difference from the meanings attached to the word house, and the cultures in which these languages originated, have implications in the societies in which they originated. Hence, the right answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Introduce the idea that words suggest something about the societies in which they developed.

Time taken by you: 11 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 28 %

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Have we become too obsessed with giving awards, especially participation awards, for youth sports? With trophies given out like candy, have they lost their meaning? If children always receive a trophy – regardless of effort or achievement – we’re teaching kids that losing is so terrible that we can never let it happen. This is a destructive message, because how we react to kids’ failure is just as crucial as celebrating their success. A recent study found if parents thought failure was debilitating, their kids adopted that perspective. If parents believed overcoming failure and mistakes made you stronger, then their children believed it, too. Thus letting kids lose, or not take home the trophy, isn’t about embarrassing children. It’s about teaching them it can take a long time to get good at something, and that’s all right. Kids need to know they don’t have to win every time. It’s O.K. to lose, to make a mistake. (In a study of Gold Medal Olympians, they said a previous loss was key to their championships.) It’s through failure and mistakes that we learn the most. We must focus on process and progress, not results and rewards. Some claim that constant awards improve children’s self-esteem, and, once kids have high self-esteem, they’ll achieve more. But scientists have tested these claims and found them to be false. Kids with already high self-esteem see the trophies as vindication they really are as wonderful as they see themselves. In a longitudinal study, when parents regularly overpraised their children’s performances, their children were more likely to be narcissistic two years later. And for kids with low self-esteem, undeserved praise doesn’t help them, either. Research has found that kids with low self-esteem believe they can’t live up to their own hype, so they withdraw even further. Research has found that the best way to improve kids’ self-image is to help them develop their abilities. Once they master a skill, they won’t need manufactured praise to tell them they’ve done well. They’ll know it. And they’ll be thrilled. Like the child who just learned to tie her shoes. That sense of accomplishment is worth more than any trophy. Therefore, instead of blowing a team’s budget on participation trophies, spend that money on kids’ and coaches’ skill development. Or donate the money to kids who can’t afford the basic equipment they need to develop their own skills. 1) The central point in the second paragraph is that: Teaching kids how to deal with failure is more important than celebrating their success. Helping kids deal with the inevitability of failure is just as important as rewarding their achievements. Giving kids trophies regardless of whether they have won or lost leads them to devalue the importance of failure. Rewarding kids regardless of their effort or achievement leaves them with an unhealthy attitude towards failure. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect. The author does not suggest that dealing with failure is more important than celebrating success. Option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is incorrect as well. The point of the second paragraph is that parents should teach their kids to have a positive attitude towards failure, not that failure is inevitable (which is a very negative view). So option [2] is ruled out as well. Option [3] is incorrect for similar reasons as option [2]: the point of the paragraph is not that failure is important, but that parents should teach their kids to cope with it. Option [3] is thus rejected. Option [4] is correct. According to paragraph 2, giving kids trophies regardless of their effort or achievement sends them the message that failure is unacceptable, which the author considers an unhealthy attitude. Instead, she advocates that parents must teach their kids to deal with failure. This is the central point of paragraph 2. Hence, the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Rewarding kids regardless of their effort or achievement leaves them with an unhealthy attitude towards failure.

Time taken by you: 213 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 % 2) What is the relation between giving kids undeserved trophies and their self- esteem, as per this passage? The trophies are beneficial only to the kids who already have high self- esteem. The trophies are beneficial only to the kids who have low self-esteem. The trophies have negative repercussions on kids’ self-esteem. The trophies make no difference to kids, whatever their self-esteem. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is an easy one. Option [1] is incorrect. According to paragraph 4, giving undeserved trophies to kids who already have high self-esteem makes them narcissistic in the long run. So option [1] can be dismissed. Option [2] is incorrect as well. As per paragraph 5, giving undeserved praise to kids with low self-esteem makes them withdraw further. So option [2] can be ruled out as well. Option [3] is correct. Combining the information in paragraphs 4 and 5, we can infer that giving undeserved praise/trophies to children has negative repercussions on them, no matter what their self-esteem. Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incorrect, as it is too mild. Paragraphs 4 and 5 show that giving kids undeserved trophies does make a difference – a negative one. Option [4] is thus rejected. Therefore, the right answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: The trophies have negative repercussions on kids’ self-esteem.

Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) The author of this passage would agree with all of the following statements, EXCEPT: Failure can be an important step on the way to success. Keeping the hope of reward alive can help people do their best. Children must learn that it takes time to develop important skills.

Children should be praised only for their actual abilities and accomplishments. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect, as the author would agree with it. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘It’s through failure and mistakes that we learn the most.’ The example of Gold Medal Olympians in the same paragraph also suggests that failing at least once is an important part of eventually succeeding. Therefore, option [1] is not the answer. Option [2] is correct, as the author would not necessarily agree with it. In paragraph 3, the author states, ‘We must focus on process and progress, not results and rewards.’ And throughout the passage, she points out that rewards can be counterproductive if they are undeserved, so she is unlikely to advocate option [2] without any qualifications. Therefore, option [2] must be retained. Option [3] is also something the author would agree with, so it too is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘It’s about teaching them it can take a long time to get good at something, and that’s all right.’ So option [3] is ruled out as well. Option [4] is incorrect too, as the author would agree with it as well – this is a major point she makes throughout the passage, and especially in the sixth paragraph. So option [4] is also negated. Hence, option [2] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: Keeping the hope of reward alive can help people do their best.

Time taken by you: 54 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 %

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undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. According to its own traditions, the teachings of Jainism are eternal, and hence have no founder; however, the Jainism of this age can be traced back to Mahavira, a teacher of the sixth century BCE, a contemporary of the Buddha. Like those of the Buddha, Mahavira’s doctrines were formulated as a reaction to and rejection of the Brahmanism then taking shape. The brahmans taught the division of society into rigidly delineated castes, and a doctrine of reincarnation guided by karma, or merit brought about by the moral qualities of actions. Their schools of thought, since they respected the authority of the Vedas and Upanisads, were known as orthodox darsanas. Jainism and Buddhism, along with a school of materialists called Carvaka, were regarded as the unorthodox darsanas, because they taught that the Vedas and Upanisads, and hence the brahman caste, had no authority. Jainism originated with the teaching of Mahavira a contemporary of Buddha. Like Budhism, Jainism was a reaction to Brahmanism and rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Upanishads as unorthodox. Teachings of Jainism considered eternal began with the teachings of Mahavira, who was a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism regarded as unorthodox by the brahaman caste rejected the authority of Vedas and Upanisads. Though considered eternal, teachings of Jainism can be traced back to Mahavira, a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism rejected Brahmanism - its scriptures, caste system and its ideas of morality and reincarnation. Jainism, considered eternal by its own traditions, can be traced back to the teachings of Mahavira. Budhism and Jainism were reactions to the prevalent Brahmanism and they rejected the authority of Vedas and Upanisads.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is contrary to the passage in “…rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Upanishads as unorthodox” is contrary to the passage Option 2 may be evaluated for the answer but is inferior to option 3. Option 3 is the best précis – It captures the essence of the paragraph in the best way possible with all the main points precidly captured. Option 4 does not mention that Mahavira was a contemporary of Buddha. Hence the answer is option [3]. Correct Answer: Though considered eternal, teachings of Jainism can be traced back to Mahavira, a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism rejected Brahmanism - its scriptures, caste system and its ideas of morality and reincarnation. Time taken by you: 207 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. There are many people who quite innocently and sincerely believe that if they are earnest in attending to their own personal ‘spiritual’ needs, this amounts to living a morally good life. I know many activists, both religious and secular, who agree with me that these people are deluding themselves. Just taking care of one’s own ‘soul’ is self-centred. Consider, for instance, those contemplative monks who, unlike hardworking nuns in schools and hospitals, devote most of their waking hours to the purification of their souls, and the rest to the maintenance of the contemplative lifestyle to which they have become accustomed. In what way, exactly, are they morally superior to people who devote their lives to improving their stamp collections or their golf swing? It seems to me that the best that can be said of them is that they manage to stay out of trouble. Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred, and doing so all the time is morally no superior to spending all of one’s time on one’s hobbies. Though many religious people believe that taking care of one’s soul is important to leading a morally good life, many secular people disagree with them, and consider it to be equivalent to spending time on hobbies. Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred. It is more moral to spend all of one’s time on one’s hobbies, as that keeps one out of trouble. Many people believe that taking care of one’s soul and spiritual needs amounts to living a good life. However, many others disagree with them on this point and consider it self-centred. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option [2] can be ruled out at once, as it sets up a false dichotomy between religious and secular people – in the passage, the author says that both religious and secular people agree with him that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is self-centred. Option [3] distorts the point made in the last two sentences: the author does not suggest that spending time on one’s hobbies is morally superior to taking care of one’s spiritual needs – just that the latter is not necessarily superior to the former. Option [4] fails to mention this comparison at all, so it is an incomplete summary. Only option [1] correctly and comprehensively summarizes the author’s position in this passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred, and doing so all the time is morally no superior to spending all of one’s time on one’s hobbies. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. As it is difficult to remember today how small houses were in pre-industrial times, so too it is hard to comprehend the sheer labour, and time, involved in keeping that small space functioning. It has been estimated that three to four hours were spent daily on food preparation, an hour to fetch water, an hour to feed the children and keep the fire alight, an hour in the kitchen garden, two to three hours to milk cows and goats, feed chickens or perform other animal husbandry, an hour to clean, an hour spinning and an hour spent looking after the children, teaching them to read and write, or knit and sew: a total of sixteen hours a day. Add in the laundry, which occupied approximately eight hours weekly, and by the time meals were eaten, there was little time to do more than fall into bed in order to get up and do it all over again the following day. In pre-industrial times it was difficult to imagine or understand how small the houses were and how much labor had to be invested to keep them running day after day. In pre-industrial times, people lived in small houses that needed so much constant maintenance that they had no time to do anything else but sleep. It is hard to imagine today how small houses were in pre-industrial times, because the focus is on the huge amount of labour that was necessary to keep them functioning. In the preindustrial times, the houses were small and it took great labor and more than sixteen hours a day for routine chores to keep the houses functioning, which left little time for anything else. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 says it was difficult to imagine in the preindustrial times. Option 2 is incorrect. It says “they had no time to do anything else but

sleep” implying they slept all the time. Option 3 is ambiguous as there is an unnecessary cause-effect relationship made between “it is hard to imagine … because of the focus.’ This is a misrepresentation. Option 4 captures the gist of the paragraph. Hence [4]. Correct Answer: In the preindustrial times, the houses were small and it took great labor and more than sixteen hours a day for routine chores to keep the houses functioning, which left little time for anything else. Time taken by you: 161 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. In the United States, the share of income going to the richest one percent grew from 8 percent in 1980 to 18 percent in 2015, while the share going to the richest tenth of one percent grew from 2 percent to 8 percent. 2. Gini values generally range from .25 for the most egalitarian income distributions, such as in Scandinavia after taxes and benefits, to .7 for a highly unequal distribution such as the one in South Africa. 3. In the United States, the Gini index for market income (before taxes and benefits) rose from .44 in 1984 to .51 in 2012. 4. Inequality can also be measured by the proportion of total income that is earned by a given fraction (quantile) of the population. 5. Economic inequality is usually measured by the Gini coefficient, a number that can vary between 0, when everyone has the same as everyone else, and 1, when one person has everything and everyone else has nothing.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This paragraph is about measuring inequality; sentence 5, which introduces the Gini coefficient, a scale for the same, is therefore the first sentence. Sentence 2, which explains the range of Gini values, comes after 5. Sentence 3, which continues the discussion of the Gini index, follows 2. Sentence 4 mentions another method for measuring inequality, and sentence 1 provides an example of this method, so we get a 4-1 link. Hence, 52341. Correct Answer: 52341 Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Camelids are unusual in that their modern distribution is almost the reverse of their origin. 2. The original camelids of North America remained common until the quite recent geological past, but then disappeared, possibly as a result of hunting or habitat alterations by the earliest human settlers, and possibly as a result of changing environmental conditions after the last ice age, or a combination of these factors. 3. Camelids first appeared around 45 million years ago during the middle Eocene, in present-day North America. 4. Three species groups survived: the dromedary of northern Africa and southwest Asia; the Bactrian camel of central Asia; and the South American group, which has now diverged into a range of forms that are closely related, but usually classified as four species: llamas, alpacas, guanacos and vicuñas. 5. The family remained confined to the North American continent until only about two or three million years ago, when representatives arrived in Asia, and (as part of the Great American Interchange that followed the formation of the Isthmus of Panama) South America.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: At first glance, either 1 or 3 would make a suitable opening sentence; but on looking through all the sentences, it becomes clear that sentence 1 encapsulates the main topic of the paragraph (the distribution of camelids) better, and so makes for a better first sentence. Sentences 3 and 5 then follow from 1, as they talk about the origin and spread of camelids, respectively, in chronological order. Sentence 2 states that the original camelids of North America disappeared; and sentence 4 lists the species groups of camelids that survived on other continents. Thus, 2 and 4 illustrate the point stated in the first sentence – that the current distribution of camelids is the reverse of their origin – and therefore, together, they conclude the paragraph. Hence, 13524. Correct Answer: 13524 Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 16 %

and meagre soils in remote Scandinavian fjords. 4. The Norse also travelled far east, down the Vistula, Dnieper, and Volga rivers to the Black and Caspian seas, besieged Constantinople more than once and founded cities from Kiev to Dublin. 5. During the seventh century, young Norse ‘rowmen’ left in their long ships each summer in search of plunder, trading opportunities and adventure.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 5 is preferable as an opening sentence as it introduces the explorations of the Norse by providing the reasons for the same, while the rest of the sentences simply describe these explorations. Then 3 makes most sense as the sentence following 3, as it describesthe beginning of such explorations. This is followed by sentence 2, which describes what the Norse typically did on such explorations. Sentences 1 and 4 are linked: 1 states that the Norse expanded over huge areas of the north, while 4 says that they also expanded over the east. Hence, 53214. Correct Answer: 53214 Time taken by you: 120 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 1 explains how a typical genetic mutation or ‘fundamental’ evolutionary changes happen – by a change to the DNA. So sentence 1 begins the narrative. 1-4 is a mandatory pair. The 1-4 pair is then followed by sentence 3, because “translated into action by RNA” in sentence 4 is continued in sentence 3 as “But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions ….” “In a surprising twist” mentioned in sentence 5 refers back to whole process explained in 143. Hence sentence 5 has to be placed after 143 and sentence 2 at the end to conclude the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 14352 Correct Answer: 14352 Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. Passive sentences are useful in English because they allow people to say that something happened without having to say who did it. 2. Science writers use them a lot, because a passive lets them say ‘The mixture was poured into the beaker’ instead of the uncomfortably personal ‘I/we poured the mixture into the beaker.’ 3. Children as young as six do not grasp that the change in the form of the verb between active and passive actually reverses the action. 4. But everyone uses passives sometimes, saying such things as ‘My house was just painted’ or ‘Two people have been killed in an accident’ or ‘Entry is prohibited.’ 5. People who recommend that the passive should be avoided – George Orwell was a famous instance – forget cases like this, where we want to report an action without naming the actor.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This paragraph is about the usefulness of passive sentences in English. Sentence 1 introduces the topic, 2 and 4 provide examples of their use (by scientists and everyone, respectively), and 5 reiterates their usefulness by pointing out that people who criticize their use are mistaken. Only 3 does not fit into this sequence, as it says nothing about the usefulness of passive sentences, but rather about children’s

inability to grasp them. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. Our body dries out with every passing year; newborns are about 75 percent water, not much different from an average potato. 2. The first 2.7 billion years of the history of life on earth were spent entirely in water, and the imprint is in every living organism. 3. We may live on the ‘blue planet’ – unique in the known universe for its abundance of liquid water – but our bodies’ ocean lies on the inside. 4. Most of the body’s water is not in the fluid of our blood, but remains locked inside the cells of our muscles, brains and hearts. 5. Adult humans are about 57 per cent water by weight.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This paragraph is about the water present in our bodies. Sentence 3 introduces this topic by calling it ‘our bodies’ ocean’. Sentences 5 and 1 specify how much of our body is composed of water, in case of adults and newborns, respectively. 4 explains where in our bodies this water is found. Thus, these four sentences form a coherent paragraph. On the other hand, sentence 2, which talks about the billions of years life being spent in water, rather than the watery composition of our bodies, does not fit into this paragraph. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. Mars’s Olympus Mons, the largest known volcano in the solar system, is about 2.5 times taller than Mt. Everest and so wide that, if placed on North America, it would extend from New York City to Montreal, Canada. 2. The largest Martian canyon, Mariner Valley, which is probably the largest canyon in the solar system, is so vast that, if placed on North America, it would extend from New York City to Los Angeles. 3. But unlike the Grand Canyon, Mariner Valley does not have a river at the bottom. 4. The latest theory is that the more-than-three-thousand-mile canyon is the juncture of two ancient tectonic plates, like the San Andreas Fault on Earth. 5. Hikers who have marvelled at the Grand Canyon would be astounded by this extraterrestrial canyon network.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Four out of five of these sentences talk about Mariner Valley, a huge canyon on Mars, comparing it to features on Earth. Sentence 2 introduces it; 5 and 3 compare it to the Grand Canyon; and 4 provides an explanation for it. On the other hand, sentence 1 is about a different Martian feature altogether, the volcano Olympus Mons. Thus, it does not fit into the sequence. Hence, 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 158 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Horizon International School is a leading school in Panchgani. Students from 1st standard to 12th standard study in the school. The academic year of the school is between January 1st and December 31st every year and the result of the annual exam is declared on December 31st every year. It is also known that all the students passed their annual exams and were promoted to the next academic standard every year. Further, all the students joined the school in their 1st standard and left only after finishing their 12th standard. The following table gives the information about the students in 5 th to 8th standard (both included) in the school from five states, namely Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, as on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018.

1) Find the minimum possible number of the students from the given five states who passed the 8 th standard exam on either 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we have the following:

Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018. It can be seen that 0< a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36 Now all the questions can be answered. The required number of students can be obtained by minimizing the number of students in the 7th & 8th standard on 15th August th th th 2016. The total number of students in the 7 and 8 standard on 15 August 2016 = (24 – a) + (18 – b) + (12 – c) + (30 – d) + (36 – e) = 120 – (a + b + c + d + e). The maximum value of (a + b + c + d + e) = (20 + 18 + 12 + 10 + 36) = 96. Therefore, 120 – 96 = 24 Therefore, the required answer 24.

Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 1175 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 2) What is the maximum possible number of students from the given five states who passed the 8 th standard exam on either 31st December 2018 or 31st December 2019? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

3) Additional information: The number of students from two more states, namely Kerala and Rajasthan is now available. It is known that the number of students (in 5th to 8th standard - both included) from Kerala on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 48 and 28 respectively. Similarly, the number of students (in 5th to 8th standard - both included) from Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 36 and 22 respectively. Now answer the following questions for originally given 5 states as well as these two

states (total 7 states). It is known that the number of students who passed 8 th standard exam either on 31st December 2016 or on 31st December 2017 was maximum possible for the state of Karnataka, which was also higher than the corresponding number for any other state. What was the maximum possible number of students from Kerala who passed 4th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017? 8 9 12 Information given in the question is inconsistent and is conflicting with other information Video Explanation: Explanation: Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we have the following:

Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018. It can be seen that 0< a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36 Now all the questions can be answered. If we denote the number of students in 5 th or 6th standards from Kerala and Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 as ‘f’ and ‘g’ respectively, we get the following:

The number of students who passed 8th standard exam either on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 from Karnataka: 30 – d. Since 0 < d < 10, the maximum number of students from Karnataka who passed 8th standard exam on 31st December 2016 and 31st December 2017 = 30. Therefore, the maximum number of students from Kerala in 7th & 8th standard = 29 or 48 – f < 29 or f > 19 The students who passed 4 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 were the ones who were in 5th or 6th standard as on 15th August 2018. Therefore, the number of students who passed 4 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 from Kerala = 28 – f. Since f > 19, 28 – f < 9. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 9

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 25 % 4) Additional information: Additional information: The number of students from two more states, namely Kerala and Rajasthan is now available. It is known that the number of students (in 5 th to 8th standard - both included) from Kerala on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 48 and 28 respectively. Similarly, the number of students (in 5 th to 8th standard - both included) from Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 36 and 22 respectively. Now answer the following questions for originally given 5 states as well as these two states (total 7 states).

Which of the following statements can be correct? Total 56 students from these 7 states passed 8 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017. Total 30 students from Kerala were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2016. Total 20 students from Tamil Nadu were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2018. Total number of students from 7th and 8th standard on 15th August 2016 from Rajasthan was 12. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we have the following:

Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018. It can be seen that 0 < a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36 Now all the questions can be answered. If we denote the number of students in 5 th or 6th standards from Kerala and Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 as ‘f’ and ‘g’ respectively, we get the following:

Statement 1: The minimum number of students from these 7 states who passed 8th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 = (24 – 20) + (18 – 18) + (12 – 12) + (30 – 10) + (36 – 36) + (48 – 28) + (36 – 22) = 58. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2: Since f < 28, the maximum number of students from Kerala in 5th standard on 15th August 2016 cannot be more than 28. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3: Since e < 36, the number of students from Tamil Nadu in 5th standard on 15th August 2018 (50 – e) can be between 14 and 50. Therefore, statement 3 can be correct. Statement 4: Since g < 22, the number of students from Rajasthan in 7th and 8th standard on 15th August 2016 (36 – g) can be between 14 and 36. Therefore, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Total 20 students from Tamil Nadu were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2018.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Ten people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J – are assigned a number from 1 to 6 (both included). Each number is assigned to at least one of the ten people. The numbers 1 and 6 are assigned to equal number of people, which is different from the number of people who are assigned number 3. The number of people who are assigned number 2 is same as those assigned number 5. Also, the number of people who are assigned number ‘n’ is not equal to those assigned number ‘n + 1’, for n = 1 to 5. Further it is known that: i.

Both A and B are assigned a number one more than that assigned to I.

ii.

The number assigned to C is greater than the number assigned to F, G and J but is smaller than the number assigned to A.

iii. D and H are assigned the same number. iv. The number of people who are assigned the same number as assigned to G is equal to the number of people who are assigned the same number as assigned to E. 1) What is the sum of the number of people assigned numbers 3 and 4? 4 5 6 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

The following table can be thus concluded:

From statement (ii) and the above table, it is evident that the number assigned to A is greater than 3 and hence from statement (i) and the above table, it can be concluded that the number assigned to A and B is 5. Subsequently, the numbers assigned to I and C are 4 and 3 respectively. Numbers assigned to F, J and G must be 1 and 2 (in no particular order), as they are assigned a number lesser than that assigned to C. From statement (iii), it can be concluded that D and H are assigned the same number as C and is equal to 3. Finally, it can be concluded from statement (iv) that G and E are assigned numbers 1 and 6 respectively.

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 388 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) Who has been assigned the number 4? A I C Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The following table can be thus concluded:

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: I

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 % 3) How many people were assigned a number higher than that assigned to C? 3 5 4 Cannot be determined 4) Which of the following statements is correct? C is assigned a smaller number than D. B is assigned a smaller number than C. E is assigned a smaller number than A. J is assigned a smaller number than I.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A management consulting firm hired 400 students from the top 25 business schools around the world as management trainees. The firm had offices in the cities of Berlin, Dhaka, Colombo, New York & New Delhi. The base location of each of the hired students was one of these five cities. After completing one year, all the management trainees tried to change their base location but not all were able to change their base location. The priority for opting a base location is New York, Berlin, New Delhi, Colombo and Dhaka, which all management trainees follow.

For example, if a management trainee with base location New Delhi wants to change his/her base location, he/she will first opt for New York and then Berlin. He/She will never opt for base locations of lower priority than his/her current base location.

Priority of management trainees is decided on the basis of their Performance Rating in the first year in the company. Performance Rating (PR) varies from 1 to 5. The management trainee with higher PR will get the higher base location mentioned in the priority order. For example, if there are two management trainees with PR 5 and 4 respectively and there is only one place vacant at the locations New

York and Berlin, then the management trainee with PR 5 will get New York as the base location and the management trainee with PR 4 will get Berlin as the base location.

The bar-graph given below shows the number of management trainees at each of the given five locations in the first and the second year. The pie-chart given below provides information about the PR wise distribution of the management trainees in the first year.

1) What is the maximum possible number of management trainees who could have changed their base location? 150 155 160 165 Video Explanation: Explanation: To maximise the number of management trainees who can change their base location is only possible when management trainees at a particular base location changes to the immediate next base location in priority. Maximum possible management trainees at Dhaka who can change = 30 – 5 = 25 These 25 management trainees changed their base location to Colombo, which had 75 management trainees in the second year. This means a maximum of 100 – 75 + 25 = 50 management trainees at Colombo can change their base location to New Delhi. Maximum of 50 + 120 – 125 = 45 management trainees at New Delhi can change their base location to Berlin. Maximum of 45 + 80 – 95 = 30 management trainees at Berlin can change their base location to New York. Required Answer = 25 + 50 + 45 + 30 = 150 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 150

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 227 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 2) It is given that 60% of the management trainees at Dhaka, who changed their base location, got PR rating of 5 in the first year. Also, X management trainees at Colombo changed their base location in the second year. What is the maximum possible value of X? 34 35 36 37 Video Explanation: Explanation: 30 – 5 = 25 management trainees whose base location is Dhaka changed their base location. 60% of 25 = 15 This means 15 management trainees got PR of 5. So these 15 management trainees will definitely change their base location to New York. So only 25 – 15 = 10 management trainees with base location Dhaka could have changed their base location to Colombo. Therefore, a maximum of (100 – 75) + 10 = 35 management trainees with base location Colombo could have changed their base location. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 35

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 3) It is given that only the management trainees with PR rating of 5 in the first year were allowed to change their base location. In the first year, what can be the minimum number of management trainees at New York who got a PR rating different from 4? 58 61 60 59 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Minimum possible number of management trainees that changed their base location is (30 – 5) + (100 – 75) = 50 Given that only those with a PR of 5 changed their base locations. This means that at least 50 management trainees got PR 5 in the first year. Management trainees with PR 4 & 5 = 15% of 400 = 60 At most 60 – 50 = 10 management trainees could have got a PR of 4 and in one of the cases could be all having base location New York. Required Answer = 70 – 10 = 60 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 60

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 4) It is given that only management trainees with a PR rating of 1 in the first year were not able to change their base location and this number was equal to X. Which of the following can be a value of X? 250 249 248 All of the above

Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum possible number of management trainees that changed their base location = 150 (from the first question in this set) Management Trainees with rating of 3 and above in first year = 35% of 400 = 140 As per the information given in question, we can conclude that at most 150 – 140 = 10 management trainees with PR of 2 changed their base location. Therefore, at least 260 – 10 = 250 management trainees got a PR of 1. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 250

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Chintu used to collect coins in six piggy banks – A, B, C, D, E and F. Each piggy bank had Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins only. One day he took out some coins from each piggy bank to purchase a cricket bat. The following pie-charts give information about the piggy bank-wise distribution of the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins collected by Chintu and the total worth of coins taken out by him to purchase the cricket bat. There were a total of 500 coins in these piggy banks, out of which Chintu took out Rs. 1500. Also, piggy bank C had 80 coins before Chintu took out coins from any of the piggy banks.

1) What was the total worth (in Rs.) of the coins in these six piggy banks initially? 3000 3500 2500

4000 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered. Total worth of coins = 400× 5 + 100 × 10 = Rs. 3000 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 3000

Time taken by you: 202 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 374 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 80 % 2) The total worth of Rs. 5 coins taken out by Chintu cannot be Rs. 1400 Rs. 1430 Rs. 1420 Rs. 1410 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered.

Correct Answer: Rs. 1430

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 166 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 67 % 3) The minimum number of coins Chintu could have taken out of piggy bank D is 23 24 25 26 Video Explanation:

Now all the questions can be answered. Chintu took Rs. 150 from piggy bank D. He could have taken all the five Rs. 10 coins, and twenty Rs. 5 coins. This makes a minimum of 25 coins from piggy bank D. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 % 4)Which of the following is definitely true with respect to the coins taken out by Chintu from these piggy banks? The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank B is more than that from piggy bank C. The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank A is more than that from piggy bank C. The number of Rs. 5 coins taken out from piggy bank F is less than that from piggy bank E. The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank D is less than that from piggy bank B. Video Explanation: Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered. At least 8 Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank B (solution to Q.14) and piggy bank D had 5 Rs. 10 coins only. Hence, option [4] is definitely correct. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank D is less than that from piggy bank B. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

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Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer are four individuals (with different weights) out of which two are from Mumbai (M) and the remaining two are from Delhi (D). It is known that Qasim is lighter than Paresh, Sameer is lighter than Ranjana and Sameer is not from Mumbai. 1) If the heaviest as well as the lightest persons are from Delhi, then which of the following must be true? Paresh is the heaviest and only one person is lighter than Qasim. Sameer is the lightest and he is the only person lighter than Ranjana. Ranjana is the heaviest and Sameer is the lightest. Sameer is the lightest and Qasim is from Mumbai. Video Explanation: Explanation: If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights of the given four persons) can be:

Now, all the questions can be answered. If the lightest and the heaviest persons are from Delhi, only cases 1, 2 and 6 are possible. It can be seen that options [1], [2], [3] may not be always true. Option [4] has to be always correct. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Sameer is the lightest and Qasim is from Mumbai.

Time taken by you: 195 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 223 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 2) It is known that Qasim is the lightest and Ranjana is from Mumbai. Consider the following statements: Statement I : Only Qasim is lighter than Ranjana.

Statement II: Paresh is the heaviest of all. Which of these statements can be true? Only I Only II Both I and II Neither I nor II Video Explanation: Explanation: If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights of the given four persons) can be:

Now, all the questions can be answered. If Qasim is the lightest, cases 3, 4 and 5 are possible. It can be seen that Paresh can be the heaviest of all. Therefore, statement II can be correct. However, statement I that only Qasim is lighter than Ranjana is incorrect. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Only II

Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 % 3) If the persons from Mumbai are the heaviest as well as the lightest, then for how many persons it can be uniquely determined the city they are from? 0 1 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights of the given four persons) can be:

Now, all the questions can be answered. If the lightest as well as heaviest persons are from Mumbai, only cases 3, 4 and 5 are possible, as shown below:

We can definitely say that Qasim is from Mumbai. We already know that Sameer is from Delhi. However, we cannot exactly determine the cities that Paresh and Ranjana are from. Therefore, the required answer is 2. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 4) If no person from Mumbai is lighter than a person from Delhi, then how many distinct arrangements (with respect to persons arranged in descending order of their weights) can be made? 7 6 5 4 Video Explanation: Explanation: If no person from Mumbai is lighter than a person from Delhi, only possible arrangement of cities we can have is Mumbai > Mumbai > Delhi > Delhi. We already know that Sameer is from Delhi. Therefore Sameer must be either 3 rd or 4th. Therefore, only case 4 is not possible. Other 5 cases are possible. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Rajesh has a cube having length of each side equal to 5 cm. Out of the three pairs of opposite faces, one is painted Red, other is painted Blue while the third is painted Green. Rajesh placed the cube such that one green face of the cube was touching the ground and one red face of the cube was directly in front of him. He further cut the cube into 125 small identical cubes having each side equal to 1 cm. He then assigned numbers to the 125 small cubes as follows: The cubes in the front-most row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 1 to 5 from left to right. The cubes in the row just behind the front-most row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 6 to 10 from left to right. The cubes in the middle row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 11 to 15 from left to right. The numbering was continued this way and the rightmost cube in the last row of the bottommost layer was assigned number 25. Assignment of the numbers was continued for the second layer from the bottom on similar lines. The leftmost cube in the front-most row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 26, the rightmost cube in the front-most row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 30 while the rightmost cube in the last row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 50. The numbering was continued on similar lines for the remaining layers of the cubes. The leftmost cube in the front-most row of the topmost layer of the cubes was assigned 101 while the rightmost cube in the last row of the topmost layer was assigned 125. 1) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have been painted using three different colours? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The cubes in the 8 corners have been painted using three colours. The numbers assigned to the 4 bottom cubes are 1, 5, 21 and 25 while the numbers assigned to the 4 top cubes are 101, 105, 121 and 125. Therefore, the required sum = 1 + 5 + 21 + 25 + 101 + 105 + 121 + 125 = 504. Therefore, the required answer is 504.

Correct Answer: 504 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 51 % 2) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have been painted using two different colours? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: There are 12 edges of the bigger cube. The three middle small cubes along each edge have been painted using two different colours, so there are 36 cubes in consideration. Consider the two green faces of the cube. One is at the bottom touching the ground while the other is at the top. These two faces encompass total 8 edges of the bigger cube. The cubes in the bottommost layer that have been painted using two different colours have been assigned numbers 2, 3, 4, 10, 15, 20, 22, 23, 24, 6, 11 and 16 (sum = 156). The cubes in the topmost layer that have been painted using two different colours have been assigned numbers 102, 103, 104, 110, 115, 120, 122, 123, 124, 106, 111 and 116 (sum = 1356). Additionally there are four vertical edges that have three cubes each that have been painted using two colours each. Two of these vertical edges are from the left face while the remaining two are from the right face of the bigger cube. The cubes along the left face that have been painted using two colours have been assigned numbers 26, 51, 76, 46, 71 and 96 (sum = 366). The cubes along the right face that have been painted using two colours have been assigned numbers 30, 55, 80, 50, 75 and 100 (sum = 390). Therefore, the required sum = 156 + 1356 + 366 + 390 = 2268 Therefore, the required answer is 2268.

Correct Answer: 2268 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 % 3) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have green colour on at least one of their faces? 625 1250 2500 3150 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3150

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 % 4) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have none of their faces painted? 1026 1701 2376 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Total 27 cubes in the middle three layers (9 in each layer) have not been painted. Important point to note is that the numbers assigned to cubes in each layer are 25 more than the numbers assigned to the corresponding cubes in the layer just below them. The 9 cubes that have not been painted in each layer form a 3× 3 square. The 9 cubes in the bottommost layer that are directly below these 9 cubes in the middle three layers have been assigned the numbers 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18 and 19 (sum = 117). The numbers assigned to the cubes in the second layer from the bottom that have not been painted are 25 more than the corresponding numbers in the bottommost layer. Therefore, the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the second layer = 117 + 25 × 9 = 342. Similarly, the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the third layer =342 + 25 × 9 = 567 and the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the fourth layer= 567 + 25 × 9 = 792. Therefore, the required sum = 342 + 567 + 792 = 1701. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 1701

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Total ten gemstones Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Turquoise, Emerald, Topaz, Ruby, Coral, Jasper and Onyx are to be placed in four jewellery boxes – P, Q, R and S. Boxes P and Q should have at least three gemstones each. Box R should have at least two gemstones. Box S should have at least one gemstone. Further, it is known that: I. Pearl and Sapphire are in the same box. II. Amber and Topaz are in the same box which is neither box Q nor box R. III. Among Amber, Turquoise, Coral and Onyx no two gemstones are in the same box. IV. Jasper is in box R. V. None of Emerald, Coral and Onyx is in box R. VI. Ruby is not in box S. 1) If Pearl and Emerald are not in the same box and the number of gemstones in box Q and box R are equal, then for how many gemstones, the exact box in which they are placed can be uniquely determined?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. As box Q and R have equal number of gemstones, box S will have 1 gemstone and each of the remaining box contains 3 gemstones. So, box R has Jasper, Turquoise and Ruby. From (II), Amber and Topaz must be in box P. Therefore, from (I), Pearl and Sapphire must be in box Q. As Pearl and Emerald are not in same box, Emerald must be in box P. One of Coral and Onyx is in box Q and the other is in box S. Hence, for 8 gemstones, the box can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 8.

Correct Answer: 8 Time taken by you: 152 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 158 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 % 2) All the gemstones from two of the boxes are taken out and placed in box T. Box T, initially empty, now has 3 gemstones, and does not have Coral. Given that Coral and Ruby were in the same box. Which of the following statements is/are definitely correct? Box P had more gemstones than box R. One of the gemstones in box R was Turquoise. Sapphire and Emerald were not in the same box. All of the above. Video Explanation: Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. If all the gemstones from R and S are moved to T and T has 3 gemstones, Box R and S must initially had 2 and 1 gemstones respectively. So, box P can have 3 or 4 gemstones. Thus, statement given in the first option [1] is definitely correct. Box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Statement given in option [2] is also correct. Thus, the best suitable option is [4]. Hence, [4]. Note: As box S had 1 gemstone, from (II), Amber and Topaz must be in box P. Box T does not have Coral. So, box S has to have Onyx. Coral is in box Q. Now Coral and Ruby are in box Q. So, box Q has either both Pearl and Sapphire or Emerald. Accordingly, box P, either Emerald or both Pearl and Sapphire. Thus, statement [3] is also true.

Correct Answer: All of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 3) If the number of gemstones in box R and box S are found to be equal and Emerald is in box P, then for how many of the given boxes, the exact gemstones placed in them can be uniquely determined?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. Box R (and box S as well) has two gemstones. So there are 3 gemstones in each of boxes P and Q. Emerald is in box P. From (II), Amber and Topaz can be in box P or box S. Case 1: Amber and Topaz are in box P. Pearl and Sapphire are in box Q with Coral or Onyx. Box S will have Ruby and either Onyx or Coral. But Ruby is not in box S. So, this case is invalid. Case 2: Amber and Topaz are in box S. So, box P has Ruby, Emerald and either Coral or Onyx. Box Q has Pearl, Sapphire and either Onyx or Coral. This is a valid case. Thus, it can be seen that the contents of boxes R and S can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 % 4) If the number of gemstones in box R and box S are found to be equal and Emerald is in box Q, then Coral is placed in Box P Box Q Box S Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. Each of boxes R and S has two gemstones. So there are 3 gemstones in each of boxes P and Q. Emerald is in box Q. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. From (II), Amber and Topaz can be in box P or S. Case 1: Amber and Topaz are in box P. Emerald, Pearl and Sapphire are in box Q. From (III), box Q should also have either Coral or Onyx. Thus, box Q have 4 gemstones, which is a contradiction. So, this case is invalid. Case 2: Amber and Topaz are in box S. So, box Q has Ruby, Emerald and either Coral or Onyx. Box P has Pearl, Sapphire and either Onyx or Coral. This is a valid case. Thus, it can be seen Coral can be placed in either P or Q. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 230 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Manchester United Football Club (MUFC) has four strikers – Lukaku, Rashford, Martial and Zlatan. Only one striker could be in the playing eleven for the Champions League Final against Football Club Barcelona. In order to select the striker, the manager of the MUFC decided to evaluate the performance of the four strikers in four penalty shootouts – PS 1, PS 2, PS 3 and PS 4, conducted in that order. Only the strikers who have cleared a penalty shootout (scored at least one goal) are eligible to take the next penalty shootout. Initially, each of the four penalty shootouts is scheduled to have exactly three attempts per striker at goal. However, for each striker, based on his performance, i.e. the number of goals scored in each of the penalty shootouts, the number of attempts at goal in each of his subsequent penalty shootouts are revised as per the following criteria: 1. In any penalty shootout, if the number of goals scored by a striker is at least 50%, but not 100%, of the total number of available attempts at goal (after all applicable revisions), he gets a bonus attempt at goal in each of his subsequent penalty shootouts. 2. In any penalty shootout, if a striker scores in all the possible attempts at goal (after all applicable revisions), then he gets three bonus attempts at goal in each of his subsequent possible attempts. 3. In any penalty shootout, for each goal scored, a striker is awarded 10 points by the manager and for each failed attempt at goal, he is penalised 3 points by the manager. The same point scheme is followed for all the attempts at goal, including the bonus attempts. The striker with maximum points, in all the four penalty shootouts put together, will be selected for the position of striker in the playing eleven at the Champions League Final against Football Club Barcelona. 1) If Zlatan scored 34 points in PS 2, and less than 24 attempts at goal in all four penalty shootouts put together, then at most how many points he could have scored in PS 3? 18 31 5 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: If Zlatan scored 34 points in PS2, he must have had six attempts at goal with four goals scored and two failed attempts. Hence, he gets seven attempts at goal in PS3. Total attempts at goal so far = 3(PS 1) + 6 (PS 2) + 7 (PS 3) = 16 Now, in PS 4, Zlatan could have (3 + 3 + 1 + 3 = 10 or 3 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 8 or 3 + 3 + 1 = 7) attempts at goal. Given that in total he had not more than 24 attempts at goal, this means that he had 7 attempts at goal in PS4. This means he scored a maximum of 3 × 10 – 4 × 3 = 18. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 18

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 % 2) If Lukaku scored 31 points in PS 3, then points scored by him in PS 2 cannot be 21 34 40 45 Video Explanation: Explanation: Lukaku scored 31 points in PS3. This means he had seven attempts at goal with 3 failed attempts 31 = 10 × 4 – 3 × 3 = 31 Hence, Lukaku had either 4 or 6 attempts at goal in PS 2 If he got 4 attempts, then he must have scored all 4 goals – Points in PS 2 = 40 If he got six attempts, he could have scored 3, 4 or 5 goals – Points in PS 2 = 21, 34 or 47 points . Hence [4] Correct Answer: 45 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 % 3) If Rashford had a total of 24 attempts at goal in all the four penalty shootouts put together, then he could have scored a maximum of _____. 214 240 227 224 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 227

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 % 4) It is given that Martial scored the same number of goals in PS 1 as Rashford did in PS 3. If Martial scored 17 points in PS 2, then Rashford could have scored a maximum of how many points in PS 4? 100

90 80 70 Video Explanation: Explanation: Given that Martial scored 17 points in PS 2. This means that Martial had 3 attempts at goal in PS 2 and he scored 2 goals. This also implies that he scored only one goal in PS 1. Given that Rashford scored same number of goals in PS 3 as Martial did in PS 1, therefore Rashford scored only one goal in PS 3. This implies that he had same number of attempts at goals in PS 4 as he had in PS 3. Maximum number of attempts Rashford could have had in PS 3 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 Maximum possible points in PS 4 = 9× 10 = 90. Hence [2] Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 197 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined Game of Pairs is a game played using two number machines in which a player earns points only when he selects positive integer numbers in each machine such that their product is 480. In how many ways can a player select positive integers so that he earns points? 20 24 25 32

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 480 = a × b We need to find all possible pairs (a, b). Finding value of a will fix value of b. a can be any factor of 480. We basically need to find the number of factors of 480.

480 = 25 × 31 × 51 Therefore, number of factors = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 72 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined Sameer normally takes 8 hours to drive from Agra to Chandigarh. Today, his car developed some fault at Noida, a city between Agra and Chandigarh. After fixing the fault in 24 minutes, he drove at a speed 25% more than the normal speed. He reached the destination 12 minutes earlier than the normal time. The ratio of distance between Agra and Noida to that between Noida and Chandigarh is 5:3 4:3 2:1 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 480 = a × b We need to find all possible pairs (a, b). Finding value of a will fix value of b. a can be any factor of 480. We basically need to find the number of factors of 480. 480 = 25 × 31 × 51 Therefore, number of factors = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 72 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined Find the number of roots that are common between x3 + 3x2 – 3x + 13 = 0 and x3 + 2x2 – 8x + 7 = 0. 0

1 2 3

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 74 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined The figure shows four squares: ABCD, PQRS, QTUR and TVWU. Find the ratio of the areas of squares ABCD and PQRS.

8:1 4:1

16 : 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 8:1

Time taken by you: 132 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 234 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 79 %

undefined A fly is stuck inside an inverted conical flask made of glass. The flask has an etched rim (represented by DE) at exactly half its height. The angle at the tip of the cone is 60°. The fly is initially sitting on a point along the circumference of the base of the flask. What is the ratio of the shortest and the longest possible distances that the fly would have to travel in order to reach the etched rim from its initial

position? Given that it always flies in a straight line to travel between any two points.

1:2

1:3

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined What is the difference between the square of the sum of the roots and the square of the difference of the roots of the equation 4x 2 + 11x – 17 = 0? 11 –11 17 –17

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –17 Time taken by you: 157 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined If 10 machines take 10 days to make 10 widgets, then how many days will 50 machines take to make 50 widgets? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 10 machines make 10 widgets in 10 days. Therefore, 1 machine will make 1 widget in 10 days. Therefore, 50 machines will make 50 widgets in 10 days. Therefore, the required answer is 10. Alternatively The number of widgets to be made is 5 times more. The number of machines availableis also 5 times more. Therefore, the number of days required will remain unchanged. Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined

64 : 75 14 : 15 4:5 56 : 75

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 56 : 75 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined Haider and Zubin simultaneously start running from their original positions towards each other, meet at a point in between, and then keep running till they reach the other person’s original position. The time taken by Haider from his original position till their meeting point and the time taken by Zubin from the meeting point till Haider’s original position are 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively. What is the total time taken by Haider to run from his original position to Zubin’s original position? 20 minutes 21 minutes 25 minutes 28 minutes

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 21 minutes Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined

a+b+c=1 abc = 1 abc = 4 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: abc = 1 Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined The Cost Incurred by Company (CIC) per employee for an organization varies with the number of employees in the organization. Priyakant, the HR Associate computed the maximum total CIC that could be possible in the main branch. He found out that the average CIC per employee in the main branch is (32 – x) thousand rupees when the number of employees is (3x + 24). What is the average CIC per employee when the maximum possible total CIC for the organization is observed at the main branch? Rs. 12,000 Rs. 16,000 Rs. 24,000 Rs. 20,000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Total CIC for the organization at the main branch (in thousands) = (32 – x)(3x + 24) = 3(32 – x)(x + 8) = 3(256 + 24x – x2 ) = 3[400 – 144 + 24x – x2 ] = 3[400 – (x – 12)2 ] Maximum possible total CIC will occur when x = 12. Total CIC for the organization at the main branch (in thousands) = (32 – x)(3x + 24) = 3(32 – x)(x + 8) = 3(256 + 24x – x2 ) = 3[400 – 144 + 24x – x2 ] = 3[400 – (x – 12)2 ] Maximum possible total CIC will occur when x = 12. Average CIC per employee = (32 – 12) thousand = Rs. 20,000 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Rs. 20,000 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 235 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined When x is increased by x%, it gives the same value as 2x does, when it is decreased by 2x%. What will be the value of 3x after it is increased by x%? (Given x is not equal to 0.)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 72 Time taken by you: 89 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined If f(x) = min (4 – x2 , 4 + x, 4 – x), then find the maximum value of f(x). –4 0 2 4

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: 4 – x2 graphically will be an inverted parabola that is symmetric about the y-axis and cutting y-axis at (0, 4). The graphs of (4 – x) and (4 + x) also pass through (0, 4). Therefore, the value of the function Min (4 – x2, 4 + x, 4 – x) will not be greater than 4. Hence, [4]. Alternatively, We can draw the graphs of each function to confirm our solution. The graphs of (4 – x2), (4 + x) and (4 – x) will be as follows:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined In ⎕ABCD, diagonal AC bisects diagonal BD at point O. AO = 10, BO = 24, CO = 32 and AD = 26. Find the perimeter of the quadrilateral.

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 132 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined A microbe doubles itself every 3 seconds. There were 100 microbes in a jar to start with. At the end of the 30th second, half of the microbial population got killed due to a poisonous gas and the rest continued to multiply. What will be the microbial population after 1 minute? (The only microbes that died during this period were the ones that died due to the poisonous gas at the end of the 30 th second.) 25 × 219 25 × 220 25 × 221 25 × 222 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Initial population = 100 Population after 30 seconds before the effect of poisonous gas = 100 × 210 Population after 30 seconds after the effect of poisonous gas = 50 × 210 Population after 60 seconds = 50 × 210 × 210 = 25 × 221 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 25 × 221 Time taken by you: 160 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined Banat lent Rs. 80,000 to Rukhsana with the assurance that Rukhsana would return Rs. 50,000 every year for two years. What is the approximate rate of compound interest per annum that Banat is charging Rukhsana? 11.8% 25% 18.75% 16.25%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 16.25% Time taken by you: 112 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined 1000 chocolates are to be distributed among the students of a class. It was observed that when some students were given 3 chocolates each and the remaining students were given 4 chocolates each, then 3 chocolates remained. What can be the maximum number of students in the class?

331 332 333 Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 332 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined A and B have speeds 20 m/s and 16 m/s. They are moving around a circular track beginning from point P on the track. In how many distinct points will they meet if they are moving in opposite directions?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The speeds 20 and 16 are not co-prime. We have 20 : 16 = 5 : 4. Now 5 and 4 are co-prime. Therefore, A and B will meet in 5 + 4 = 9 distinct points. Therefore, the required answer is 9. Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined How many points with integral coordinates are there inside the boundary of rhombus ABCD where the coordinates of A and C are (–12, 0) and (12, 0) respectively, and the area of the rhombus is 120 sq. units? 119 120 122 126

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

119 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined The LCM of two numbers is 120 and their product is 480. Which of the following cannot be their sum? 68 64 52 44

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the two numbers be ha and hb, where h is the HCF of the two numbers, where a and b are co-prime. hab = 120 and h2ab = 480 h=4 ab = 30 The possible values of (a, b) are (1, 30), (2, 15), (3, 10) and (5, 6). The two numbers can be (4, 120), (8, 60), (12, 40) and (20, 24). The sum of the two numbers can be 124, 68, 52 and 44. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 64 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 105 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined If log(x – 2) (3x – 2) = log(x – 2)2 (x + 2)2 , then x = _____. 1 2 4 Undefined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Undefined Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined Beaker A contains 60 litres of 60% acid solution. Another perfectly sealed beaker B filled with 20 litres of 90% acid solution is suspended above beaker A. Beaker B bursts such that 120 ml of the acid solution from beaker B starts leaking every minute and falling into beaker A. In how many seconds after the burst will the acid concentration in beaker A become 65%? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6000 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 25 %

undefined What is the ratio of the lengths of the shortest and the longest diagonals of a regular octagon?

1:2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Aninda has to make a payment of Rs. 26,000 to Aurobindo. While making the payment, he used a total of 250 notes of Rs. 20, Rs. 50 and Rs. 200 denominations. In how many distinct ways could he do that, if it is known that he used at least one note of each denomination? 25 26 30 31

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined A, B, C, D and E are equally efficient people who worked together on an assignment. After the completion of the assignment, each of them was paid Rs. 1000, assuming that each of them worked with 100% efficiency for equal amounts of time. However, later it was found that A alone worked for the entire duration till the assignment was completed while B did not work for 1 hour, C for 2 hours, D for 3 hours and E for 4 hours during the assignment. Had they been working equally, the assignment would have been completed in 12 hours. If the remunerations were recomputed, how much extra would A receive? Rs. 100 Rs. 120 Rs. 133.33 Rs. 166.66

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 166.66 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined A container has a certain number of balls each of a different colour. Let X = Number of ways of linearly arranging any 3 balls out of the container. Let Y = Number of ways of selecting 4 balls out of the container. It is given that X : Y = 6 : 7. What is the number of balls originally in the container? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 31 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined From a vessel containing 1 litre of pure acid, 100 ml pure acid was drawn out in each of the beakers A and B. The acid in both the beakers was diluted by adding water in different proportions. After that, the contents of A and B were added back to the vessel. The concentration of acid in the vessel now is 80%. Had the contents of beakers A and B be mixed with each other instead of adding into the vessel, what would be the concentration of acid in that mixture? 28.57% 44.44% 55.55% Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 44.44% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined How many 4-digit numbers have all four distinct digits? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The 1st digit can be chosen in 9 ways, the 2nd digit in 9 ways, the 3rd in 8 ways and the 4th in 7 ways. Therefore, total number of ways = 9 × 9 × 8 × 7 = 4536 Therefore, the required answer is 4536. Correct Answer: 4536 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined The average age of a family of five members reduces by 7 when the age of the oldest member is not considered. The average age increases by 4 when the age of the youngest member is not considered. The average of the middle three members is 16. Find the average age of the oldest and youngest members. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 104 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined The sum of seven consecutive even numbers is 2982. What will be the sum of all the odd numbers between these even numbers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2556 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined The largest number that definitely divides the sum of the cubes of three consecutive natural numbers (out of which only one is even) is ____. 12 30 36 48

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the three consecutive numbers be (2n – 1), (2n) and (2n + 1). Sum of their cubes = (2n – 1)3 + (2n)3 + (2n + 1)3 = (8n3 – 1 – 12n2 + 6n) + (8n3) + (8n3 + 1 + 12n2 + 6n) = 24n3 + 12n = 12n(2n2 + 1) One of (n) or (2n2 + 1) will always be divisible by 3. The sum of the cubes will always be divisible by 12 × 3 = 36. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 36 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined In a class of 120 students, the percentage of students who play neither Tabla nor Sitar is 20%. The percentage of students who play neither Veena nor Sitar is 30%. The percentage of students who play neither Veena nor Tabla is 40%. What can be the maximum percentage of students who play exactly two instruments out of Tabla, Sitar and Veena? It is known that each student plays at least one instrument. 5% 10% 20% 50%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

We can draw the Venn diagram as follows:

Number of students who play exactly two instruments will be maximized when those who play all three is minimized to 0. Required number = 120 – (36 + 48 + 24) = 12 Required percentage = 10% Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 10% Time taken by you: 262 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 191 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Imagine three kids running around a maypole, forming a chain with their arms. The innermost kid is holding the pole with one hand. The faster they run, the more centrifugal force there is tearing the chain apart. The tighter they grip, the more centripetal force there is holding the chain together. Eventually centrifugal force exceeds centripetal force and the chain breaks. That’s essentially what is happening in this country, N.Y.U.’s Jonathan Haidt argued in a lecture delivered to the Manhattan Institute in November. He listed some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus. Haidt made the interesting point that identity politics per se is not the problem. Identity politics is just political mobilization around group characteristics. The problem is that identity politics has dropped its centripetal elements and become entirely centrifugal. Martin Luther King described segregation and injustice as forces tearing us apart. He appealed to universal principles and our common humanity as ways to heal prejudice and unite the nation. He appealed to common religious principles, the creed of our founding fathers and a common language of love to drive out prejudice. King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed. “A funny thing happens,” Haidt said, “when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” The problem is that tribal common-enemy thinking tears a diverse nation apart. This pattern is not just on campus. Look at the negative polarization that marks our politics. Parties, too, are no longer bound together by creeds but by enemies. In 1994, only 16 percent of Democrats had a “very unfavorable” view of the G.O.P. Now, 38 percent do. Then, only 17 percent of Republicans had a “very unfavorable” view of Democrats. Now, 43 percent do. When the Pew Research Center asked Democrats and Republicans to talk about each other, they tended to use the same words: closed-minded, dishonest, immoral, lazy, and unintelligent. Furthermore, it won’t be easy to go back to the common-humanity form of politics. King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years. Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion. In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security.” In societies like ours, individuals are responsible for their own identity, happiness and success. “Everyone must sell himself as a person in order to be accepted,” Bruckner wrote. We all are constantly comparing ourselves to others and, of course, coming up short. The biggest anxiety is moral. We each have to write our own gospel that defines our own virtue. The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault. 1) The writer uses the maypole example in order to … Explain that when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force the chain breaks. Resolve the differences between the political attitudes of various people, who act in ways similar to these forces that are centrifugal or centripetal. Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity. Capture the fundamental notions of forces acting around a centre point and the reasons these forces always are of two opposing natures. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Paragraph 2 states – “That’s essentially what is happening in this country, ………..some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus.” The objective of using the maypole as an example was thus to lead to an understanding of these opposing forces playing out in the political landscape. Option 1 is incorrect. The example that occurs at the beginning of the essay is not used to literally explain what happens when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The maypole example is used as a starting point to explain the ideas of forces that pull things apart and those that bring things together. It is clearly not meant to “resolve” any issues. Option 3 is correct. The maypole example leads to an understanding of how these centrifugal and centripetal forces can be seen to operate in the political lives of human beings. Thus option 3 correctly states that the example is used to correctly explain the current political scenario in which identity politics has overwhelmed the binding force of a sense of common humanity. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The example is not meant to literally capture the notions of forces running around a centre point. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity.

Time taken by you: 348 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 241 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 2)According to the passage, in terms of the political situation, what are the two forces that are of a centripetal nature? Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years. Humanitarian values that have been upheld by democratic societies and individual morality that makes for a society based on civility. Democratic institutions that rely on individual sincerity and legal institutions that protect individual rights. Political identities that are based on homogeneous social and religious structures and recourse to the law when individual liberties are threatened. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. Refer to paragraph 4: “King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years.” Option 1 refers to this when it talks of ‘Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years’. These two aspects are seen as the two “forces of social cohesion” or centripetal forces. This is implied in the next line which says – “Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion”. Option 2 is incorrect. Humanitarian values and individual morality are not referred to in the passage as two centripetal or cohesive forces. Option 3 is incorrect. Democratic and legal institutions are also not stated in the passage as two forces of social cohesion. Option 4 is incorrect. Political identities and recourse to the law are not stated to be centripetal forces in the passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years. Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 18 % 3) According to the author, the ‘new form of identity politics on campuses’ is mainly a manifestation of which of the following? The deliberate attempt to radicalise the youth on campuses by making them see themselves as belonging to a particular victim group. The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism. The campus is a breeding ground for feelings of inferiority and superiority. The youth on campuses are only capable of seeing situations in a binary form and cannot grasp the unity of things. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The writer states that “The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story”. However, it is incorrect to say that this is the result of a deliberate attempt to radicalise the youth – nothing in the passage can lead to this conclusion. Option 2 is correct. The sixth paragraph states that “….when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” Therefore option 2 is correct when it states that “The youth find it easy to identify with a certain tribe or group as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.”.Option 3 is incorrect. There is no such reference to feelings of inferiority or superiority in the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that the minds of youth, that have evolved with tribal instincts, are filled ‘full of binary dimensions’ on campus. It does not state or imply that the youth are only capable of ‘seeing situations in a binary form’. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.

Time taken by you: 166 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 26 % 4)Who does the writer refer to when he says - You have virtue without obligation – in the last paragraph. The person who is the innocent victim of an oppressor and who has become aware of the fact that he/she is oppressed. The person who has identified his/her status as a victim and the group that has made him/her a victim. The person who understands that in order to fit in with those who are better than oneself, one must find one’s own story of victim hood. The person who decides to be a victim of circumstances and is thus able to navigate the future course of action, based on this identity. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph where it states: “The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault.” The writer sarcastically suggests that one must “build your own innocence on your status as victim”. Therefore the person who has virtue without obligation is not actually the innocent victim. Option 2 is correct. As the last paragraph states, the person who has a tribal oppressor/oppressed story to tell, and has identified his own victimhood as well as his herd’s oppressor can go ahead and “have virtue without obligation”. Option 3 is incorrect. There is no reference to fitting in with those who are better than oneself. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage doesn’t imply that the “the person decides to be a victim of circumstances” or that he is then clear about any future course of action. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: The person who has identified his/her status as a victim and the group that has made him/her a victim. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 5)According to the writer, how has Identity politics changed since Martin Luther King? Identity politics today has more to do with politics than identities whereas earlier it was about identities and not politics. Identity politics today is about the population following a leader whereas earlier it was about a leader understanding his followers. Identity politics today is ubiquitous – with everyone choosing a tag to identify with, whereas earlier it was a matter of pertinence and relevance to real issues. Identity politics today is about grabbing power from those who have unfairly retained it and earlier it was about emphasising common ground with the oppressor. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that identity politics was always there, even during the time of Martin Luther King. And it was about identity, both earlier and now. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not make any statements about leaders understanding their followers or populations following leaders. Option 3 is incorrect – the passage does not imply that the difference lies in the ubiquity of identity politics. Option 4 is correct. The answer can be deduced from the fourth and the fifth paragraph. “King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed.” Thus option 4 correctly states the difference in identity politics as one that is about grabbing power and about emphasising common ground. The focus on power leads to the difference. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Identity politics today is about grabbing power from those who have unfairly retained it and earlier it was about emphasising common ground with the oppressor. Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 35 % 6) One may infer from the passage that according to Pascal Bruckner, the individualist reverts to tribalism essentially because He feels besieged by conflicting thoughts. He feels insecure in his individualism. He has to sell himself as a person in order to be accepted. He is uncertain about his own individual self Video Explanation: Explanation: Towards the end of the passage the writer states, “In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security”.” Thus, Bruckner concludes that the individual is insecure and from this one can infer that it is the loss of security that pushes him towards tribalism. Option 1 is incorrect. “Conflicting thoughts”, as option 1 suggests, are not the reason for the return to tribalism. Option 2 is correct. Because of “the lack of assurance of a place”, Bruckner states that while the individual gains freedom, he loses security. And given what is said earlier about the natural urge of humans to identify with a tribe, one can correctly infer that this insecurity acts as a trigger to tribalism in the person who believes in individualism. Option 3 is incorrect. Bruckner is quoted as saying that the individual today “has to sell himself in order to be accepted”. However the question as to why the individualist reverts to tribalism is answered by the quote earlier in the passage which explains the individualist’s insecurity arising from his reliance only on himself. Thus the reason the individualist moves to tribalism is because of insecurity and not because he has to sell himself as a person. Option 4 is incorrect. The individual is “insecure” because of the absence of a base and not because he is “uncertain of his own individual self”. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: He feels insecure in his individualism.

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Imagine three kids running around a maypole, forming a chain with their arms. The innermost kid is holding the pole with one hand. The faster they run, the more centrifugal force there is tearing the chain apart. The tighter they grip, the more centripetal force there is holding the chain together. Eventually centrifugal force exceeds centripetal force and the chain breaks. That’s essentially what is happening in this country, N.Y.U.’s Jonathan Haidt argued in a lecture delivered to the Manhattan Institute in November. He listed some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in

World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus. Haidt made the interesting point that identity politics per se is not the problem. Identity politics is just political mobilization around group characteristics. The problem is that identity politics has dropped its centripetal elements and become entirely centrifugal. Martin Luther King described segregation and injustice as forces tearing us apart. He appealed to universal principles and our common humanity as ways to heal prejudice and unite the nation. He appealed to common religious principles, the creed of our founding fathers and a common language of love to drive out prejudice. King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed. “A funny thing happens,” Haidt said, “when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” The problem is that tribal common-enemy thinking tears a diverse nation apart. This pattern is not just on campus. Look at the negative polarization that marks our politics. Parties, too, are no longer bound together by creeds but by enemies. In 1994, only 16 percent of Democrats had a “very unfavorable” view of the G.O.P. Now, 38 percent do. Then, only 17 percent of Republicans had a “very unfavorable” view of Democrats. Now, 43 percent do. When the Pew Research Center asked Democrats and Republicans to talk about each other, they tended to use the same words: closed-minded, dishonest, immoral, lazy, and unintelligent. Furthermore, it won’t be easy to go back to the common-humanity form of politics. King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years. Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion. In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security.” In societies like ours, individuals are responsible for their own identity, happiness and success. “Everyone must sell himself as a person in order to be accepted,” Bruckner wrote. We all are constantly comparing ourselves to others and, of course, coming up short. The biggest anxiety is moral. We each have to write our own gospel that defines our own virtue. The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault. 1) The writer uses the maypole example in order to … Explain that when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force the chain breaks. Resolve the differences between the political attitudes of various people, who act in ways similar to these forces that are centrifugal or centripetal. Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity. Capture the fundamental notions of forces acting around a centre point and the reasons these forces always are of two opposing natures. Video Explanation:

Correct Answer: Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity.

Correct Answer: The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.

Correct Answer: He feels insecure in his individualism.

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 52 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. As Arctic permafrost thaws, it unleashes a vicious cycle—the unfrozen soil releases its carbon reserves that intensify climate change, in turn accelerating the thaw. Now researchers have reported another disturbing discovery: The permafrost holds a much greater cache of mercury than thought—and as the ground warms, it could potentially release that toxic metal on the world. In the new study, published in Geophysical Research Letters, an international team of scientists drilled 13 permafrost soil cores at various locations in Alaska. Back at their lab they analysed the frozen cores to measure factors such as moisture, organic carbon and mercury content. The 50- to 100-centimeter cores spanned a time between 22,000 and 2,400 years ago, meaning the vast majority of mercury they hold came from nonhuman sources. The researchers used their measurements to extrapolate an estimate of how much mercury is stored in the entire Northern Hemisphere’s permafrost. Their results indicate Arctic permafrost holds about 793 gigagrams of mercury—more than 15 million gallons, or the equivalent of about 23 Olympic swimming pools, says Paul Schuster, a research geologist for the U.S. Geological Survey and one of the study authors. When the researchers calculated the amount of mercury likely stored in both the permafrost and the layer of soil that sits above it (and routinely thaws for part of the year), they estimated there is a total of 1,656 gigagrams. “The active layer and the permafrost together contain nearly twice as much [mercury] as all the other soils, the ocean and the atmosphere combined,” the researchers wrote in their study. Permafrost is frozen soil, rock or sediment that stays at or below freezing for at least two consecutive years. It covers about a quarter of the Northern Hemisphere’s landmass, which helps explain why it holds so much mercury. But permafrost is also unique in that its frozen state traps the mercury in the soil, rather than allowing it to be mobile in the environment. “In [other locations such as] the Lower 48 [U.S. states], soils are hydrologically connected and mercury cycles through. It’s part of the whole global mercury cycle,” Schuster says. “In the Arctic you’re locking in the mercury—it’s not reacting with the rest of the world.” The new findings have potentially massive implications for ecosystems and human health. Between 30 and 99 percent of the Arctic’s near-surface permafrost is predicted to thaw by 2100, according to the study. As it does so, at least a portion of the previously lockedaway mercury will probably become mobile. “It becomes not just an Arctic problem, but a global problem,” says Elsie Sunderland, an associate professor of environmental science and engineering at Harvard University who was not involved in the study. “It doesn’t just stay in the [same] place.” The mercury could either be washed into the Arctic Ocean and then circulate through the global marine system or escape into the

atmosphere and travel to other parts of the planet. Either in the Arctic soil or in the broader environment, mercury can get converted into a form dangerous to humans and other wildlife, including marine animals. “The other half of the story—the one that most people are concerned with—is how does this affect the health of our environment, our aquatic systems, us?” Schuster says. “This has major ramifications.” Other experts concur: “It really reinforces the [idea] that climate change can make a lot of other environmental issues worse,” says Noelle Selin, an associate professor of data, systems, and society, and atmospheric chemistry at Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Carl Lamborg, an assistant professor of ocean sciences at the University of California, Santa Cruz, agrees it is definitely a concern that humans have potentially “added a whole bunch of mercury into the global mercury cycle.” But he also notes, “it’s a little hard to know exactly what’s going to happen when this permafrost soil thaws. Just because the soil warms, is all of the mercury going to get released? I don’t think we know, but it’s definitely something to be worried about.” Schuster says this is exactly what experts want to find out now: “The next question is, if it’s going to be released, where is it going to go?” 1) Which of the following best describes what the writer is attempting to do in this passage? To caution mankind of the consequences of the large amounts of mercury in the Arctic that may become mobile sooner than expected in view of climate change owing to human activities. To bring to light the hitherto unknown existence of enormous amounts of mercury in the Arctic permafrost and the risk it poses to the environment. To explain the findings of a recent study related to the Arctic permafrost that has potentially massive implications for ecosystems and human health. To point out that Northern Hemisphere’s huge cache of mercury has troubling implications for wildlife and human health. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The writer explains the discovery of large amounts of mercury in the Northern Hemisphere’s permafrost and says that it may get released owing to natural thawing – he calls it a vicious cycle. The writer does not attribute the potential release to manmade climate change. His position is that “climate change can make a lot of other environmental issues worse.” Option 1 which states ‘sooner than expected” and ascribing a direct cause effect relationship between an environmental issue and human activities is not his purpose. Option 2 is incorrect. The option says“hitherto unknown existence” of mercury on the Northern Hemisphere. This distorts the passage and the purpose. The discovery helped the scientist to understand that ‘the permafrost held a much greater cache of mercury that thought.’ Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 is too general, though it can apply to the passage. The specific nature of the discovery that has massive implications is not specified in the option. Option 4 is correct. It captures the purpose of the writer in brief. He points out that scientists have only recently realized the extent of mercury in the permafrost in the Northern Hemisphere. And that its potential release owing to natural thawing of the permafrost can become a global problem. And, like many other environmental issues this problem can also be aggravated by human made climate change. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: To point out that Northern Hemisphere’s huge cache of mercury has troubling implications for wildlife and human health.

Time taken by you: 338 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 % 2) According to the passage, all these are true EXCEPT: A quarter of Northern Hemisphere’s landmass contains almost twice as much mercury as all other soils, the ocean, and the atmosphere combined. Mercury occurring in the active layer and the permafrost is a naturally occurring phenomenon. Mercury from the Arctic routinely gets washed into the Arctic Ocean and circulates through the global marine system in the ‘mercury cycle’. A global ‘mercury cycle’ is a natural phenomenon at places other than the Arctic. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is factually correct. One fourth of the Northern Hemisphere is Permafrost and this permafrost and the active layer together contain as much mercury as all other sources put together – in effect 1/4th of the Northern Hemisphere holds this mercury. Options 2 and 4 are true according the passage. Option 2 is stated in the second paragraph. The researchers found that the vast majority of mercury the permafrost holds came from non-human sources. The cores they examined spanned a time between 22000 and 2400 years ago. So Mercury occurring in the active layer and the permafrost is a naturally occurring phenomenon. Option 3 is factually incorrect. Mercury in the permafrost is locked up in the permafrost and not part of the mercury cycle. Paragraph 4 states “… permafrost is also unique in that its frozen state traps the mercury in the soil, rather than allowing it to be mobile in the environment. … In the Arctic you’re locking in the mercury—it’s not reacting with the rest of the world.” Option 4 is factually correct. The fourth paragraph explains this cycle. It is only in the permafrost keeps the mercury locked in. At places other than the Arctic, for example, in the Lower 48 US states, soils are hydrologically connected and mercury cycles through. The passage then states that it is a part of the global phenomenon. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Mercury from the Arctic routinely gets washed into the Arctic Ocean and circulates through the global marine system in the ‘mercury cycle’.

Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 % 3)In the light of the passage, the enormous amount of mercury locked-in in the Arctic permafrost is “something to be worried about” because: Mercury can get converted into a form dangerous to humans and other wildlife, including marine animals. According to the study, between 30 and 99 percent of the Arctic’s near-surface permafrost is predicted to thaw by 2100. According to Carl Lamborg, humans have potentially added a whole bunch of mercury into the global mercury cycle. The ‘active layer’ or the layer of soil that sits above the permafrost routinely thaws for part of the year. Video Explanation: Explanation: The reason for the worry can be briefly explained this way: A recent research estimated the quantity of mercury held sealed by the permafrost to be massive. As permafrost thaws, this mercury can be potentially released into the environment causing harm to humans and animals. The worry mainly springs from the possibility of the thawing of the arctic permafrost. Option 1 is incorrect. It is a fact that mercury exists in the Arctic. That it can get converted into harmful forms cannot be worrisome only if it is released into the environment. Option 1 does no indicate nay such possibility. Option 2 is correct. As explained in the passage, the thaw of the Arctic will make the mercury so far sealed within the permafrost mobile. Its release into the environment has major ramifications. These ramifications are worrisome. Option 3 is incorrect. t talks about the human contribution to the store of mercury. It cannot answer the question why mercury in the Arctic permafrost is worrisome. Option 4 is incorrect. The routine and periodical thaw of the ‘active layer’ is not advanced as of any major concern in the passage. It is explained as a periodical occurrence and a part of the mercury cycle, hence not worrisome or elated to the mercury locked in by the arctic permafrost. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: According to the study, between 30 and 99 percent of the Arctic’s near-surface permafrost is predicted to thaw by 2100. Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 % 4)It can be inferred from the passage that … The permafrost contributes is one of the natural factors affecting climate change. Arctic’s near surface permafrost is predicted to thaw completely by 2100 releasing 1656 gigagrams of locked-in mercury. The consequences of the thaw of arctic permafrost are beginning to be felt in the Northern Hemisphere. The mercury held locked-in by the Arctic permafrost has an otherwise important role to play in the mercury-cycle in the environment. 5)Which one of the following, about permafrost, is NOT asserted in the passage? Stays frozen for at least two consecutive years. Thaw of Permafrost periodically releases the mercury locked-in inside. Covers a quarter of the landmass of the Northern Hemisphere. Holds totally 793 gigagrams of mercury. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Options 1, 3 and 4 are explicitly stated in the passage. An explanation of what the permafrost is, can be found in the 4th paragraph. The permafrost is frozen soil, rock or sediment that stays at or below freezing for at least two consecutive years. This makes option 1 correct. Option 3 is stated in the same paragraph that it (permafrost) covers about a quarter of the Northern Hemisphere’s landmass. The beginning of paragraph 3 states that Arctic permafrost holds about 793 gigagrams of mercury. This makes option 4 also correct. Option 2 is not correct. The first paragraph states that “As Arctic permafrost thaws, it unleashes a vicious cycle—the unfrozen soil releases its carbon reserves that intensify climate change, in turn accelerating the thaw.” The fourth paragraph states that the mercury in the permafrost does not react with the rest of the world. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Thaw of Permafrost periodically releases the mercury locked-in inside. Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 6)According to the passage, the findings of the study highlight which of the following? The consequences of human activities that have added a whole bunch of mercury into the global mercury cycle. The unpredictable effects of natural and man-made climate change. How climate change can affect other natural phenomena and make them worse. How a local phenomenon restricted to the Arctic can become a global problem.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The fact that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being, or even of market activity, has, of course, long been recognized. But changes in

society and the economy may have heightened the problems, at the same time that advances in economics and statistical techniques may have provided opportunities to improve our metrics. For example, while GDP is supposed to measure the value of output of goods and services, in one key sector – government – we typically have no way of doing it, so we often measure the output simply by the inputs. If government spends more – even if inefficiently – output goes up. In the last 60 years, the share of government output in GDP has increased from 21.4% to 38.6% in the US, from 27.6% to 52.7% in France, from 34.2% to 47.6% in the United Kingdom, and from 30.4% to 44.0% in Germany. So what was a relatively minor problem has now become a major one. Likewise, quality improvements – say, better cars rather than just more cars – account for much of the increase in GDP nowadays. But assessing quality improvements is difficult. Health care exemplifies this problem: much of medicine is publicly provided, and much of the advances are in quality. The same problems in making comparisons over time apply to comparisons across countries. The United States spends more on health care than any other country (both per capita and as a percentage of income), but gets poorer outcomes. Part of the difference between GDP per capita in the US and some European countries may thus be a result of the way we measure things. Another marked change in most societies is an increase in inequality. This means that there is increasing disparity between average (mean) income and the median income (that of the “typical” person, whose income lies in the middle of the distribution of all incomes). If a few bankers get much richer, average income can go up, even as most individuals’ incomes are declining. So GDP per capita statistics may not reflect what is happening to most citizens. We use market prices to value goods and services. But now, even those with the most faith in markets question reliance on market prices, as they argue against mark-to-market valuations. The pre-crisis profits of banks – one-third of all corporate profits – appear to have been a mirage. This realization casts a new light not only on our measures of performance, but also on the inferences we make. Before the crisis, when US growth (using standard GDP measures) seemed so much stronger than that of Europe, many Europeans argued that Europe should adopt US-style capitalism. Of course, anyone who wanted to could have seen American households’ growing indebtedness, which would have gone a long way toward correcting the false impression of success given by the GDP statistic. Recent methodological advances have enabled us to assess better what contributes to citizens’ sense of well-being, and to gather the data needed to make such assessments on a regular basis. These studies, for instance, verify and quantify what should be obvious: the loss of a job has a greater impact than can be accounted for just by the loss of income. They also demonstrate the importance of social connectedness. Any good measure of how well we are doing must also take account of sustainability. Just as a firm needs to measure the depreciation of its capital, so, too, our national accounts need to reflect the depletion of natural resources and the degradation of our environment. Statistical frameworks are intended to summarize what is going on in our complex society in a few easily interpretable numbers. It should have been obvious that one couldn’t reduce everything to a single number, GDP. The report by the Commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress will, one hopes, lead to a better understanding of the uses, and abuses, of that statistic. The report should also provide guidance for creating a broader set of indicators that more accurately capture both well-being and sustainability; and it should provide impetus for improving the ability of GDP and related statistics to assess the performance of the economy and society. Such reforms will help us direct our efforts (and resources) in ways that lead to improvement in both. 1) The primary purpose of the passage is to: Identify some critical shortcomings of GDP and suggest that better indicators of economic well-being and sustainability are needed. Show that incorrect interpretation of GDP numbers lead to a false notion that US growth was much stronger than that of Europe. Suggest ways in which inferences from GDP numbers could be improved so that economic well-being and sustainability can be assessed more accurately. Argue that changes in society and the economy and simultaneous advances in economics and statistical techniques have diminished the relevance of GDP as an indicator of the nation’s economic well-being. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is correct. The passage lists the shortcomings of the GDP and how ‘one couldn’t reduce everything to a single number GDP.’ The last paragraph then states that “the report of the Commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress should also provide guidance for creating a broader set of indicators that more accurately capture both well-being and sustainability; and it should provide impetus for improving the ability of GDP and related statistics to assess the performance of the economy and society. Such reforms will help us direct our efforts (and resources) in ways that lead to improvement in both. ” Option 2 is incorrect. This point is made in the passage to show the consequences of incorrect inferences made from GDP numbers. It is not the main point of the passage. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest ways to improve inferences from GDP numbers; it merely states that inferences from GDP numbers must be improved. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage mentions this point to argue against chasing GDP growth. It is not the primary purpose of the passage. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Identify some critical shortcomings of GDP and suggest that better indicators of economic well-being and sustainability are needed.

Time taken by you: 333 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 223 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2)The function of paragraph 3 in the passage as a whole is to: Narrow the scope of discussion pertaining to limitations of GDP. Present examples to assert that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being. Cite the most prominent limitation of GDP. Explain the need for quality improvements. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. 3rd paragraph does not narrow down the scope of the passage. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that GDP has limitations and there is an opportunity to improve the economic metrics. Paragraphs 2 and 3 provide examples corresponding to the assertion made in paragraph 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Para 3 makes no mention of the most prominent limitation of GDP. Option 4 is incorrect. In context of the passage as a whole, paragraph 3 serves to provide examples of limitations of GDP. The function of paragraph 3 is not to explain the need for quality improvement per se. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Present examples to assert that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being. Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 % 3)The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following? GDP measure may actually impede economic development by limiting the application of statistical techniques to improve general well-being. GDP is a comprehensive and accurate indicator of a nation’s well-being and market activity. Market prices of goods and services are usually less than the intrinsic value of those goods and services. GDP is calculated differently in capitalist countries like US than in non- capitalist European countries. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. The author states that “The fact that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being … has long been recognized.” Also, it states that “… in most societies [there] is an increase in inequality … GDP per capita statistics may not reflect what is happening to most citizens.” This implies that GDP might not capture the growing inequality.” In the 8th paragraph the writer says that “Recent methodological advances have enabled us to assess better what contributes to citizens’ sense of well-being, and to gather the data needed to make such assessments on a regular basis” GDP, by being a false metric in itself may hinder the application of these methodological advances. Option 2 is incorrect. In fact, the author states the opposite that GDP is a poor measure of a nation’s wellbeing. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not mention of intrinsic value of goods and services. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage makes no mention of capitalist vs. non-capitalist countries. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: GDP measure may actually impede economic development by limiting the application of statistical techniques to improve general well-being. Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 4)

The passage mentions all of the following as not included in GDP, EXCEPT: Importance of social connectedness. Degradation of environment. A country’s growing indebtedness. Depletion of natural resources. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that recent methodological advances demonstrate importance of social connectedness. It is implied that GDP did not factor in social connectedness. Therefore this is not an exception. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that “Any good measure … must also take account of sustainability. … our national accounts need to reflect the depletion of natural resources and the degradation of our environment.” Option 3 is correct. The passage does not mention whether or not a country’s growing indebtedness is a parameter of GDP. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 2 the need for GDP to take account of depletion of natural resources is mentioned by the author. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: A country’s growing indebtedness.

Time taken by you: 93 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 54 % 5)The reference to “American households’ growing indebtedness” serves to do which of the following? Argue that Europe should not adopt US-style capitalism. Highlight the limitations of GDP. Show that the pre-crisis growth of US was stronger than that of Europe. Demonstrate the importance of recent methodological advances to measure economic well-being. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The author states that “…many Europeans argued that Europe should adopt US-style capitalism.” The author does not argue for or against it. Option 2 is correct. In paragraph 7, the author states that “before the crisis, when US growth (using standard GDP measures) seemed so much stronger than that of Europe, many Europeans argued that Europe should adopt USstyle capitalism. Of course, anyone who wanted to could have seen American households’ growing indebtedness, which would have gone a long way toward correcting the false impression of success given by the GDP statistic.” Hence, the author highlights that limitations of GDP could have been observed by looking at American households’ growing debts.” Option 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions that pre-crisis growth of US only “seemed” to be stronger than that of Europe. Rather the author argues that the perceived growth was actually a false impression given by GDP statistics. Option 4 is incorrect. The author does not mention “American households’ growing indebtedness” to show the importance of recent methodological advances. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Highlight the limitations of GDP. Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 6)All of the following can be inferred from the passage, EXCEPT: GDP per capita statistics do not reveal the increase in inequality. A good measure of economic well-being should evaluate the destructive impact of economic activities on the environment. (GDP does not measure the destructive impact of economic activities on the environment.) Nations that rely heavily on economic indicators such as the GDP tend to become increasingly capitalistic in nature. Sustainability is one of the key factors to measure economic well-being of a nation. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “Another marked change in most societies is an increase in inequality … GDP per capita statistics may not reflect what is happening to most citizens.” This option can be inferred from the passage and is NOT an exception. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions that “… our national accounts need to reflect … the degradation of our environment.” Option 3 is correct. The passage makes no correlation between reliance on GDP and tendency of a nation to become increasingly capitalistic. We cannot infer this option from the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that “Any good measure … must also take account of sustainability.” Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Nations that rely heavily on economic indicators such as the GDP tend to become increasingly capitalistic in nature. Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The human intellect is said to be so constituted that general ideas arise by abstraction from particular observations, and therefore come after them in point of time. If this is what actually occurs, as happens in the case of a man who has to depend solely upon his own experience for what he learns — who has no teacher and no book — such a man knows quite well which of his particular observations belong to and are represented by each of his general ideas. He has a perfect acquaintance with both sides of his experience, and accordingly, he treats everything that comes in his way from a right standpoint. This might be called the natural method of education. Contrarily, the artificial method is to hear what other people say, to learn and to read, and so to get your head crammed full of general ideas before you have any sort of extended acquaintance with the world as it is, and as you may see it for yourself. You will be told that the particular observations which go to make these general ideas will come to you later on in the course of experience; but until that time arrives, you apply your general ideas wrongly, you judge men and things from a wrong standpoint, you see them in a wrong light, and

treat them in a wrong way. So it is that education perverts the mind. This explains why it so frequently happens that, after a long course of learning and reading, we enter upon the world in our youth, partly with an artless ignorance of things, partly with wrong notions about them; so that our demeanor savors at one moment of a nervous anxiety, at another of a mistaken confidence. The reason of this is simply that our head is full of general ideas which we are now trying to turn to some use, but which we hardly ever apply rightly. This is the result of acting in direct opposition to the natural development of the mind by obtaining general ideas first, and particular observations last: it is putting the cart before the horse. Instead of developing the child’s own faculties of discernment, and teaching it to judge and think for itself, the teacher uses all his energies to stuff its head full of the ready-made thoughts of other people. The mistaken views of life, which spring from a false application of general ideas, have afterwards to be corrected by long years of experience; and it is seldom that they are wholly corrected. This is why so few men of learning are possessed of common-sense, such as is often to be met with in people who have had no instruction at all. 1)What is the main idea of the passage? The abstraction of one’s general ideas should follow from and be rooted in direct experience and observation. The artificial method of education is essentially the inverse of the natural method. Artificial education produces at once a nervous anxiety and mistaken confidence. Common-sense is uncommon among learned men. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. The author argues for natural method of education i.e. to first observe the world by ourselves and then form general ideas about those observations and against the artificial method. Option 2 is incorrect. The author mentions that artificial method is contrary to the natural method but it is not the main idea of the passage. Option 3 is incorrect. The author uses this point to argue against the artificial method but it is not the central point of the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The author again uses this argument against the artificial method of education but it does not convey the main idea of the passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: The abstraction of one’s general ideas should follow from and be rooted in direct experience and observation. Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 143 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 2)The author contends that artificial method of education leads to “artless ignorance” in the third paragraph to point out that: We see the world around us as per the ready-made thoughts of other people rather than try to see and think for ourselves. We tend to be generally ignorant about the art and beauty around us. Wrong general ideas are filled into our minds and have to be corrected afterwards. People who have no instructions at all are not ignorant and have better common-sense. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. “Artless ignorance” is used in the context of the subsequent sentence i.e. “The reason of this is simply that our head is full of general ideas which we are now trying to turn to some use, but which we hardly ever apply rightly.” Option 2 is incorrect. This option is out of context of the passage. Option 3 is incorrect. “Artless ignorance” does not refer to wrong ideas filled into our minds. Option 4 is incorrect. In the context of the passage, “Artless ignorance” does not refer to people with no instructions and their common-sense. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: We see the world around us as per the ready-made thoughts of other people rather than try to see and think for ourselves. Time taken by you: 140 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 3)In the author’s view, education perverts the mind because We judge men and things from a wrong standpoint. We are filled with general ideas but have no practical observations. We apply general ideas wrongly. We treat men in a wrong way. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. This option is a consequence of education perverting the mind, but is not the reason why education perverts the mind option 2 is correct. Paragraph 2 mentions that “You will be told that the particular observations which go to make these general ideas will come to you later on in the course of experience;…”. This is the reason why education perverts the mind. Option 3 & 4 are incorrect. Again like option 1 these are the consequences and not the reason. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: We are filled with general ideas but have no practical observations. Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 63 %

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undefined Given below is a paragraph, followed by four options. From the given options, choose the one that summarises the paragraph in the most appropriate way. The current moment in world history is a painful one. Open societies are in crisis, and various forms of dictatorships and mafia states, exemplified by Vladimir Putin’s Russia, are on the rise. In the United States, President Donald Trump would like to establish his own mafia-style state but cannot, because the Constitution, other institutions, and a vibrant civil society won’t allow it. Not only is the survival of open society in question; the survival of our entire civilization is at stake. The rise of leaders such as Kim Jong-un in North Korea and Trump in the US have much to do with this. Both seem willing to risk a nuclear war in order to keep themselves in power. But the root cause goes even deeper. Mankind’s ability to harness the forces of nature, both for constructive and destructive purposes, continues to grow, while our ability to govern ourselves properly fluctuates, and is now at a low ebb. Putin in Russia, Trump in the US and Kim Jong-un in North Korea put our civilization and open society at risk with their craze for power and threats of nuclear war. This root cause lies in our inability to govern ourselves combined with the destructive capabilities of technology. The current moment in world history is a painful one because of the rise of dictatorships and Mafia states like Russia, US and North Korea. Their threat of nuclear war arises from their craze for power and the destructive technologies at their disposal. The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states, Russia, US, and North Korea puts the survival of our civilization at stake with threats of nuclear war as they want to remain in power. Our ability to govern ourselves is at its lowest ebb compared to the destructive potential of science. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Given below is a paragraph, followed by four options. From the given options, choose the one that summarises the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Alongside Paul Rée, Nietzsche came to the conviction that values, whether moral, political, aesthetic, or even metaphysical, were a function of drives which were themselves conditioned subconsciously throughout a long historical process. Old religious and Platonic beliefs in good and evil as static metaphysical entities were, for both Rée and Nietzsche, to be replaced with a naturalistic and developmental account about how present-day values derive from a convoluted process of practical and often egoistical considerations.

Paul Ree and Nietzsche believed that values were not static metaphysical entities but were a result of long environmental and psychological conditioning. For both Paul Ree and Nietzsche the metaphysical values of good and evil differed from the old religious and Platonic belief that they were static entities. Alongside Paul Ree, Nietzsche believed that values were static metaphysical entities like good and evil and independent of practical and egoistical considerations. Paul Ree and Nietzsche held that Platonic beliefs in good and evil as static metaphysical entities that replaced the naturalistic and developmental account about how values were derived. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is correct. It succinctly captures the essence of the paragraph. Though it fails to mentions that value as static entities was the Platonic viewpoint, other options are worse and unacceptable. Option 2 is incorrect. it limits its description to good and evil and fails to mention the concept of values that Ree and Nietzsche held. Option 3 is incorrect. It is contrary to what is stated in the paragraph. The Platonic belief about values is attributed to Ree and Nietzsche. Option 4 is incorrect. It is misrepresentation of the paragraph. The concept of values of Plato was replaced by that of Ree and Nietzsche. The option appears to say the reverse. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Paul Ree and Nietzsche believed that values were not static metaphysical entities but were a result of long environmental and psychological conditioning. Time taken by you: 180 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined Given below is a paragraph, followed by four options. From the given options, choose the one that summarises the paragraph in the most appropriate way. The Greek Stoic philosopher Epictetus once said, “We have two ears and one mouth so that we can listen twice as much as we speak.” The same principle applies to dialogue, which requires that we listen to different perspectives, and always keep an open mind. That means heeding the public’s grievances, and working together toward collective solutions. Only joint responses will suffice to tackle the complex problems we face. The indispensability of multi-stakeholder dialogue to global progress should be the guiding ethos. The principle of ‘one mouth and two ears’ applies to dialogue. The guiding ethos to global progress is heeding the public’s grievances, multi-stakeholder dialogue with an open mind, and working for collective solutions. The fact that we have one mouth and two ears implies that we must listen more than we speak. Multi-stakeholder dialogue with an open mind for joint responses and collective solutions is indispensable for global progress. Epictetus’ principle to dialogue, multi-stakeholder dialogue, heeding public’s grievances and perspectives, and working towards collective solutions to complex problems should be our guiding ethos. Epictetus’ principle of ‘Listen more than you speak’ applies to dialogue. Heeding public’s grievances and different perspectives, and working towards collective solutions is indispensable for global progress. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It does not mention Epictetus who is invoked in the paragraph. The reference to Epictetus is a crucial element to the précis as the principle invoked for the entire paragraph comes from Epictetus. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, option 2 also

captures the essence without the mention of Epictetus. Option 3 is incorrect. The principle of ‘listen more than youspeak’ is not specified in this option which makes it unclear as to what the Epictetus principle to dialogue may mean, also the paragraph does not call it Epictetus’ principle of dialogue. Option 4 is correct. Without the figurative use of mouth and ears for speech and listening the option accurately captures the essence of the paragraph. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Epictetus’ principle of ‘Listen more than you speak’ applies to dialogue. Heeding public’s grievances and different perspectives, and working towards collective solutions is indispensable for global progress. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 %

1. At the Madinat Jumeirah in Dubai, there is art in every nook and corner. 2. One can’t help being caught up in the whirl of feverish activity. 3. Sprawling halls display cutting-edge contemporary art, symposiums discuss art and there are several film screenings too. 4. The list of things to see, hear and do is endless but the time, limited.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Statement 1 is a fact. The location and the presence of works of art are open to direct experience, hence fact or label 1. Statement 2 is a judgment. That one can’t help being caught in the whirl of feverish activity is a subjective and personal reaction to some event. Hence this is a judgment and gets the label 3. Statement 3 is a fact. The sprawling halls, the cutting edge contemporary art, symposiums and the film screenings are all open to direct verification or discover. Hence this statement is a fact and gets the label 1. Statement 4 is a judgment. The reference to the list is a fact, but the when the speaker terms it as endless; it is an exaggeration or personal opinion. Hence this statement is a judgment, and the statement gets the label 3. Hence, 1313. Correct Answer: 1313

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 11 %

undefined The question below has a set of five sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following: Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘1’). Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘2’). Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘3’). Enter the answer sequence (ex: 1231, 1121, 2233 or any such sequence) that best describes the set of four statements. (Fact -1; Inference - 2; Judgment - 3) 1. After a run of nearly one thousand years, quipped the French philosopher and writer Voltaire, the fading Holy Roman Empire was neither holy nor Roman nor an empire. 2. Today, some two and a half centuries later, the problem is that the fading liberal world order is neither liberal nor worldwide nor orderly. 3. The United States, along with the United Kingdom and others, established the liberal world order in the wake of World War II. 4. The goal was to ensure that the conditions that had led to two world wars in 30 years would never again arise.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Statement 1 is a fact “quipped (utter taunting words)… Voltaire” overrides everything else in the sentence to make it a fact. Hence F or 1 Statement 2 is a judgment. ‘the problem ..is that fading liberal world order is neither liberal nor worldwide nor orderly” is a writer’s opinion- personal and subjective. Hence J or 3. Statement 3 is a Fact. ‘…established the liberal world order..’ is a fact. Hence F or 1.Statement 4 is a Fact. The goal as a stated aim “to ensure that the conditions … would never rise again” is a fact. Since ‘to ensure’ means it is a potential event/action, whether it can be a fact is a legitimate doubt. However, the goal was to go to the market, or the goal was to ensure success in the CAT etc. would not qualify to be an inference or a judgment. So the goal – as the potential end or the current purpose is a fact. Hence Fact or 1.. The sequence thus is FJFF Hence, 1311. Correct Answer: 1311 Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 4 %

undefined In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) (numbered 1 to 4) that is/are INCORRECT in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, and logical consistency. Ignore punctuation errors if any). Then key in the numbers in the ascending order. 1. Brand narrative is more controlled by the consumers as it is by the companies.

2. Not just online purchases, even offline purchases are being influenced by digital media.

3. It is estimated that over 50 percentage of today’s online population

4. claims to do online comparison shopping when buying products online or offline.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Fragment 1 is incorrect. ‘Brand narrative is more controlled by the consumers as it is by the companies. The comparison is in fragment 1 should be either ‘more… than’ or ‘as….as’ So. the sentence should read either more controlled by consumers than it is by companies or as controlled by consumers as it is by the companies. Fragment 2 is incorrect. The standard conjunction is Not… but. Hence the sentence should read ‘Not just online purchases, but even offline purchases …” Fragment 3 is incorrect. when the numeral is mentioned we do not use the word percentage with it, we use per cent. A large percentage or 50 percent will be correct usage. Fragment 4 is correct. Hence,123. Correct Answer: 123 Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 1 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 1 %

undefined In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) (numbered 1 to 4) that is/are INCORRECT in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, and logical consistency. Ignore punctuation errors if any). Then key in the numbers in the ascending order. 1. Although, all major political parties in India wax eloquence about patriotism

2. every time a soldier is killed in a terror attack or a counter-insurgency operation

3. against Pakistan-sponsored terrorists in Kashmir, when it comes to equip soldiers

4. who lie down their lives for the nation, patriotism often amounts to little more than lip-service.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Fragment 1 is incorrect. The correct idiom is ‘wax eloquent’. Fragment 2 is correct. Fragment 3 is incorrect. ‘Comes to’ is always followed by a noun or a gerund and not a verb. e.g “when it comes to reading (gerund) or when it comes to books (noun) are correct usage, but “when it comes to read.” Is incorrect. Fragment 4 is incorrect. Soldiers “lay down their lives’ is the correct idiom, not “lie down their lives”. Hence, 134. Correct Answer: 134 Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 4 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

4. Cloudy language is just a cover for insincerity.

5. They tell you to take out every extra word, starve your sentences, murder your pet phrases.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentences 1, 3, and 5 are unlikely to be the starter sentence because of their abrupt start and their reference to something else – they are danglers which depend on some other sentence to get their clear meaning. We can consider sentence 4 and sentence 2 as the starter sentence. Sentence 4 cannot be followed by any of the other 4 sentences logically – so sentence 2 is clearly the starter. “the style guides’ mentioned in sentence 2 then is referred to as ‘they’ in sentences 3 and 5. ‘they tell you’ and ‘they remind you’ are more meaningful in that order rather than in the reverse. So weget our sequence of 2-5-3 which gives clear sense and coherency. Whether sentence 1 should come next or sentence 4 is not an easy choice. However, the clue lies in Orwell’s ‘honest politics in lucidity’. This honest politics in lucidity is explained as “cloudy language is just a cover for insincerity’. Thus 1-4 need to be placed in that order. This gives us the sequence 2-5-3-1-4. Hence the correct answer is 25314. Correct Answer: 25314 Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. The British Empiricists, following Locke, subscribed to a tabula rasa theory, denying innate ideas and maintaining that our knowledge must ultimately be based on sense experience. 2. Descartes and his followers were convinced that a priori knowledge of the existence of God, as an infinitely perfect Being, was possible and favored (what Kant would later call) the Ontological Argument as a way to establish it. 3. The Continental Rationalists, following Descartes, subscribed to a theory of a priori innate ideas that provide a basis for universal and necessary knowledge. 4. By contrast, Locke and his followers spurned such a priori reasoning and resorted to empirical approaches, such as the Cosmological Argument and the Teleological Arguments or Design Arguments. 5. Before Kant, modern European philosophy was generally split into two rival camps.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: The camps are mentioned in sentences 1 and 3 - the followers of Locke (The British Empiricists,) and the followers of Descartes (the continental rationalists). These sentences can be fixed as 5-1-3 or 5-3-1 as they merely name the two rival camps mentioned in sentence 1. We have to carefully look at both the sequences. Sentence 1 says the British Empiricists subscribed to the tabula theory which denied “innate ideas” – they denied the ‘innate ideas”. This is a denial of “a priori innate ideas...” already mentioned in sentence 3. Hence 3-1 is a mandatory pair. We can now be sure that the sequence so far is 531 and not 513. Sentence 4 which talks about “Locke and his followers’ begins with “by contrast. Hence it is easy to see that 2-4 is mandatory pair as well. So this 2-4 pair can be placed after 531 to get a meaningful paragraph. Hence 53124. Correct Answer: 53124. Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Such a failure erodes the gains made by many communities, because lost natural capital contributes to material losses. 2. The impact of such a terrible loss must be seen against the backdrop of the Northeast representing a global biodiversity hotspot. 3. The Environment Ministry’s report has calculated a cumulative loss of forests in Mizoram, Nagaland and Arunachal of nearly 1,200 sq km. 4. Naturally, environmental economists have come to regard the calculation of national accounts of wealth and development as weak, because governments do not add the benefits of functions such as flood control and climate moderation to the value of forests. 5. Any gains achieved through remediation programs in these States cannot compensate for it adequately.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The starter sentence is easy to identify through comparison: such a failure in sentence 1, ‘such a terrible loss in sentence 2, “in these states” in sentence 5 are danglers and will need another sentence before them to make sense. Comparing sentence 3 and 4, we can safely

settle that 3 is the best available starter sentence. 3-2 is a mandatory pair because “cumulative loss” in sentence 3 is referred to as “such a terrible loss” in sentence 2. Sentence 5 comes next because it refers to “these states” – the reference to ‘these states can be found in both sentences 3 and 2 , as Mizoram, Nagaland etc. in sentence 3 and “the Northeast” in sentence 2. So, we get 3-2-5 as a sequence. Placing the remaining two sentences is easy. Sentence 1 has to be placed after sentence 4 because ‘such a failure’ mentioned in sentence 4 will be without a reference if placed anywhere else. This gives the correct sequence of 41 placed after 325. Hence the correct answer is 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Then key in the number of that option as your answer. A hypothetical alien visitor, sent to observe all of human culture – art and architecture, music and medicine, storytelling and science – would quickly conclude that we as a species are obsessed with patterns. The formal gardens of 18th-century England, the folk tales of medieval Germany and the traditional woven fabrics of Mayan civilisation have little in common, ___________ 1. but, they are perfectly symmetrical unlike the patterns in the universe elsewhere. 2. except that they are reflections of the symmetry in the patterns of art and science. 3. but they owe their charm to smaller parts being arranged into a harmonious whole. 4. except that at a deeper level, they are representations of the very patterns of the Universe.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect – “unlike the patterns in the universe elsewhere…” is not indicated by the passage and even contrary to fact. Option 2 is incorrect. An alien is unlikely to conclude that the examples reflect the patterns in our art and science. Aliens are unaware of our arts and sciences. The only thing that they will observe is the patterns. For them the patterns are real, and they are not reflections of something else. Option 3 is correct. Most objectively, without being aware of the significance of our arts and sciences, an alien’s most superficial observation of the examples would be that they follow particular patterns. It helps to reinforce that our obsession with patterns is reflected in everything that we create, and impart it a particular charm. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not give us any information about what these patterns are at a deeper level, and whether they are representations of the universe in general. Such assumptions are unwarranted. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 17 %

undefined From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Then key in the number of that option as your answer. Can psychological “big data” be leveraged to make you buy products? Or, even more concerning, can such techniques be weaponized to influence the course of history, such as the outcomes of elections? On one hand, we’re faced with daily news from insiders attesting to the danger and effectiveness of micro-targeted messages based on unique “psychographic” profiles of millions of registered voters. _________________. 1. On the other hand, analytics show that repeatedly targeting people with misinformation that is designed to appeal to their political biases may well influence public attitudes. 2. On the other hand, academic writers warn that the political power of targeted online ads and bots are widely overblown. 3. On the other hand, we need to distinguish the attempts to manipulate and influence public opinion, from actual voter persuasion. 4. On the other hand, academics maintain that classic prediction models that only contain socio-demographic data aren’t very informative on their own in predicting behavior.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It is not contrasting to the second last sentence. It expresses a view similar to that of the ‘insiders’ and explains their methodology, that by repeatedly targeting people with misinformation, it is possible to exploit their political biases and influence election outcomes. Option 2 is correct. It provides a contrasting view – that of the academic writers who warn that the effectiveness and the potential of using psychological big data as a weapon are overrated. Thus it answers the question at the beginning of the paragraph, can “psychological “big data” be leveraged to influence elections? The answer is – it is debatable. Option 3 is incorrect. Since the insiders’ view is already stated that the efforts to influence are effective, the point of view that we need todistinguish between the effectiveness in different areas does not provide the contrast we are looking for. The option can make sense and provide the contrast only if we assume that the efforts to influence elections are futile. Option 4 is incorrect and more easily eliminated. ‘Socio- demographic data’ in the option vis a vis “psychological big data” in the passage, and the ‘classical prediction models’ in the option vis a vis ‘weaponization of data’ in the passage, make option 4 unsuitable. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Then key in the number of that option as your answer. Researchers have long known that people choose friends who are much like themselves in a wide array of characteristics: of a similar

age, race, religion, socioeconomic status, educational level, political leaning, pulchritude rating, even handgrip strength. The impulse toward homophily, toward bonding with others who are the least other possible, is found among traditional hunter-gatherer groups and advanced capitalist societies alike.______________. 1. A new study of 30,000 pairs of friends revealed that friends often have diverse tastes in aesthetics. 2. The misunderstanding, if any, between friends, is something that one can expect to be minimal, or of low intensity. 3. New research too, suggests that the roots of friendship extend even deeper than previously suspected. 4. Most of us have best friends who share the characteristics in ourselves that we most relate to as defining of our identity.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph begins by stating that “researchers have long known” that friendships thrive on similarities. Therefore it cannot lead to a statement that new research leads to a negation. Option 2 is incorrect. The paragraph does not preclude misunderstanding between friends, or suggest that misunderstanding will be minimal. It is beyond the scope of the paragraph. The paragraph merely says that research shows that people choose friends who are more like themselves. Option 3 is correct. It endorses the firm conclusion about similarities forming the basis of friendships and continues to discuss further research on the subject. Option 4 is incorrect. That we relate to others in terms of what defines our identity goes much beyond what is suggested in the paragraph. The tone of option 4 is also inconsistent with the preceding lines. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The information given below indicates the movement of trucks between any pair of towns, from among six towns – A, B, C, D, E and F. All these six towns are on the Yamuna Express Highway connecting Delhi and Agra along a straight line. The distance between any two adjacent towns is 50 km.

All truck movements are direct movements. For example, as per the table given above, 6 trucks moved directly from town B to town A, without stopping at any intermediate cities. Total truck movement between any two towns i and j = tij + tji tij = Number of trucks that moved from town i to town j tji = Number of trucks that moved from town j to town i Total truck travel distance = Sum of the distances travelled by all the trucks put together It was observed that the total truck travel distance is minimum possible. 1) Which two towns are the farthest from each other? A&B D&F C&D A&D Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

The maximum number of truck movements are between (A & B = 7); (B & C = 8); (D & E = 8); (A & E = 6). Therefore, A must be adjacent to towns B & E. Similarly, B must be adjacent to both towns A & C. C must be adjacent to B & F and town E must be adjacent to towns D & A. Also, D & F = 0, therefore towns D & F can be farthest from each other. Therefore, there are two possible sequences of towns: Case 1: D, E, A, B, C, F Case 2: F, C, B, A, E, D D & F are the farthest from each other. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: D&F

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 % 2)

What is the sum of the number of truck movements between all the pairs of adjacent towns put together? 25 29 33 35 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

Correct Answer: 33

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 23 % 3) What is the total truck travel distance (in km)? 4050 3250 3750 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

Required answer = 350 + 200 + 200 + 300 + 300 + 400 + 450 + 400 + 450 + 200 + 400 + 400 = 4050 km. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 4050

Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 % 4) What was the sum of the truck travel distances (in km) covered by all the trucks that involved town E? 1800 1850 1900 1950 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

The maximum number of truck movements are between (A & B = 7); (B & C = 8); (D & E = 8); (A & E = 6). Therefore, A must be adjacent to towns B & E. Similarly, B must be adjacent to both towns A & C. C must be adjacent to B & F and town E must be adjacent to towns D & A. Also, D & F = 0, therefore towns D & F can be farthest from each other. Therefore, there are two possible sequences of towns: Case 1: D, E, A, B, C, F Case 2: F, C, B, A, E, D Required answer = 300 + 400 + 450 + 400 + 400 = 1950 km. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 1950

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A company has seven business units – I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII. Each business unit generates some revenue for the company and incurs some cost on its operations. The stacked bar-charts given below show: First chart: The percentage contribution of each business unit in the total revenue generated by the company in the year 2017. Second chart: The percentage contribution of each business unit in the total cost incurred by the company in the year 2017. Third chart: The percentage break-up of the total number of employees working in the company in the year 2017.

1) If business unit IV made a profit, then how many of the other six business units may have made a loss? 0 1 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 141 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 128 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 40 % 2)

If profit per employee made by the business units IV and VI is same, then how many business units made a profit in the given year? (Write 8 if your answer is 'Cannot be determined')

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Therefore, the required answer is 7.

Correct Answer: 7

Time taken by you: 213 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) If none of the business units made a loss in the year 2017, then the profit percentage of business unit III would have been at least

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Therefore, the required answer is 26. Correct Answer: 26%

Time taken by you: 280 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 % 4) The senior management of the company decided to shut down the top three business units with highest average cost per employee. It was found that the average cost per employee in only these three departments was more than one unit and it was less than one unit in the remaining four departments. Which of the following can be the ratio of the total cost incurred to the total number of employees in the company? 6:7 7:8 8 : 15 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Correct Answer: 8 : 15

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Aplela, Bluy, Caspa, Dastrye, Eim and Fluana are the only six countries on an alien planet named ‘Bungaplanet’. Each of these countries trades (i.e. imports goods from and/or exports goods to other countries) with at least one of the remaining five countries every year. Both imports and exports are denominated in million BD (where BD is the currency of Bungaplanet, called Bunga Dollar). For all countries, we define trade surplus and trade deficit as follows: Trade surplus = Total Exports – Total Imports (if Total Exports > Total Imports) Trade deficit = Total Imports – Total Exports (if Total Imports > Total Exports) The following table shows the information about the exports and imports of the six countries in 2017. (Certain entries have been deliberately kept blank):

Additionally, the following points are known about the import/exports of the six countries in 2017: 1. The sum of the total imports of the six countries was 1000 million BD. 2. Only country Bluy had neither trade surplus nor trade deficit. Two other countries had trade surplus while the remaining three countries had trade deficit. 3. All the total imports/exports were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD. 1) Which of the following cannot be the value of total imports of country Aplela in 2017? 170 million BD

200 million BD 230 million BD 260 million BD Video Explanation: Explanation: We have total exports of the 6 countries = total imports = 1000 million BD. Using variables, m & n, we get the following values for 2017:

Given: CountryBluy had neither trade surplus nor trade deficit in 2017. Clearly, country Caspa had a trade surplus in 2017. Out of the remaining four countries, exactly one country had a trade surplus in 2017 and three countries had a trade deficit in 2017. Since total imports and exports values were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD, we have, 10 < m < 190 (in million BD). If m = 10, Fluana will have a zero trade surplus or deficit. Also if m = 200, country Fluana will have zero total exports, which is not possible. Therefore, we have 20 < m < 190. Therefore, countries Dastrye and Fluana definitely have trade deficit. To ensure that both Aplela and Eim have non-zero exports that are multiples of 10, we have 10 < n < 290. Out of Aplela and Eim, one country had a trade surplus and the other country had a trade deficit in 2017. We have the following cases: 1. Country Aplela had a surplus and country Eim had a deficit in 2017: For that, we must have 10 < n < 170. 2. Country Aplela had a deficit and country Eim had a surplus in 2017. For that, we must have 230 < n < 290. Combining the two, the possible values of n are: 10 to 170 (both included) and 230 to 290 (both included). Thus, n cannot take the value 200 million BD. Other three values are possible. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 200 million BD

Time taken by you: 285 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 309 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 % 2) Out of the countries Dastrye and Fluana, how many countries had trade deficit in 2017? (Write 3 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We have total exports of the 6 countries = total imports = 1000 million BD. Using variables, m & n, we get the following values for 2017:

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 234 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 % 3) Additional information: In 2018, following were the numbers for the total exports and total imports for the six countries:

Additionally, the following points were known about imports/exports of the six countries in 2018: 1. Total sum of the imports of the six countries was 1450 million BD. Exactly two countries had a trade surplus and the remaining four countries had a trade deficit. 2. Both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have a trade surplus in 2018 as well. 3. All the total exports and total imports were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD.

Which of the following countries definitely had a trade surplus in 2018? Aplela Dastrye Fluana None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have the same in 2018 as well. CountryCaspa definitely had a trade surplus in 2018. From the explanatory answer to the previous questions, we know that one country out of Aplela and Eim had a trade surplus while the other had a trade deficit. Also, the other countries had a trade deficit in 2018. Using the total volume of trade = 1450 million BD, we have the following for 2018:

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 335 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 4) Additional information: In 2018, following were the numbers for the total exports and total imports for the six countries:

If country Eim had a trade surplus in 2018, what can be the minimum value of the trade surplus of country Eim in 2018 (in million BD)? (Write 0 if country Eim cannot have a trade surplus in 2018). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have the same in 2018 as well. CountryCaspa definitely had a trade surplus in 2018. From the explanatory answer to the previous questions, we know that one country out of Aplela and Eim had a trade surplus while the other had a trade deficit. Also, the other countries had a trade deficit in 2018. Using the total volume of trade = 1450 million BD, we have the following for 2018:

We have the following cases: 1. Country Aplela had trade surplus and Country Eim had trade deficit. For this to happen, 10 < n < 210 million BD. 2. Country Aplela had trade deficit and country Eim had trade surplus. For this to happen, 340 < n < 400 million BD. Imports of country Aplela in 2018 = n. We know that for country Eim to have trade surplus, 340 < n < 400. Exports of Eim = 190 million BD and imports = (410 – n) million BD. For minimum value of trade surplus, the value of imports should be maximum. Maximum value of imports = 410 – 340 = 70 million BD. Therefore, the minimum value of trade surplus = 190 – 70 = 120 million BD. Therefore, the required answer is 120.

Correct Answer: 120

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Automobile companies Honda & Hyundai together sold 1500 cars this year. The cars were categorized as Manual & Automatic. It is known that the total number of manual cars sold by the two companies together is half the total number of automatic cars sold by the two companies together. The number of cars sold by Honda is half the number of cars sold by Hyundai. The number of Honda cars priced above INR 15 lakhs is same as the number of automatic cars priced above INR 15 lakhs. The number of manual cars, priced below INR 15 lakhs and sold by Honda is 10 more than the number of Hyundai automatic cars priced above INR 15 lakhs. Of all the cars sold, those priced below INR 15 lakhs is 540 more than those priced above INR 15 lakhs. No car costs exactly INR 15 lakhs. 1) What is the difference between the number of manual Hyundai cars priced below INR 15 lakhs and the number of automatic Honda cars priced above INR 15 lakhs? 0 10 30 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that the number of manual cars is half the number of automatic cars. Manual cars = 500, Automatic cars = 1000 Therefore, a + b + e + f = 500 & c + d + g + h = 1000 Also, a + b + c + d = 500 & e + f + g + h = 1000 From above, we can conclude that c + d = e + f Also, given that b = 10 + g Given that (b + d + f + h) – (a + c + e + g) = 540 Also, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 1500 Therefore, a + c + e + g = 480 and b + d + f + h = 1020 Given that (c + a) = (c + g) or a = g We need to calculate f – c. (a + b + e + f) – (a + c + e + g) = b + f – c – g = 500 – 480 = 20 Also, b – g = 10. Therefore, f – c = 20 – 10 = 10. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 275 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 % 2) If the number of automatic cars priced above INR 15 lakhs is 220, then what could be the minimum percentage of Honda cars that are automatic and priced below INR 15 lakhs? 0% 2% 8% 10% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10%

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 % 3)

50 90 160 170 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 160

Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 4) If the number of Honda manual cars priced below INR 15 lakhs is minimum possible, then which of the following can be the number of automatic cars priced below INR 15 lakhs?

510 780 1010 More than one of these values Video Explanation: Explanation:

Given that the number of manual cars is half the number of automatic cars. Manual cars = 500, Automatic cars = 1000 Therefore, a + b + e + f = 500 & c + d + g + h = 1000 Also, a + b + c + d = 500 & e + f + g + h = 1000 From above, we can conclude that c + d = e + f Also, given that b = 10 + g Given that (b + d + f + h) – (a + c + e + g) = 540 Also, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 1500 Therefore, a + c + e + g = 480 and b + d + f + h = 1020 Given that (c + a) = (c + g) or a = g Given that b is minimum. Also, b = g + 10. For b to be minimum, g has to be 0. Therefore, b = 10 and g = 0. Since a = g, a = 0 We know a + g + c + e = 480 or c + e = 480 c = 480 – e Also, c + d + g + h = 1000 d + h = 1000 – c = 520 + e Since e can take values from 0 to 480, d + h can range from 520 to 1000. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 780

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6, P7 and P8 are eight persons working in the JCF bank. The manager of the bank came across some discrepancies in some banking transactions recently and suggested to form a committee of four persons in order to look into the matter. Any committee thus formed should have two males and two females. The chairman of the bank, nominated five directors – A, B, C, D and E to suggest their choice for the committee keeping in mind the guidelines set by the manager of the bank. The following table provides information about the suggestions made by the five directors.

The number of married couples included in the committee suggested by the five directors A, B, C, D and E is 1, 1, 1, 1 and 0 respectively. It is also known that P2 and P3 are males. 1) If there are exactly two couples among the eight persons, then which of the following is not a couple? P2 and P8 P3 and P7 P4 and P5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

(P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples.

(P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples.

(P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples.

(P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples.

(P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

Considering case (2), P2 and P8 is not a couple. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: P2 and P8

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 267 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 2) If there are exactly three couples among the eight persons, then which of the following must be a couple? P4 and P8 P2 and P7 P3 and P5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1. (P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples. 2. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples. 3. (P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples. 4. (P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples. 5. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

Considering cases (1), (3) and (4), P4 and P8 is definitely a couple. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: P4 and P8

Time taken by you: 101 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 18 % 3) If there are exactly three couples among the eight persons, then which of the following persons is definitely not married? P1 P3 P5 P8 Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1. (P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples. 2. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples. 3. (P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples. 4. (P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples. 5. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

P1 is definitely not married. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: P1

Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 4) Each of the following persons is of the same gender except P5 P6 P7 P8 Video Explanation:

Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1. (P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples. 2. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples. 3. (P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples. 4. (P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples. 5. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

P5, P7 and P8 are females and P6 is a male. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: P6

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Eight chairs : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – are placed along the boundary of a circular pathway in a park. Each chair is of a different colour – Red, Green, Blue, White, Black, Yellow, Orange and Purple, not necessarily in the same order. Two children P & Q started walking along the pathway in opposite direction. P started travelling in clockwise direction from chair F, which was not orange in colour, while Q started from a chair which was not red in colour and was neither immediately after nor immediately before the chair from where P started. The blue chair was not adjacent to the black chair, and was diametrically opposite to either chair C or chair H.

Some of the observations made by P:

The black chair was not immediately before the purple chair.

The number of chairs between the green chair and D was same as the number of chairs between D and the red chair.

G was not black and was after the orange chair.

The white chair was immediately after the yellow chair E.

B was neither blue nor green.

Some of the observations made by Q: 1.

From the black chair, he crossed two other chairs to reach the white chair.

2. F was third chair he reached (including the chair he started from) and the fourth chair he reached (including the chair he started from) was blue. 3.

D was neither white nor black and the red chair was before the white chair an was after the black chair.

A and the blue chair were adjacent to each other.

Blue chair was neither C nor H.

1) The chair which P reached immediately after passing the red chair is F D G B Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Blue chair is not adjacent to black chair. From P’s 1st observation, purple chair is also not next to black chair. So, it can be concluded that orange chair is next to black chair. So, D is orange chair. The neighbouring chair of D has to be purple (using I) and blue chair is opposite to purple chair. So again from Q’s 2nd observation, F is red chair, A is white chair. Now from Q’s 5 th observation, G is blue chair. So, C and H are purple and green chairs, not necessarily in the same order. From P’s 5th observation B must be black in colour. The final arrangement is as follows:

The chair that is immediately after the red chair is B. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 335 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 46 % 2) Which of the following is definitely the correct combination of a chair and its colour? A – Red H – Purple F – Green D – Orange Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Now all the questions can be answered.

The chair D is orange. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: D – Orange

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 31 % 3)

As per the path taken by Q, what is the colour of the chair, which is the third chair after the blue chair? Orange Purple Green Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

The chair that is the third chair after the blue chair is green in colour. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Green

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 33 % 4) Which of the following statements is false? As per path taken by Q, the black chair is before the yellow chair As per path taken by Q, the yellow chair is before the green chair As per path taken by P, the orange chair is before the black chair None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Choice [3] is definitely false. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: As per path taken by P, the orange chair is before the black chair

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Eight professional boxers – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – participated in the world heavyweight championship in Ukraine. In the 1st round, these eight boxers were divided into two groups of four boxers each. Each boxer has to play two matches against each of the other boxers in his group. The boxers with the highest and second highest number of wins in both the groups will move to the next round, i.e. the semi-finals. The following points about the 1 st round are known: 1. The four boxers that moved to the semi-finals were B, F, G and H. 2. No match in the first round ended in a draw. 3. In both the groups, the four boxers in the group won different number of matches. 4. F lost both of his matches against G. 5. A and H won equal number of matches in the first round. 6. In his group, C lost both of his matches against each of the other boxers except D, who, in turn won at least one match against each of the other boxers in the group, except one. 1) Which boxer won highest number of matches in the first round? F G B Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 0 (iv) 1 (v) 1

2 1 3 2 2

4 5 4 3 4

6 6 5 6 5

From (5) score of A is same as score of H. But A could not reach the semi-finals. This is possible only if the scores are as in (iii) and (iv). In group 1, A won 3 matches but did not reach the semi-finals. The other boxer who did not reach the semi-finals was E. He must have lost all matches. Since F lost both matches to G, maximum number of matches he could have won was 4. Therefore F won 4 matches and G won 5 matches. In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that B won all the 6 matches in the first round. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 161 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) Which boxer won the least number of matches in the first round? E C D Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 0 (iv) 1 (v) 1

2 1 3 2 2

4 5 4 3 4

6 6 5 6 5

It can be seen that E lost all the matches in the first round. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: E

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 3) What was the total number of matches won by D in the first round?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

Now all the questions can be answered. It can be seen that D won 2 matches in the first round. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 % 4) What was the minimum number of matches won by a boxer who reached the semi-finals?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 2 4 6 (ii) 0 1 5 6 (iii) 0 3 4 5 (iv) 1 2 3 6 (v) 1 2 4 5 From (5) score of A is same as score of H. But A could not reach the semi-finals. This is possible only if the scores are as in (iii) and (iv). In group 1, A won 3 matches but did not reach the semi-finals. The other boxer who did not reach the semi-finals was E. He must have lost all matches. Since F lost both matches to G, maximum number of matches he could have won was 4. Therefore F won 4 matches and G won 5 matches. In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

Now all the questions can be answered. A boxer who reached the semi-finals won at least 3 matches. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Four countries : India, Canada, England and Australia sent five wrestlers, I, II, III, IV and V and six weightlifters, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X and XI to participate in the 2018 Commonwealth Games held in Australia. Further, it is known that:

A. I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries B. X and XI are the only two participants sent by England to the Commonwealth games. C. I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of wrestlers and weightlifters put together. D. Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. E. Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. F. Each country sent a different number of wrestlers and weightlifters put together. 1) How many wrestlers and weightlifters put together did Australia send? 1 2 3 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

This also implies that 2 countries which sent 1 and 3 participants sent only wrestlers Statement (A): I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries. This implies that they do not belong to the country that has sent 3 wrestlers. Statement (C): I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of participants. This implies that I is from the country which has sent only one participant and V is from the country which sent 5 participants. All the other 3 wrestlers belong to the same country, which has sent exactly three participants.

From statement (E): Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. India did not send any weightlifter which implies that India sent I or II, III and IV. But again Australia sent more wrestlers than India implies that I was sent by India. Australia should have sent more than 1 wrestler implies that Australia sent three wrestlers. Canada sent five participants.

Australia sent three participants. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 323 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 % 2) Which country sent the maximum number of wrestlers and weightlifters put together? India England Australia Canada Video Explanation: Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

Canada sent the maximum number of participants. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Canada

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 3) Which country sent three wrestlers? Australia England Canada Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

Australia sent three wrestlers. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Australia

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 4) Which of the following countries did not send any weightlifter? England India Australia

Both India and Australia Video Explanation:

Both India and Australia did not send any weightlifter. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Both India and Australia

Time taken by you: 28 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Kishan offered discounts of 10%, 20%, 30%, 40% and 50% to five customers who bought 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg, 4 kg and 5 kg of rice respectively and is able to just recover the cost of rice. If he were to give the same discount rate for all the five customers such that he would neither gain profit nor suffer loss, what would be the approximate value of that discount rate? 27% 33% 37% 39%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 37% Time taken by you: 174 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined Jayesh has a certain number of 5-rupee and 2-rupee coins. Thickness of each 5-rupee coin is same as thickness of each 2-rupee coin. Inside a closed cylindrical container, he is able to exactly fit all 5- rupee coins and all but twenty 2-rupee coins when they are piled up one above the other. If the height of the container is increased by 20%, he is able to exactly fit all 2-rupee coins and all but ten 5-rupee coins when they are piled up one above the other. What is the total number of 5-rupee and 2-rupee coins available with Jayesh? 50 70 80 Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of 5-rupee and 2-rupee coins with Jayesh be ‘x’ and ‘y’ respectively. The original height of the container can hold ‘x’ 5-rupee coins and ‘y – 20’ 2-rupee coins. When the height of the container is increased by 20%, he is able to fit ‘x – 10’ 5-rupee coins and ‘y’ 2-rupee coins. Therefore, we have: 1.2(x + y – 20) = (x – 10 + y) 0.2(x + y) = 14 x + y = 70 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 70 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 %

undefined Three identical circles with maximum possible area are drawn inside an isosceles trapezium as shown. Find the ratio of the sum of the circumference of all the three circles combined to the perimeter of the trapezium. Note: C 1 and C3 touch the trapezium at three points. C 2 touches C 1 and C3 .

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 126 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined

10 7 1 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Box 1 contains 10 red balls, box 2 contains 20 blue balls and box 3 contains 30 green balls. Abhinav picks some balls from boxes 1 and 2. Bipin picks the remaining balls from box 2 and some balls from box 3. Chetan picks the remaining balls from boxes 1 and 3. The ratio of the number of red and blue balls with Abhinav is 2 : 3, the ratio of the number of blue and green balls with Bipin is 7 : 5 and the ratio of the number of green and red balls with Chetan is 10 : 3. Find the ratio of the number of total balls picked up by Abhinav, Bipin and Chetan. 5 : 12 : 13 5:7:8 2:5:8 3:4:5

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of red and blue balls with Abhinav be 2x and 3x respectively. Let the number of blue and green balls with Bipin be 7y and 5y respectively. Let the number of green and red balls with Chetan be 10z and 3z respectively. Therefore, 2x + 3z = 10, 3x + 7y = 20 and 5y + 10z = 30. The only possible integer solutions to this set of linear equations is x = 2, y = 2 and z = 2. Therefore, the total number of balls picked up by Abhinav, Bipin and Chetan are 10, 24 and 26 respectively. Therefore, required ratio = 5 : 12 : 13 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 5 : 12 : 13 Time taken by you: 339 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 230 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined If |1 – 2x2 | ≤ 1 – x2 , then which of the following is true?

|x| < 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined

2 units 3 units

5 units

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 units Time taken by you: 251 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined The product of some natural numbers (all under 25) is 1730520. These numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of the first three of those numbers is 3420. The product of the last three of those numbers is 9614. What is the product of the first four of these numbers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 3420 = 180 × 19. Therefore, 19 has to be one of the numbers among the first three. 9614 = 2 × 11 × 19 × 23. Since 11 cannot be among the last three numbers, the last three numbers are 19, 22 and 23. Therefore, there are a total of 5 numbers, out of which the product of the first two numbers is 180 and the 3rd 4th and 5th numbers are 19, 22 and 23. Therefore, the product of the first four of these numbers = 180 × 19 × 22 = 75240. Therefore, the required answer is 75240.

Correct Answer: 75240 Time taken by you: 23 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined A tap fills an empty tank in 12 hours, but due to a leak at the bottom of the tank it took 20 hours to fill the tank that was initially empty. If the tap is opened at time t = 0 and closed at time t = 10 hours, after how many hours since the beginning, the tank will be empty again? 15 25 20 30

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined In the year 2018, Carl's father was thrice as old as Carl was. In the year 2033, Carl's father will be twice as old as Carl will be then. In which Calendar year will Carl's father be 2.5 times as old as Carl will be then?

2021 2023 2025 2027

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If Carl was ‘x’ years old in 2018, his father was ‘3x’ years old in 2018. Carl’s age in 2033 = x + 15 and his father’s age in 2033 = 3x + 15 3x + 15 = 2(x + 15). Solving for x, x = 15. That means in 2018, Carl was 15 years old and his father was 45 years old. If Carl’s father will be 2.5 times as old as he will be ‘y’ years after 2018, we get 2.5(15 + y) = 45 + y. Solving for y, we get y = 5. Therefore the required calendar year is 2023. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 2023 Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 140 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined

3:8 1:3 2:5 5 : 12

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3:8 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined Find the number of composite factors of 4320. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 4320 = 25 × 33 × 51 Total number of factors = 6 × 4 × 2 = 48 Out of these, 2, 3 and 5 are prime factors and 1 is not a composite number. Therefore, the required answer is 44. Correct Answer: 44 Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 21 %

undefined The ratio of the compound interest earned over 2 years when compounding a principal annually to the simple interest earned for the same principal at the same rate for the same duration is 17 : 16. Find the ratio of the compound interest earned over 3 years when compounding the same principal annually to the simple interest earned for the same principal at the same rate for 3 years. 77 : 64 137 : 128 9:8 217 : 192

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 217 : 192 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 146 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 122 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined Which of the following equations has 2 as one of the roots and the other roots in the ratio of –2 : 3? x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 48 = 0 x3 + 3x2 – 4x – 12 = 0 x3 – 28x + 48 = 0 x3 – 7x2 + 16x – 12 = 0 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: x3 – 28x + 48 = 0 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined A sphere is cut into 8 equal parts along 3 mutually perpendicular planes passing through the centre of the sphere. The maximum distance between any two points within each part is 4 cm. What is the volume of the original sphere?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined What is the remainder when (1011943) 14 is divided by 7?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Therefore, the required answer is 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined Two persons A and B start running simultaneously around a circular track from the same point in opposite directions with speeds 5 m/s and 7 m/s respectively. How many rounds around the track will A make before he meets B for the first time at the point which is diametrically opposite the starting point? 1.5 2.5 3.5 6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since A and B are running in opposite directions and their speeds are co-prime, they will meet in 5 + 7 = 12 distinct points. These 12 points will be equidistant from each other. Thus, the 6th point will be the one diametrically opposite the starting point.

Therefore, after completing 2.5 rounds (in the third round), A will meet B at the point diametrically opposite the starting point. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 2.5 Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined

11 55 187 231

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: f(f(f(k))) = 22 f(f(k)) = 11 or 44 Case 1: If f(f(k)) = 11, then f(k) = 22. If f(k) is 22, then k is either 11 or 44. Case 2: If f(f(k)) = 44, then f(k) = 88. If f(k) = 88, then k = 176. Therefore, all the possible values of k are 11, 44 and 176. Therefore, required sum = 231.

Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 231 Time taken by you: 206 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined How many 2-digit numbers in base 4 are 2-digit numbers with the same digits (but not necessarily in the same order) in base 10? 0 1 9 10

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is only possible if (ab)4 = (ba)10 Therefore, 4a + b = 10b + a. Therefore, a = 3b. The only possible solution is when a = 3 and b = 1. Therefore, there is only one 2-digit number. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined If y and x are positive integers, then what is the minimum possible value of x + y for which y log 10 = log 32 + log x? 3130 3125 3135 3120

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: y log 10 = log 32 + log x log 10y = log(32x) 10y = 32x = 25 x 2 y × 5y = 25 × x For x and y to be integers and for minimizing the value of x + y, y = 5 and x = 5 5 = 3125. Minimum possible value of x + y = 3130 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 3130 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined Farhan, Karan and Shoojit entered into partnership by investing money in the ratio 3 : 5 : 4 respectively. Karan left 3 months before Farhan left the partnership whereas Shoojit continued the business. At the end of 15 months, the business was closed and the profit was divided among Farhan, Karan and Shoojit in the ratio 3 : 2 : 12. For how many months did Shoojit run the business by himself? 5 8 10 12

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let the number of months that Farhan and Karan worked be ‘x’ and ‘x – 3’. 3 × x : 5 × (x – 3) : 4 × 15 = 3 : 2 : 12 3x : (5x – 15) : 60 = 15 : 10 : 60 x=5 Therefore, Shoojit ran the business for 15 – 5 = 10 months by himself.

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 217 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Gulzarilaal divides his hexagonal farm to be distributed among his three sons. Natwar receives the rectangular region ABDE whose breadth and length are in the ratio 1 : 2. Mohan and Kamlesh receive regions AFE and BCD respectively that are shaped as isosceles right triangles. Find the percentage share of Mohan out of the entire farmland.

50% 22.5% 25% 30%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 139 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined There are 25 distinct points on a circle. Khushbu is asked to draw chords using these points as end points. She randomly draws 10 chords such that none of them have any common end points. In how many ways can she draw the maximum possible number of chords using the remaining unused points such that none of them have any common end points? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since 10 chords have been drawn, we are only left with five unused points. Using these, we can draw only two chords with one point remaining unused. From the chosen four points, the number of distinct pairs will be three. Therefore, total number of ways = 5 × 3 = 15. Therefore, the required answer is 15. Correct Answer: 15 Time taken by you: 162 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 6 %

undefined Find the number of zeroes at the end of (855!) 2 . Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 424 Time taken by you: 96 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined Cups A and B have equal volumes. Cup A drew acid from beaker A having 150 litres of 20% acid solution such that cup A is filled to the brim. Cup B drew acid from beaker B having 120 litres of 10% acid solution such that cup B is filled to the brim. Now, contents of cup A are added to beaker B and that of cup B are added to beaker A. After this, the volume of pure acid in both the beakers becomes equal. What is the volume of each cup (in litres)? 90 45 60 30

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the volume of each cup be ‘m’ litres. Final volume of pure acid in beaker A = 0.2 × (150 – m) + 0.1 × m = 30 – 0.1m Final volume of pure acid in beaker B = 0.1 × (120 – m) + 0.2 × m = 12 + 0.1m 30 – 0.1m = 12 + 0.1m m = 90 litres. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

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20° 22.5° 27.5° 29.5°

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Explanation:

Correct Answer:

27.5° Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined All students who play hockey in a class play cricket as well. Some football players play cricket as well but none of them plays hockey. It is known that the number of students who play only one sport is twice the number of players who play two sports. The number of students who play football is equal to the number of students who play hockey which is equal to half the number of students who play only cricket. If there are 120 students in the class and each student plays at least one sport, find the number of students who play only football. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: We can draw the Venn diagram as follows:

It is given that the number of students who play only one sport is twice the number of players who play two sports. Therefore, x + z = 80 and y + h = 40 y = 40 – h Also, x + y = h x = h – (40 – h) = 2h – 40 z = 80 – x = 80 – (2h – 40) = 120 – 2h Also, z ÷ 2 = h. 60 – h = h h = 30 The number of players who play only football = 2 × 30 – 40 = 20. Therefore, the required answer is 20. Correct Answer:

20 Time taken by you: 164 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 39 %

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25 40 50 60

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Alternatively, Let B = 100 Substitute values of x as given in answer options. Option1 : x = 25 A = 125 and C = 75 125 is not (4 × 25)% more than 75. Option 2 : x = 40 A = 140 and C = 60 140 is not (4 × 40)% more than 60. Option 3 : x = 50 A = 150 and C = 50 150 is (4 × 50)% more than 50. Option 4 : x = 60 A = 160 and C = 40 160 is not (4 × 60)% more than 40. Correct Answer: 50

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 %

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90 120 150 180

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Correct Answer: 180 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 %

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(Note: Common difference of the AP > 0)

Insufficient data

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Explanation: Let the first term and common difference of the AP be ‘a’and ‘d’ respectively. If we consider just the odd-numbered terms, they form an AP with first term ‘a’ and common difference ‘2d’. If we consider just the even-numbered terms, they form an AP with first term ‘a + d’ and common difference ‘2d’.

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 164 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined A straight wire connects the foot of building A and the top of building B, making an angle of 30° with the ground. The same straight wire is just long enough to connect the top of building B and the top of building A. What will be the ratio of the length of this wire to the length of the wire that connects the top of building A and the bottom of building B?

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 124 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined Five numbers are given. All possible sets of three numbers out of these five are chosen and their individual averages are computed. The

Five numbers are given. All possible sets of three numbers out of these five are chosen and their individual averages are computed. The average of these individual averages is 14. Which is the sum of all the original five numbers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Alternatively, Consider a case where all the numbers are equal to 14. Average of any three chosen = 14 Average of averages of all the sets = 14 Hence, sum of original five numbers = 14 × 5 = 70. Correct Answer: 70 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The word “algorithm” has become an evil agent. The algorithms of the biggest internet companies sell our fear and outrage for profit and favour conspiratorial and divisive content. We’ve anthropomorphized the word so much that Gen Z children might start checking for algorithms under their beds. But when you strip away all the boogeyman connotations, an algorithm is simply a set of rules. The technology alone isn’t to blame for its misdoings, but that doesn’t mean an algorithm won’t be to blame for the destruction of humankind—especially if left unchecked. To explain this, there’s a common thought experiment in the world of artificial intelligence called the Paper Clip Maximizer. It goes like this. Imagine a group of programmers build an algorithm with the seemingly innocuous goal of gathering as many paper clips as possible. This machine-learning algorithm is intelligent, meaning it learns from the past and continually gets better at its task—which, in this case, is accumulating paper clips. At first, the algorithm gathers all the boxes of paper clips from office-supply stores. Then it might look for all the lost paper clips in the bottom of desk drawers and between sofa cushions. Running out of easy targets, over time it will learn to build paper clips from fork prongs and electrical wires—and eventually start ripping apart every piece of metal in the world to fashion into inch-long document fasteners. The thought experiment is meant to show how an optimization algorithm, even if designed with no malicious intent, could ultimately destroy the world. The technology’s original goal was never to bring about the end of civilization—it was just looking to achieve the objective set by its human parent. However, without proper regulation, the results can be dire. As technology progresses at an exponential rate, we must take a step back to ask what we’re optimizing for. The analogies to today’s global economy are clear. Environmentalists argue that coal-burning plants have optimization machines aimed at maximizing energy output without taking responsibility for the pollution. Social media critics argue that social networking companies have optimization machines aimed at capturing human attention without accountability to the costs. Media pundits argue that certain adsupported publications have optimization machines aimed at maximizing clicks without regard to journalistic standards. Algorithmic accountability matters now more than ever because technological progress is increasing at an exponential rate. A supercomputer beat the world’s best Go player a decade before most experts expected. Translation algorithms are approaching humanlevel accuracy. Self-driving cars are already cruising around our streets. Course correction will become more difficult as algorithms become more ubiquitous. When it comes to algorithmic accountability, it’s important to set up the necessary checks and balances before it’s too late. As technologies scale, a lack of initial oversight could have disastrous long-term consequences. “If we don’t get women and people of color at the table—real technologists doing the real work—we will bias systems,” said Melinda Gates at the launch of the nonprofit “AI4All” last year, which she funded. “Trying to reverse that a decade or two from now will be so much more difficult, if not close to impossible.” Though amorphous algorithms often become the scapegoat for technological mishaps, it’s important to remember that algorithms are written by humans. A diversity of input—from both data and personnel—is necessary to illuminate potential blind spots. If we leave ourselves in the dark, algorithmic bias—whether it’s facial recognition software that more easily identifies white men than black women, or an SAT-prep company’s pricing algorithm that charges predominantly Asian zip codes twice as much as non-Asian zip codes—can be pervasive. But the fear of misuse should not trump the potential improvements these technologies can bring. Recent studies proved that algorithmic approaches to criminal sentencing can reduce the incarceration rate without adversely affecting public safety. Though sentencing decisions have traditionally relied on a judge’s intuition or subjective preferences, computers can help make our systems more fair. The key to these experiments is supervision. The Paper Clip Maximizer shows us that intentions won’t matter unless we’ve set up systems to hold ourselves accountable. But when the proper checks are in place, algorithms are nothing to fear—and neither are office supplies. 1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? The passage questions the lack of controls and diversity of input while building algorithms, and calls for accountability.

The passage cautions that algorithms if unregulated can prove potentially evil and bring about the destruction of mankind, notwithstanding their benefits. The passage evaluates the algorithmic bias that can become pervasive in the absence of algorithmic accountability. The passage highlights the urgency of course correction since algorithmic bias will be more difficult to reverse as technology progresses at an exponential rate. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The passage starts by mentioning some incidents that have led to the word “algorithm” having negative implications. It then states that technology alone cannot be blamed since an algorithm is simply a set of rules defined by humans. It explains this by using a thought experiment called “Paper Clip Maximiser”. Thus, the need for algorithmic accountability is highlighted by explaining the importance of checks and balances and diversity of inputs. The author concludes by stating that these technologies can bring potential improvements when proper checks are in place and should not be shunned due to fear of misuse. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does list the negative consequences resulting from lack of checks and balances and diversity of input while building algorithms. However, the passage does not “question” the lack of controls and diversity of input as suggested by the option. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage begins with “The word “algorithm” has become an evil agent.” Then it discusses the concerns arising from the use of algorithms. “The algorithms of the biggest internet companies sell our fear and outrage for profit and favor conspiratorial and divisive content.” It exemplifies these concerns through the “Paper Clip Maximizer” thought experiment. Throughout the passage, the author states the need for “algorithmic accountability”, “course correction”, “checks and balances” and “diversity of inputs”, all of which are unfavourable aspects of technology. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage explains the need for algorithmic accountability and gives examples of algorithmic bias that can become pervasive. However, evaluating algorithmic bias in itself is not the purpose of the passage. The destructiveness of algorithmic bias is not highlighted in option 3. Hence eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect.The passage does mention the importance of course correction and reversing the bias now, however, option 4 does not convey the seriousness of the negative impact that these technologies can bring, including the potential destruction of mankind. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: The passage cautions that algorithms if unregulated can prove potentially evil and bring about the destruction of mankind, notwithstanding their benefits.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 % 2) All these are true about the Paper Clip Maximiser thought experiment EXCEPT: The only goal in the algorithm in the Paper Clip Maximiser thought experiment is to maximize the number of paper clips in its collection. Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm improves its own optimisation power constantly as it starts functioning. The Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm learns things unrelated to paperclip gathering to reach the goal of maximizing the number of paper clips in its collection. Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm cannot calculate the maximum number of paper clips it can have in its collection. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. That the only goal of the thought experiment is to maximize the collection of paper clips is true. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states that the machine-learning algorithm is intelligent, meaning it learns from the past and continually gets better at its task—which, in this case, is accumulating paper clips. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Since the only goal is to maximize the number of paper clips the algorithm is not going to pick up any skill that is not required to collect paper clips. For example it may learn the skill to manufacture paper clips but not that of manufacturing paper. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The algorithm has to be unable to calculate the maximum number of paper clips for the process to go on endlessly until it destroys the world. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm learns things unrelated to paperclip gathering to reach the goal of maximizing the number of paper clips in its collection.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 21 % 3) According to the passage, setting-up necessary checks and balances matters now more than ever before because … Algorithms are approaching human-level accuracy. Technological progress is happening at an exponential rate and algorithms are now universal. A lack of initial oversight could have disastrous long-term consequences. We must take a step back to ask what we are optimizing for. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “Translation algorithms are approaching human-level accuracy”. We cannot generalize it to include algorithms in general. Besides, human-level accuracy in itself does not make checks and balances urgent. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 8 states that “When it comes to algorithmic accountability, it’s important to set up the necessary checks and balances before it’s too late.” Thus we have a correlation between “algorithmic accountability” and “checks and balances”. Also, in paragraph 7, the author states that “Algorithmic accountability matters now more than everbecause technological progress is increasing at an exponential rate. … Course correction will become more difficult as algorithms become more ubiquitous.” Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The author does not state “a lack of initial oversight” as the reason why it is necessary to set-up checks and balances now, but as a consequence of setting-up controls too late. Eliminate 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not imply any correlation between the necessity to set-up checks and balances and the necessity to take a step back to ask what we are optimizing for. This option is out of context. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Technological progress is happening at an exponential rate and algorithms are now universal.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 % 4) It can be inferred from the passage that criminal sentencing decisions … Depend on an implicit trust in the intuitions and preferences of an individual. Can be converted to computer algorithms which will make judicial systems more fair.

Can be based on algorithmic approaches, to reduce crime rates without adversely affecting public safety. Can be made more accountable with artificial intelligence (algorithms) technologies. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. The passage states that “Though sentencing decisions have traditionally relied on a judge’s intuition or subjective preferences, computers can help make our systems more fair.” Thus, it can be inferred that currently, sentencing decisions depend on the judge’s intuition i.e. instinct or specific preferences (i.e. predilections). Thus, option 1 is inferable. Retain 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that “… algorithmic approaches to criminal sentencing can reduce the incarceration rate … computers can help make our systems more fair.” Thus, we cannot deduce with certainty whether sentencing decisions can be fully converted to computer algorithms or they can only act as an aid to the existing judicial system. Also, “will make judicial systems more fair” in the option is problematic since “will” implies certainty while the passage uses “can help” to imply a possibility. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is incorrect. While the passage talks about criminal sentencing, the option misrepresents it as ‘crime rates.’ Eliminate option 3. . Option 4 is incorrect. The accountability of criminal sentencing decisions is beyond the scope of this passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer:

Depend on an implicit trust in the intuitions and preferences of an individual.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 8 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 8 % 5) All these are examples of Algorithm bias EXCEPT: The pricing algorithm of a SAT-prep company charges an Indian twice the amount it charges a Canadian. A biometric system identifies a visitor as a bona fide employee. A social media company has optimization algorithms built solely to capture attention of the users without any social liability. An online news website has an algorithm optimized to publish sensational headlines aimed to garner clicks of the users without verifying the authenticity of the source. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is difficult. The passage cites several examples of algorithm bias. Option 1 is an example of algorithm bias. Whether it is nationality or geography (as mentioned in the passage), discrimination is deliberate and biased. Eliminate option 1 Option 2 is correct. A biometric system wrongly identifying a visitor as an employee is an error and not a bias. Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “Optimization algorithm’ in itself is an algorithm bias voluntarily introduced into the system. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3 “optimized to publish” implies an inbuilt bias. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: A biometric system identifies a visitor as a bona fide employee.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 69 % 6) Melinda Gates’ call to “bring people of color at the table” highlights which of the following issues related to AI? Women of color are not employed in IT/Tech firms and AI. AI to be effective and without bias needs to be built with diversity of input. Racial biases are prevalent in all current AI algorithms.

Currently facial recognition software is unable to recognize black and Asian women. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 is a social issue related to racial bias. The question is about issue related to AI. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. Melinda Gates is quoted while discussing the algorithm bias. In the next paragraph, the write mentions the need for diversity of input from both data and personnel. He talks about the potential blind spots algorithmic bias and cites the example of facial recognizing software more easily identifying a while man than a black woman. All this makes option 2 correct. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The phrasing of the option is too strong. “Prevalent in all current AI algorithms’ is a sweeping generalization. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. the passage does not support the claim “unable to recognize’ as mentioned in the option. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: AI to be effective and without bias needs to be built with diversity of input.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Daydreaming is one of life’s great joys. You can indulge in it when you’re stuck in a boring meeting or a long queue. This seemingly innocuous pastime, however, is a double-edged sword. Some research has found that it boosts creativity, but other studies suggest that it is bad for your mental health and could lower your intelligence. In a study conducted by psychologists at the University of California, Santa Barbara, undergraduate students were asked to come up with as many uses for everyday objects – such as toothpicks, clothes hangers and bricks – as they could in two minutes, take a 12-minute break, and then repeat the exercise. The students were able to generate more creative uses for the objects the second time around if their break involved completing an undemanding task, which is known to promote more daydreaming, compared with a break filled with a more attention-demanding task, known to reduce daydreaming. Daydreaming has also been linked with feeling socially connected. In a study conducted by the University of Sheffield, a group of participants were induced to feel lonely. Afterwards, they were instructed to either daydream about someone special, daydream about a non-social situation, or complete a mentally demanding task. Those who daydreamed about someone special demonstrated significantly increased feelings of connection, love and belonging, compared with the other two groups, indicating that daydreaming serves the function of keeping us connected to loved ones, even in their absence. One of the downsides to daydreaming is that it can get in the way of learning. If attention is diverted away from words on the page and directed to the content of the daydream, retrieving information can be seriously affected. Considering reading and understanding is one of the main ways in which educational success is measured, daydreaming can come at a high price. Other studies have found that daydreaming is associated with poorer performance on tests of general intelligence and memory capacity. Not only can daydreaming mess up your chances of doing well in exams, it can also mess with your mental health. Researchers at Harvard University used an app to monitor thoughts, feelings and activity of 2,250 adults in the US. They found that daydreaming about pleasant topics added nothing to the participants’ levels of happiness, and when they daydreamed about neutral or negative topics, they became more unhappy. It also appears that a wandering mind causes unhappiness rather than unhappiness leading to a wandering mind. Some psychologists have suggested that how people evaluate their daydreaming may help to explain the link with unhappiness. When people believe their daydreaming is either uncontrollable or bad for them, these beliefs appear to significantly influence the relationship between daydreaming and unhappiness.

The ability to gain control of thinking and sustain focus on the present is considered the antidote to problematic daydreaming. Mindfulness is one technique that some people find helpful. Mindfulness helps people to bring their minds back to the present moment, and is associated with improving reading comprehension and memory capacity. Maybe we should all try and be in the present moment a little bit more – we might be a lot happier as a result. 1) The author is likely to agree with all of the following statements EXCEPT: The advantages of daydreaming are relatively fewer than its disadvantages. The costs of daydreaming are both emotional and cognitive. Daydreaming causes unhappiness regardless of whether it is about pleasant, neutral or negative topics. Daydreaming is more prevalent among people with poor mental health or poor memory. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The author starts the passage by contrasting the advantages of daydreaming with its disadvantages. Then the author lists down the positive aspects of daydreaming before stating the negative impact that daydreaming can have on an individual’s mental health and intelligence. The author concludes by stating that Mindfulness i.e. living in the present moment is an antidote to problematic daydreaming and might make us a lot happier. Option 1 is incorrect. It can be concluded from the passage that the author considers daydreaming to be less beneficial and more harmful. Another giveaway of the author’s stance is the use of the phrase “seemingly innocuous pastime” to refer to daydreaming in the first paragraph. Thus, the author would most likely agree with this option and it is not an exception. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is incorrect. “Cognitive” means something related to thinking or conscious mental processes. Paragraphs 4 and 5 list the downsides of daydreaming which are summarized by the statement “Not only can daydreaming mess up your chances of doing well in exams, it can also mess with your mental health.” Thus option 2 is not an exception to author’s views. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is incorrect. In paragraph 5, the author states that “They [Researchers at Harvard University] found that daydreaming about pleasant topics added nothing to the participants’ levels of happiness, and when they daydreamed about neutral or negative topics, they became more unhappy. It also appears that a wandering mind causes unhappiness rather than unhappiness leading to a wandering mind.” Thus, the author is of the opinion that a wandering mind, irrespective of positive, neutral or negative thoughts, leads to unhappiness. Eliminate 3. Option 4 is correct. It interchanges the cause and effect. Daydreaming is not more prevalent with people with poor mental health or poor memory. On the other hand, the passage states that people with poor mental health or poor memory are more likely to indulge in daydreaming. Hence, the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Daydreaming is more prevalent among people with poor mental health or poor memory.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 % 2) The primary purpose of the passage is to Spread awareness about the benefits of mindfulness. Highlight the dim side of daydreaming and suggest a countermeasure. Present the pros and cons of daydreaming and to point out that daydreaming is largely beneficial. Draw attention to the fact that people’s evaluation of their daydreaming as either uncontrollable or bad, rather than daydreaming itself, causes unhappiness. 3) The passage implies which of the following about “Mindfulness”? Cultivating mindfulness helps improve certain cognitive functions. Mindfulness helps people to bring their minds back to the present moment and be a lot happier. Mindfulness helps people counter the negative aspects of daydreaming while retaining its positive side.

Mindfulness is a technique to counter problematic daydreaming permanently.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Amid the name-calling and bluster that mar many fights between economists are a few common tactics. Belligerents may attack the theory used to support a claim, or the data analysis used to quantify an effect. During the debate over the US tax bill, to take a recent example, economists bickered over which side had more credibly calculated the economic effect. They did not, for the most part, argue about whether it was morally acceptable to pass a regressive tax reform after years of wage stagnation and rising inequality. To do so would strike many economists as entirely un-economist-like. Yet economics has not always been so shy about moral philosophy. As well as “The Wealth of Nations”, Adam Smith wrote a “Theory of Moral Sentiments”. Great 20th-century economists like Paul Samuelson and Kenneth Arrow also took questions of values very seriously. Their successors would do well to take several pages from their books. Modern economists have attempted to strip value judgments out of their policy analyses. Policies are judged on how they are likely to affect economic variables such as income and its distribution, and how those changes would affect overall welfare. If the models suggest that one policy choice—a top tax rate of 40%, say, rather than 50%—leads to greater welfare than another, that is usually good enough for an economist. This approach is enormously valuable. It disciplines thinking, produces useful information and makes it easier to build professional consensus about what is known and which questions remain unanswered. Though cost-benefit analysis is not perfect, is often the best route to getting informed experts to agree. Used in isolation, however, it can lead to trouble. In a paper presented at the annual conference of the American Economic Association (AEA), Matthew Weinzierl, of Harvard University, notes that the world is too complicated to be modelled with anything like perfect accuracy. Many knock-on effects from policy shifts are unknowable beforehand. He suggests that in the absence of perfect foresight, policymakers could turn to social principles or rules that have evolved over time. These may reflect accumulated knowledge about some choices’ unintended consequences. He gives an example. Governments might choose to increase redistribution based on evidence that high inequality creates feelings of envy, and envy reduces the welfare of the non-rich by making them feel worse. Yet survey evidence suggests that people are largely opposed to redistribution that is motivated by envy. Validating envy through tax policy could prove socially corrosive, in a way that economists’ models fail to capture. Put differently, MrWeinzierl contends that economists should take moral concerns more seriously. That is something close to professional heresy. At the AEA conference Alvin Roth, a Nobel prizewinner, delivered a lecture on his life-saving work in the field of market design. To donate an organ, one must share a blood-type with the recipient. Mr Roth circumvented this problem by developing matching markets, in which one person donates to a compatible stranger and in turn receives another stranger’s compatible organ for use by the donor’s ailing loved-one. Yet demand for healthy organs vastly outstrips supply. Were it legal to buy and sell organs, many more people might donate, helping to alleviate the deadly shortage. Moral qualms generally discourage governments from legalising the trade. This is an example of what Mr Roth calls a “repugnant market”, one which is constrained by popular distaste or moral unease. He recommends that economists spend more time thinking about such taboos, but mostly because they are a constraint on the use of markets in new contexts. These social rules also contain insights. Nicola Lacetera, of the University of Toronto, argues that there may be important reasons for moral objections to repugnant activity, and costs to abandoning such objections. Though studies show that telling people that payment

encourages organ donations increases support for legalising payments, other examples work in the opposite way. Giving women information about the health and safety benefits of legalising prostitution seems to reduce support for legalization. Not all economists avoid ethical considerations entirely. Jean Tirole, another Nobel prizewinner, in his book “Economics for the Common Good”, writes about “the moral limits of the market.” He says economists should respect society’s need to set its own goals, then help devise the most efficient ways to attain them. But, as Beatrice Cherrier of the Institute for New Economic Thinking argued in an essay addressing Mr. Roth’s lecture, these questions are fundamental to economics. The hard sciences deal much better with the ethical implications of their work, she says. And moral concerns affect human behaviour in economically important ways, as Mr Roth found to his frustration. 1) The writer makes reference to Adam Smith’s “Theory of Moral Sentiments” in order to … Show that modern economists have fallen out of the habit of moral reasoning, but historically ethical considerations were central to economics. To highlight the difference between modern economists and classical ones in terms of their approach to policies that would affect overall welfare. To drive home the point that economists ought to consider whether questions of values should override calculations of social utility. Show that historically, economists have dealt with the issue of moral sentiments and settled in favour of the most efficient ways to achieve the “common good.” Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. The passage mentions the book, Adam Smith’s “Theory of Moral Sentiments”, in a single sentence in the first paragraph. Referring to the economists’ discussion on the US tax bill, entirely to quantify its economic effect, the passage says, “they did not, for the most part, argue about whether it was morally acceptable to pass a regressive tax reform after years of wage stagnation and rising inequality. To do so would strike many economists as entirely un-economist-like. Yet economics has not always been so shy about moral philosophy.” Then, the writer makes the assertion that, “as well as “The Wealth of Nations”, Adam Smith wrote a “Theory of Moral Sentiments”. Then, he mentions Paul Samuelson and Kenneth Arrow, modern economists, who took questions of values very seriously. After that he concludes, “their successors would do well to take several pages from their books.” The message is that the Father of Economics, Adam Smith (18th century economist) took the question of moral issue seriously – modern economists must learn from history what economics was all about. Option 1 is correct. The purpose of the writer to refer to Adam Smith and his book “Theory of Moral Sentiments” is to show that modern economists no longer continue the moral traditions in their science. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The option highlights the approach of classical versus modern economics with respect to their policies of welfare; however the writer mentions the book not in relation to their approach to welfare policies but does so only to highlight their approaches to moral principles and ethical considerations. In addition, the writer implies that modern economists are driven purely by welfare policies and not ethical considerations whereas classical economists took account of moral principles as well. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. According to the writer, with modern economists, questions of value do not override calculations of utility. They are driven purely by calculations of utility. Hence the implied issue in option 3 is incorrect. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is contrary to the writer’s purpose behind referring to Adam Smith. His view is that the classical economists did not settle for “the most efficient ways to achieve the “common good,” but took into account the greater principle of morality, and may consider it the overriding factor over economic utility or common good. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Show that modern economists have fallen out of the habit of moral reasoning, but historically ethical considerations were central to economics.

Time taken by you: 587 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following considerations can make the economists decide against a ‘top tax rate of 40% rather than 50%’? A top rate of 40% is likely to increase overall welfare in terms of income and distribution. A top rate of 50% is likely to increase the overall revenue by more than 75%.

A top rate of 50% is likely to encourage the rich to evade taxes. A top rate of 40% is likely to make a large class of non-rich people feel jealous. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The second paragraph states, “if the models suggest that one policy choice—a top tax rate of 40%, say, rather than 50%— leads to greater welfare than another, that is usually good enough for an economist.” What would force the economist to decide against 40% is thus, a reason that these economists haven’t factored in while deciding on 40% cap. This factor is explained in the next paragraph, which says, “Governments might choose to increase redistribution based on evidence that high inequality creates feelings of envy, and envy reduces the welfare of the non-rich by making them feel worse. Validating envy through tax policy could prove socially corrosive, in a way that economists’ models fail to capture.” Thus, the possibility of disintegration in society can make the economists go against the cap of 40% tax. Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph states option 1 as the reason for the decision to cap the tax at 40%. Eliminate this option. Option 2 is incorrect. The phenomenal increase with top 50% tax rate mentioned in option 2 does not explain why this should stop the economists from deciding against it. It does not thus answer the question. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. If option 3 is true, it is a likely reason for deciding against 50% and not deciding against 40%. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It brings in the other factor or the unseen consequence that makes them decide against 40%. Since the non-rich in any society are going to be the majority, the envy in the majority can cause social corrosion. Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: A top rate of 40% is likely to make a large class of non-rich people feel jealous.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 9 % 3) All these arguments are advanced in favour of modern economists’ cost-benefit analysis EXCEPT: Cost-benefit analysis is based on well- defined theory and analysis of data. Cost-benefit analysis produces predictable consequences. Cost-benefit analysis has a professional and authentic appearance to it. Cost benefit analysis uses mathematical models to quantify claims. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The arguments advanced in favour of cost-benefit analysis can be found in the first three paragraphs. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 is supported by the passage and is not an exception. The beginning of the passage states that economists may attack the theory used to support the claim, or may attack the data analysis which is used to quantify an effect etc. This supports the option. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage does not mention that consequences produce predictable outcomes. It is contrary to what is stated in the third paragraph. Quoting Matthew Weinzierl, of Harvard University, the writer notes that “the world is too complicated to be modeled with anything like perfect accuracy. Many knock-on effects from policy shifts are unknowable beforehand. … These may reflect accumulated knowledge about some choices’ unintended consequences.” Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The first paragraph states that Economists may belligerently attack the theoretical models used for tax-analysis, they do not argue about whether it was morally acceptable to pass a regressive tax reform after years of wage stagnation because to look at it from a moral angle would make them look entirely un-economist. This implies that a costbenefit analysis gives them a professional and authentic “economic” appearance. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is stated in the first paragraph and is not an exception. The first paragraph mentions that a common tactic used by economists is to attack the theory, or to attack the data analysis which is used to quantify an effect. This implies that mathematical methods are used to quantify the effect. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Cost-benefit analysis produces predictable consequences.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 4) Why does Alvin Roth recommend that Economists spend more time thinking about moral taboos? Because these moral taboos preclude the benefits of legalizing of trade in ‘repugnant markets’ Because thinking more about moral taboos will be close to a professional heresy. Because legislating on ‘repugnant markets’ could prove socially corrosive. Because economists have so far failed to take moral concerns more seriously. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Paragraphs 5 and 6 describe Alvin Roth’s lecture on his life saving work on market design. He describes how legalizing the so called ‘repugnant markets’ – the example of organ markets – characterized by popular distaste or moral unease, can alleviate the deadly shortage of organs. It is in this context that Alvin Roth recommends that economists spend more time thinking about such taboos, mostly because they are a constraint on the use of markets in new contexts. Option 1 is correct. The reason advanced by Roth is that legalization of organ trade is prevented by popular distaste and moral unease. These are the constraints that Alvin Roth is referring to his market design in the organ’s market. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that thinking about moral taboos is professional heresy. Mathew Weinzierl of Harvard talks about the unintended consequences of economic decisions that economists are unable to anticipate because they do not think include the moral radar. Hence Mr. Weinzierl asks economists to take moral concern seriously. Economists who are used to only conventional cost-benefit analysis may find this suggestion “moral heresy” so the implication is the opposite of what is stated in option 2. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Weinzierl does not say that legislating on ‘repugnant markets’ can prove socially corrosive. Hence eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is incorrect to say that “economists have so far failed to take moral concerns more seriously.” The reference to Adam smith is to show that moral concerns have been central to economics historically. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Because these moral taboos preclude the benefits of legalizing of trade in ‘repugnant markets’

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 % 5) “Giving women information about the health and safety benefits of legalizing prostitution seems to reduce support for legalization.” A possible explanation for the reduced support would be: Women do not believe that the objections to repugnant activity are beneficial. Women do not subscribe to a cost-benefit approach to prostitution. There aren’t important reasons for moral objection to prostitution. Women believe that prostitution arises out of constraining circumstances and not out of choice. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. In the seventh paragraph, the writer mentions the insights that can be had from social rules. Asking the economists to spend more time to thinking about taboos because these taboos are a constraint on the use of markets in new contexts (like organ trade) the writer quotes Nicola Lacetera of the University of Toronto, and explains that “there may be important reasons for moral objections to repugnant activity, and costs to abandoning such objections. The example of prostitution is cited after that. The writer’s implication is that women’s objections to legalizing prostitution lie beyond the pale of costbenefit analysis, unlike in the case of organ trade where a cost benefit analysis can gather support for organ trade. This is an important social insight. Option 1 is incorrect. The implication of option 1 is contrary to women’s approach to legalising prostitution. They believe that objections are beneficial. Eliminate option 1. Option 2is correct. The support is reduced because women worry about the consequences of applying a cost-benefit approach to areas relating to their status within society – they would rather consider the issue of legalizing prostitution purely from a moral point of view than from a cost-benefit analysis. Retain option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. This is contrary to women’s attitude. They do have important reasons for their moral objections to legalizing prostitution. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Women’s belief that prostitution is because of circumstances would sidetrack the issue of morality and cost-benefit analysis. Hence it does not answer the specific query. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Women do not subscribe to a cost-benefit approach to prostitution.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 % 6) What is the passage trying to convey? Modern economics, unlike classical economics, does not shy away from moral philosophy and social principles and rules that have evolved over time. As moral concerns affect human behavior in important ways, economic policy ought to take account of the social costs of not legalizing the “repugnant” markets. Though calculations of social utility are tidier, economists need to understand and evaluate moral arguments rather than dismiss them. While hard sciences deal with the ethical implications of their work, social sciences are driven purely by utilitarian principles.

Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. What the passage is trying to convey is made explicitly clear in several places in the passage. The first paragraph explains how economists today are preoccupied with a mere cost-benefit analysis of economic issues. The second paragraph states, “Modern economists have attempted to strip value judgments out of their policy analyses. Policies are judged on how they are likely to affect economic variables such as income and its distribution,”… and, something that “leads to greater welfare than another, is usually good enough for an economist.” The passage explains the importance of taking account of moral principles into economic policy. Various economists and examples are cited throughout the passage to emphasize the importance of taking moral concerns seriously. Option 1 is incorrect. It is contrary to what the passage is trying to convey. The writer is of the opinion that while classical economists did include moral principles in economic discussions modern economics is predominantly driven by a cost-benefit analysis. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is limited. The passage is not specific to “repugnant markets.” Repugnant markets are mentioned only as an example of one aspect of the moral aspect of the markets – and to show that there can be benefits if the moral issued are closely looked into and overcome. It is not the main argument. Eliminate Option 2. Option 3 is correct. The gist of the passage is captured by the option that, ‘calculations of social utility are tidier, economists need to understand and evaluate moral arguments rather than dismiss them.’ Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The reference to hard sciences in the passage is done for a casual comparison and lack elaboration. Besides, “social sciences are driven purely by utilitarian principles”, as stated in option 4, is not supported by the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Though calculations of social utility are tidier, economists need to understand and evaluate moral arguments rather than dismiss them.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The ethicist of belief will need to specify the type of value she is invoking, why and how she thinks it can ground doxastic (relating to an individual's beliefs) norms, whether it is the only kind of value that does that, and (if not) what the priority relations are between norms based on different kinds of value. The general idea is that if something is beneficial, and believing that p will help us achieve, acquire, or actualize that thing, then it is prima facie prudent for us to believe that p. This will be true even if we lack sufficient evidence for the belief in that p, and even if we are aware of that lack.

Consider for example someone who reads in the psychological literature that people are much more likely to survive a cancer diagnosis if they firmly believe that they will survive it. Upon being diagnosed with the disease himself, and in light of the fact that his goal is to survive, it will be prudent for this person to believe that he will survive, even if he knows that he (and his doctors) lack sufficient evidence for that belief. James refers to such cases as ones “where faith in a fact can help create the fact”. Someone might suggest that the patient's knowledge that his “faith helps create the fact” itself counts as a kind of evidence in its favour. But other cases can be used to make the same point: Pascal famously argues that it is required by prudential rationality that we believe in God, even though we lack sufficient evidence for that belief, and even though such belief would play no role in “creating” the fact that it describes. Here’s a non-religious example: suppose that you would like to retain a good relationship with your teenage son, and you are aware that this requires believing the best of him whenever possible. You also have some moderate but not compelling olfactory evidence that he is using drugs in the house when you are away (in response to your queries, he claims that he has recently taken up transcendental meditation, and that the funny smell when you come home is just incense). Suppose too that you know yourself well enough to know that your relationship with your son will be seriously damaged if you come to view him as a habitual drug-user. This suggests that you would violate a prudential norm if you go ahead and believe that he is. In other words, it is prudent, given your ends, to withhold belief about the source of the aroma altogether, or even to believe, if possible, that he is not smoking pot but rather burning incense in your absence. On the other hand, if you regard the occasional use of recreational drugs as harmless fun that expresses a healthy contempt for overweening state authority (in some states, at least), then it might be prudent for you—confronted with the tell-tale odour—to form the belief that your son has indeed taken up the habit in question. 1) What is this passage about? The central debate in ethics of belief is whether there are norms of some sort governing our habits of belief-formation, beliefmaintenance, and belief-relinquishment. Ethics of belief postulates that we are obliged to form beliefs on insufficient evidence and that it would be a significant failure to do otherwise. In ethics of belief, different types of norms govern the process for belief formation and these norms reflect different types of value. According to ethicists of belief, to form a belief about important matters without possessing sufficient evidence is an error of judgment. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. What poses difficulty is not the question itself or the answer to it, but the abstract idea in the passage and the complexity of the language in which it is explained. This is one of those passages in which we find the main idea stated at the beginning of the passage. “The ethicist of belief will need to specify the type of value she is invoking, why and how she thinks it can ground doxastic (relating to an individual's beliefs) norms, whether it is the only kind of value that does that, and (if not) what the priority relations are between norms based in different kinds of value.” Option 1 is incorrect. The passage is not a debate about whether there are norms; nor does it state that any kind of debate is at the centre of ethics of belief. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It states that we are obliged to form beliefs. The passage merely describes the process of forming beliefs according to individual value systems. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Option 3 paraphrases the first sentence of the passage in simple words. The gist of the passage is that people form beliefs in different ways and have different norms to form beliefs. These beliefs and norms in turn, reflect their value system. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The value judgments about beliefs are not part of the passage – there are no implications about whether the beliefs are right or wrong. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: In ethics of belief, different types of norms govern the process for belief formation and these norms reflect different types of value.

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% Students got it correct: 46 % 2) The writer’s recommendation that “it might be prudent for you… to form the belief…” most likely reflects… The pragmatic and prudent value of the belief rather than truth in itself. That “the faith in fact can help create the fact.” The compelling reason to form a belief without sufficient evidence. That such belief would play no role in “creating” the fact that it describes. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. It can be answered only with the whole passage in mind. The central idea of the passage is how different norms are used by people to form different beliefs. The examples in the passage, that of the cancer patient, belief in god, and the drug user and his parent, illustrate how depending on the kind of outcome that that one desires a particular belief is formed. Inherent in the process of forming those beliefs is the value that it point to. In case of the cancer patient it is survival, in case of the belief in god, it is “prudential rationality”. In case of the drug user-parent example, it is good relations with the teenage son. The last example which reflects a “healthy contempt for the authority of the state” doesn’t bother about whether drug use is good or bad. Hence option 1 is correct – the belief has some practical value and is unconcerned about what the truth might be. Option 2 is incorrect. The belief is not going to create any fact in this case. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Since the parent condones occasional use as harmless, no compelling reason can be derived from that belief. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, the recommendation does not reflect a belief that may or may not create the fact. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: The pragmatic and prudent value of the belief rather than truth in itself.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) It can be inferred from the passage that a “belief” from the point of view of ethicists of belief is most probably … A conviction arrived at by suppressing facts. A conviction arrived at by ignoring evidence. A sincere and comfortable conviction. A conviction that one is obliged to go out and gather evidence for. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage makes it quite clear that beliefs are formed in the face of sufficient evidence or facts. Suppressing evidence or facts cannot be implied by such beliefs. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, the question of ignoring evidence arises only when evidence is available. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The example of belief in god will support the explanation of belief in option 3. The belief in god is neither an uncertain belief nor a belief searching for evidence. It is a sincere and comfortable conviction that one carries. Retain Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The believer who holds a belief is not said to be looking for, nor obliged to look for, evidence. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: A sincere and comfortable conviction.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Urbanization has many advantages. But the benefits of urban life are often accompanied by costs. Perhaps none feels more burdensome – and downright infuriating – than traffic congestion. Many governments have tried to develop policies to reduce traffic congestion by making it more expensive to get behind the wheel. Since 2003, London has successfully implemented a congestion charge, while Singapore wants to use GPS technology to police its own congestion-pricing strategy. But such policies are harder to implement in poorer countries, where technological capabilities and infrastructure are often lacking. That is why developing countries typically seek more basic policies to improve traffic flows. For example, in India, Delhi’s suffocating air pollution has led the government to experiment with “even-odd” policies: individuals can drive only on certain days, based on the numbers on their license plates. But this approach has had minimal impact. Gabriel Kreindler of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology has shown that while the policy reduced congestion slightly, drivers circumvented the rule by switching to other vehicles. Vendors also started selling old plates so that drivers could change their tags as needed. With these documented failures in mind, I worked with colleagues to study policies that might be more effective. With MIT’s Benjamin Olken and Kreindler, we examined the impact in Jakarta, Indonesia, of the widespread policy of high-occupancy vehicle (HOV) restrictions, which limit travel based on the number of passengers in a car. Jakarta has some of the worst traffic gridlock in the world. Since the early 1990s, Jakarta’s government has sought to improve traffic flows with a rule that private cars driven during rush hours in the city’s central business district must contain three or more passengers. Just about everyone despised this “three-in-one” policy, and people often complained that it created further inconvenience, without reducing time spent on the road. Our research sought to quantify the policy’s true impact. In defending the view that the policy was onerous and ineffective, drivers often pointed to an informal business of enlisting “professional” passengers who took money to sit in as passengers and give the appearance of a carpool. According to the policy’s opponents, what looked like carpooling was an evasion of it. Eventually, the Jakarta government sided with the policy’s naysayers, announcing in March 2016 that the rules would be suspended indefinitely. For researchers, this created a golden opportunity to measure the impact of a policy before its adoption and immediately after its repeal. To do that, we queried a Google Maps interface every ten minutes, 24 hours a day. With this real-time, crowd-sourced traffic data for each route previously under restriction, we were able to ascertain what happened to traffic flows after the policy was suspended.

The results were striking. Despite what drivers – and eventually the government – believed, the three-in-one policy was highly effective in reducing congestion. Our data showed that traffic congestion worsened significantly after the policy was rescinded. On Jakarta’s regulated roads, average speeds fell from 28 kilometers (17.4 miles) per hour to 19 kilometers per hour during the morning rush, and from 21 kilometers per hour to 11 kilometers per hour during the evening rush. Moreover, we found increases in traffic at times of day that were not previously regulated, and more vehicles appearing on non-regulated roads in general. These findings have implications for traffic-control measures in other cities. For example, our data imply that Jakarta’s HOV restrictions were more effective than London’s congestion pricing or Delhi’s even-odd policy. As megacities continue to emerge in many developing countries, strategies like Jakarta’s three-in-one approach can help reduce gridlock. But they can succeed in delivering benefits only if they are crafted wisely, enforced effectively, and studied well. People will always seek to circumvent regulations, but policymakers must consider all the evidence before they decide to take the off-ramp. 1) According to the writer, “policymakers must consider all the evidence before they decide to take the off-ramp” because, Good ideas can often be derailed by trying to predict whether they will succeed or not based on inadequate data. Statistics do not always reflect the reality on the ground. The cost of abandoning a course of action can be offset by the benefits of staying on course. In the Jakarta’s traffic policy, proofs offered by Google maps were far more significant than the experiences of drivers on the ground. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The idiom ‘take the off-ramp’ means to leave a particular action that one has been following. Option 1 is incorrect. It is too general. The writer is commenting specifically about dropping a course of action. He is not commenting on ‘good ideas’ or predictions in general. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. One cannot infer from the passage whether the writer is commenting on the relation between statistics and reality. This is an opinion not supported by the passage. Eliminate option 2 Option 3 is correct. In the last paragraph before making the comment that “policymakers must consider all the evidence before they decide to take the off-ramp,” the writer refers to the data the MIT team has collected and says that; “our data imply that Jakarta’s HOV restrictions were more effective than London’s congestion pricing or Delhi’s even-odd policy. The government’s decision to give up the policy was not based on evidence and hastily done. The benefits were not evaluated. If government had studied the cost of congestion against the benefits of carpooling by looking at the available evidence the policy would not have been rescinded. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer does not attribute any higher value to the data that his team has derived from Google, but merely suggests that the data available from Google have not been taken account of while discontinuing the three-in-one policy. Hence the option is a misrepresentation of the author’s position. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The cost of abandoning a course of action can be offset by the benefits of staying on course.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 17 % 2) Which of the following is true about the policy of ‘high-occupancy vehicle restriction’ in Jakarta? It reduced traffic congestion by making it expensive for users to get behind the wheel. It created further inconvenience to the people without reducing the time spent on road. It was in reality an evasion of ‘carpooling’ which the policy tried to encourage. It failed because it was misconceived and the government had to withdraw it eventually. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. The aim of the policy as stated in the second paragraph was to “to reduce traffic congestion by making it more expensive to get behind the wheel.” The rule that “those private cars driven during rush hours in the city’s central business district must contain three or more passengers,” made it more expensive for drivers, because the driver who was prevented from using his car alone, had to enlist others who charged the driver for riding with him/her. Thus, it became costly for the driver. At the end of the passage it is stated that the policy succeeded in reducing congestion. Retain 1. Option 2 is incorrect. This is a claim made by the detractors of the policy. The paragraph provides statistics that prove that the time spent on road had actually reduced. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This is also a claim made by the detractors. Since the riders had to give the appearance of carpool by paying people to ride with them – this does not mean that they could evade carpooling without a cost. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not indicate that the policy was misconceived. The passage comments only on the policy’s faulty implementation. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: It reduced traffic congestion by making it expensive for users to get behind the wheel.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 % 3) Which of the following is cited as a consequence of the suspension of three-in-one policy? Suspending the three-in-one policy produced more traffic and less carpooling. After the suspension of the policy, traffic on regulated roads did not show any visible difference in speed or the time spent on the road. Suspension of three-in-one policy produced more traffic and congestion only on regulated roads. Three-in-one policy became a recommended solution for cities like Delhi and London. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 9 states that “Moreover, we found increases in traffic at times of day that were not previously regulated, and more vehicles appearing on non-regulated roads in general.” “More vehicles appearing on the road” means that traffic increased overall and the increase in the number of cars suggests that carpooling was less than earlier. Hence option 1 is correct. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is contrary to the passage. The passage explicitly states that traffic increased and slowed down. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The option says that suspension of three-in-one policy produced more traffic and congestion only on regulated roads. This is incorrect. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. There is no information in the passage about the recommended solutions for Delhi and London. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Suspending the three-in-one policy produced more traffic and less carpooling.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 % 4) Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

The HOV restriction policy’s success was subtle and therefore confusing to the policymakers. There was no attempt to make a before-and-after comparative study of the policy before withdrawing it. The writer’s own contribution to a better understanding of the policy would have helped the policy stay on track and not get repealed The government failed to account for the increase in the number of vehicles over two decades and gave into the demands of irate commuters. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. This is an ambiguous statement and cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage does not imply that the success of the policy was subtle. It indicates that the success went unnoticed because there was no attempt to evaluate it on evidence. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The policy was in effect since the 1990s. It was indefinitely suspended in march 2016. The writer then states that the policy’s suspension created a golden opportunity to measure the impact of a policy before its adoption and immediately after its repeal. Thus till 2016, there was no effort to make a before-after comparative study. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 can be inferred from paragraph 9. The writer says the results of his research were striking. Despite what the drivers and eventually the government believed the three in one policy was highly effective in reducing congestion. That the government had implemented and continued the policy for more than 20 years suggests that it would have gone on with the policy if the data had been made available before suspension of the policy. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The government withdrew the policy because of public pressure, and not based on data, hence not taken account of the relevant data about the increase in the number of vehicles over a period of twenty years. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: The HOV restriction policy’s success was subtle and therefore confusing to the policymakers.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 % 5) The conclusion of the study that Jakarta’s “three-in-one policy was highly effective” suggests that … While Jakarta’s “professional” passengers when the policy was in effect were a visible presence, they did not weaken the effect of the policy. While people often complained that the policy created further inconvenience, the policy in reality made travelling more convenient. The methodology used for the study was similar to those used by the author’s study of London, Singapore, and Delhi. Efforts to reduce urban traffic congestion, and the air pollution that comes with it, are onerous and ineffective especially in poorer cities like Jakarta. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. While the presence of passengers who had to be paid in order to give a ride an appearance of carpooling was a reality when the three-in-policy was in effect, it seems to have had no impact on the overall effectiveness of the policy as overall the policy made getting behind the wheel more expensive and reduced congestion. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Though congestion reduced as a result of the implementation of the policy, it cannot be ascertained from the passage that the inconvenience that people were complaining of wasn’t a fact, or that the policy had made travelling more convenient. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage provides no data about the studies conducted in London, Singapore or Delhi. Besides the methodology used in other cities is not related to the conclusion of the study. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The three-in-one policy was termed ‘onerous and ineffective’ by the drivers in Jakarta who faced inconvenience due to the policy. However, the study proved that the policy was effective. Hence option 4 is factually incorrect. Besides, the broad generalisation about “poorer cities like Jakarta” is not sustainable by the conclusion of the study. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: While Jakarta’s “professional” passengers when the policy was in effect were a visible presence, they did not weaken the effect of the policy.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 14 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 15 % 6) Which of the following is NOT a congestion-reducing measure mentioned in the passage? Levying a charge on private vehicles that enter a particular area. Making personal transport more expensive for commuters Using GPS technology to check the impact of policies and methods on congestion. Restricting certain vehicles on certain days. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions that London levies a congestion charge. Congestion charge is generally a fee charged on vehicles that enter a particular area and/or at a particular time. Hence option 1 is a congestion reducing measure. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The general strategy adopted by various governments to reduce traffic congestion is to make “it more expensive to get behind the wheel.” Hence option 2 is mentioned. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Using GPS technology to check something in itself is not a measure adopted to reduce congestion. It is used to check the volume of traffic flow. It is not a step to curb or reduce congestion but only a way to gather data. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The odd-even scheme and Delhi using it as a measure to reduce congestion is mentioned in the passage. So eliminate option 2. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Using GPS technology to check the impact of policies and methods on congestion.

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Most of us would say that we do have free will. We can do anything we wish. If we want to wear a red shirt instead of a blue one, we can. If we want to eat a sandwich instead of a pizza, we can. If we want to marry the girl or boy we love, we can. If we have enough money, we can buy any house, car or gadget. Likewise, we can travel wherever we want to. Obviously, it looks as if free will exists. All the choices that we make are from the act of exercising the will. How free is free will? Whatever we call free will or choice is finally determined by a mix of two things, nature and nurture, or by our heritage and conditioning. We can’t choose our parents, and, hence, we have no choice over the genetic material they gift to us. Also, from birth, we are exposed to conditioning and belief systems. In the process of growing up, we are conditioned and led to believe a great many things by family, friends and strangers, the media, commercials, books and what-have-you. As an adult, we are, thus, a mixture of our genetics and all these conditionings. Free will does not exist – what we believe to be free will is finally a product of the conditioning we have received from family, society, the media, and books. Based on our freedom to choose we believe that free will exists; however, finally we have no free will as our choices are a result of social conditioning. Most of us believe that free will exists since we make choices in our daily life. However, in the final analysis we are products of our social and environmental conditioning. As adults, what we call free will, which gives us the freedom to make various choices in our daily life, is finally determined by our genetics and social conditioning. Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Bertrand Russell famously distinguished between knowledge by description and a quite particular kind of knowledge by acquaintance. He allowed there to be a form of acquaintance that was immediate and unquestionable, linking one with such things as abstract properties and momentary sensory items passing before one’s mind: you can be acquainted with the abstract property of redness, as well as with a specific patch of redness briefly in your visual field. Knowledge by description was the means by which, in Russell’s view, a person could proceed to know about what he or she had not experienced directly. We formulate definite descriptions (‘the third man listed in the current Sydney residential phonebook’) and indefinite ones (‘a man listed in the current Sydney residential phonebook’). With these, we can designate individuals with whom we have not interacted. Then we can formulate claims using such descriptions. Some of these claims could be knowledge. According to Bertrand Russell there are two kinds of knowledge – knowledge by description, or knowing a person whom we have met; and knowledge by acquaintance or knowing something or someone by sensory experience. Bertrand Russell distinguishes between knowledge gained through acquaintance without knowing a person and knowledge gained through description or indefinite ones with whom we have not interacted.

Knowledge by description is when you know things as abstract properties like ‘redness’ and knowledge by acquaintance is when you know something or someone as a definite or indefinite person listed in the phonebook. According to Bertrand Russell there are two kinds of knowledge – knowledge by description, or knowing a person whom we have not met; and knowledge by acquaintance or knowing something by sensory experience. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question The main points in the passage are: Bertrand Russell distinguished between knowledge by description and knowledge by acquaintance. Knowledge by acquaintance is immediate and based on sensory items passing before the mind (as direct experiences). Knowledge by description is the formulation of definite or indefinite descriptions of things or people (we have not experienced directly). Option 1 is incorrect. “Knowing a person whom we have met” leads to knowledge by acquaintance, but option term sit as knowledge by description. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, option also confuses one type of knowledge for the other. Also it is incomprehensible in “knowledge gained through description or indefinite ones with whom we have not interacted.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “Knowledge by description is when you know things as abstract properties like ‘redness’…” is incorrect. This is knowledge by acquaintance. Option 3 also leaves out Bertrand Russell form the précis. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It correctly summarises Russell’s description of two distinct types of knowledge. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: According to Bertrand Russell there are two kinds of knowledge – knowledge by description, or knowing a person whom we have not met; and knowledge by acquaintance or knowing something by sensory experience. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. There is a common misunderstanding about the reservation policy even among the educated; in as much as they think that the provision for reservation for the SCs and the STs was originally only for 10 years after the commencement of the Constitution. This is not so. The 10-year provision was only in respect of the political reservations and that is why it needs to be extended after every 10 years. Reservation in education and employment has proved to be much more effective in improving the living conditions of these groups, particularly of the SCs and STs, in comparison to political reservations. Though faulty in its implementation, reservations in education created necessary educational skills and capabilities that enabled these groups to benefit from the job opportunities. Contrary to common understanding, the ten year expiry applies only to political reservations. In education and employment Reservation has helped improve the skills of the reserved groups and enabled them to benefit from the job opportunities.

The 10-year provision applies only to political reservations. In other areas it has improved the living conditions, imparted skills and capabilities, and enhanced job opportunities of the reserved group, particularly of the SCs and STs. Contrary to what even the educated think; the Constitution had a ten year limit only to political reservations necessitating extensions. Reservation in education and employment has been more effective in improving the skills and capabilities and the living conditions of the reserved groups. Even the educated misunderstand that the provision for reservation for the SCs and the STs was originally only for 10 years. However, reservation in education and employment is forever and has helped SCs and STs to improve their living conditions. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The main points in the passage are: The ten year expiry of reservation, as stated in the Constitution, applies only to political reservations. Even the educated are misinformed in this respect. Reservation in education and employment has been much more effective than political reservation and has helped in improving the living conditions of the reserved groups. It has helped enhance their skills and capabilities enabling them to benefit form job opportunities. Option 1 is incorrect. The 10 year expiry period the option mentions does not clarify that it starts from the commencement of the Constitution. Other than this, the option contains all the major points that a précis is expected to capture. So we can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It does not specify the other areas of reservation. In the absence of this, the précis has become vague and incomprehensible. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured effectively in option 3. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 misses several points. ‘Forever’ is a misrepresentation. It also does not mention political reservation. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Contrary to what even the educated think; the Constitution had a ten year limit only to political reservations necessitating extensions. Reservation in education and employment has been more effective in improving the skills and capabilities and the living conditions of the reserved groups. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Five sentences numbered 1 to 5 related to a topic are given below; four of them when arranged in a logical sequence form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in its number as your answer.

1. Silicon Valley prophets talk of colonizing new planets, conveniently sidestepping the challenge of saving our own. 2. After all, the most recent wave of innovation has been driven by ‘machine learning’ or ‘deep learning’ – a computer-science version of an adaptive process.

3. Nature and technology seem to pull us in different directions. 4. Amazon and Twitter take their names from the natural world, even as they invent products that seem bent on supplanting it. 5. At Google and Facebook, the world’s best engineers are engaged in souping up our own species via artificial intelligence (AI), rather than protecting millions of others.

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Explanation: This is an easy question The first thing you notice is that sentence 3 stands out. It is either the introductory beginning or the conclusive end of the paragraph. Once we see that it can only be the beginning in this paragraph, we also can identify the theme of the paragraph. That, “nature and technology pull us in different directions.” There is no need to see which sentence comes next. Sentences 1, 4, and 5 are examples of how we are pulled in different directions by technology and nature and can be listed almost anyhow. However, being the most important and general example sentence 1 is best placed after sentence 3. After that it does not matter whether we place 4-5 or 5-4 in that order. 3154 and 3145 are equally good. The out of sequence sentence 2 talks about how innovation is a result of these technological pursuits. It has no place in the theme of the paragraph. Hence option 2 is the correct answer. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

1. It is, all at once, a fever and an occupation, an affliction and a constitution. 2. Anxiety is therefore a perspective, a hermeneutical relationship with the world, whose text now gets read in a very peculiar way by this anxiety-laden vision. 3. Anxiety is insidious, more than just a simple fear. 4. Anxieties are not immortal; some die on their own, subdued by exposure to enough recalcitrant facts about the world to make some terrors untenable. 5. An anxiety is a lens through which to view the world, a colouration that grants the sufferer’s experiences their distinctive hue.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The first sentence is easy to identify from among the five sentences. Sentence 3 which reads ‘anxiety is insidious, more than just a simple fear’ sets the theme of the paragraph as well. The next sentence is also easy to identify. Sentence 1 explains why anxiety is more than a simple fear – because, it is many things at once – a fever, an occupation, and affliction and a constitution. Once we have connected sentences 3 and 1 this way, sentences 5 and 2 also can be related to them – the word “therefore’ in sentence 2 gives us the clue that it should come after sentence 5. Thus we get a coherent paragraph in 3-1-5-2 sequence – that anxiety “is a lens through which we view the world”. And in that sense, “it is, therefore a perspective…”. The word hermeneutical means: interpretative or the act or interpreting. Sentence 4, however, talks about, how anxieties die, sometimes a natural death, and at other times, get erased by facts. This is unrelated to the theme that describes how anxieties are a perspective on situations. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

1. However, popular culture has lost its ability to create these integrated, unified wholes. 2. Aesthetic experience without compromise or qualification is unpredictable, fluid, and has a complex structure. 3. It’s not uncommon to hear films praised for their ‘set-pieces’ and ‘special effects’; we praise a two-hour film for the enjoyable moments it contains. 4. Aesthetic freedom requires an artwork to give us space and time to inhabit it, and to experience it as a unified whole. 5. Instead, works are now being produced that are a loose collection of moments experienced in a rapid and disconnected series.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question Trying to unravel the theme of the paragraph in these jumbled sentences does not yield any results. So, let’s try to find a mandatory pair. We can begin with sentence 1 which is a dangler. It reads: “However, popular culture has lost its ability to create these integrated, unified wholes.” We can now look for a sentence that specifies “these integrated, unified wholes.” We find that Sentence 4 which says experiencing an artwork as a whole is what “aesthetic freedom” is, refers to the ‘integrated, unified wholes” in sentence 1. So, 4-1 is a mandatory pair. From this mandatory pair of 4-1, we can understand the theme of the paragraph as well, which is – aesthetic freedom implies that we experience artwork as a unified whole, but “popular culture has lost its ability to create these integrated, unified wholes.” “Instead, works are now being produced…” in sentence 5 can be immediately related to the current popular art – that “works are now being produced that are a loose collection of moments experienced in a rapid and disconnected series.” So we see that 4-1-5 is a meaningful and coherent sequence. Now it is a question of relating the remaining two sentences – sentence 2 and sentence 3 - to this narrative. Sentence 3 which provides an immediate example of the fragmented popular art of a two-hour popular film, relates to the paragraph well. Sentence 2 which is about aesthetic experience in general is unrelated. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. There are two clear clues that we can use to get the answer right. The first clue is in sentence 3 – it introduces the topic that “in the world around us determinism rules.” The other clue is in sentence 4 – It begins with ‘but’; hence, requires a contrasting sentence before it. Finding this sentence before sentence 4 will give us a mandatory pair that can be used to construct the paragraph. We will use both the clues. Sentence 3 states that the world is ruled by determinism, and determinism means that the past determines the future. Hence 3 -1 is a mandatory pair. When we compare sentences 5, 4 and 2 to be placed after the 3-1 pair, sentence 2 is least likely and even illogical – there is no point saying ‘physics loses its handle’ after the 3-1 pair. Sentences 5 and 4 both seem to fit. However, sentence 5 becomes a dangler if not placed immediately after the 3-1- pair. In other words, sentence 5 cannot be placed anywhere else in the paragraph, but immediately after 3-1. Also it follows logically from the ‘past determines the future’ as stated in sentence 1 – so, the scientists could calculate the future of the universe, once they came to know about its past. So we get the sequence 3-1-5. Also, the sentence beginning with “but” is better placed after the effect of it is explained in 4 beginning with ‘so’. This is our second clue. And, the question that is raised in sentence 4, “but what if the past gets erased…” is a concern that will arise if the scientists’ theory about the future of the universe is based on the determinism of 3-1 and the future of the universe based on this determinism. So, we can be certain that 3-1-5-4 is the correct sequence. The effect of the erasure of the past is then explained in sentence 2 – that “physics will, then, lose its determinism handle” to explain the future of the universe, thus concluding the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 31542. Correct Answer: 31542. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 24 %

1. Given the religious and industrial importance of Ganga, any further deterioration will have significant ramifications. 2. For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic landscape. 3. The river is currently struggling to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. 4. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and serves water to 40% of India’s population. 5. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal.

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Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. After the initial reading of the five sentences, it becomes clear that sentences 3-1 are a mandatory pair. The ‘further deterioration’ mentioned in sentence 1 follows from the “sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it” mentioned in sentence 3. Between sentences 2, 4, and 5, sentence 4 cannot be the starter because it begins abruptly with ‘along with its tributaries…’ When we compare sentence 2 and 5 for the starter, both appear to be equally good. Some deliberation is needed. Mention of north India followed by the names of states Uttarakhand etc. will give us 2-5. Mention of the names of the states followed by north India gives us 5-2. 2-5 order is more logical than 5-2, because it is better to mention the broad area of north India first and then mention the names of states in the north rather than mention the names of the states first and then the general area of north India. So we can be certain that 5-2 is more logical and the correct order. Sentence 4 comes next, because sentence 4 continues the narrative related to the geographical aspect of Ganga. So, the 3-1 mandatory pair about the pollution of Ganga can be placed only after sentence 4 and not before it. Placing sentence 4 after sentence 5 is also important because the pronoun “its” in 4 clearly refers only to Ganga which sentence 5 makes explicit. Anywhere else, the pronoun “it” can create an ambiguity, because north India is also referred to as ‘it’ in sentence 2. So we get the sequence 2-5-4, and then the mandatory pair 3-1 is placed logically after that. Hence the correct answer is 25431. Correct Answer: 25431 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

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Explanation: This is a difficult question. Sentences 3 and 4 both can be considered for the starter. However, if we start with sentence 4, at best, sentence 3 can be placed after that. Then, we come to a dead end, and become unable to make any progress. We will be force-fixing sentences after 4-3 without any concrete reasoning. The other option is to start with sentence 3. Sentence 3 talks about the annual consumption of plastic in India and its expected increase. Now, sentence 2 makes sense after sentence 3, because sentence 2 talks about the generation of plastic waste on a daily basis. Consumption followed by the generation of waste are logically related. So, we can confidently fix sentences 3 and 2 at the beginning of the paragraph. Since sentence 2 ends with the mention of 1/3rd of the wasted plastic remaining uncollected – the role of rag pickers and kabadiwallahs in diverting the waste becomes relevant and sentence 5 can be suitably placed after sentences 3 and 2. So we get the sequence 3-2-5. Placing sentences 4 and 1 after this sequence is easy. Sentence 4 comes immediately after because it continues the theme of waste-management - giving us 3-2-5-4 sequence. Sentence 1 then logically concludes the paragraph by stating that the regulatory framework is not about getting rid of plastic altogether but about its sustainable use throughout the lifecycle of plastic. Hence the correct answer is 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

1. Rather than interrupting us with their own stories and anecdotes, they interject at the right moments with the right responses to our stories! 2. They give us space to talk, express ourselves and to be who we are. 3. Are the people most comfortable to be with, those who are most like us, in thought and belief? 4. Without prejudice or impatience, they listen to us with interest, showing us that we really matter to them. 5. That may be true to some extent, but what is truer is that we are at ease in the company of those who are tolerant and appreciative of who or what we are.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The starter sentence is easy to identify among the five sentences. Hence, in this question, we can build the paragraph from the starter up. Sentence 3 asks a question, slightly rhetorical, wondering whether the people with whom we are comfortable, are some way similar to us. Sentence 5 answers this question – that to an extent, it may be true, that they are like us. So we get 3-5 to begin with. Sentence 5 goes on to say that what is more important is that the people we are comfortable with are also, tolerant and appreciative of who or what we are. So sentence 2 has to be placed next because sentence 2 generally illustrates how they are more tolerant and appreciative – they give us space to talk and express ourselves. Thus, we get the sequence 3-5-2. Now it is easy to follow it up with sentences 4 and 1. In sentence 4 explains how attentively they listen us, and sentence 1 elaborates on the how they show us that we matter to them, by not interrupting our stories and by speaking only when we expect them to. So the correct answer is 35241. Correct Answer: 35241 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 21 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Each of the 12 jars – Jar 1 to Jar 12 – has certain number of marbles. The table given below provides information about the number of marbles in some of the pairs of jars. Each jar has at least one marble.

In the above table, the total number of marbles in Jars 1 and 7 put together is 139, Jars 7 and 2 is 169 and so on and so forth. One value (the total number of marbles in Jars 6 and 12 put together) got deleted, and is denoted by NA. 1) What is the value of NA? 254 255 256 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

NA = 240 – X + X + 14 = 254. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 254

Time taken by you: 177 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 193 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 % 2) What could be the maximum possible number of marbles in Jar 9? 55 56 57 54 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

Number of marbles in Jar 9 = 75 – X and 18 < X < 75. Therefore, 0 < Marbles in Jar 9 < 57. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 56

Time taken by you: 419 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 70 % 3) Which of the following can be the possible number of marbles in Jars 2 and 3 put together? 210 220 255 340 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

Marbles in jars 2 and 3 put together = X + 30 + X + 150 = 2X + 180 Since 18 < X < 75, 216 < 2X + 180 < 330. Also, since 2X + 180 is an even number, the sum of the number of marbles in jars 2 and 3 can take any even value between 218 and 328 (both inclusive). Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 220

Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 % 4) If the number of marbles in Jars 2 and 3 put together is minimum possible, then number of marbles in Jar 10 is: 198 199 200 201 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

Number of marbles in Jars 2 and 3 put together = 2X + 180 2X + 180 will be minimum possible for X = 19

Therefore, the number of marbles in Jar 10 = 220 - 19 = 201

Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 201

Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the 2015 cricket world cup, five cricketers – A, B, C, D and E participated. Each of them was an all rounder, that is, could both bat and bowl. The runs scored and the runs conceded by each of these five cricketers were among 650, 700, 750, 850 and 900 runs. The runs conceded by each cricketer is different and also the runs scored by each of these five cricketers is different. For any cricketer, the runs scored is not equal to the runs conceded. The difference between the runs scored and runs conceded for any cricketer is denoted by the parameter X (Runs Scored – Runs Conceded). Further it is known that: I. The runs conceded by C is equal to the runs scored by E. Also the value of parameter X for both C and E is negative. II. The runs conceded by B is more than that by D. The value of X is positive for B and less than the value of X for D. III. If the value of X is positive for any cricketer, then it is always more than 50. Also, the value of X is not the same for any two cricketers. IV. The value of X is positive for only two cricketers. Absolute value of X for any cricketer is not 150. 1) How many runs were scored by A?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

Here, m > n and r < s.

Out of [650, 700, 750, 850 and 900], m cannot take the values 650 (since m > n), 850 (because r will become 50 which contradicts III) and 900 (because r will become negative). Therefore, m = 700 or 750. Now, if m = 700, then the runs scored by B has to be 900 (making r = +200). This means that n = 650. If n = 650, then runs scored by D cannot be 650, 700 (from III), 750 (since r < s), 850 (since r < s) or 900 (As B has scored 900.). Therefore, m cannot be 700, so m = 750. Therefore, the runs scored by B has to be 850. Since s cannot be 150, s is either 200 or 250, which means the runs scored by D has to be 900. So far, we have the following:

Now, the value of p cannot be 750, 850 or 900, so it is either 650 or 700. If p = 650, the value of X for C cannot be negative. Therefore, p = 700. Therefore, the runs scored by C has to be 650. Therefore, the runs scored by A has to be 750. So far, we have:

The runs conceded by A and E have to be one among 850 and 900 (making n = 650). Runs conceded by A and E cannot be 900 and 850 respectively (this will make X for both as –150). Therefore, runs conceded by A and E are 850 and 900 respectively. Thus we get the final table as follows:

A scored 750 runs. Therefore, the required answer is 750.

Correct Answer: 750

Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 340 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 % 2) What is the absolute value of X for D? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

Here, m > n and r < s. Out of [650, 700, 750, 850 and 900], m cannot take the values 650 (since m > n), 850 (because r will become 50 which contradicts III) and 900 (because r will become negative). Therefore, m = 700 or 750. Now, if m = 700, then the runs scored by B has to be 900 (making r = +200). This means that n = 650. If n = 650, then runs scored by D cannot be 650, 700 (from III), 750 (since r < s), 850 (since r < s) or 900 (B has not scored 900 runs as B has scored 900.). Therefore, m cannot be 700, so m = 750. Therefore, the runs scored by B has to be 850. Since s cannot be 150, s is either 200 or 250, which means the runs scored by D has to be 900.

So far, we have the following:

Thus we get the final table as follows:

X = 250 for D.

Therefore, the required answer is 250.

Correct Answer: 250

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 % 3) Who scored 700 runs? B C E Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

E scored 700 runs. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: E

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 4) How many cricketers conceded more but scored fewer runs than B? 0 1 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

A and E satisfy this condition. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 33 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Delta Airlines, the national airline of Spain, operates international flights from Madrid airport. The following table shows the total number of flights operated by Delta Airlines in the year 2017 in different periods. The total number of flights that were operated from Jan to Dec 2017 was 3000.

The following graph provides information about the number of flights operated to Portugal as a percentage of the total number of flights operated in that period.

1) For which of the following consecutive ten-month periods was the number of flights operated to Portugal as a percentage of the total number of flights operated in that period the minimum? A. Mar – Dec

B. Jan – Oct C. Feb – Nov A B C A and B Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: A

Time taken by you: 126 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 282 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) If the total number of flights operated in January is the maximum possible, then what could be the maximum number of flights operated by the airline in the month of November? 220 300 540 600 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Jan + Feb = 3000 – (Mar to Dec) = 3000 – 2460 =540, Nov + Dec = 3000 – (Jan to Oct) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Jan + Dec = 3000 – (Feb to Nov) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Max (Jan) = 540, Min (Feb) = 0 and Min (Dec) = 600 – 540 = 60 Max (Nov) = 600 – 60 = 540 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 540

Time taken by you: 208 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) Which of the following can be the ratio of total number of flights operated in the month of June to that in July? 4: 5 3: 4 2: 3 2: 5 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Jan + Feb = 3000 – (Mar to Dec) = 3000 – 2460 =540, Nov + Dec = 3000 – (Jan to Oct) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Jan + Dec = 3000 – (Feb to Nov) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 From the above three equations, we can calculate Nov + Feb = 540 Therefore, Mar to Oct = 2400 – 540 = 1860; Mar to Jul = 1200, therefore Aug to Oct = 1860 – 1200 = 660 Jun + Jul = (Jun to Oct) – (Aug to Oct) = 1100 – 660 = 440 Option [1], i.e. 4 : 5 is not possible as 4 + 5 = 9 does not divide 440. Option [2], i.e. 3 : 4 is not possible as 3 + 4 = 7 does not divide 440. Option [3], i.e. 2 : 3 is possible as 2 + 3 = 5 divides 440. Option [4], i.e. 2 : 5 is not possible as 2 + 5 = 7 does not divide 440. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2:3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 % 4) Which of the following can be the number of flights operated to Portugal in June and July? 60 100 125 210 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Flights operated to Portugal from Jun – Oct = 385 Flights operated to Portugal from Jul – Nov = 360 Jun – Nov = 25 Similarly, Jul – Dec = 108 Jun + Jul = 133 + Nov + Dec More than 133 flights were operated to Portugal in June and July. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 210

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Akash bought an automatic nut and bolt making machine. The machine operates between 8:00 AM and 3:00 PM only on any given day. The following graph provides information about the aggregate number of nuts and bolts with Akash from Monday to Saturday.

Number of nuts and bolts sold in a day = [Number of nuts & bolts at 3:00 PM on that day] – [Number of nuts and bolts at 8:00 AM on the next day] Further, it is known that: 1. Exactly 50% of all the nuts made in any day were sold on the second day after which they were made. For example, 50% of all the nuts made on Monday were sold on Wednesday, 50% of all the nuts made on Tuesday were sold on Thursday, and so on. The remaining 50% nuts that remained unsold in a day were stored in the inventory. 2. All the bolts made in any day are sold the same day. 3. On any day, nuts & bolts were only sold after 3:00 PM till midnight on the same day. 1) How many bolts were sold on Wednesday? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

30 bolts were sold on Wednesday. Therefore, the required answer is 30.

Correct Answer: 30

Time taken by you: 1063 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 150 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 30 %

2) On which of the following days were the maximum number of bolts sold? Monday Tuesday Thursday Friday Video Explanation: Explanation:

The maximum bolts were sold on Tuesday. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Tuesday

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 % 3) On Thursday, by what percentage is the number of bolts made more than the number of nuts made? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 200

Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 % 4) If the number of bolts sold on Saturday is the average of the number of bolts made per day from Monday to Friday, then the minimum number of nuts & bolts with Akash at 3:00 PM on Saturday could be 350 375 450 550 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 450

Time taken by you: 110 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Nine families (Acharya, Bajpai, Chhawchharia, Damani, Ekbote, Fernandes, Ganguly, Habib and Iyengar) have purchased 9 different flats in the new highrise building “Paradise Towers”. The building has 20 storeys numbered from 1 to 20 (in addition to the ground floor and basement which are reserved for parking) and each storey has only one flat. The flats are priced differentially in four price bands; flats in the bottom five storeys i.e. 1 – 5 are priced at Rs. 60 lakh each, those in storeys 6 – 10 are priced at Rs. 70 lakh each, those in storeys 11 – 15 are priced at Rs. 80 lakh each and those in storeys 16 – 20 are priced at Rs. 90 lakh each. The following data was recorded: 1. At least two flats were purchased in each of the four price bands. 2. Only one pair of families, Damani and Habib, bought flats on consecutive storeys. However, they paid different amounts. 3. The total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. 4. The sum total of the storey numbers of the 9 flats was 100. 5. No flats were bought on storeys 6, 7 and 20 by any of the 9 families. 6. The Acharya and Bajpai families are the farthest apart among these 9 families. 7. Only the Bajpai and Ganguly families paid less than the Damanis. 1) Which of these could not be the amount spent by the Chhawchharia family? Rs. 60 lakh Rs. 70 lakh Rs. 80 lakh Rs. 90 lakh Video Explanation:

Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15). From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied.So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H), in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining twoare from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D.So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2nd storey [and Acharya(A) on the 19th storey].

The amount spent by the Chhawchharia family cannot be Rs. 60 lakh. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Rs. 60 lakh

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 410 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 % 2) Which of the following storeys is occupied by one of the 9 families? 4th 8th

12th 16th Video Explanation: Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15). From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied. So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6 th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H) in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining two are from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D. So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2nd storey [and Acharya (A) on the 19th storey].

The 8th storey is occupied (though we don’t know by whom!). Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 8th

Time taken by you: 308 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 67 % 3)

For how many of the families can we determine the exact storey they have purchased a flat on? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point 3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15).

From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied.So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

As can be seen from the table, we can determine the exact storey for 5 families (A, B, D, G and H). Therefore, the required answer is 5.

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 % 4) If the Iyengar family paid more than the Chhawchharia family, who in turn paid more than the Ekbote family, then how much (in Rs lakhs) did the Fernandes family pay? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15). From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied. So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6 th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10 th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H) in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining two are from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D. So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2 nd storey [and Acharya (A) on the 19th storey].

The only possible case which satisfies the given information is Iyengar – 90 lakh, Chhawchharia – 80 lakh and Ekbote – 70 lakh. This leave only one 80 lakh flat empty and hence the Fernandes family must have paid Rs. 80 lakh. Therefore, the required answer is 80.

Correct Answer: 80

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv, Esha and Farzan are playing a game ‘IskiTopiUske Sir’. Initially, each of these children is asked to pick one hat among six hats of different colours – Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Purple. After picking up the hats, children sat in a circle in the following sequence : Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Purple such that the child with the blue cap is on the immediate left to the one with the red cap, the child with the green cap is on immediate left to the one with the blue cap and so on. In each step, each child passes a hat to the next child on his left. A “step” is said to be complete when the red hat is passed on to the child having the blue hat; the blue hat is passed on to the child having the green hat; the green hat is passed to the child having the yellow hat; the yellow hat is passed to the child having the orange hat; the orange hat is passed to the child having the purple hat and the purple hat is passed on to the child having the red hat. 1) If after 4 steps, Bikash has the purple hat, then after which of the following steps will he have the blue hat? 95 96 97 98 Video Explanation: Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above. Given that after 4 steps Bikash has the purple hat. This means that initiallyBikash has the yellow hat. Bikash will have the blue hat after step 2, step 8, step 14….and so on. This is inthe form of 2 + 6k, where k is a natural number. Out of the given options, only option [4] satisfies the above.Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 98

Time taken by you: 204 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 183 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

2) If after 100 steps, Esha has the orange hat, then which of the following is definitely not correct? Dhruv will have the red hat after 107 steps. Farzan will have the yellow hat after 124 steps. Chandu will have the blue hat after 151 steps. More than one of the above Video Explanation: Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above.

Correct Answer: Chandu will have the blue hat after 151 steps.

Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) If Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv and Esha have a green hat after steps 2, 11, 18, 31 and 64 respectively, then after which of the following steps will Farzan have a green hat? 121 153 30 182 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above. Given that Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv and Esha have the green hat aftersteps 2, 11, 18, 31 and 64 respectively. 2 = 6 × 0 + 2; 11 = 6 × 1 + 5; 18 = 6 × 3 + 0; 31 = 6 × 5 + 1 and 64 = 6 × 10 + 4 This implies that Farzan will have the green hat after 6k + 3 steps. Out of the options given below, only option [2] will suffice. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 153

Time taken by you: 321 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 4) If after 7 steps, Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv, Esha and Farzan have the green, yellow, red, blue, orange and purple hats respectively, then which of the following is definitely correct? I. Abhay will have the green hat after 42 steps. II. After 20 steps, Bikash will have the same hat as Chandu will have after 29 steps. Only I Only II Both I and II Neither I nor II Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above.

Abhay will have the yellow hat after 42 steps. Chandu will have the green hat after 29 (4× 6 + 5) steps. Bikash will have the green hat after 20 (3 × 6 + 2) steps. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Only II

Time taken by you: 237 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 97 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Players from five countries – India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Nepal participate in the South Asian Games in 2017 in five different sports, namely Shooting, High Jump, Long Jump, Wrestling and Weight Lifting. At most ten players from any country

participated in the games. No player participated in more than one sport. Further it is known that: I. The number of players who participated in Weight Lifting from each country other than India is the same. II. At least one player from each country other than Bangladesh participated in Shooting, while in each sport other than Shooting, at least one player from Bangladesh participated. III. Of the total number of players from Bangladesh who participated in different sports, the maximum number of players participated in Wrestling and at least one player from each country participated in each of the two sports, namely Wrestling and High Jump. IV. The total number of players from India who participated in different sports is two more than that from Nepal, which, in turn, is one more than that from Sri Lanka, which, in turn, is one more than that from Pakistan, which in turn, is one more than that from Bangladesh. V. The total number of players who participated in Shooting was exactly half the total number of players who participated in each of the other four sports. VI. The number of players from India who participated in different sports is different and no player from India participated in Long Jump. VII. Equal number of players from Nepal participated in High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. 1) In which sport did the maximum number of players from Pakistan participate? Long Jump Wrestling High Jump Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most ten players can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number of players from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

The maximum number of players from Pakistan participated in Long Jump. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Long Jump

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 161 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 2) Which country sent maximum number of players in High Jump? Sri Lanka Pakistan India Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most tenplayers can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number ofplayers from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

In High Jump, the maximum number of players were from India. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: India

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 % 3) Which of the following is true? The number of players in Shooting from Pakistan = The number of players in Wrestling from Bangladesh The number of players in Weightlifting from India = The number of players in Shooting from Nepal The number of players in Wrestling from Nepal = The number of players in Weight Lifting from Sri Lanka The number of players in High Jump from India = The number of players in Long Jump from Sri Lanka Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most tenplayers can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number of players from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

Only option 4 is true. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The number of players in High Jump from India = The number of players in Long Jump from Sri Lanka

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 % 4) For how many countries can the number of participants in each of the sports be uniquely determined? 4 5 3 2 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most tenplayers can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number ofplayers from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

Now all the questions can be answered. For all the five countries, the number of participants in each of the sports can be uniquely determined. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr. Chatterjee has four children – Ananya, Bholu, Chandu and Debashree. He bought a total of 8 chocolates of 3 types – 3 Bubbly, 3

Caramel and 2 Oreo and distributed the chocolates among his four children such that each child received equal number of chocolates but no two children received the same combination of chocolates. The price of each type of chocolate was different. Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates. After the distribution, Mr. Chatterjee observed the following: 1. The aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu was the least among all the children whereas that with Debashree was the highest among all the children. 2. The aggregate price of chocolates with Ananya has more than that with Bholu Also, Ananya has at least one Caramel and Bholu has at least one Bubbly. 3. Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate. 4. The absolute value of the difference between the prices of Oreo and Caramel was more than the absolute value of the difference between the prices of Bubbly and Caramel. 1) In how many ways could Mr. Chatterjee have distributed the chocolates among his four children? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates areDebashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 %

2) How many children got two chocolates of the same type? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) Who among the four children got one Bubbly and one Caramel? Bholu Chandu Ananya Cannot be determined

Video Explanation: Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates are Debashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Chandu got one Bubbly and one Caramel Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Bholu

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 % 4) Who got the two Oreo chocolates? Chandu Debashree Bholu No one Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates areDebashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Debashree got the two Oreo chocolates. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Debashree

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

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undefined What is the smallest natural value of K for which (K + 2)! + (K + 3)! + (K + 4)! is divisible by 1000?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: (K + 2)! + (K + 3)! + (K + 4)! = (K + 2)! × [1 + K + 3 + (K + 3)(K + 4)] = (K + 2)! × [1 + K + 3 + K 2 + 7K + 12] = (K + 2)! × (K + 4)2 1000 = 23 × 53 So (K + 4)2 × (K + 2)! will be divisible by 2 3 × 53 if (K + 2)! is also divisible by 5 and (K + 4)2 is divisible by 52 . In that case (K + 2)! will definitely be divisible by 23 . Therefore, the minimum value of K for this is 6. Note that for K = 6, (K + 2)! is divisible by 2 3 . Therefore, the required answer is 6. Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined Rajat went from A to B at his usual speed, and then from B to A at twice his previous speed, then A to B at twice his previous speed and again B to A at twice his previous speed. Shouvik went from A to B at his usual speed, then from B to A at half his previous speed, then A to B at half his previous speed and again B to A at half his previous speed. It is known that, the total time taken by Rajat and Shouvik is the same. If Rajat and Shouvik simultaneously start moving towards each other from points A and B respectively at their individual usual speeds, they meet in 16 hours. Find the time taken (in hours) by Shouvik to cover the distance between A and B at his usual speed. 32 24 20 18

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 168 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

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3 9 27 81

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Correct Answer: 27 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Bholu was given the task to cultivate a garden of width 1 m around a rectangular plot. He was paid Rs. 1400 for the task. If it is known that the length of the plot is 3 metres more than its breadth and that Bholu charges Rs. 20 per square metre of the garden cultivated, then find the area (in sq. m) of the original rectangular plot.

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 270 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Evaluate 2 × 4 + 4 × 6 + 6 × 8 + … + 48 × 50. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20800 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Sheetal has only three types of earrings – Gold, Diamond and Silver. All her earrings except X are Diamond, all except Y are Gold and all except Z are Silver. If the ratio of X : Y : Z = 25 : 12 : 17, then what is the ratio of the number of Gold earrings to the number of Silver earrings? 2:1 3:2 4:3 None of these

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of Gold, Diamond and Silver earrings be G, D and S respectively. G + S = X, D + S = Y and G + D = Z 2(G + S + D) = X + Y + Z = 25K + 12K + 17K = 54K G + S + D = 27K, D = 2K, G = 15K and S = 10K Required answer = 3: 2

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 3:2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The product of Gauri’s age four years hence and Swati’s age four years ago is 216. The product of Swati’s age four years hence and Gauri’s age four years ago is 200. Find the product of the present ages of Gauri and Swati. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the present ages of Gauri and Swati be ‘g’ years and ‘s’ years respectively. ?(g + 4)(s – 4) = 216 and (g – 4)(s + 4) = 200 ? gs – 4g + 4s – 16 = 216 and gs + 4g – 4s – 16 = 200 ? gs – 4g + 4s = 232 and gs + 4g – 4s = 216 Adding the two equations, we get 2gs = 448. ? gs = 224 ? The required answer is 224.

Correct Answer:

224 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 145 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined It takes 45 litres of oil paint to paint the inner vertical walls of a rectangular room. How many litres of oil paint will be required to paint the inner vertical walls of another room that is twice as long, twice as wide and half as high? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the length, breadth and height of the first room be l‘’, ‘b’ and ‘h’ respectively. Area that is to be painted =l h + bh + l h + bh = 2h(l + b) Length, breadth and height of the second room are ‘2l’, ‘2b’ and ‘0.5h’ respectively. Therefore, area that is to be painted = 2 × 0.5h(2l + 2b) = 2h(l + b) Therefore, this room will also need 45 litres of oil paint for painting. Therefore, the required answer is 45. Correct Answer: 45 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined How many triangles with exactly two sides equal and having integer lengths can have perimeter equal to 30 units? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: Exactly two sides of the triangle have equal length. Let the sides of the triangle are (m, m, n) 2m + n = 30 Also, 2m > n [ Note m + n > m] m and n are positive integers. The possible combinations of lengths of the sides are (8, 8, 14), (9, 9, 12), (11, 11, 8), (12, 12, 6), (13, 13, 4) and (14, 14, 2). Therefore, the required answer is 6. Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined A, B, C start from the same point on a linear track and travel in the same direction at constant speeds. The ratio of speeds of A, B and C is 3 : 4 : 6. The ratio of time taken by B and C to overtake A from the time after they start is 2 : 3. B and C started X and Y hours respectively after A’s start. What is the ratio X : Y? 1:3 2:9 1:2 None of these

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2:9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

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y2 = x y= x2 y= x3 None of these Section Video Explanation:

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Correct Answer: y = x2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

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1 2 8 64

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Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

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Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

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19% 22% 25% 28%

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Correct Answer: 22% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Let F(x) be a polynomial such that F(x) = F(0) + F(3)x3 and F (–1) = 3. Calculate the value of F(1).

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined In ΔABC, points D and E are the mid points of sides AB and AC. Points F and G are on side BC such that BF = FG = GC. Find the ratio of the areas of quadrilateral DEGF and ΔABC. 5 : 12 1:3 1:2 2:5

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 : 12 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Three real numbers a, b and c satisfy 0 ≤ a ≤ b ≤ c ≤ 6. If a2, b2, c2 are in AP with common difference 3, then the minimum possible value of |a – b| + |b – c| occurs at a = ? 4

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 : 12 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined The average age of the 25 boys in a class is 13 years. The average age of the 35 girls in that class is 12 years. The average age of the 15 students who are from Maharashtra is 14 years. What is the average age of the students who are not from Maharashtra? 11.2 years 11.9 years 12.4 years 12.8 years Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11.9 years Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 148 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined Seven friends of Malik decided to contribute equal amounts to buy a birthday present for him. When they reached the gift shop, two of them refused to contribute because of which each of the remaining five friends had to contribute Rs. 20 more than what they would had to contribute had the two not backed out. What is the cost (in Rs.) of the gift they were intending to buy for Malik? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 350 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Two trains A and B are running in opposite directions. They both take 4 seconds to pass a man standing on a platform. How much time

Two trains A and B are running in opposite directions. They both take 4 seconds to pass a man standing on a platform. How much time will they take to pass each other? 2 seconds 4 seconds 8 seconds Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 350 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Two sides of a triangle can be represented by the equations y = 2x + 2 and y = 11 – x. The coordinates of the centroid of the triangle is (3, 5). Find the equation of the third side.

y=x+ 2 y = 2x + 2 2y = x + 2 Section

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined A, B and C purchased 1, 10 and 20 mangoes for a total of Rs. 10, Rs. 120 and Rs. 300 respectively from a fruit shop. In his transaction with A and C, the shopkeeper made a loss of x% and y% respectively such that x = 3y. Approximately how much loss did the shopkeeper make in his transaction with B? (Assume that the shopkeeper purchased each mango at the same price). 28%

31% 34% 37%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 31% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 162 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined If (log 1 + log 8 + log 27 +… + log 1000) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +… log 8) = a log b + b log c (where a, b and c are natural numbers), then what is the value of a – b + c? 15 14 13 12

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: (log 1 + log 8 + log 27 +… + log 1000) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +…+ log 8) = (log 13 + log 23 + log 33 + … + log 103) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +… + log 8) = 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +…+ log 10) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +…+ log 8) = 3 log 9 + 3 log 10 = 3 log 32 + 3 log 10 = 6 log 3 + 3 log 10 Comparing with (a log b + b log c), we get a = 6, b = 3 and c = 10. Therefore, a – b + c = 6 – 3 + 10 = 13 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 13 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 92 %

undefined Rambali is a milkman. He mixes 2 litres water with every 18 litres pure milk before selling. He has two sons – P and Q. One fine day, P added 5 litres of milk and Q added 3 litres of water to the milk solution which Rambali prepared for selling. In order to have the same ratio of milk and water as earlier, Rambali added a total of 82 litres of milk and water put together. What was the ratio of milk and water added by Rambali? 38 : 3 35 : 6 37 : 4 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 38 : 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined A regular hexagon has each side equal to 1 unit. Find the product of lengths of all the diagonals of the hexagon. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 216 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 18 %

undefined Ranga and Billa want to share the numbers 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20. In how many different ways the ten numbers can be split between Ranga and Billa so that each person gets at least one number and either Ranga’s numbers or Billa’s numbers (but not both) sum to an even number? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since, the sum of all the numbers is odd, exactly one ofRanga’s and Billa’s sum must be odd. Therefore, any way of splitting the numbers up where each person receives at least one number is valid. So, the required answer is 210 – 2 = 1022 Therefore, the required answer is 1022.

Correct Answer: 1022 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 3 %

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5% 6% 7% 7.5%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 %

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Ashutosh has a box containing 8 identical red balls, 9 identical blue balls and 10 identical green balls. He is required to distribute all these balls into three bags A, B and C such that the total number of balls in bag A is more than that in bag B, which, in turn, is more than that in bag C. Moreover, he needs to ensure that the number of red balls in bag A is more than that in bag B which in turn is more than that in bag C, and similarly for the blue and green balls. In how many ways can he do this? Each bag must contain at least one ball of each type. 36 24 48 72

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Explanation:

Note: If a > b > c in case of red, blue and green balls, then total number of ballsin bag A > bag B > bag C. Alternatively, As each bag has one ball of each type, we need to consider 5 red balls, 6 blue balls and 7 green balls. Let a, b and c be number of balls in bags A, B and C respectively. By the given conditions, a > b > c. According to the condition on number of red balls in the three bags, five red balls can be distributed in bags A, B and C in following ways respectively. (3, 2, 0) and (4, 1, 0). Number of ways in which 6 blue balls can be distributed is (5, 1, 0), (4, 2, 0) and (3, 2, 1) Number of ways in which 7 green balls can be distributed is (6, 1, 0), (5, 2, 0), (4, 3, 0) and (4, 2, 1)

Therefore, Ashutosh can distribute the given balls in three bags in 2 × 3 × 4 = 24 ways. Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined The percentage of alcohol in three alcohol-water solutions A, B and C (in that order) are natural numbers in an increasing AP with common difference of +1. When the solutions are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 in that order, it results in a 22.222% alcohol solution. If they are mixed in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2 in that order what will be the concentration of the resulting solution? 20.17% 21.17% 22.17% 23.17%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 22.17% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined If f(2 – x2) = x4 – x2 + p and f(4 – x2) = x4 – 5x2 + q, what is the value of (q – p)?

If f(2 – x2) = x4 – x2 + p and f(4 – x2) = x4 – 5x2 + q, what is the value of (q – p)? 0 2 4 6

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Explanation: We have f(2 – x2) = x4 – x2 + p. Putting x2 = 2, we get f(0) = 4 – 2 + p = 2 + p Also, f(4 – x2) = x4 – 5x2 + q. Putting x2 = 4, we get f(0) = 16 – 20 + q = –4 + q ? 2 + p = –4 + q ?q–p=6 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The cost price of a trouser is increased by 20%. A trader who revised the selling price of the trouser to maintain the same profit percentage noted that he got Rs. 10 more in profit on selling one trouser after he revised the selling price. What is his new profit (in Rs.)? 50 55 60 65

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If the trader maintained his profit percentage unchanged, the selling price of thetrouser must have increased by the same percentage as the cost price. Or the new SP is 20% higher than the old SP. If old CP = c, new CP = 1.2c. Similarly if his old SP = s, new SP = 1.2s. Therefore his old profit = s – c and his new profit = 1.2 (s – c). He made Rs. 10 more in profit. Therefore, 0.2 (s – c) = 10 or s – c = 50. That means he made Rs. 50 in profit before raising the selling price. After raising the selling price he made a profit of 50 + 10 = 60. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 60 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined John and Charles joined an organization together in 1947. The organization agreed to pay John an initial annual salary of Rs. 450 with a fixed yearly increment of Rs. 30. For Charles, the organization agreed to pay an initial annual salary of Rs. 320 with a fixed yearly increment of Rs. 45. Up to which year was Charles’s salary less than John’s salary? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: John’s salary in the nth year (beginning at 1947) = 450 + (n – 1)30 = 30n + 420 Charles’s salary in the nth year (beginning at 1947) = 320 + (n – 1)45 = 45n + 275 Now, 45n + 275 < 30n + 420. Therefore, 15n < 145. Therefore, n < 9.67 ? Charles’s salary was less than John’s salary up to the 9th year, that is, up to 1955. ? The required answer is 1955. Correct Answer: 1955

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

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m – Qn is divisible by 5, where P and Q are natural numbers such that P > Q, P ends in 3 and Q ends in 7. It is known that P m and n are also natural numbers. Which of the following definitely divides (m + n)?

4 5 8 10

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The cyclicity of 3 is 3-9-7-1. The cyclicity of 7 is 7-9-3-1. For (Pm – Qn) to be divisible by 5, [m, n] can be of the form [(4k + 1), (4k + 3)], [(4k + 3), (4k + 1)], [(4k + 2), (4k + 2)] or [(4k), (4k)], where k is a positive integer. Therefore, (m + n) will always be divisible by 4. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

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50%

25% 12.5%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The task of creative work is to weave something new and wonderful out of the tattered threads of culture and convention. On the enchanted loom of the mind, our memory and experience, our personal histories and cultural histories, interlace into a particular pattern which only that particular mind can produce — such is the combinatorial nature of creativity. In describing the machinery of his own mind, Albert Einstein called this interweaving “combinatory play.” It cannot be willed. It cannot be rushed. It can only be welcomed — the work of creativity is the work of bearing witness to the weaving. The inner workings of that unwillable loom, which we often call inspiration, is what Rainer Maria Rilke explores in a beautiful passage from his only novel – The Notebooks of Malte Laurids Brigge, which also gave us Rilke on the essence of art. Decades before pioneering psycholinguist Vera John-Steiner noted that “in the course of creative endeavors, artists and scientists join fragments of knowledge into a new unity of understanding,” Rilke writes: For the sake of a few lines one must see many cities, men and things. One must know the animals, one must feel how the birds fly and know the gesture with which the small flowers open in the morning. One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions, to unexpected meetings and to partings which one has long seen coming; to days of childhood that are still unexplained, to parents that one had to hurt when they brought one some joy and one did not grasp it; to childhood illness that so strangely began with a number of profound and grave transformations, to days in rooms withdrawn and quiet and to mornings by the sea, to the sea itself, to seas, to nights of travel that rushed along on high and flew with all the stars — and it is not yet enough if one may think of all of this. One must have memories of many nights of love, none of which was like the others, of the screams of women in labor, and of light, white, sleeping women in childbed, closing again. But one must also have been beside the dying, one must have sat beside the dead in the room with the open window and the fitful noises. More than half a century before neurologist Oliver Sacks enumerated “forgetting” among the three essential elements of creativity, Rilke adds: And still it is not enough to have memories. One must be able to forget them when they are many, and one must have the great patience to wait until they come again. For it is not yet the memories themselves. Not until they have turned to blood within us, to glance, to gesture, nameless and no longer to be distinguished from ourselves — not until then can it happen that in a most rare hour the first word of a verse arises in their midst and goes forth from them. 1) The purpose of this passage is to: show that Rilke was a thinker ahead of his time. explain the inner workings of the creative process. present Rilke’s views on creativity and highlight that Rilke expressed them decades before other prominent thinkers. list the combination of all elements essential in the course of creative endeavors. Video Explanation:

Explanation: The passage starts with an explanation of the combinatorial nature of creativity. It then quotes Rilke on the inspirations crucial for creative work and highlights the fact that his writings expressed these thoughts decades before similar observations were noted by pioneering psycholinguist Vera John-Steiner. The author then states the importance of “forgetting” as essential to creativity and compares Rilke’s writings, written more than half a century before, to those of neurologist Oliver Sacks. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does give examples where the ideas about creativity expressed by Rilke were also expressed by other prominent thinkers, decades later. But, we cannot conclude whether Rilke was ahead of his time i.e. whether he was radical by the standards of his time. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage explains the inner workings of creativity through the writings of Rilke. This explanation of the creative process is the central idea of the excerpts provided from Rilke’s novel, but it is not the purpose of writing the passage. The author’s purpose is to present Rilke’s views on creativity. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does state some elements essential to creative work, but listing the combination of elements is not the primary purpose of the passage. Option 3 is correct. It correctly sums up the author’s purpose for writing the passage, which is, to present Rilke’s views on the creativity and inspiration and to note that Rilke expressed these views decades before similar thoughts were expressed by other thinkers. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: present Rilke’s views on creativity and highlight that Rilke expressed them decades before other prominent thinkers.

Time taken by you: 228 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 % 2) According to Rilke, poetry reflects all of the following experiences of a poet EXCEPT: Solitude and solitary wanderings. Travel to unfamiliar places. Death and bereavement. The guilt of hurting one’s parents. Video Explanation:

Explanation: The third paragraph describes Rilke’s summary of experiences that are reflected in poetry. He says, “For the sake of a few lines one must see many cities, men and things. One must know the animals, one must feel how the birds fly and know the gesture with which the small flowers open in the morning. One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions, to unexpected meetings and to partings which one has long seen coming;…” and so on. Option 1 is incorrect. Rilke says that, one must be able to think back to days in rooms withdrawn and quiet and to mornings by the sea, to the sea itself, to seas, to nights of travel that rushed along on high and flew with all the stars — and it is not yet enough if one may think of all of this…” Thus, we can safely conclude that experiencing loneliness is one of the important factors in the creative process. Thus, option 1 is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 also states that “One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions ...” implying option 2. Hence, eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. In the same paragraph we also find that “But one must also have been beside the dying, one must have sat beside the dead in the room with the open window and the fitful noises.” Thus, we can conclude that experiencing death and bereavement are part of the experience that trigger creativity. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 2 states that “One must be able to think back [...] to parents that one had to hurt when they brought one some joy and one did not grasp it ...” Thus, Rilke does not suggest or imply any guilt arising out of the hurt caused to parents. He mentions it merely within the range of experiences reflected in poetry. Hence option 4 is an exception and the answer to this question. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The guilt of hurting one’s parents.

Time taken by you: 124 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 19 % 3) Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? Inspiration is the accumulation of our experiences, memories and surroundings that unite unconsciously in a new work of creativity. Forgetting is the ability to revisit vast troves of memories so that they come in handy in a rare hour of writing inspiring poetry. Inspiration is a result of a poet’s complete mastery of the medium of poetry. Forgetting must be consciously internalized. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 2 is incorrect. According to the last paragraph, “forgetting” does not mean retaining memories but it means assimilating them in such a way that “they have turned to blood within us, … [they can] no longer be distinguished from ourselves”. In essence, it means that one must not consciously revisit one’s memories while writing poetry. Thus, we can eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the passage. The passage does not mention whether complete mastery of the medium of poetry will spark inspiration. Furthermore, the passage states that inspiration and creativity are a combinatory play of many factors. Thus, inspiration cannot be a result of just complete mastery of the medium of poetry. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The last paragraph which explains the role of memory and “forgetting” in inspiration does not say that “forgetting’ is something that a poet can consciously cultivate. On the contrary, ‘forgetting’ according to the passage is an assimilation of memory which conditions us unconsciously and makes us what we are. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that “On the enchanted loom of the mind, our memory and experience, our personal histories and cultural histories, interlace into a particular pattern which only that particular mind can produce — such is the combinatorial nature of creativity ... It cannot be willed.” Option 1, thus, is the same idea expressed in different words. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Inspiration is the accumulation of our experiences, memories and surroundings that unite unconsciously in a new work of creativity.

Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 4) Which one of the following statements is true about inspiration? It can be attained by travelling the world and meeting new people. It strikes when we seek experiences, memories and knowledge of different cultures. It may strike when it is least expected. It cannot be attained without knowing ourselves. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Though the entire passage is about inspiration and creativity, at the beginning of the passage, the writer explains the nature of inspiration as something that “cannot be willed. It cannot be rushed. It can only be welcomed — the work of creativity is the work of bearing witness to the weaving. The inner workings of that unwillable loom, which we often call inspiration is what Rainer Maria Rilke explores in a beautiful passage from his only novel … which also gave us Rilke on the essence of art.” From this point of view… Option 1 is incorrect. Since inspiration is a combinatory play of the sum total of one’s life’s experiences a single factor of travelling and meeting new people is not enough to get inspiration. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Seeking experiences, memories and knowledge as the option states, similar to option 1, is still another specific effort or pursuit. Inspiration is an unwillable combinatory play of all these and more. So eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the passage. The passage does not state whether one needs to know oneself to attain inspiration. Furthermore, knowing oneself may not be enough to get inspiration. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The 2nd paragraph calls inspiration “The inner workings of that unwillable loom,” Thus we can infer that inspiration is unwillable, and that it strikes unconsciously and when it is least expected. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: It may strike when it is least expected.

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. How the world uses energy is a hot topic for a warming planet, and fears of pollution and resource strain have produced a virtual arms race of energy-efficiency strategies. From the European Union to China, economies are vowing to reduce their energy intensity with the help of technological innovations and legislative changes. Yet, despite these promises, consumer demand for energy is forecast by the International Energy Agency to rise until at least 2040. With the world’s energy needs growing, how can policymakers guarantee supply? To put it bluntly, the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves. After 40 years of fearing energy shortages, we have entered an era of abundance. We need to guard against false narratives, not scarce resources. The culprit of this storyline is the Club of Rome, a global think-tank that, in the 1970s, spurred energy anxiety with its absurd prophecies derived from questionable models. As devoted followers of Thomas Malthus and Paul Ehrlich, the club argued that bad things come from exponential growth, and good things from linear growth. This idea fueled the prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020. By adopting this nonsense dogma, developed countries enabled resource-rich authoritarian leaders like Muammar elQaddafi in Libya, and Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini in Iran, to use their oil reserves as tools to oppose the West – and particularly its support for Israel. This contributed to the oil shocks of the 1970s, and reinforced the erroneous perception that hydrocarbon reserves were even more limited, and largely confined to the Middle East. Rapid advances in technology, particularly in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places, eventually upended such narratives. Today’s energy “crisis” stems not from shortages, but from anxiety over pollution. But this anxiety has not slowed our exploration habits. On the contrary, politics and international law, like the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, have been adapted to enable discovery. But perhaps the biggest technology-driven upheaval for global energy markets in recent years has come from shale gas and shale oil production in the United States. At 8.8 million barrels per day, US oil production is now higher than that of Iraq and Iran combined. Taken together, these developments have contributed to lower energy prices, and reduced the strength of

OPEC. Furthermore, because LNG is favored by the transport sector (particularly freight and maritime shippers) for environmental reasons, the ability to use oil as a geopolitical weapon has disappeared. Iran was so desperate to ramp up its oil exports that it agreed to abandon its nuclear program. Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. If they could, there would be no reason for the EU to support renewable energy production through legislation. Moreover, while wind and solar technologies generate electricity, the biggest energy demand comes from heating. In the EU, for example, electricity represents only 22% of final energy demand, while heating and cooling represents 45%; transportation accounts for the remaining 33%. All of these factors help explain why fossil fuels, which currently meet more than 80% of the world’s energy needs, will remain the backbone of global energy production for the foreseeable future. This may not come as welcome news to those pushing for an immediate phase-out of hydrocarbons. But perhaps some solace can be gained from the fact that technological innovation will also play a key role in reducing the negative impacts on air and water quality. Amid the global conversation about climate change, it is understandable that developed economies would promise significant gains in energy efficiency. But while the EU may be committed to reducing CO2 emissions, other signatories of the 2015 Paris climate agreement do not seem as resolute. It would not be surprising if most of the signatories actually raised their energy consumption in coming years, turning to fossil fuels because they cannot afford any other option. Energy policy will remain on the agenda for advanced economies for many years to come. But as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight. 1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? In view of the world’s growing energy needs, the passage cautions the energy policy makers about the impossibility of ideals winning over facts. Energy policy makers ought to take account of the fact that despite fears of shortages or threats from pollution, we have entered an era of fossil fuel abundance that shows no sign of abating. While vowing to reduce their energy intensity with the help of technological innovations, the energy policy makers must realize the prevalence of wrong ideas. Policy makers ought to realize that rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places will soon deplete the world’s oil resources. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage talks about how there is a misconception about the availability of resources and how this affects policy-impact. It does not imply or suggest that policies prioritizing energy efficiency are idealistic. He believes they are based on a misapprehension of facts. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. In paragraph 2, the writer says: “To put it bluntly, the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves.” Thus, the writer’s intention in the passage is to clarify this fact and he later states that: “We need to guard against false narratives, not scarce resources.” He goes on to discuss how wrong notions about energy scarcity have triggered ineffective policies and ends by saying that “as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight”. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It refers to the “prevalence of wrong ideas among policy makers” which is an unspecific remark that does not focus on answering the question of what the passage intends to accomplish. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is both unspecific and misrepresentative of the passage. There is no “idealized agenda” that the writer talks about. He refers instead to a misinformed policy. Reject option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Energy policy makers ought to take account of the fact that despite fears of shortages or threats from pollution, we have entered an era of fossil fuel abundance that shows no sign of abating.

Time taken by you: 208 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 133 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 2) What is the ‘false narrative’ that the author mentions in the second paragraph?

The narrative that after 40 years of shortages, we have entered an era of abundance in oil reserves. The prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020. The Malthusian doctrine that linear growth is preferable to exponential growth. The shifting of energy anxiety that stemmed from fear of shortages to anxiety over pollution. Video Explanation: Explanation: The second paragraph mentions that though the world’s energy needs are constantly on the rise, “the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves. We need to guard against false narratives, not scare resources.” In effect, the false narratives are the ones propagating scarcity of oil reserves. Option 1 is incorrect. The era of abundance in oil reserves is currently the reality, and not the false narrative. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The scarcity of oil and the possibility of the world running out of oil reserves by 2020 are the false narrative that writer is referring to. He also mentions that the prediction was fueled by the doctrines of Malthus and Paul Ehrlich. Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Though the writer mentions Malthus and Paul Ehrlich, he does not comment on the general principle of growth patterns, or the principle of these economists. The writer merely states that the scaremongering that the world would run out of oil was fueled by Malthusian principles of growth. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The shifting of the energy anxiety from that of a possible scarcity of oil to that of pollution from fossil fuels is something that happened out of a concern for the environment. The writer does not term it as a false narrative. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: The prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020.

Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 3) All of the following are said to have reduced the dependence on oil, especially from any particular geopolitical area, EXCEPT: Technological improvements in exploration methods Extraction of hydrocarbons from new places around the globe The preference for LNG by the fuel transporters The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states: “Rapid advances in technology, particularly in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places, eventually upended such narratives.” Thus technological improvements in exploration methods did reduce the dependence on oil. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 mentions that technology enables extraction of hydrocarbons from new places around the world. Therefore, reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 explicitly mentions that LNG is favoured by transporters and that this is another reason why oil is no longer a geopolitical weapon. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage makes the point that fossil fuels will continue to be used precisely because renewable energy sources are NOT energy efficient even if they are environment friendly. Paragraph 6 says about renewable energy sources: “they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. If they could, there would be no reason for the EU to support renewable energy production through legislation”. Thus the discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources is NOT said to be a reason for the reduced dependence on oil. Retain option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources

Time taken by you: 148 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 4) According to the writer, the dependence on fossil fuels for meeting world’s energy needs is unlikely to change in the near future, for all these reasons EXCEPT: A major part of the world’s energy need is for heating which is currently met by gas and oil. Wind and solar energy cannot compete with the traditional sources for electricity generation. Fossil fuels currently meet more than 80 percent of the world’s energy needs. The legislation in European Union to support renewable energy production is unlikely to succeed. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It is not an exception. The sixth paragraph states that “Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. … Moreover, while wind and solar technologies generate electricity, the biggest energy demand comes from heating. In the EU, for example, electricity represents only 22% of final energy demand, whileheating and cooling represents 45%; transportation accounts for the remaining 33%.” If the biggest demand for energy comes from heating and if wind and solar technology can produce only electricity – the implication is that the demand for heating is met by gas and oil or fossil fuels. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is stated verbatim in paragraph 6 that “Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, option 3 also is an almost verbatim repetition of paragraph 7 which begins, “All of these factors help explain why fossil fuels, which currently meet more than 80% of the world’s energy needs, will remain the backbone of global energy production for the foreseeable future.” Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The legislation in European Union mean to support the production of renewable energy is cited as an example of the dependence on fossil fuels. However, option 4 says it is unlikely to succeed. No such inference is possible from the passage. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The legislation in European Union to support renewable energy production is unlikely to succeed.

Time taken by you: 65 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 65 % 5) It can be inferred from the passage that one of the fallouts of the unfounded fears about scarce oil reserves is that … authoritarian leaders could not use oil as a geopolitical weapon. oil rich countries could oppose the west in its support to Israel. the US started producing more oil than Iran and Iraq combined. led to rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places. Video Explanation: Explanation: The first three paragraphs of the passage are about the increasing consumer demand for energy, and how the fear of running out of fuel sources has shaped geopolitics. The writer also states that the oil shock of the 1970s spurred energy anxiety and it became widely accepted that the planet’s oil reserves would run out by the year 2000. This energy anxiety gave the Middle East, which is rich in oil reserves, unprecedented bargaining power politically, because of their oil. It may be worthwhile for you to know what the passage is referring to as the oil shock of the 1970s. During the 1973 ArabIsraeli War, Arab members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)imposed an embargo against the United States, in retaliation to the U.S support to the Israeli military. Arab OPEC members had also extended the embargo to other countries that supported Israel. The embargo both banned petroleum exports to the targeted nations and introduced cuts in oil production to create an artificial scarcity. This is known as the oil shock. From this point of view: Option 1 is incorrect. In fact authoritarian leaders used oil as a geopolitical weapon, and the passage mentions Muammar el-Qaddafi in Libya, and Ayatollah Khomeini in Iran who had used their oil reserves as tools to oppose the West. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is correct. The scaremongering in the 1970s about the exhaustibility of the oil reserves gave immense economic and political power to the oil rich countries. Hence the Middle East, rich in oil reserves could use their clout against the west which was heavily dependent on the Middle East for their energy needs. The passage cites the examples of Libya and Iran who could afford to oppose the more powerful West in its support to Israel because of this. Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Currently option 3 is factually correct. The passage also mentions that the US now produces more oil than Iran and Iraq combined. However, it is not implied as fallout of the scarcity but attributed to technological advances and intensive exploration. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and extraction of oil are not attributed directly to the unfounded fears of scarce oil reserves. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: oil rich countries could oppose the west in its support to Israel.

Time taken by you: 138 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 6) “How the world uses energy is a hot topic for a warming planet…” The first sentence of the passage serves which of the following purposes in the essay? It leads the reader to a better understanding of the “hot topic” of energy misuse and the warming of the planet. It captures the writer’s thesis that while potential shortages and threats from pollution form the energy narrative, the demand for fossil fuels shows no sign of abating. It introduces the reader to the ideas about to be presented in the passage that have to do with effective use of energy. It makes a sarcastic stress on the “hot topic” which, as the passage later reveals, is not deserving of the urgency it has received. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The question asks us to identify the reason for a particular choice of words. The answer lies in the broad intent of the passage – its main idea. But energy misuse is not the subject of the passage. Rather, the passage talks about the misinformation surrounding energy sources. Therefore, reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. The author goes on to argue in the passage that while there is good cause for environmental pollution from fossil fuels, the fear of a scarcity of fossil fuels is unfounded. This is the main idea of the passage. Refer the last paragraph – “Energy policy will remain on the agenda for advanced economies for many years to come. But as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight.” The writer thus points out how the hot topic or the energy narrative is centered around the fear of shortage or pollution, they need to understand that the world cannot and will not do away with fossil fuels in the near future. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not deal with the subject of the effective use of energy but with the misinformation about energy. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage is serious and based on scholarship and sound reasoning. It is factual and persuasive. Option 4 mentions sarcasm which is not correct. Reject option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: It captures the writer’s thesis that while potential shortages and threats from pollution form the energy narrative, the demand for fossil fuels shows no sign of abating.

Time taken by you: 104 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 25 %

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Traditionally, countries’ global political power was assessed according to military might: the one with the largest army had the most power. But that logic was not always reflected in reality. The US lost the Vietnam War; the Soviet Union was defeated in Afghanistan. In its first few years in Iraq, the US discovered the wisdom of Talleyrand’s adage that the one thing you cannot do with a bayonet is sit on it. Enter soft power. The term was coined by Harvard’s Joseph S. Nye in 1990 to account for the influence a country – and, in particular, the US – wields, beyond its military (or “hard”) power. As Nye put it, a country’s power rests on its “ability to alter the behavior of others” to get what it wants, whether through coercion (sticks), payments (carrots), or attraction (soft power). “If you are able to attract others,” he pointed out, “you can economize on the sticks and carrots.” Nye argues that a country’s soft power arises from “its culture (in places where it is attractive to others), its political values (when it lives up to them at home and abroad), and its foreign policies (when they are seen as legitimate and having moral authority.)” But I believe that it also emerges from the world’s perceptions of what a country is about: the associations and attitudes conjured by the mention of a country’s name. Hard power is exercised; soft power is evoked. The US has been the world’s largest economy and oldest democracy, a haven for immigrants, and the land of the American

Dream – the promise that anyone can be anything if they work hard enough. It is also the home of Boeing and Intel, Google and Apple, Microsoft and MTV, Hollywood and Disneyland, McDonald’s and Starbucks. The attractiveness of these assets, and of the American lifestyle that they represent, is that they enable the US to persuade, rather than compel, others to adopt its agenda. In this sense, soft power acts as both an alternative and a complement to hard power. But there are limits to a country’s soft power – even America’s. In the wake of the US terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, there was an outpouring of goodwill for the US. Then the country launched its War on Terror, in which it relied heavily on hard power. The instruments of that power – the Iraq invasion, indefinite detention of “enemy combatants” and other suspects at Guantánamo Bay prison, the Abu Ghraib scandal, and revelations of CIA “black sites,” the killing of Iraqi civilians by private US security contractors – were not received well by the global public. America’s soft power declined sharply, demonstrating that how a country exercises its hard power affects how much soft power it can evoke. America’s domestic narrative soon overcame its foreign-policy setbacks, thanks partly to today’s unprecedented connectivity. In a world of instant mass communications, countries are judged by a global public fed on a diet of relentless online news, smartphone videos, and Twitter gossip. In such an information age, Nye wrote, three types of countries are likely to gain soft power: “those whose dominant cultures and ideals are closer to prevailing global norms (which now emphasize liberalism, pluralism, autonomy); those with the most access to multiple channels of communication and thus more influence over how issues are framed; and those whose credibility is enhanced by their domestic and international performance.” Nye has argued that, in an information age, soft power often accrues to the country with the better story. The US has long been the “land of the better story.” It has a free press and an open society; it welcomes migrants and refugees; it has a thirst for new ideas and a knack for innovation. All of this has given the US an extraordinary ability to tell stories that are more persuasive and attractive than those of its rivals. However, Trump’s ascent to power has shattered America’s image. 1) “The one thing you cannot do with a bayonet is sit on it” – which of the following is the most likely explanation of these words in the context of the passage? A country with military-might must not remain idle without employing its power in some way. Military-might is useful to win a war but is not the correct assessment of a country. Military-might ultimately leads to a country’s downfall. A large military can be defeated by small but well-organized military forces. Video Explanation: Explanation: The context has to be well understood for choosing the correct answer. Briefly, the first two paragraphs state that traditionally the global power of a country is assessed using its military power. However the US lost to Vietnam, and the Soviet Union was defeated n Afghanistan – implying large armies were defeated by very small ones. The next example is of Iraq where the US discovered the wisdom in the words – “Enter soft power.” Then the second paragraph explains the meaning and implications of soft power. The words are used to introduce the concept of soft power. Hence the most likely implication in the context is option 2. Option 1 is incorrect – there is no implication of not remaining idle and having to continue using military might all the time. Option 3 is incorrect – ‘downfall’ of a military power is different from losing a war. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect – organization of the armies is irrelevant. There is no suggestion that large armies are not well organized or that small armies are. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Military-might is useful to win a war but is not the correct assessment of a country.

Time taken by you: 182 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 38 % 2) According to Joseph S Nye, all these are examples of soft power EXCEPT:

The ability to alter the behavior of others. The ability to achieve what a country wants through inducements. The ability to use the military and influence the behaviour of others. The use of the military to win wars. Video Explanation: Explanation: The term soft power is explained in the second paragraph: “Enter soft power. The term was coined by Harvard’s Joseph S. Nye in 1990 to account for the influence a country – and, in particular, the US – wields, beyond its military power. Nye explained that a country’s power rested on its “ability to alter the behavior of others” to get what it wants, whether through coercion, payments, or attraction (soft power). Hence options 1 and 2 are part of Nye’s explanation of soft-power. Eliminate Options 1 and 2. Between options 3 and 4, option 3 states that the ability to use the military to influence others (without war) is implicitly a part of soft power, but option 4 states that it is also the ability to win wars. Since soft power, according to Nye, is “beyond military power,” wars cannot be part of soft power. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The use of the military to win wars.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 90 % 3) All the following have contributed to America’s soft power in the world EXCEPT: The American Dream. American conglomerate. American foreign policy. The American war on terror. Video Explanation: Explanation: In the third and the fourth paragraphs, the writer explains how America was able to ‘evoke soft power’ through its culture, foreign policy, its promise of the American Dream – “that anyone can be anything if they work hard enough,” and its business houses like, Boeing, Intel, Google, Apple etc… And in this sense, “its soft power acts as both an alternative and a complement to hard power”. In the next paragraph, the writer talks about the launch of America’s war on terror which relied heavily on hard power or the military; and as a consequence of the abuses and excesses, the ‘soft power of the US declined’ sharply.” Thus options 1, 2 and 3 – the American Dream, its businesses (the American conglomerate) and its foreign policy have all contributed to the soft power of America. This eliminates options 1, 2, and 3. Though the presence of a large military can evoke power, war itself is not a part of soft-power. Hence America’s war on terror is the exception. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The American war on terror.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 89 % 4) According the passage, the decline of US soft power can be attributed to which of the following? Its heavy dependence on hard power when it launched its war on terror in the wake of the terrorist attacks of September 2011. The invasion of Iraq and the misuse of the instruments of hard power. Trump’s ascent to power. All of the above. Video Explanation: Explanation: The decline of America’s soft power is explained in the last three paragraphs of the passage. It began with the American response to the September 2011 terror attacks. Immediately after the attacks, there was an outpouring of goodwill for the US. However, the excessive use of its military might to mishandle the instruments that such power afforded - excesses were committed with Prisoners of war and Iraqi civilians were killed by private US security contractors - caused its soft power to decline drastically. The domestic narrative overtook foreign policy setbacks; the American story of liberalism, pluralism, and autonomy were undermined. The last paragraph then mentions the ascent of Trump to presidency as another factor that shattered America’s image. America’s image is also crucial to its soft power. Thus options 1, 2, and 3 are all reasons mentioned in the passage. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: All of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 % 5) According to Joseph S Nye, in a world of instant mass communication which of the following helps a country to gain soft power? I. Its adherence to globally emphasized norms of liberalism, pluralism, autonomy. II. Its access to multiple channels of communication and credible domestic and international performance. III. Its propaganda machine that promotes a better story about itself. All of I, II and III I and II II and III III only Video Explanation:

Explanation: In the last paragraph, the author describes Nye’s view on how ‘in such an information age, three types of countries are likely to gain soft power: “those whose dominant cultures and ideals are closer to prevailing global norms (which now emphasize liberalism, pluralism, autonomy); those with the most access to multiple channels of communication and thus more influence over how issues are framed; and those whose credibility is enhanced by their domestic and international performance.” Hence statements I and II are supported by the passage. Mere propaganda to promote itself by “better story about itself” is incorrect – as the soft power depends on access to channels of communication and not propaganda machine. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: I and II

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 % 6) In the context of the passage, which of the following is likely to be a “country with a better story”? A Utopia A country without borders – akin to the global village. A liberal democratic society and economy. A welfare state with military might. Video Explanation: Explanation: The answer to this question can be derived from the last paragraph of the passage. “Nye has argued that, in an information age, soft power often accrues to the country with the better story. The US has long been the “land of the better story.” It has a free press and an open society; it welcomes migrants and refugees; it has a thirst for new ideas and a knack for innovation. The ‘better story’ is vaguely partly explained by what the US was, perhaps until recently, with free press and open society, open to immigrants etc. Option 1 is incorrect – A utopia is an idea and does not exist in reality. We can eliminate this option because the passage is not about what is ideal and does not exist – it is about realpolitik and soft power. Option 2 is incorrect for the same reason. Nowhere does the passage suggest that a country can be or has to be without borders, for trade or other purposes. Option 3 is correct. Among other things that may be required to be a “better story”, if a country has to have an open society that encourages new ideas and innovation it has to be a liberal democratic economy. Option 4 is incorrect, as military might, though relevant to what the writer has written about soft power earlier in the passage, does not relate to what is a “better story”. We can eliminate option 4. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: A liberal democratic society and economy.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

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Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an indigenous development, is still a moot point. But clearly many ideas and influences had penetrated the Indian subcontinent from the north-west. Throughout history the north-west frontier had been more often wide open than not. While the Bactrian, Saka and Kushan empires had actually straddled the Khyber pass, the constant spate of conquests had systematically eroded cultural barriers and washed down onto the Indian plains a rich topsoil of Persian and Mediterranean skills and ideals. The most obvious example was in coins. At the time of the Mauryas (third century BC), Indian coinage was still the unadorned lumps of metal marked with a simple punch that had been in circulation from the earliest times. But the idea of a minted coinage, incorporating a design or portrait and a legend, dates only from the time of these invasions. The evolution of a specifically Indian coinage is clearly marked in the coins of western India, where markedly Indian profiles start to appear about the second century AD. By the fourth century, the distinctive gold coinage of the Guptas was in circulation throughout north India. In literature, it has been suggested that Sanskrit drama owed something to Greek influence; Indian playwrights like Kalidasa may have inherited some of the conventions of Greek comedy as performed at the Bactrian court in the Punjab. In architecture there is a more obvious connection. The temple of Jandial at Taxila in Pakistan has Ionic columns and a layout not unlike that of the Parthenon on a reduced scale. It could hardly look less Indian and indeed it is not Indian; built by Parthian invaders at the beginning of the first century AD, it was probably used by fire-worshipping devotees of the Persian god Zoroaster. But the significant point is that this temple is the earliest structural, as opposed to rock-cut, temple on Indian soil. So did the ancient peoples of India learn about architecture from the invaders? The answer is certainly no. They had been building on a grand scale in wood and brick for centuries. Megasthenes’ description of the gigantic royal palace at Pataliputra is in itself enough to prove the point. But Hellenistic buildings like Jandial did have some impact. In the Himalayan valley of Kashmir the foreign style caught on and produced a distinctive and enduring school of building which employed classical pillars, trefoil arches and triangular pediments. However, it was in the working of stone and in sculpture that foreign skills really made their mark on India. Craftsmen and masons seem to have moved about the ancient world more freely even than ambassadors. The Ashoka pillars with their bell-shaped capitals bear a striking resemblance to the pillars of Persepolis, the ancient Achaemenid capital of Persia. The highly developed modelling shown in the lion capitals found at Sarnath and Sanchi suggest an already well-developed style which must mean that Ashoka borrowed both the idea of the pillars, and the masons to carve them, from Persia. 1) The central point in the first paragraph is that: Historically, many foreign cultural influences entered India from the northwest. It is not clear whether writing entered India from outside, but many other ideas and influences did. In the north-west of India, constant conquests tore down the empires that existed around the Khyber pass. Constant conquests from the north-west resulted in ancient India being unable to develop culturally on its own. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option [1] is correct. This is the point made in the second sentence of theparagraph – ‘many ideas and influences had penetrated the Indian subcontinent from the north-west’ – and then elaborated upon in the rest of the paragraph. Retain option [1]. Option [2] is not a comprehensive answer. It focuses unduly on the first sentence of the paragraph, which is the only one that discusses writing, and ignores important points made in the rest of the paragraph, such as the direction of the entry of the foreign influences. So option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect as well. There is no suggestion in the passage that the constant conquests ‘tore down’ the empires around the Khyber pass, just that these conquests influenced India culturally. Option [3] is thus rejected. Option [4] makes a judgement about India being ‘unable to develop culturally’, that is not warranted. The paragraph only talks about foreign cultural influences on ancient India – it does not suggest that India was ‘unable to develop culturally on its own’. So option [4] is also eliminated. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Historically, many foreign cultural influences entered India from the north- west.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 % 2) What, according to the author, is noteworthy about the temple of Jandial? It was built by Parthian invaders around two millennia ago. It was used by the fire-worshipping devotees of the Persian god Zoroaster. It is the earliest temple on Indian soil that was built rather than carved from rock. It is the earliest example of a typically Indian style of architecture. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option [1] is incorrect. While it is factually true that the temple of Jandial was builtby Parthian invaders around two millennia ago, the author does not claim that this point is particularly noteworthy. So option [1] is eliminated. Option [2] can be ruled out on the same grounds as option [1] – it is correct but not noteworthy, according to the writer. Option [3] is correct. Refer to paragraph 4: ‘But the significant point is that this temple is the earliest structural, as opposed to rock-cut, temple on Indian soil.’ Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incorrect. According to the author, the temple of Jandial ‘could hardly look less Indian’, so it cannot be considered to be of a typically Indian style. So option [4] is rejected. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: It is the earliest temple on Indian soil that was built rather than carved from rock.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 % 3) The passage answers all the following questions EXCEPT..

When did distinctly Indian coinage arise in ancient India? Did the Hellenistic style of building have any impact on India? What was the reason for the well-developed style of the Ashoka pillars? Was the art of writing an indigenous development in India? Video Explanation: Explanation: Option [1] is not the answer, as it is a question that is clearly answered in paragraph 2 – distinctly Indian coinage arose in the second century AD in ancient India. So option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is not the answer either, as it is answered in paragraph 4 – the Hellenistic style of building caught on in Kashmir and produced a distinctive style of architecture. Thus option [2] is also eliminated. Option [3] is not the answer as well, as it is answered in the last paragraph – the reason for the well-developed style of the Ashoka pillars is that Ashoka borrowed the idea for them, as well as the masons to carve them, from Persia. So option [3] can be rejected as well. Option [4] is the right answer, as it is a question that is not answered in the passage. The first sentence of the passage says that ‘Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an indigenous development, is still a moot point.’ After that, this topic is not brought up again, so the question remains unanswered. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Was the art of writing an indigenous development in India?

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 89 % 4) What is the central idea of the passage? The effect of foreign invasions on ancient India Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture Indian art and architecture in ancient times The similarity between ancient Indian and foreign art Video Explanation: Explanation: Option [1] is too general. The focus of the passage is not on all the effects of foreign invasions on ancient India, but specifically on the effect on Indian art and culture. So option [1] can be eliminated. Option [2] is correct. The passage discusses the numerous foreign influences on ancient Indian art and culture – in the realms of coinage, literature, architecture, masonry and sculpture. Retain option [1]. Option [3] is a partial answer. It fails to mention the fact that the passage doesn’t just discuss Indian art and architecture in ancient times, but rather foreign influences on the same. So option [3] can be rejected. Option [4] is incorrect. The passage does not focus at any length on similarities between ancient Indian and foreign art, and when it does mention such similarities, it does so in order to point out foreign influences on Indian art. So option [4] can be ruled out. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture

Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. Regularly drinking above the UK alcohol guidelines can take years off your life, according to a major report. The study of 600,000 drinkers estimated that having 10 to 15 alcoholic drinks every week could shorten a person's life by between one and two years. And they warned that people who drink more than 18 drinks a week could lose four to five years of their lives. Scientists, who compared the health and drinking habits of alcohol drinkers in 19 countries, found people who drank the equivalent of about five to 10 drinks a week could shorten their lives by up to six months. Recommended limits in Italy, Portugal, and Spain are almost 50% higher than the UK guidelines, and in the USA the upper limit for men is nearly double this. Which of the following can be validly concluded from the above? Mortality rate due to consumption of alcohol in UK is likely to be lower than that in the US, Italy, Portugal, and Spain. Light drinkers, or drinkers who consume alcohol less than the recommended limits lower the risk of several cardiovascular conditions. If you already drink alcohol, drinking less may help you live longer. There are no health benefits from drinking alcohol even below the recommended limits. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: A conclusion is completely and conclusively supported by the passage. The data in the passage can be summarized this way: A study concludes that drinking alcohol above quantities recommended levels progressively reduces one’s longevity. The recommended levels in the US, Italy, Portugal, and Spain are greater than those of UK. Option 1 is incorrect. Though the mortality rate due to consumption of alcohol being higher in countries where recommended levels are higher than those of UK is expressed as a possibility, there is no data about how much people in these countries drink. Hence the possibility expressed in option 1 cannot be evaluated. It is at best data inadequate, hence not a valid conclusion. Eliminate the option. Option 2 is incorrect. Though it may be correct by common sense standards that light drinkers may lower their risk of heart ailments, there is no information in the passage to come to this conclusion. Hence eliminate option 2. Option 4 is also data inadequate. The paragraph gives us no information to evaluate the health benefits of alcohol

consumed below recommended levels. Option 3 is correct. That drinkers may improve their longevity if they reduce their intake is a conclusion, because the passage says that the more one drinks, the more is the risk of reduced longevity. The option states this as a possibility and accounts for other causes of reduced longevity as well. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: If you already drink alcohol, drinking less may help you live longer. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. After achieving dramatic gains against hunger and famine, the world runs the risk of backsliding, owing to poorly considered choices. But if we accept the claim that climate change is to blame for a recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition, we also risk embracing the costliest and least effective solutions. The argument assumes that: Recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition is attributable to climate change. Climate policies divert resources from measures that directly reduce hunger. Any realistic effort to combat climate change will be incredibly expensive and have virtually no impact on climate. Very well-intentioned policies to combat global warming could very well exacerbate hunger and malnutrition. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The argument can be simplified this way: poor policies (the passage says ‘poorly considered choices’) have increased the amount of hunger and malnutrition in the world. The increase is sometimes attributed to climate change. The conclusion is that if we accept that climate change is the reason for the increase, we will be accepting the costliest and least effective solutions to the problem of hunger and malnutrition. One of the assumptions is that the efforts to combat climate change are going to be expensive, and at the same time, least effective in dealing with either climate change or, consequently, hunger and malnutrition. This idea is expressed in option 3. Hence Option 3 is the answer. Option 1 is incorrect. In fact, the argument assumes the opposite of what is stated in option 1, that the uptick in hunger and malnutrition is NOT attributable to climate change. The argument states, “If we accept the claim that climate change is to blame...” implies that climate change as the cause is tentative. Hence eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is true, that the argument assumes that there are other measures to directly reduce hunger and malnutrition. Those measures are also assumed to be cheaper and more effective. However, whether or not resources are diverted from these measures is not assumed in the argument. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The argument states that there is an increase in global hunger and malnutrition. The argument assumes that there is a tendency to link the increase to “poor choices.” One of the poor choices implicitly arises from the belief that the increase is attributable to climate change. However, the policies meant to address climate change will increase or exacerbate global hunger and malnutrition is not implied in the argument. So eliminate option 4. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer:

Any realistic effort to combat climate change will be incredibly expensive and have virtually no impact on climate. Time taken by you: 277 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. In order to avoid chances of drug addicts getting affected by HIV, National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) would start with oral substitution therapy (OST). Besides, addicts would be motivated to shed use of syringes. Health employees are already being trained in this connection. Under this programme, oral medicines would be given to all drug users to help them kick the habit. This would also help in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from one intravenous drug user to another. Which of the following, if true, would make OST successful in reducing the risk of HIV among drug addicts? Drug addicts are globally marginalized and have high rates of HIV infection. Over 75% of HIV infected drug addicts are used to the sharing of needles. OST is recommended by the World Health Organization for people who inject drugs after diagnosis with HIV infection. Providing Oral Substitution Therapy (OST) alongside other therapies to people who inject drugs results in a significantly greater reduction in deaths. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a “strengthen the argument” question. Simplified, the argument is about Oral Substitution Therapy (or OST), which means administering drugs/medicines orally, to reduce the risk of AIDS among drug addicts. The passage also says that HIV transmission among drug addicts occurs from one intravenous drug user to another. Intravenous means entering the body by way of veins or injection. The assumption in the argument is that HIV spreads through needles – either shared or otherwise. The option that strengthens the argument will establish this relationship between the needles and HIV or support that OST is effective in countering the spread of AIDS. Option 2 states that 75 per cent of HIV infected drug addicts are used to sharing the needles. This establishes a clear cause effect relationship between HIV and the needles. Thus doing away with the needle will clearly eliminate the cause of HIV infection. Hence option 2 sufficiently answers the question and is the correct answer to this question. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 does not address the relationship between OST or needles and HIV. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The recommendation of WHO does not explain the reason for the withdrawal of the needles, and for the introduction of OST. These are assumptions in the recommendation. We can eliminate option 3 as inadequate response. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 is beside the point. The argument is not related to deaths. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Over 75% of HIV infected drug addicts are used to the sharing of needles. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. A law to completely ban plastic bags has come into force in Maharashtra. The aim is to reduce the choking of drains due to plastic waste, during rainy season and thereby prevent flooding. The government is determined to implement the ban by imposing penalties on users and manufacturers of plastic bags. This will ensure that the ban will achieve its objective. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s conclusion? A blanket ban on plastic bags of all sizes and thickness will make it easier to implement. Maharashtra had banned bags below 50 microns after the Mumbai floods of 2005, but that did not lead to prevention of flooding. The ban does not cover multi-laminated packaging, which is plastic lined with foil, which is most widely in use and the greatest in terms of volume of waste. The government has failed to set-up proper systems to ensure the collection, segregation and disposal of the existing stockpile of plastic bags. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The author’s conclusion is that imposing penalties will ensure that ban will achieve its objective, which is to reduce the choking of drains and thereby prevent flooding. Option 1 is incorrect. Ease of implementation will help the government to enforce the ban and achieve its objective. Thus this option strengthens the author’s argument that the government will be able to implement the ban and will achieve its objective. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Whether an earlier ban on bags below 50 microns prevented flooding or not is irrelevant to the author’s conclusion. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. If multi-laminated packaging is most widely used and has the greatest volume of plastic waste generated but is not banned, then the government will fail to achieve its objective of reducing choking of drains and thereby prevent flooding. The plastic waste generated by multi-laminated packaging will still choke the drains and cause flooding. Thus, option 3 weakens the author’s conclusion. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Neither the question stem nor the passage specifies the amount or volume of existing stockpile of plastic bags. Even if the existing stockpile of plastic bags is not properly disposed, it is possible that it is not enough to choke the drainage system. Thus, this option does not provide enough information to weaken the author’s conclusion. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The ban does not cover multi-laminated packaging, which is plastic lined with foil, which is most widely in use and the greatest in terms of volume of waste. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position. Enter your answer in the space provided using the keypad.

An idea comes to some minds as an intuition, to many in the form of faith or imitation, or a convenient corroboration of a bias. An idea always arrives as a realization, spreads as a belief. The arrival of an idea is a religious moment. But its legitimacy is proved in public and private through the fabrication of rational substantiation. An argument then is reverse engineering of a religious moment. Is debate then as intellectually robust and pure as we are trained to assume? In the hierarchy of intellectual activities, this method of transmission of an idea is unfortunately more respected than the very force that creates ideas—intuition. 1. The religious moment in which ideas arise in some minds spread later as beliefs and unfortunately become more respected. 2. Ideas arise to some minds as a religious realization of their faith or biases. Debates try to reverse- engineer the faith and are unfortunately more respected. 3. Realization happens as a result of the corroboration of a faith or bias. Debates are the unfortunate reverse engineering of realizations arising out of intuition. 4. An idea that comes to some minds as intuition is rationalized to reverse engineer the intuition; this is unfortunate as it ignores the intuition that creates ideas.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It is ambiguous. “The religious moment in which ideas arise in some minds spread later as beliefs and unfortunately become more respected,” means that the idea itself is ‘unfortunately more respected.’ This is contrary to the passage which says that the debate (not the idea itself) unfortunately, becomes more respected. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The option says the debate tries to reverse engineer the faith. This is a misrepresentation. The debate does not try to reverse engineer the faith but the religious moment of realization or the rise of idea through intuition. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. That realisation happens as a result of the corroboration of a faith or bias, is incorrect. Realisation happens in a religious moment as an intuition. The realisation, in many minds, reinforces the faith or bias that they hold. So they do not happen as a result of the faith or bias. The passage explains the relation between the faith and realisation – it does not establish a cause effect relationship. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The main points in the passage are represented in option 4 without ambiguity or distortion. Hence, 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position. Enter your answer in the space provided using the keypad. Although the category of popular music presupposes differences from serious music, there is limited consensus about the nature of these differences beyond the near-tautology that most people prefer popular music to art music. This obvious disparity in popular reception generates philosophical (and not merely sociological) issues when it is combined with the plausible assumption that popular music is aesthetically different from folk music, art music, and other music types. There is general agreement about the concept’s extension or scope of reference – agreement that the Beatles made popular music but Igor Stravinsky did not. However, there is no comparable agreement about what “popular music” means or which features of the music are distinctively popular. 1. The assumption that popular music is aesthetically different from art music generates philosophical and sociological issues about which there is no consensus except about the extent of reference. 2. There appears to be no difference between popular music and serious music aesthetically except for a broad consensus that Beatles made popular music but Igor Stravinsky did not. 3. Although popular music presupposes differences from serious music, there is limited consensus about their aesthetic differences beyond the near-tautology that most people prefer popular music to serious music. 4. Popular music presupposes differences from serious music; however, the assumption that they are aesthetically different raises philosophical and sociological issues about their distinctive features.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It incorrectly states that theassumption of difference raises philosophical and sociological issues, whereas the paragraph says that the popular reception generates social and philosophical issues – which only means that the popularity may be studied from the point of view of sociology and philosophy. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. That there appears to be no difference between popular music and serious music is not stated in the passage. The passage leaves it open. The passage merely states that there is no consensus, and not that there is no difference. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. It captures the important points without any distortion. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is a misrepresentation similar to option 1. The assumption does not raise sociological or philosophical issues but only the popular reception does. Also, these issues are unrelated to their distinctive features if any. Eliminate option 4. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. But it also had an older association with philosophy, going back to Plato, for whom light is knowledge of the true, which we acquire as we leave the caves whose walls of prejudice and ignorance have obscured our vision. 2. Or rather, the English term ‘enlightenment’ is itself a translation, coined in the late 19th century, of two distinct terms, both in use in the 18th century: the French lumières and the German Aufklärung. 3. ‘Enlightenment’ has had many translations. 4. Light then carried a strong religious connotation: Christ was the light of the world, a light that we let into our souls. 5. The two have in common the idea of ‘light’; the French noun, however, is in the plural, while the German one indicates less a light shining than a process of enlightenment.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The only standalone sentence is 3, so we can take it to be the first sentence. The idea of translations of the word ‘enlightenment’ connects sentence 3 to sentence 2. The ‘two’ mentioned in sentence 5 can only refer to the two translations of the word ‘enlightenment’ mentioned in sentence 2, so we get a 2-5 link. The remaining two sentences – 4 and 1 – together form a conclusion to the paragraph, by mentioning past connotations of the idea of light (as mentioned in 5), with 4 describing a Christian view and 1 describing an older, Platonic view. Hence, we get the sequence 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

1. The atmosphere is almost entirely made of carbon dioxide, and the atmospheric pressure is only 1 percent that of the Earth, so an astronaut would suffocate within a few minutes if exposed to the thin Martian air and his blood would begin to boil. 2. For one, there are the fierce dust storms, which engulf the planet with a fine red dust that resembles talcum powder and almost tipped over the spacecraft in the movie. 3. The movie was realistic enough to give the public a taste of the difficulties Martian colonists would encounter. 4. In the 2015 movie The Martian, the astronaut played by Matt Damon faces the ultimate challenge: to survive alone on a frozen, desolate, airless planet. 5. To produce enough oxygen to breathe, Matt Damon has to create a chemical reaction in his pressurized space station.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 4 is the first sentence, as it introduces the movie, The Martian, and the topic of survival on Mars. Sentence 3, which expands on this point, follows from 4. Sentence 2 provides one example of the difficulties Martian colonists would encounter, so it links to 3. Sentence 1 provides another example; and sentence 5 explains how this particular difficulty was overcome in the movie. Hence, we get the sequence 43215. Correct Answer: 43215 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

1. Our industrial and commercial age erects universities and museums, huge concert halls and stadiums, railroads, highways, and the World Wide Web. 2. Aztec rulers of ancient Mexico laid out their fifteenth-century capital, Tenochtitlan, ‘the Place of the Prickly Pear Cactus’, in the centre of their vast empire as a depiction in stone and stucco of their cosmos. 3. They are the civilization’s most tangible statement of what is important in its time, and what it would be known for in history.

4. The Pyramids of Giza in Egypt were built at enormous expense as symbolic ladders to heaven for the divine pharaohs who were buried in them 4,500 years ago. 5. Every civilization expresses itself through its great works.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 5 states the theme of this paragraph, so it has to be the introductory sentence. Sentence 3 continues the point stated in 5, so it is the second sentence. The remaining three sentences – which provide examples of ‘great works’ in three different civilizations – do not have any direct links to each other, but they make most sense when arranged in a chronological order: 4-2-1. Hence, we get the sequence 53421. Correct Answer: 53421 Time taken by you: 1965 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer. 1. For several decades Salim Ali’s was the only Indian name that figured in the world of ornithologists or in general knowledge books for schoolchildren. 2. Interestingly, the number of bird species sighted is only increasing, helped no doubt by the vast range of habitats available in the subcontinent. 3. Dividing his time between Delhi, Dehradun and theSunderbans, he has never shied away from doing the hard yards when it comes to birdwatching. 4. BikramGrewal is one such avid birdwatcher who has quietly but persuasively kept his lens focused on the birds of the subcontinent. 5. Today, inspired by Salim Ali, thousands of people have taken to bird study, birdwatching and bird photography.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: A comparison of five sentences quickly tells us that only sentence 1 can start theparagraph also that sentence 5 immediately follows sentence 1. Put together the talk about the birdwatchers in India – Salim Ali the only popular birdwatcher in India for several decades and the thousands of people who are inspired by him and are now interested in birdwatching. Sentences 1-5-4 are thus a logical sequence. Out of the two remaining sentences, sentence 3 and sentence 2, we can easily see that sentence 3 talks about the passion and activity of Bikram Grewal and is related to the narration. Sentence 2 is out of place as it is about the increase in the number of bird species. Hence the correct answer is 2. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer. 1. The Government of India became a party to the protocol schedule in June 1992, entrusting the responsibility of implementation to the ministry of environment, forest and climate change. 2. Further scaling up the fight against emissions, Montreal Protocol signatories decided to move on from focusing on ozone depletion to tackling global warming in 2016. 3. It played a crucial role in phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), carbon tetrachloride (CTC) and halons. 4. This means an urgent need to find efficient and environment-friendly alternatives to these refrigerants. 5. Implementation of the Montreal Protocol has had a significant impact on protecting the ozone layer for three decades.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

“Party to the protocol…” in sentence 1 refers to the “Montreal Protocol’ in sentence 5. So 5-1 is a mandatory pair. The theme is that Montreal Protocol was implemented three decades ago and has had a significant impact on protecting the ozone layer and the GOI became a signatory in 1992. The pronoun “it’ in sentence 3 can have either of these antecedents – 1. The ministry of environment … 2.The Montreal Protocol. Since 5-1 is we can see that ‘it’ refers to the ministry. It gives us the sequence 5-1-3. So these three sentences can be summarized this way: Montreal Protocol was signed/implemented in 1992 and India entrusted the responsibility of protecting the ozone layer to the ministry of environment. Comparing sentences 2 and 4, now it becomes very easy to understand that “this” in sentence 4 does not refer to anything specific in any of the sentences. Hence, 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer. 1. Every cell that is “you” carries a molecular ID card made of a protein marker. 2. Our body is a nation of trillions of cells working together under a system. 3. To ensure equitable distribution of common facilities only to the “self” and not to hostile or parasitic aliens, human body is armed with a highly specialized UID system. 4. The only agenda they serve is towards their self-gain and growth. 5. This system ensures that each body cell receives common facilities like oxygen, nutrients, protection from attack etc. in exchange for serving in the specific role it is assigned.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: After reading through the five sentences we can start solving the question by focusing on sentence 2 or sentence 5. ‘This system in ensures…’ in sentence 5 refers to the system mentioned in sentence 2 – so we can see that 2-5 is a mandatory pair – that human body is a system of trillions of cells and that this system ensures the well-being of each cell and helps it function well. So the theme is how a system of cells help the smooth functioning of the human body as a whole. Sentence 3 and 1 are related to the same theme. Sentence 3 elaborates on the functioning of the cell and how each cell has a specialized UID and sentence 1 tells us that this unique ID is a protein marker. From this point of view we can be sure that sentence 4 is out of context. Neither the pronoun “they’ nor “the agenda” in sentence 4 is related to the theme. Hence, 4. Correct Answer:

4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined In the following question the word given at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the sentence in which the use of the given word is incorrect and key in your answer in the space provided. Slew 1] He has written a slew of books. 2] I was assaulted by the thump andslew of the bus. 3] The knight slew the dragon. 4] He watched the snake slew its skin.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The word slew has several meanings. Most commonly it is used as a noun to mean a large number. So sentence 1 is correct – a slew of books means a large number of books. In its less common use as a noun the word slew means: a violent or uncontrollable sliding movement. That makes sentence 2 correct. The sentence means I was assaulted by the thump and the violent and uncontrollable movement of the bus. Slew is also the past tense of the verb slay. Slay means to kill violently or strike down. So sentence 3 uses the past tense of the verb slay. The knight killed or slew the dragon. Interestingly, slayed can also be used as the past tense of the verb slay. Slay also has a completely different and idiomatic meaning – that is ‘to delight or amuse immensely. That’s why we have sentences like, He slayed the audience. If used in this sense, we cannot use the word slew. He slew his audience will be incorrect, (unless you mean he violently killed his audience). Option 4 is incorrect. A snake sloughs (/slufs/) its skin. Sentence 4 is meaningless. Hence, 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined In the following question the word given at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the sentence in which the use of the given word is incorrect and key in your answer in the space provided. Pin 1] He handed me a pin with a peace sign on it. 2] Bother them all! I don’t care a pin about them. 3] It is hard to pin exactly when things changed. 4] She doesn’t generally pin up her beautiful long hair.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The word Pin, most commonly used as a noun, means something used for fastening things together or as a support by which one thing may be suspended from another. The first sentence, he handed me a pin with the peace sign on it, is thus correct. Pin also means ‘little’ or ‘trifle’ in certain contexts. So the second sentence means I don’t care about them at all. In fact, the second sentence is from Bram Stoker, the famous author of Dracula. So the second sentence is correct. The fourth sentence is correct as pin is used correctly, in its more common use as a verb, meaning to fasten, join or secure with apin. Sentence 3, however, is incorrect. The intended meaning of the sentence appears to be that , it is hard to pin down when things changed – pin down is a phrasal verb which means to define or determine clearly or precisely. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. TABLE 1 gives information about the average of the number of questions in each of the 10 sections of an entrance test XYZ. For example, in TABLE 1, in the cell corresponding to Section II and Section I, 28 is the average of the number of questions in Section I and Section II.

TABLE 2 gives information about the average number of questions solved correctly in each of the 10 sections of the entrance test XYZ by a student named Akshay. For example, in TABLE 2 in the cell corresponding to Section II and Section I, 14 is the average of the number of questions solved correctly in Section II and Section I by Akshay. Each question in the entrance test XYZ is either solved correctly, solved incorrectly or left unattempted. Four marks are awarded for each correct answer, one mark is deducted for each unattempted question and two marks are deducted for each incorrect answer.

1) For which section was the difference between the total number of questions and the number of questions solved correctly in that section the lowest? III VI VIII V Video Explanation: Explanation:

In section V, the difference between the number of questions and the number of questions solved correctly is the least i.e., 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: V Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 308 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) Which of the following cannot be the ratio of the number of questions solved incorrectly to the number of questions left unattempted in section VI? 3: 11 3: 4 3: 5 1: 1 Video Explanation: Explanation:

The total number of questions in section VI that were answered incorrectly orunattempted were 14. The number of questions solved incorrectly and the number of questions leftunattempted in section VI can be 3 and 11, 6 and 8 or 7 and 7 (individually in no particular order). So options 1, 2 and 4 are possible. But they cannot be in the ratio3 : 5. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 3 : 5 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 % 3) For how many sections (other than section II) is the total number of questions in that section not less than the total number of questions in section II? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The number of questions in sections VI, VII, VIII, IX and X is greater than or equal to the number of questions in section II. So there are 5 such sections. Therefore, the required answer is 5.

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 % 4) For every section, we defined the following quantities: A : The number of questions solved correctly by Akshay in that section. B : The sum of the number of questions left unattempted and the number of questions solved incorrectly by Akshay in that section. For how many sections (other than section X) the value of the absolute difference between A and B not greater than that the corresponding value for section X? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In an extempore competition, six girls – Abha, Bina, Chitra, Deepa, Tina and Urvashi were asked to speak on the latest developments in India with respect to the following topics Literature, Women Empowerment, Sports, Politics and Inflation. The girls in the first six positions in each of the five topics – from 1 st through 6th – are awarded 10, 8, 6, 4, 2 and 1 points respectively. The following table provides partial information about the positions of the four girls (Abha, Bina, Chitra and Deepa) in each of the five topics. For each row, the last column gives the sum of the number of points scored by these four girls together in that topic.

The following points are known: In each topic, exactly two of these four girls stood in the first three positions. No two girls finished in the same position on any topic. No girl was awarded the same number of points in two or more of the five topics. 1) For how many of the above-mentioned four girls can their positions in all the five topics be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd , 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd , 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd , 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility isthat the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1 st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. All the five positions can be uniquely determined only for Chitra. Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 979 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 163 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 24 % 2)

Which girl got the highest total number of points in all the five topics put together? Abha Bina Chitra Deepa Video Explanation: Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. Bina got the top 5 positions in the five topics, so she got the highest total number of points. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Bina

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) If the total number of points scored by Deepa is more than that scored by Abha, then what position did Abha achieve in the topic Women Empowerment? 1st 3rd 4th 5th Video Explanation:

Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. Abha and Deepa got 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 (in any order). As Deepagot more points than Abha, the possible case is as in the second table given above. Therefore, Abha got the first position in the topic Women Empowerment. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 1st

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 % 4) What was the least total score by a girl out of the four in the given five subjects? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. Chitra got the least number of points. Total points = 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 21 Therefore, the required answer is 21.

Correct Answer: 21 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table provides partial information about 1500 professional footballers from three different countries – Germany, Spain and England. The table lists out for footballers from each of the given countries, the number of footballers who have played for the football clubs MUFC, Real Madrid and Bayern Munich as a percentage of the total number of footballers from that country.

For example, according to the table, 30% of the footballers from Spain have played for MUFC, whereas 60% of the

footballers from Germany have played for Bayern Munich. The following points are also known: 1. Each footballer played for one or two clubs. 2. 20% of all the footballers are from Germany. 3. The total number of footballers who have played for both Real Madrid and Bayern Munich is 420, of which 60 are from Spain. 1) What percentage of total footballers have played for Bayern Munich? 56% 42% 28% 70% Video Explanation: Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20% i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180 Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180 R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180 V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840 Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360 T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180 Now all the questions can be answered.

Correct Answer: 56%

Time taken by you: 94 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 174 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) How many footballers from Spain have played for Bayern Munich? 240 180

120 300 Video Explanation: Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20%i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

Correct Answer: 180

Time taken by you: 86 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) Find the number of footballers from England who have played for MUFC. 420 240 300 360 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20% i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

Correct Answer: 360

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 39 % 4) How many footballers from Germany have not played for Bayern Munich? 150 90 105 120 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20%i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

Correct Answer: 120

Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The diagram given below represents the distribution of the number of persons who speak one or more of the four languages – Kannada, Tamil, Telugu and Malayalam. In the figure given below assume that the number of persons belonging to any particular combination (i.e., combination of languages spoken by the persons) which is not shown is 0.

1) How many persons speaking at least one language out of Telugu and Malayalam also speak either Kannada or Tamil (but not both)? 25 29 32 44 Video Explanation: Explanation: The number that is within the circle or the hexagon, should be within the rhombus or triangle but not both. Required Answer = 2 + 23 + 19 = 44 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 44

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 267 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 % 2) How many persons who speak Tamil speak exactly one other language? 2 4 7 25 Video Explanation: Explanation: The number should be within the triangle and one more other shape. Required Number = 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 93 % 3) If every person, who speaks more than two of the given languages got an award, then how many persons got the award? 47 48 49 68 Video Explanation: Explanation: The number should be in three or more of the figures. Required Answer = 23 + 19 + 7 + 19 = 68. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 68

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 91 % 4) How many persons speak at least two of the given four languages? 85 90 100 102 Video Explanation: Explanation: Those who speak exactly 4 or 3 or 2 = Total of all numbers given – Total of all numbers appearing in only one figure = 185 – 100 = 85 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 85

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the annual school fair, four students – Arjun, Bipin, Chetan and Devang of Class XII put up a food stall with the help of a local vendor. The food stall opened at 2 PM and was closed at 9 PM. The students monitored the activities at the food stall in one-hour shifts and at least one student monitored the activities in each of the seven shifts. None of the students operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left the shift in between. Further it is known that: I.

Arjun operated in exactly four shifts.

II. At 4:30 PM, two students were monitoring the activities at the food stall and one of them was Bipin. III. Chetan monitored the activities at the food stall in exactly three shifts and one ofthose shifts was 5 PM to 6 PM. IV. Devang monitored the activities at the food stall in exactly two shifts and he was theonly student in those shifts. V. Each of the four students monitored the activities at the food stall in at least twoshifts. VI. Bipin and Chetan recently had an argument and hence did not monitor the activities at the food stall together in any of the shifts. 1) Who monitored the activities at the food stall in the shift just after the shift in which Arjun and Chetan operated together? Bipin Devang Bipin and Devang There was no slot in which Arjun and Chetan operated together Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence). From statement (I), it can be concluded that Arjun monitored the activities in the 1st, 3rd , 5th and 7th shifts. From statement (II), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities along with Arjun in the 3rd shift. From statement (III), it can be concluded that Chetan monitored the activities in the 4th shift. From statement (IV), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which Devang monitored the activities were 2nd and 6th. Hence, Chetan monitored the activities in the 1st and 7th shifts. From statement (V) and (VI), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities in the 5th shift along with Arjun. The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below:

Devang monitored the activities at the food stall in the shift just after the shift in which Arjun and Chetan operated together.

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Devang

Time taken by you: 360 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 371 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 2) In how many shifts only one student monitored the activities at the food stall?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Only one student monitored the activities at the foodstallin exactly three shifts.

Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 72 % 3) Bipin came to the fair just before his shift was about to start and left immediately after his last shift was over. How many hours did he spend at the fair? 3 4 5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Bipin monitored the activities from 4 PM to 5 PM and again from 6 PM to 7 PM. AsBipin came to the fair just before his shift was about to start and immediately left after his last shift got over, he spent 3 hours at the fair. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 24 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 76 % 4) How many student(s) were monitoring the activities at the food stall at 8:40 PM? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Arjun and Chetan monitored activities at the food stall from 8 PM to 9 PM.

Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each of the six scholars – K, L, M, N, O and P have exactly two degrees out of B.Tech., M.Sc., B.Com., and B.A. No two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Further it is known that: I. K and M do not have M.Sc. degree. II. L and N do not have B.Com. degree. III. O and P do not have B.Tech. degree. IV. Only one out of L and O has B.A. degree. V. Only one out of M and N has B.A. degree.

1) Which of the following pairs of persons cannot have B.A. degree at the same time? L& M M&P K& O N&P Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

Either L, M and P have B.A. degree or K, N and O have B.A. degree. Therefore, N & P cannot have B.A. degree at the same time.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: N&P

Time taken by you: 783 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 175 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 2) Which of the following degrees does K definitely not have? B.Tech. & B.Com.

B.Tech. & B.A. B.Com. & B.A. None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the 4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

K can have the degrees given in the first three options.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) If M has a B.A. degree, then for which of the following scholars, the two degrees they have cannot be uniquely determined? L N O

K Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

If M has a B.A. degree, then we need to consider first two cases. Both degrees of K, N and O can be uniquely determined.

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: L

Time taken by you: 204 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 % 4) If N does not have a B.Tech. degree, then which of the following is definitely correct? I. O has B.Com. & B.A. degrees. II. P has M.Sc. & B.Com. degrees. Only I Only II Both I and II

Neither I nor II Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

If N is does not have a B.Tech degree, then we need to consider case III. Both the statements are correct.

Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both I and II

Time taken by you: 179 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs

Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr. Trump has a number of coins with him. Each coin has two sides, named ‘H’ and ‘T’. He plays a game, which begins with a number of coins all facing either ‘H’ or ‘T’. If the coins face ‘H’ initially, the target of the game is to make all the coins face ‘T’ at the end. Similarly, if the coins face ‘T’ initially, the target of the game is to make all the coins face ‘H’ at the end. The game consists of a number of moves. In each move, Mr. Trump has to flip exactly three coins (from ‘H’ to ‘T’ or from ‘T’ to ‘H’, as the case might be). 1) Mr. trump begins the game with four coins, all facing ‘T’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the target of the game? 2 3 4 More than 4 Video Explanation:

The second move can be (1 T to H & 2 H to T) or (3 H to T). But the second move would restore the original configuration of 4T. So, this move is ruled out. Thus, the configuration after the second move: (2T & 2H)

The third move can be (2 T to H & 1 H to T) or (2 H to T & 1 T to H). (2 T to H & 1 H to T) would result in (1T & 3H), which is same as the configuration at the beginning of the second move and hence rules out. Thus, the configuration after the third move: (3T & 1H)

Now in order to achieve target, the fourth move has to be (3 T to H). Thus, the configuration after the fourth move: (4H) Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) Mr. trump begins the game with five coins, all facing ‘H’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the target of the game? (Write 0 if the target cannot be achieved.) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on. If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2. Initial configuration: 5H (Sum = -5) Once, the target is achieved, Sum = +5 In the first move, Mr. Trump flips three coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (2H & 3T) The second move can be (3 T to H) or (1 T to H & 2 H to T) or (2 T to H & 1 H to T) The move (3 T to H) would restore the original configuration of 5H. So, this move is ruled out. The move (1 T to H & 2 H to T) would result into configuration (1H & 4T) while the move (2 T to H & 1 H to T) would result into configuration (3H & 2T). It can be seen that configuration (3H & 2T) would result into 5T by flipping 3 H to T.

Thus, the second move has to be (2 T to H & 1 H to T) and the third move has to be 3 H to T.

Thus, in 3 moves the target can be achieved.

Therefore, the required answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 % 3) Additional information: Mr. Trump now flips 5 coins in each move, instead of 3. All other rules of the game remain unchanged.

Mr. trump begins the game with six coins, all facing ‘H’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the target of the game? 2 4 5 6 Video Explanation:

In the first move, Mr. Trump flips five coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (1H & 5T) In the first move, Mr. Trump does not flip 1H.

The second move can be (1 H to T & 4 T to H) or (5 T to H). But the second move would restore the original configuration of 6H. So, this move is ruled out. Thus, the configuration after the second move: (2T & 4H) The third move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (4 H to T & 1 T to H). (4 H to T & 1 T to H) would result in (1H & 5T), which is the configuration at the beginning of the second move. So this move is ruled out. So, (2 T to H & 3 H to T) will be the third move and the configuration:(3T & 3H) The fourth move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (2 H to T & 3 T to H). (2 H to T & 3 T to H) would result in (2T & 4H), which is the configuration at the beginning of the third move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, fourth move: (2 T to H & 3 H to T) and configuration:(4T & 2H) The fifth move can be (3 T to H & 2 H to T) or (1 H to T & 4 T to H). The move (3 T to H & 2 H to T) would result in (3T & 3H) which is the configuration at the beginning of the fourth move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, the fifth move: (1 H to T & 4 T to H) and configuration:(1T & 5H) Now, the target can be achieved in the sixth move by flipping 5 H to T.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 % 4) Additional information: Mr. Trump now flips 5 coins in each move, instead of 3. All other rules of the game remain unchanged.

Mr. trump begins the game with six coins, all facing ‘H’ and achieves the target in minimum possible moves. What is the absolute value of the difference between the number of coins that face ‘H’ and the number of coins that face ‘T’ just before he makes the last move? (Write 7 if it is not possible to achieve the target.)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on. If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2. Initial configuration: 6H (Sum = -6) Once, the target is achieved, Sum = +6

In the first move, Mr. Trump flips five coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (1H & 5T) In the first move, Mr. Trump does not flip 1H.

The third move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (4 H to T & 1 T to H). (4 H to T & 1 T to H) would result in (1H & 5T), which is the configuration at the beginning of the second move. So this move is ruled out. So, (2 T to H & 3 H to T) will be the third move and the configuration:(3T & 3H)

The fourth can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (2 H to T & 3 T to H). (2 H to T & 3 T to H) would result in (2T & 4H), which is the configuration at the beginning of the third move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, fourth move: (2 T to H & 3 H to T) and configuration:(4T & 2H)

The fifth move can be (3 T to H & 2 H to T) or (1 H to T & 4 T to H). The move (3 T to H & 2 H to T) would result in (3T & 3H) which is the configuration at the beginning of the fourth move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, the fifth move: (1 H to T & 4 T to H) and configuration:(1T & 5H)

Now, the target can be achieved in the sixth move by flipping 5 H to T.

Thus, just before the last move, the configuration: 1T & 5H The absolute value of the difference between the number of coins that face ‘H’ and the number of coins that face ‘T’ just before he makes the last move = 5 – 1 = 4 Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 16 students (2 from each school) – K to Z participated in the inter-school chess competition.

In the above arrangement of the 16 students, each row and column has at least two students from the same school. It is known that K and the other student from his school are in the same row. This holds true for students P, U and Z as well. It is known that N and the other student from his school are in the same column. This holds true for students Q, T and W as well. 1) If K and L are from the same school, then which of the following pairs of students are definitely from the same school? N and R W and O S and U Y and Z Video Explanation: Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since K and L are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

Y and Z are definitely from the same school.

Hence, [4]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools. Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.

Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools. The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}.

If K and L are from the same school, Y has to be from same school as Z. W can be from O’s of S’s school. N can be from R’s or V’s school.

Correct Answer: Y and Z

Time taken by you: 297 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 248 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 % 2) If O and P are from the same school, then for how many of the remaining 14 students, the other student from the same school can be uniquely determined? 6 8 4 12 Video Explanation: Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since O and P are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

(W and S), (N and R) and (U and V) are pairs of students from the same school. Therefore, for 6 students, the other student from the same school can be uniquely determined.Hence, [1]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools. Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.

Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools.

The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}. If O and P are from the same school, then W& S, U & V, N & R are pairs from three schools. Nothing can be decided uniquely about the remaining 8 students.

Therefore, of the remaining 14 students, for remaining 6 students, the other student from the sameschool can be uniquely determined.

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 119 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 3) If Q and Y are from the same school, then the student from the same school as O is: P W R Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since Q and Y are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

(X and Z), (T and L) and (K and M) are definitely from same school. Remaining pairs of students from the same school cannot be determined. Hence, [4]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools. Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school. Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools. The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}. Either P or W is from the same school as O.

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 182 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) If N and V are from the same school, then the student from the same school as U is: V S T Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since N and V are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

P and R are from the same school. U and S are from the same school. O and W are from the same school. Hence, [2]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools.

Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.

Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools. The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}. If N and V are from the same school, then S is from the same school as U.

Correct Answer: S

Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined If x < 40, y > 60 and z < 20, then which of the following is definitely false? (x – y + z) < −10 (y − 4z) > 5 (z − 2y) > −100 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (z - 2y) > -100

(z - 2y) > -100 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined Mohan sold a certain number of chocolates and suffered a loss of Rs. 231. If he had sold 100 fewer chocolates, his loss would have reduced to Rs. 147. How many chocolates should he have sold so that his loss would be only Rs. 42? 25 50 75 100

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 50

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined A class of students is divided into two groups – A and B. The number of all possible pairs of students in group A is thrice the number of all possible pairs of students in group B. When 4 students are transferred from group A to B, the number of all possible pairs of students in group A becomes equal to the earlier value of the number of all possible pairs of group B. How many possible pairs can be formed if both groups are combined into one single group? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 120 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

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Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined For how many positive integers m is m3 – 5m2 – 25 m + 125 ≤ 0? 0 1 2 More than 2 Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: m3 – 5m2– 25m + 125 = 0 m2(m – 5) – 25(m – 5) = 0 (m2 – 25)(m – 5) = 0 (m + 5)(m – 5)2 = 0

Given that m is positive, m + 5 > 0. Also, (m – 5)2 always greater than or equal to 0. Hence, only for m = 5, the inequality holds. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 %

undefined If | log(x – 1) (x + 1) | = 2, then how many real values of x satisfy the givenequation? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined A, B and C have a certain number of balls with them. If B gives 6 balls to C, then the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C will become 2 : 3 : 5. Instead, if C gives 4 balls to A, then the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C will become 6 : 9 : 10. If, from the original distribution, had B given 4 balls each to A and C, then what would have been the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C? 6:7: 12 3:4: 6 6:7: 11 7:6: 12 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 : 7 : 12 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 186 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined The coordinates of two of the vertices of a triangle are (0, 0) and (0, 6). The coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle are (4, 3). Which of the following can be the coordinates of the third vertex of the triangle? (7, 0) (8, 0) (9, 0) (6, 0) Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (8, 0) Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined It is known that A and B are two real numbers such that A > B. The difference between 40% of A and 60% of B is the same as the difference between 30% of A and 44% of B. By what percentage can B be less than A? 30% 33.3% 37.5% 40%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 37.5% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 128 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined What is the minimum value of |x – 2| + |2.25 – x| + |3 – x|, where x is a real number? 1 1.25 2 2.25

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 2 = x = 2.25 : f(x) = x – 2 + 2.25 – x + 3 – x = 3.25 – x 2.25 = x = 3 : f(x) = x – 2 + x – 2.25 + 3 – x = x – 1.25 f(x) will attain its minimum value at x = 2.25. Minimum value of |x – 2| + |2.25 – x| + |3 – x| = 1 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Raju has got a birthday cap on his birthday. It is in the shape of a hollow right circular cone with radius of the base 9 cm and height 12 cm. What is the radius of the largest tennis ball (which is spherical in shape) that can be completely enclosed within the cap? 4 cm 3.5 cm 4.5 cm 4 cm Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4.5 cm Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Ranveer bought a new motorbike on loan for 2 years at 12% compound interest without paying any down payment. If the interest accrued in the second year was Rs. 6,048, what was the cost of the motorbike? It is known that the loan’s principal amount was equal to the cost of the motorbike? Rs. 40,000 Rs. 50,000 Rs. 48,000 Rs. 45,000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the principal amount be Rs. P. ? Interest at the end of the first year = P × 0.12 × 1 = Rs. 0.12P Principal for the second year = P + 0.12P = 1.12P ? Interest for the second year = 1.12P × 0.12 × 1 = 0.1344P = 6048 ? P = 45000 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Rs. 45,000 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

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45° 15°

60° 30°

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30° Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined How many distinct numbers can be formed using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 (without repetition) such that they lie between 2000 and 4000? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Number of numbers of the form 2 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24

Number of numbers of the form 2 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 Number of numbers of the form 3 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 Therefore, requiredanswer is 48. Correct Answer: 48 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 70 %

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Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Given that (l, m), (m, n) and (n, l) are the roots of the equation x2 – 3ax + 6 = 0, x2 – 3bx + 10 = 0 and x2 – 3cx + 15 = 0 respectively. If l, m and n are natural numbers, then what is the value of (a – b + c)? 2 3 4 6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 145 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

undefined Mishka selects a single-digit number in base 10 and expresses its square in bases 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. She adds these 7 representations as if they were decimal numbers. Which of the following cannot be the unit’s digit of the sum? 0 1 4 8

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: We can tabulate the possible answers as follows:

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined Virat and Anushka are standing on the first floor of Palladium mall in Mumbai. They want to go to the ground floor using an escalator. On the escalator, Virat moves with a constant speed of 10 steps/second while Anushka moves with a constant speed of X steps/second. When the escalator moves downward at a constant speed, Virat takes 150 steps while Anushka takes 126 steps to reach the ground floor. If the escalator has 210 steps, what is the value of X? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined For an arithmetic progression with terms a n, the average of a6, a7, a8, a9 and a10 is 26 and the average of a11, a12, a13, a14 and a15 is 41. What is the sum of the first fifteen terms of the same AP? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Alternatively, The terms a1, …., a5, a6, … a10, a11, …, a15 are in AP. ? Average of first fifteen terms of the AP = a8 Average of (a6, ….., a10) = a8 = 26 ? Sum of the first fifteen terms of the AP = 26 × 15 = 390 Correct Answer: 390 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 112 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined While calculating the average score of 20 students, Jennifer took the marks ofone student less by 20 than his actual score. The average computed by her had a percentage error of 1%. What was the correct average of the marks scored by the 20 students? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 100 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined Find the area (in cm2) of the largest regular hexagon that can be fit inside a rectangle with dimensions 10 cm × 15 cm.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined

311 312 313 314

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 312

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined In how many ways can you distribute 25 identical chocolates among Alex, Benjamin and Chris such that Alex receives at least one chocolate, Benjamin receives at least two chocolates and Chris receives at least three chocolates? 969 210 420 231

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 210 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined In a milk shop, three different types of milk – P, Q and R are sold. The concentrations of milk in P, Q and R are 72%, 81% and c% respectively. If 200 ml of P when mixed with X ml of R, produces milk having 90% concentration and 200 ml of Q when mixed with X ml of R produces a milk concentration of 93%, find X. 600 500 400 300

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 400 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 165 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined In a class, each student likes at least one of the four colours – Red, Blue, Green and Black. 90% like at least 2 colours, 70% like at least 3 colours and 30% like all four colours. What percentage of the students like either one colour or exactly three colours? 30% 40% 50% 60%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Percentage of students who like exactly 1 colour = 100 – 90 = 10% Percentage of students who like exactly 3 colours = 70 – 30 = 40% Therefore, required percentage = 10 + 40 = 50% Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 50% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined ABCDEFGH is a cuboid with edges AD and AE of equal length and AB = 2AD. Point M is the centre of face EFGH and point N is the centre of face BCGF. What is the ratio of the lengths of AM and AN?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Manan, Naman and Omar entered into a partnership. The ratio of their investments was a : b : c and the ratio of the periods of their investments was b : c : a. If it is known that the ratio of the profit shares of Manan and Naman is equal to the ratio of the profit shares of Naman and Omar, then which of the following is true? a2 = bc b2 = ac c2 = ab a= bc Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: a2 = bc Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined Consider the equations x = a + m and mx + 2 = 0. Ifm and a are real numbers, then what is the minimum possible value of |a|?

None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Bulbs B1, B2, B3, … B8 and B9 are connected in series in that order to a light a design system. Bulb B1 flickers at the instant the system is turned on and then the fourth bulb flickers after every 5 seconds (B5 after 5 seconds, B9 after 10 seconds, B4 after 15 seconds, and so on). If the system was turned on at 10:00:00 hrs, then which bulb flickered at 10:05:30 hrs? B4 B6 B3 B8 Section

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Correct Answer: B4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined Xavier and Yohana simultaneously start running towards point C on a straight line from the points A and B respectively with constant speeds ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Point B is between points A and C such that AB : BC = 2 : 5. Once they reach point C, they immediately turn back and run towards their starting point. On their return journey from point C, if they cross each other at point D such that AD : BD = 3 : 1, then what is the ratio a : b? 3: 1 9: 11 1: 3 11 : 9 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11 : 9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined A class has 25 students with roll numbers from 1 to 25. Five students are selected at random from the class. What is the probability that exactly two students have odd numbered roll numbers?

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Zach and Liz have a son John. Liz’s present age is four times the age of her son’s present age. Zach was as old as Liz is now when Liz was seven times as old as John was back then. After 25 years, Zach will be twice as old as John will be then. Find the sum of the present ages of all Zach, Liz and John. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation: Let the present ages of Liz and John be 4x and x respectively. Let Zach’s age be 4x years ‘m’ years ago. Therefore, his present age is (4x + m)years. Also, (4x – m) = 7(x – m) x = 2m The present ages of Zach, Liz and John are 9m, 8m and 2m years respectively. 9m + 25 = 2 × (2m + 25) m=5 The sum of the present ages of all the members of the family = 9m + 8m + 2m = 19m = 95 years Therefore, the required answer is 95.

Correct Answer: 95 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined OAB is a quadrant of a circle. Square OCDE is drawn inside it. Inside this square, quadrant DCPE is drawn. Inside this quadrant, square PRDQ is drawn. This process is continued infinite times. What is the ratio of the sum of the areas of all the quadrants to the sum of the areas of all the squares?

11 : 7 22 : 7 14 : 11

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Correct Answer: 11 : 7 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined A and B are given a job to complete together. When A works 3 hours a day for 6 days and B works 4 hours a day for 8 days, then the job is completed. If B matches A’s work output per hour, then he needs to work only for 4 days (instead of 8 days) for the entire job to be done by them together (A works for the same number of hours and days as before and B works for the same number of hours per day as before). If A matches B’s work output per hour and they both begin the job together and work exactly 8.5 hours a day, then how many days will it take for them to complete the job together? 4 days 5 days 6 days

7 days

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 days Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 192 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The contemporary theory of what is standardly referred to as economic rationality is descended from Adam Smith’s egoistic model of economic behaviour; it is based on a much more sophisticated and quantitatively precise but still-idealized model of the psychology of individual choice. The modern discipline of decision theory has permitted a great increase in the exactness of what we can say about this type of human motivation, by introducing quantitative measures of subjective degrees of belief and subjective degrees of preference. If, for example, on a cloudy day you have to decide whether or not to take an umbrella when you go out, you face four possibilities: (1) rain and umbrella; (2) no rain and umbrella; (3) rain and no umbrella; (4) no rain and no umbrella. Obviously, your decision will depend both on your estimate of the likelihood of rain and on how much you mind getting wet, or alternatively how much you mind carrying an umbrella when it isn’t raining, but decision theory makes this more precise. It says your choice is explained by the fact that you assign a probability p between zero and one to the prospect of rain, and (ignoring misty in-between states) a probability of one minus p to the prospect of no rain, and that you assign a desirability, positive or negative, to each of the possibilities (1) to (4). By multiplying the probability and the desirability for each of these outcomes, one can calculate what is called the “expected value” of each of them, and therefore the expected value of taking an umbrella and of not taking an umbrella. The rational choice is to do what has the higher expected value. Decision theory applies this kind of calculus to choices among alternatives of any complexity, with any possible assignment of subjective probabilities and desirabilities. With the help of game theory, it can be extended to multi-person interactions, as in a market economy. Decision theory assigns these supposed quantifiable psychological states to individuals only on the basis of an idealization. They are not discovered by asking people to report their subjective probabilities and desirabilities: in general, people do not have introspective access to these numbers. Rather, precise psychological states of this type are assigned by the theory itself, on the basis of something to which people do have access, namely their preferences or rankings (better, worse, indifferent) among alternatives. This by itself does not imply that the states are fictional: real but unobservable underlying causes can often be inferred from observable effects. The fiction comes from the way the inference proceeds in this case. Given a sufficiently extensive set of preferences (rankings of alternatives) by an individual, it is possible, employing relatively simple laws, to assign to that individual a set of subjective probabilities and desirabilities that would account for those preferences,if the individual were rational in the sense of the theory. But since rationality in the sense of the theory involves such superhuman capacities as immunity to logical error, instantaneous calculation of logical consequences, and assigning equal probability and desirability to all possibilities that are logically equivalent, it is clear that no actual humans are rational in this sense. So if we use the theory of economic rationality to think about the behaviour of real human beings, we are treating themas if they were superrational; we are employing a useful fiction, which allows us to bring human action under quantitative laws. The fiction is useful only for certain purposes. If it is not to lead us astray, we have to recognise the ways in which it deviates from reality, and to correct for those deviations when they make a difference that matters. This is, in fact, the concern of the recently developed field of behavioural economics, which tries to identify the consequences of systematic deviations of actual human behaviour from the standards of classical economic rationality. For example, people often fail to count logically equivalent possibilities as equally desirable: an outcome described in terms of the probability of death will be evaluated differently from the same outcome described in terms of the probability of survival. If we try to formulate laws of human psychology, we will inevitably have to ignore a great deal of the messy complexity of actual human life. This is sometimes legitimate, provided that we recognize the idealization and are prepared to restore the complexity when necessary—when, for example, assuming the rationality of every free market would send us off an economic cliff. 1) The main conclusion of the passage is that the theory of economic rationality: is a flawed theory that is based on an incorrect view of human nature relies on an unrealistic view of human behaviour that has now influenceddecision theory is incompatible with actual human behaviour and knowing its limitations can help economies avoid major pitfalls no longer valid since it ignores the fact that human behaviour oftenoperates outside the boundaries of rationality. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question: The passage begins by telling us that, what economists routinely refer to as ‘economic rationality’ has roots in Adam smith’s model of economic behavior. The passage then explains how modern decision theory achieves accuracy by ignoring subjective probabilities and desirabilities of individual choices. The author spends the better part of the passage debunking the central premise of economic rationality. He explains that human beings are not super-rational and do not always make decisions that are rationally the best for them. In the last two paragraphs he concedes that observing deviations from economic rationality, as is done in the field of behavioral economics, can yield useful results and help us avoid economic disasters. Option 3 best captures this. Option 1 correctly captures the argument of the passage that economic rationality is a flawed theory but it does not capture the idea expressed in the last paragraph. Option 2 incorrectly brings in decision theory. The main conclusion of the passage is not about decision theory but about ‘economic rationality.’ Option 4 is incorrect since the author does not a claim that economic rationality is no more valid, nor is it the conclusion of the passage. So the answer choice is option 3.

Correct Answer: is incompatible with actual human behaviour and knowing its limitations can help economies avoid major pitfalls

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 212 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 2) The author is most likely to agree with all of the following statements about psychological states as used in decision theory EXCEPT? Not all psychological states are necessarily quantifiable. Psychological states are fictional and hence unobservable. Precise psychological states are not defined by people but by decision theory. People cannot quantify the desirability of a psychological state but canonly indicate a preference or lack of it for the same. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Options 1, 3 and 4 are statements that the writer is likely to agree with. They can all be derived from paragraph 3, in which the writer states, “Decision theory assigns these supposed quantifiable psychological states to individuals only on the basis of an idealization. They are not discovered by asking people to report their subjective probabilities and desirabilities: in general, people do not have introspective access to these numbers.” Option 1 states that, “not all psychological states are necessarily quantifiable.” When the writer says 'supposed quantifiable psychological states’, it implies that "some psychological states are not quantifiable.” So, option 1 is not an exception and can be eliminated. The writer will agree with option 3 as it is explicitly stated that decision theory assigns values on the basis of idealization and not by any concrete definition. So, we can eliminate option 3. The first sentence of the paragraph which reads “Decision theory applies this kind of calculus to choices among alternatives of any complexity, with any possible assignment of subjective probabilities and desirabilities,” makes option 4 correct and not an exception. However, Option 2 states the exact opposite of what is stated in the first sentence of the fourth paragraph which reads, “this by itself does not imply that the states are fictional: real but unobservable underlying causes can often be inferred from observable effects. The fiction comes from the way the inference proceeds in this case.” In other words, psychological states real but unobservable, they have to be inferred from their effects. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Psychological states are fictional and hence unobservable.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 % 3) The passage suggests that human beings are prone to all of the following EXCEPT? taking time to estimate the logical implications of their actions or decisions making logical errors being rational in the sense of decision theory. giving unequal preferences to logically equivalent possibilities Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. All options except 3 are mentioned in this sentence in the fourth paragraph — “But since rationality in the sense of the theory involves such superhuman capacities as immunity to logical error, instantaneous calculation of logical consequences, and assigning equal probability and desirability to all possibilities that are logically equivalent, it is clear that no actual humans are rational in this sense.” Option 1 is implied as the writer calls the instantaneous calculation of logical consequences a superhuman capacity. So human beings are prone to take time to estimate logical implications of their actions. Eliminate option 1 Option 2 is explicit in the statement that human beings do not have immunity to logical errors. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Giving equal preferences to logically equivalent possibilities is attributed to super humans and not actual human beings. Hence human beings are susceptible to giving unequal preferences to equal possibilities. This eliminates option 4. Option 3 is correct. Being rational in the sense of decision theory is said to be impossible for actual human beings. Hence option 3 provides the exception that we are looking for. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: being rational in the sense of decision theory.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 4) “The fiction is useful only for certain purposes”. The author uses the phrase "this fiction" to refer to which of the following? the inability of human beings to make super-rational decisions the failure of people to ascribe equal desirability to logically equivalent possibilities the quantitative laws used to describe human behavior the idealization of human behavior to correspond to rational objective Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The quoted text, “the fiction is useful only for certain purposes”, is in the beginning of paragraph 5. The last sentence of the preceding paragraph says that the decision theory treats people as if they were super-rational. And that we have to recognize the ways in which decision theory deviates from reality. Earlier in the passage the writer states, “Decision theory assigns these supposed quantifiable psychological states to individuals only on the basis of an idealization” So the fiction is essentially an incorrect or unreal view of human behavior. Option 4 correctly captures this. Options 1 and 2 are facts. That people are unable to make super rational decisions, and that people fail to ascribe equal desirability to logically equivalent possibilities, are stated in the passage as facts, and not fiction even by commonsense standards. So we can eliminate options 1 and 2 Option 3 is a sweeping generalization. Though the writer does mention that in decision theory, quantifying human behavior is based incorrectly on idealization, to say that, generally, “the quantitative laws used to describe human behavior” is fiction is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence option 3 is incorrect and must be eliminated. So, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: the idealization of human behavior to correspond to rational objective

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 5) The primary purpose of the second paragraph is to show using an example how decision theory incorrectly quantifies subjectivedegrees of belief and subjective degrees of preference. illustrate how the subjectivity involved in human decision-making is quantified inthe discipline of decision science. highlight how the desired exactness can be achieved in understanding humandecision making by introducing quantitative measures demonstrate how people can always make rational decisions by introducingquantitative measures into their decisionmaking. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The first paragraph ends by stating the purpose of the second paragraph. “The modern discipline of decision theory has permitted a great increase in the exactness of what we can say about … human motivation, by introducing quantitative measures of subjective degrees of belief and subjective degrees of preference.” Then, the second paragraph begins, “If, for example, on a cloudy day you have to decide whether or not to take an umbrella when you go out…” So the second paragraph is an example the principle the writer has spelt out in the first paragraph. Option 2 explains this purpose precisely. Option 1 mentions that the second paragraph intends to show that this argument is incorrect, which is nowhere mentioned in the paragraph. Option 3, paints the author’s view of exactness by introducing quantitative measures in a positive light, whereas the author presents it is an objective light. Option 4, is incorrect since the author never makes a point that using quantitative measures can always help us make rational decisions. So, options 1, 3, 4 are incorrect and get eliminated. The scoring option in this question is option 2.

Correct Answer: illustrate how the subjectivity involved in human decision-making is quantified inthe discipline of decision science.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 32 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 % 6) “If we try to formulate laws of human psychology, we will inevitably have to ignorea great deal of the messy complexity of actual human life”. Which of the following best captures the reason why the author makes this statement? Human behaviour is too vast and varied to be codified into simple laws. Human behaviour is unpredictable and does not conform to laws. Human beings are incapable of consistently making rational choices. Human behaviour cannot always be explained in psychological terms. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The concluding paragraph of the essay begins with the text quoted in the question. The reason for ignoring the "messy complexity of actual human life" to create mathematical models of human behavior is explained in the concluding part of the essay. The writer says, “This is sometimes legitimate, provided that we recognize the idealization, and are prepared to restore the complexity when necessary.” In simple words, the writer states that idealizing and reducing human behavior on instrumental grounds is a legitimate exercise only as long as we acknowledge that life is more complex than the mathematics that we have reduce it to, and are ready to give them up and embrace life whenever circumstances require us to do so. Option 1 best captures this and becomes our answer. Option 2 is incorrect since the author does not say that human behavior is unpredictable. Complexity does not imply unpredictability. That human behavior does not conform to laws is too general a statement seen in the light of the paragraph about economic rationality. Option 3 is incorrect because the consistency of making rational choices is again not stated or implied in the passage nor related to the quoted text. So we can eliminate option 3. Option 4, similarly, goes beyond the scope of the passage. That human behaviour cannot be explained in psychological terms is an argument that is neither stated nor implied in the passage. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Human behaviour is too vast and varied to be codified into simple laws.

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

The complexity of modern problems often precludes any one person from fully understanding them. Factors contributing to rising obesity levels, for example, include transportation systems and infrastructure, media, convenience foods, changing social norms, human biology and psychological factors. Designing an aircraft carrier, to take another example, requires knowledge of nuclear engineering, naval architecture, metallurgy, hydrodynamics, information systems, military protocols, the exercise of modern warfare and, given the long building time, the ability to predict trends in weapon systems. The multidimensional or layered character of complex problems undermines the principle of meritocracy: the idea that the ‘best person’ should be hired. There is no best person. When putting together an oncological research team, a biotech company would not construct a multiple-choice test and hire the top scorers, or hire people whose resume`s score highest according to some performance criteria. Instead, they would seek diversity. They would build a team of people who bring diverse knowledge bases, tools and analytic skills. That team would more likely than not include mathematicians. And the mathematicians would likely study dynamical systems and differential equations. Believers in a meritocracy might grant that teams ought to be diverse but then argue that meritocratic principles should apply within each category. Thus the team should consist of the ‘best’ mathematicians, the ‘best’ oncologists, and the ‘best’ biostatisticians from within the pool. That position suffers from a similar flaw. Even within a knowledge domain, no test or criteria applied to individuals will produce the best team. Each of these domains possesses such depth and breadth, that no test can exist. Consider the field of neuroscience. Upwards of 50,000 papers were published last year covering various techniques, domains of enquiry and levels of analysis, ranging from molecules and synapses up through networks of neurons. Given that complexity, any

attempt to rank a collection of neuroscientists from best to worst, as if they were competitors in a race, must fail. What could be true is that given a specific task and the composition of a particular team, one scientist would be more likely to contribute than another. Optimal hiring depends on context. Optimal teams will be diverse. Evidence for this claim can be seen in the way that papers and patents that combine diverse ideas tend to rank as high-impact. Yet the fallacy of meritocracy persists. Corporations, non-profits, governments, universities and even preschools test, score and hire the ‘best’. This all but guarantees not creating the best team. Ranking people by common criteria produces homogeneity. And when biases creep in, it results in people who look like those making the decisions. That’s not likely to lead to breakthroughs. As Astro Teller, CEO of X, the ‘moon shoot factory’ at Alphabet, Google’s parent company, has said: ‘Having people who have different mental perspectives is what’s important. If you want to explore things you haven’t explored, having people who think just like you is not the best way.’ We must see the forest. 1) What, according to the author, is the fallacy of meritocracy? The view that superlative ability or performance should be prioritized above diversity when hiring people The view that problem-solving teams should be diverse rather than made up of the ‘best’ people in each field The idea that only the ‘best’ individuals in a field, rather than teams of people,can solve complex problems The idea that the best person should be identified and hired to solve the complexmodern problems Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [1] is a misinterpretation of the fallacy of meritocracy as described in this passage. The author does not consider it a fallacy to want to hire people with superlative ability or performance – rather, his point is that it is impossible to identify the ‘best’ person to hire for solving complex problems. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is incorrect, as it describes the view that the author recommends as an alternative to the fallacy of meritocracy, rather than the fallacy itself. So option [2] is eliminated. Option [3] is incorrect, as it implies that the fallacy of meritocracy privileges individuals over teams, which is not necessarily the case. Option [3] can thus be ruled out. Option [4] is correct. Refer to paragraph 2: ‘The multidimensional or layered character of complex problems undermines the principle of meritocracy: the idea that the “best person” should be hired. There is no best person.’ Throughout the passage, the author argues against this adherence to meritocracy, which he considers a fallacy, as adhering to it is neither strictly possible nor necessarily desirable in order to produce quality work: ‘Optimal teams will be diverse. Evidence for this claim can be seen in the way that papers and patents that combine diverse ideas tend to rank as high-impact. Yet the fallacy of meritocracy persists.’ Therefore, option [4] is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: The idea that the best person should be identified and hired to solve the complexmodern problems

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 106 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 2) Which of these, if true, would most strengthen the author’s assertion that‘there is no best person’ for any job? Every field of knowledge today is vast and complex, requiring a high level ofunderstanding of each aspect. Training in a specific field of knowledge often ignores training people in soft skillssuch as effective communication and almost all jobs require such skills. The complexity inherent in any field of knowledge today is too high to beadequately evaluated by any test. Training on the job in any field of expertise has been consistently proved to bemore effective in creating people suited for the field than informing potential job seekers through academic courses on the subject.

Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Refer paragraph 2: “The multidimensional or layered character of complexproblems undermines the principle of meritocracy: the idea that the ‘best person’ should be hired. There is no best person.” Thus the author believes that it is the complexity of modern problems that make the idea of a ‘best person’ an overly simplistic one. Option 1 is incorrect. It states that a high degree of understanding is required, which suggests that a person with this high degree of understanding would be the ‘best person’. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The option implies that training in communication skills would resolve the issue of finding the best person for a job. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Training on the job maybe more effective but this does not oppose the idea that ‘there is no best person’. It is a statement that misses the point of the question. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. Refer paragraph 3: “Even within a knowledge domain, no test or criteria applied to individuals will produce the best team. Each of these domains possesses such depth and breadth, that no test can exist.” Option 3 reiterates this point and leads to the conclusion that there can be no best person for a job as there is no test that could indicate such a ‘best person’. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The complexity inherent in any field of knowledge today is too high to beadequately evaluated by any test.

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) What does the author mean by saying ‘We must see the forest’? Instead of focusing on the perfect individual for a job, one must focus onthe best team for the job. It is important to have a diverse team to tackle the different individual issues in a project or job. Any specific problem needs to be seen from the perspective of a teamand not from that of a member of the team. It makes sense to have a diverse team with different specializations inorder to avoid homogeneity. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [2] is incorrect. While the importance on a variety of perspectives is a point that the author makes throughout the passage, it is not what the quoted sentence means. So option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect. The phrase sums up the author’s position on the idea of meritocracy which he points out, is based on wrong ideas about the individual contributor. Reject option 3. Option [4] can be ruled out on the same grounds as option [2] – that they do not capture the meaning of the quoted sentence. Option [1] is correct. The quoted sentence is the last sentence of the passage. It sums up the attitude that the author believes is essential to the hiring process. In the course of the passage, the author claims that modern problems are too complex for any individual to fully understand or solve. So he advocates tackling them using a diverse team of people, all of whom bring different skills and knowledge to the table, which would allow them to collectively understand the problem as a whole. The quote therefore refers to this focus on the whole, or the team, instead of the best individual. Hence, the right answer is option [1]. Correct Answer: Instead of focusing on the perfect individual for a job, one must focus onthe best team for the job.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Western civilization in the first half of the twentieth century was not very civilized. Human rights were trampled. Class war destroyed entire political systems. There were large-scale violent conflicts and much ethnic cleansing. Given this history, Westerners are in no position to lecture on civil liberties or humane values. It is also worth noting that the global march toward democracy, which seemed nearly inexorable after the fall of the Berlin Wall, now seems to be reversing. According to Stanford University’s Larry Diamond, several countries that were democracies at the beginning of this century have since shifted to different systems. Of course, elections alone do not a democracy make. Consider those cases when elections empower a majority ethnic or religious group, which then rides roughshod over minorities – an outcome that has been seen all too often in the Balkans, for example.

Then there are the cases when the election of a leader is treated as if it somehow legitimizes the subsequent emergence of dictatorship. This has been the case in Russia, which, since President Vladimir Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000, has become a Potemkin democracy. In a real democracy, free and fair elections are complemented more broadly by the rule of law, due process, an independent judiciary, an active civil society, and freedom of the press, worship, assembly, and association. In fact, it is theoretically possible – though unlikely – for political systems to have all these elements without elections at all. Democracies depend on institutional software, not just hardware. The people who make them work accept a set of norms that often do not have to be codified. The problem comes when the people – or, worse, their leaders – refuse to adhere to democratic norms. That is what is happening today in the United States, as US President Donald Trump challenges some of the foundational rules, norms, and principles of American democracy. While some parts of America’s democratic political system – for example, the judicial check on executive authority – have proved resilient, others are breaking down. But Trump is a consequence of this breakdown, not its cause. Economic challenges, together with fears about migration, have created similar pressures in Europe, reflected in sizable support for right-wing populist parties in elections in Germany and France in the last year, as well as the rise of “illiberal democracy” in Hungary and Poland. Countering such assaults on democracy will require political leaders to show courage and vision – as French President Emmanuel Macron has so far – in defending the values that underpin democratic governance. In the European Union, this means that leaders must not turn a blind eye to elected governments’ assault on the institutions that safeguard freedom. After all, the EU not just a customs union; it is a union of shared values. If it fails to act accordingly, it will crumble. In the 1930s, some admired Adolf Hitler’s autobahns and Benito Mussolini’s success in getting the trains to run on time. But it was clearly not worth the cost. The same is true of China today. Yes, the country has become an economic powerhouse in recent decades. But if a system cannot survive basic dissent – from legal challenges to television parodies – can it really be as strong as its leaders claim? And if a crackdown on corruption is carried out by a corrupt dictatorship, can it really be considered legitimate? Contrast this with India, which may have lost the economic race in the last few years, but has held together since independence, despite vast ethnic, religious, and linguistic differences – without needing to create a Bamboo Gulag. This does not mean that there is no dissent or disagreement. But, no matter how much Indians argue, they are not locking up or “disappearing” dissidents, thanks to the safety valves afforded by their democracy. No society can manage indefinitely without such mechanisms. Even Karl Marx, I think, would not have disagreed. 1) The primary purpose of the passage is to ... point out that even though the economic progress of democratic countries may be slow, democracy protects the fundamental rights of the people. state the importance of safety mechanisms in a democracy to protect dissidents and thereby defend the values that underpin democratic governance. emphasize the current need to preserve liberal democracies as they are the best form of government that can safeguard the natural, civil and political rights of citizens. denounce dictatorships and authoritarianism even though several countries that were democracies at the beginning of this century have since shifted to different systems. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The passage states that several countries have shifted from democracy to other systems in the recent past. Passage also gives examples of how democratic values can be undermined by elected governments and goes on to explain the characteristics of a real democracy. It states that the social and political freedom – “safety valves” & “not locking up or‘disappearing’ dissidents” – offered by a real democracy outweigh the economic progress that other systems government might offer. The writer refers to Hitler’s’ autobahn and Benito Mussolini’s success in getting the trains to run on time, and remarks that it was clearly not the worth the cost; costs in terms of security and liberty. Thus, the purpose of the passage is to defend true form of democracy against the rise of other systems like dictatorships and authoritarianism. Option 1 is incorrect. Though option 1 is factually correct, the purpose of the passage is not merely to state that democracy protects people’s fundamental rights, but also to highlight the current assault on democracy in several traditionally democratic countries like the US and others, and to drive home the need to preserve true democracy. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions the importance of safety valves that must be present in a true democracy. The author mentions the security that a true democracy offers to dissidents; however these are advanced as arguments in favor of his main thesis and not as purpose of the passage. Hence, eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The primary purpose of the passage is not to denounce or criticize dictatorships and other forms of government but to defend true democracy as the best form of government. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. It briefly captures the main purpose of the passage. It mentions the merits of a real democracy over other systems and the safety valves (social and political freedom) afforded by a democracy. Hence, the correct answer choice is option 3.

Correct Answer: emphasize the current need to preserve liberal democracies as they are the best form of government that can safeguard the natural, civil and political rights of citizens.

Time taken by you: 374 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) The author uses “Potemkin democracy” in the fourth paragraph to imply that democracy in Russia is more a façade, while in reality Russia hasbecome a dictatorship after President Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000. President Vladimir Putin, since his first electoral victory in 2000, governsRussia according to the questionable tenets of democracy laid down by Potemkin. The election of Putin as the President of Russia in 2000 cannot legitimizethe subsequent emergence of dictatorship. Russia, in the fundamentals of its constitutional system is not democratic. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. It is not necessary to know the technical meaning of Potemkin democracy to answer this question. One can easily guess the meaning of the term using the surrounding information in the passage. However, Potemkin means: having a false or deceptive appearance, especially one presented for the purpose of propaganda. Historically the term Potemkin originated in the 1930s, from Grigori Aleksandrovich Potyomkin, a favourite of Empress Catherine II of Russia, who reputedly gave the order for sham villages to be built for the empress's tour of the Crimea in 1787. So we use it today to refer to certain news channels as ‘a Potemkin news network, set up only to give the appearance of a free press’ Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not imply any doctrine or tenets laid down by Potemkin that are followed by Putin. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The author states that election of a leader cannot legitimize the subsequent emergence of dictatorship, but does not allude to this fact as “Potemkin democracy.” Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Whatever information the passage includes about Russia is not sufficient to comment on the fundamentals of its constitutional system. The option can be eliminated as data inadequate. However, in fact, constitutionally Russia is a democracy. Eliminate option 4.

Option 1 is correct. The passage states that “… the election of a leader is treated as if it somehow legitimizes the subsequent emergence of dictatorship. This has been the case in Russia, which, since President Vladimir Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000, has become a "Potemkin democracy.” Essentially, this implies that Russia has become a dictatorship since Putin’s electoral victory in 2000 while merely outwardly pretending to be a democracy. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: democracy in Russia is more a façade, while in reality Russia hasbecome a dictatorship after President Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000.

Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 75 % 3) The author will most likely agree with which of the following statements? China has become an economic powerhouse not because of but despiteits political system which does not tolerate dissent. It is doubtful whether political systems other than democracy can be liberal. The safety valves afforded by Indian democracy ensure that there isno dissidence in the country. A crackdown on corruption in China cannot be considered legitimate. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not speculate on reasons why China has become an economic powerhouse. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage states that the safety valves in the Indian democracy ensure that there is no dissidence. Passage mentions that dissidence in India does not meet the same fate as in some other democracies where they are locked up or ‘disappeared.’ Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option alters the intended meaning by eliminating certain words. The author’s innuendo in the question “And if a crackdown on corruption is carried out by a corrupt dictatorship, can it really be considered legitimate?’ Option 4 makes it categorical that no crackdown on corruption in china can be considered legitimate. This is a misrepresentation. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. The passage states that “In a real democracy, free and fair elections are complemented more broadly by the rule of law, due process, an independent judiciary, an active civil society, and freedom of the press, worship, assembly, and association. In fact, it is theoretically possible –though unlikely – for political systems to have all these elements without elections at all.” Thus, it implies that it is unlikely for political systems other than democracy to follow “the rule of law, due process …” etc. i.e. in essence to be tolerant or liberal. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: It is doubtful whether political systems other than democracy can be liberal.

Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 22 % 4) The author would most likely disapprove of all of the following hypothetical events EXCEPT: Electoral victory of a populist party which considers social hierarchy andsocial inequality as inevitable for the normal functioning of the society. Ethnic cleansing of a population deemed to breed terrorists. The judiciary blocking an executive order issued by the elected leader of a country. A labor camp organized by the elected government to re-educate thetribal population. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The question is essentially asking which hypothetical event the author will agree with. Option 1 is incorrect. In the 7th paragraph, the author disapproves of the rise of populist right-wing parties in Germany and France. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In the 3rd paragraph, the author disapproves of a majority ethnic or religious group riding roughshod over minorities. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. In the last paragraph, the author states that India has held together since independence despite a variety of differences among its people without the need to create a Bamboo Gulag. (Gulag means: a system of labour camps maintained in the Soviet Union from 1930 to 1955 in which many people died. Bamboo gulag refers to such labor camps in Vietnam) Thus, the author would not approve of the formation of a labor camp for ‘re-educating’ or converting a minority population. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. In the 6th paragraph, the author states that “While some parts of America’s democratic political system – for example, the judicial check on executive authority – have proved resilient, others are breaking down.” This implies that the author approves of the resilience provided by the judiciary to the executive authority. Also, in the last paragraph the author states the importance of “safety valves afforded by their [Indian] democracy.” This implies that the author is of the view that checks and balances must counter the concentration of power. Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The judiciary blocking an executive order issued by the elected leader of acountry.

Time taken by you: 124 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 44 % 5) Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from the passage with regards to the European Union? It will crumble if its leaders fail to protect institutions that safeguard freedom. It is facing economic and social challenges. It is founded on shared ideals among its member countries. Its leaders have shown courage and vision in defending the values thatunderpin democratic governance. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage clearly states that the European Union’s leaders must not turn a blind eye to elected governments’ assault on the institutions that safeguard freedom. Thus, option 1 can be inferred. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that economic challenges and migration have created pressures in Europe. Thus, option 2 is inferable and can be eliminated. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage clearly states that the EU is not just a customs union but a union of shared values. Thus we can eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage states that “Countering such assaults on democracy will require political leaders to show courage and vision – as French President Emmanuel Macron has so far – in defending the values that underpin democratic governance.” It then goes on to talk about the European Union. Thus the quoted statement is a general statement abouthow political leader should act to counter assaults on democracy. It does not reflect how EU’s leaders have acted. Thus, option 4 is not inferable and is the correct answer choice.

Correct Answer: Its leaders have shown courage and vision in defending the values thatunderpin democratic governance.

Time taken by you: 143 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 33 % 6) According to the author, Karl Marx would agree with which of the followingstatements? A political system that encourages censorship will ultimately lead to the downfall of a society. No society can manage indefinitely without dissent or disagreement. Holding a nation together is more important than winning the economic race. Safety valves afforded by a democracy are superior to those offered by other political systems. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Prior knowledge about Karl Marx is not necessary to answer this question. The passage is sufficiently clear about what Karl Marx would agree with. The reference is to Communism, (of Karl Marx) which is a theory or system of social organization in which all property is owned by the community and each person contributes and receives according to their ability and needs. Dissent is irrelevant in such a social organisation as the individual exists for the society and vice versa. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that a society cannot manage indefinitely without the safety features that protect dissidents or the democratic institutions. It doesn’t imply that society cannot manage without dissent itself. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant. The passage states that India, may have lost the economic race, but has held together since independence. The passage does not state or imply anything about Karl Marx’s view on holding a nation together. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is out of context. The author does not discuss whether Karl Marx would agree of a comparison of safety valves afforded by different political systems. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. The passage states that “… no matter how much Indians argue, they are not locking up or “disappearing” dissidents, thanks to the safety valves afforded by their democracy. No society can manage indefinitely without such mechanisms. Even Karl Marx, I think, would not have disagreed.” Thus, it implies that Karl Marx would have agreed that a society cannot manage indefinitely (or eventually fail) without the safety mechanisms that allow dissent and protect dissidents. To allow dissent means to NOT encourage censorship. Retain option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: A political system that encourages censorship will ultimately lead to the downfall of a society.

Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 9 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 9 %

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undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. What do a strangely fading faraway star, an oddly shaped interstellar interloper in the solar system and a curious spate of UFO sightings by members of the U.S. military all have in common? They are all mysterious, for one thing—eye-catchingly

weird, yet still just hazy outlines that let the imagination run wild. All have recently generated headlines as possible signs of life and intelligence beyond Earth, of some mind-bogglingly advanced alien culture revealing its existence at last to our relatively primitive and planet-bound civilization. Yet their most salient shared trait so far is the certainty they provoke in most scientists, who insist these developments represent nothing so sensational. Ask a savvy astronomer or physicist about any of these oddities, and they will tell you, as they have time and time before: It’s not aliens. In fact, it’s never aliens. Far from being close-minded killjoys, most scientists in the “never aliens” camp desperately want to be convinced otherwise. Their default skeptical stance is a prophylactic against the wiles of wishful thinking, a dare to true believers to provide extraordinary evidence in support of extraordinary claims. What is really extraordinary, the skeptics say, is not so much the possibility of extraterrestrial intelligence but rather the notion that its existence nearby or visitation of Earth could be something easily unnoticed or overlooked. If aliens are out there—or even right here—in abundance, particularly ones wildly advanced beyond our state, why would incontrovertible proof of that reality be so annoyingly elusive? To put it more succinctly, as the nuclear physicist Enrico Fermi did more than a half century ago, “Where are they?” Given a 10-billion-year-old galaxy filled with stars and planets, and an Earth less than half that age, Fermi guessed we are unlikely to be the first technological culture on the galactic stage. If just one spacefaring civilization predated our own in the Milky Way, he calculated, even moving at a very languorous pace it should have had more than enough time to visit, explore and colonize every planetary system in the galaxy. Ever since, practitioners of the search for extraterrestrial intelligence (SETI) have been brainstorming about why we do not encounter glaringly obvious signposts of an interstellar diaspora: Maybe there are nigh-universal bottlenecks in the odds for the emergence of life, intelligence or high technology, and we are indeed alone. Maybe we are not alone at all, but interstellar travel is so hard that everyone just stays home. Maybe we are being quarantined, and UFOs are drone-like documentarians recording an intergalactic Planet Earth miniseries. Maybe our galaxy is bursting at the seams with alien civilizations, and we simply have not looked hard enough—presuming we are capable of properly looking at all. Even the know-it-alls in the “never aliens” crowd would concede that the diversity of possible answers to Fermi’s question says more about our ignorance than our knowledge. One of Fermi’s SETI-pioneering peers, the physicist Freeman Dyson, once summarized the situation thus: “Our imaginings about the ways that aliens might make themselves detectable are always like stories of black cats in a dark room. If there are any real aliens, they are likely to behave in ways that we never imagined.” Even so, he added, “the failure of one guess does not mean that we should stop looking”—particularly because whatever may keep our skies alien-free would likely keep the rest of the universe free of star-trekking humans as well. Contemplating Fermi’s question is a way of exploring pathways to our possible futures. Finding aliens—or coming up empty in our searches—has profound implications for our own ultimate cosmic fate. That is something to keep in mind while considering the latest near-hits (or near-misses), in the ongoing search for cosmic company. 1) When the writer says, “most scientists in the ‘never aliens’ camp, desperatelywant to be convinced otherwise,” she implies: The scientists in the “never aliens” camp strongly deny the existence of aliens. The scientists wish that true believers in aliens would fail in their effort to find evidence. The ‘never aliens” camp believes that looking for aliens is a futile exercise. The scientists are expressing their repressed hope of finding evidence of aliens. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The quoted text is the beginning of the second paragraph. The completesentence reads: Far from being close-minded killjoys, most scientists in the “never aliens” camp desperately want to be convinced otherwise. Their default skeptical stance is a prophylactic against the wiles of wishful thinking, a dare to true believers to provide extraordinary evidence in support of extraordinary claims.” To explain the stance of the non-believers the writer then quotes Enrico Fermi’s famous question, “where are they?” and explains the several reasons why evidence for the existence of aliens is unavailable. The non-existence of aliens is not emphatically stated, but, “even the know-it-alls in the “never aliens” crowd would concede that the diversity of possible answers to Fermi’s question says more about our ignorance than our knowledge.” This implies that the never aliens camp does not deny the existence of aliens but desperately wants evidence to convince themselves otherwise. This is clearly expressed in option 4. Option 1 is incorrect. The scientists of the ‘never aliens’ camp do not deny the existence of aliens, but they wish that there would be evidence so that they are convinced otherwise. This eliminates option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. If never aliens camp desperately wants to be convinced otherwise, the camp would wish that true believers in aliens , or the scientists who are looking for the evidence, would one day succeed in finding the evidence. We can eliminate option 2 as it is contrary to the passage. Option 3 appears to be true – the fourth paragraph mentions that we may not be capable of properly looking at all for aliens; however, this is only one of the possible answers to Fermi’s question. Hence it is incorrect to take it as the only answer. Eliminate option 3. Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: The scientists are expressing their repressed hope of finding evidence ofaliens.

Time taken by you: 295 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 213 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 67 % 2) One can infer from the passage that Enrico Fermi was: Skeptical about the possibility of intelligent life having existed outside theearth in our universe while some scientists proposed that they did. Certain that spacefaring civilizations had existed in the universe before humans as the galaxy significantly predated the earth. Confident that a technologically advanced culture predating humans had once existed in the universe. Bewildered by the lack of evidence for intelligent life outside of the earthas the existence of such life is plausible. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The third paragraph mentions Enrico Fermi’s famous question “Where are they?”which is popularly known as Fermi Paradox. The passage explains this paradox: Given a 10-billion-year-old galaxy filled with stars and planets, and an Earth less than half that age, Fermi guessed we are unlikely to be the first technological culture on the galactic stage. If just one spacefaring civilization predated our own in the Milky Way, he calculated, even moving at a very languorous pace it should have had more than enough time to visit, explore and colonize every planetary system in the galaxy.” In simple words, it is puzzling that we have no evidence of the existence of aliens. Seen from another angle it can also mean that, lack of evidence proves that they don’t exist. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3 – Given a 10-billion-year-old galaxy filled with stars and planets, and an Earth less than half that age, if Enrico Fermi had guessed that we are unlikely to be the first technological culture on the galactic stage, it means that intelligent life must exist outside the Earth. Therefore reject option 1. Option 2 is eliminate because a space faring civilization is too specific an assumption about the possible aliens. Option 3 is incorrect. The question in fact highlights the confusion over the existence of aliens and does not reflect any confidence in a theory of their existence. Reject option 3. Thus, option 4 is right in its assessment, that Fermi’s question shows that he was bewildered by the lack of evidence for intelligent life outside of the earth as the existence of such life is so plausible. Thus option 4 answers this question correctly. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Bewildered by the lack of evidence for intelligent life outside of the earthas the existence of such life is plausible.

Time taken by you: 273 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 3) According to the passage, the fact that the universe had been in existence for billions of years even before the earth formed, is: Indicative of the irrationality of the idea that life exists only on planet earth. The reason why it is impossible for aliens to not have contacted humans. A clue to the earth’s potential for encountering aliens in the near future. A sobering call to action for all the naysayers in the “never aliens” crowd. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 2 is incorrect in that the age of the galaxy is not related to the likelihood of aliens contacting humans. Similarly option 3 incorrectly relates the age of the universe to encounters with aliens in the near future. Reject options 2 and 3. Option 4 is incorrect. A call to action is not suggested for the ‘never aliens’ crowd in the passage. Reject option 4. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 3 explains the meaning of Enrico Fermi’s question where are they? The galaxy is said to be 10 billion years old and the earth less than half that age. Hence it is possible that life might have originated mush before it originated on earth. Hence the age of the galaxy in comparison to the age of the earth is invoked to imply that the point of view that life is unique to earth may be preposterous. Option 1 expresses the same idea. Hence option 1 correctly answers the question. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Indicative of the irrationality of the idea that life exists only on planetearth.

Time taken by you: 74 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 4) The tone of the passage is: critical but hopeful. suspicious but speculative. speculative but hopeful. critical and speculative. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question, though tone questions generally tend to be difficult. Option 1 can be eliminated because the passage is not critical. Option 2 can be similarly eliminated for the word suspicious. The passage is popular science – commenting on the search for extraterrestrial intelligence. There is nothing suspicious about it. Option 4 can eliminated for the same reason as option 1, as the writer is not critical. Option 3 is correct. Both speculative and hopeful correctly describe the tone of the passage. It is speculative about the existence of alien life, and about the lack of evidence about its existence. However, the passage is hopeful in tone towards the end. On the issue whether we should stop looking for alien life, the writer strikes quite a positive note by projecting a future in which mankind may be undertaking interstellar travels, and the necessity to continue the search. Hence speculative and hopeful, or option 3, correctly describes the tone of the passage. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: speculative but hopeful.

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 % 5) The physicist Freeman Dyson used the example of “black cats in a dark room” in order to… Define the apparent reality for the human mind while it is formulating ideas about how alien civilisations might possibly be contacted Point to the limits of imagination in comprehending the alien civilisations and realities that are outside the range of human experience. Assert the impossibility of understanding alien civilisations with the help of human devices and current understanding of space. Define the physics of the possible human experience when it eventually encounters alien life. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph – the reference to the black cats ina dark room does not in any way define any apparent reality while the mind is formulating ideas of any kind. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. There is no reference to human devices or current understanding of space in the passage. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The black cats do not refer to any “eventual” encounter with aliens. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. The reference to black cats in dark rooms is a pointer to the inability of humans to imagine or comprehend the reality which is possibly outside the realm of human experience. As the passage states: “Our imaginings about the ways that aliens might make themselves detectable are always like stories of black cats in a dark room. If there are any real aliens, they are likely to behave in ways that we never imagined.” Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Point to the limits of imagination in comprehending the alien civilisations and realities that are outside the range of human experience.

Time taken by you: 147 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 % 6) According to the passage, continuing to search for extra-terrestrial intelligence is: A sensible approach to the seemingly impossible task of finding evidence for aliens’ existence as it underscores the knowledge that there has to be life outside of earth. Not something that needs to be debated but something to be acted on as it is the only way to follow up on Fermi’s question – by seeing where it leads. A meaningful contribution towards a knowledge base of space travel which could enable future interstellar voyages. A sensible goal post for a spacefaring civilization to have as the possibility of encountering aliens also reveals the ingenuity of the inhabitants of the universe.

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undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Genome editing (also called gene editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. Several approaches to genome editing have been developed. A recent one is known as CRISPR-Cas9, which is short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9. The CRISPR-Cas9 system has generated a lot of excitement in the scientific community because it is faster, cheaper, more accurate, and more efficient than other existing genome editing methods. CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from a naturally occurring genome editing system in bacteria. The bacteria capture snippets of DNA from invading viruses and use them to create DNA segments known as CRISPR arrays. The CRISPR arrays allow the bacteria to "remember" the viruses (or closely related ones). If the viruses attack again, the bacteria produce RNA segments from the CRISPR arrays to target the viruses' DNA. The bacteria then use Cas9 or a similar enzyme to cut the DNA apart, which disables the virus. The CRISPR-Cas9 system works similarly in the lab. Researchers create a small piece of RNA with a short "guide" sequence that attaches (binds) to a specific target sequence of DNA in a genome. The RNA also binds to the Cas9 enzyme. As in bacteria, the modified RNA is used to recognize the DNA sequence, and the Cas9 enzyme cuts the DNA at the targeted location. Although Cas9 is the enzyme that is used most often, other enzymes (for example Cpf1) can also be used. Once the DNA is cut, researchers use the cell's own DNA repair machinery to add or delete pieces of genetic material, or to make changes to the DNA by replacing an existing segment with a customized DNA sequence. Genome editing is of great interest in the prevention and treatment of human diseases. Currently, most research on genome editing is done to understand diseases using cells and animal models. Scientists are still working to determine whether this approach is safe and effective for use in people. It is being explored in research on a wide variety of diseases, including single-gene disorders such ascystic fibrosis,hemophilia, andsickle cell disease. It also holds promise for the treatment and prevention of morecomplex diseases, such as cancer, heart disease, mental illness, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Ethical concerns arise when genome editing, using technologies such as CRISPR-Cas9, is used to alter human genomes. Most of the changes introduced with genome editing are limited to somatic cells, which are cells other than egg and sperm cells. These changes affect only certain tissues and are not passed from one generation to the next. However, changes made to genes in egg or sperm cells (germline cells) or in the genes of an embryo could be passed to future generations. Germline cell and embryo genome editing bring up a number of ethical challenges, including whether it would be permissible to use this technology to enhance normal human traits (such as height or intelligence). Based on concerns about ethics and safety, germline cell and embryo genome editing are currently illegal in many countries. 1) According to the passage, all of the following are true for CRISPR, EXCEPT it has the potential to prevent and cure diseases. it is capable of altering somatic cells but not germline cells. it plays a role in regulating bacterial immunity. its promise also raises ethical concerns. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 in the passage states that CRISPR is being explored to cure a wide variety of diseases. Hence, it is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 2. It states that bacteria use CRISPR to disable the virus. Hence, it is not an exception. Eliminate option 3. Option 2 is correct. The last paragraph states that “Most of the changes introduced with genome editing are limited to somatic cells...” It does not refer to the current capability of CRISPR w.r.t somatic and germline cells. Retain option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Last paragraph states that ethical concerns arise when CRISPR is used to alter human genomes. This option is not an exception. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: it is capable of altering somatic cells but not germline cells.

Time taken by you: 198 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 170 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 63 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following is true of Cas9? The enzyme Cas9 activates the cell’s DNA repair mechanism to introduce changes to genetic material. The target location where Cas9 cuts the DNA cannot be predetermined. Cas9 is an enzyme in bacteria that cuts foreign DNA. Cas9 is an enzyme in bacteria that cuts native DNA. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 3explains that Cas9 is used to cut the DNA and once the DNA is cut, researchers use the cell's own DNA repair machinery to add or delete pieces of genetic material. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states that as in bacteria, the modified RNA is used to recognize the DNA sequence, and the Cas9 enzyme cuts the DNA at the targeted location. This implies that the target site is specific and predetermined. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. As stated earlier Cas9 cuts foreign DNA and not native DNA. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The passage explains the process “CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from a naturally occurring genome editing system in bacteria. The bacteria capture snippets of DNA from invading viruses and use them to create DNA segments known as CRISPR arrays. The CRISPR arrays allow the bacteria to "remember" the viruses (or closely related ones). If the viruses attack again, the bacteria produce RNA segments from the CRISPR arrays to target the viruses' DNA, which disables the virus.” Thus, enzyme Cas9 cuts the DNA of the “foreign” virus. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Cas9 is an enzyme in bacteria that cuts foreign DNA.

Time taken by you: 291 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) The primary purpose of the passage is to highlight the ethical concerns that arise because of tampering with genomes. explain the findings of research conducted in the area of CRISPR-Cas9 technology. examine how CRISPR-Cas9 technology has the potential to affect the future of humanity. explain the CRISPR-Cas9 approach to genome editing and the ethical concerns in genetic modification. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The last paragraph does raise the question of ethical concerns, but simply raising ethical concerns is not the primary purpose of the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not mention any research and its findings to explain CRISPR-Cas9. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not try to examine how CRISPR-Cas9 may affect the future of humanity. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 correctly summarizes the purpose of the passage. The passage as a whole intends to explain the CRISPR-Cas9 technology, its uses andthe ethical concerns that may arise from its use. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: explain the CRISPR-Cas9 approach to genome editing and the ethical concerns in genetic modification.

Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

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undefined Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. When corruption charges were leveled against it, the government was found to be obstinate and_______, even when policy demanded a conduct of _______ and transparency. ineffable, insouciance inexorable, forbearance disruptive, passivity arrogant, intolerance Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The question is difficult mainly because of the medium and low frequency words in the options. However, the context makes the type of words that are required in the blanks amply clear. When corruption charges were leveled against the government, it became “obstinate and ____.” So the word in the blank has to be similar to obstinate (stubborn, adamant or intransigent) implying that the government’s behavior was characterized by refusal to compromise and it assumed an extreme position. Option 1, ineffable means incapable of being expressed in words or indescribable. Option 2, inexorable means not to be persuaded, moved or stopped; or relentless, adopting an extreme position.Inexorable goes with obstinate and correctly fits in the blank. Option 3, disruptive means breaking things apart or throwing something else into disorder. Though the word is as negative as obstinate, the government itself becoming disruptive is vague and unspecific in the context. Option 4, arrogant and obstinate may also go well together. However, inexorable is the best option for the first blank. The second word has to be similar in implication to transparency. Option 1, insouciance means light-hearted and unconcerned; nonchalance; casualness or apathy – so, insouciance does not fit. Option 2, forbearance means patience or tolerance – which goes with transparency, and correctly fits the blank. Option 3, passivity means lacking in energy or will power, lethargic and inactive – hence, it is incorrect in the context. Option 4, intolerance is negative and synonymous with arrogance whereas the context requires a positive word. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: inexorable, forbearance Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. Too much inequality _______ social mobility, thereby potentially stoking political instability, and weaker economic performance; yet some amount of _______ is vital to create appropriate incentives, support competition, and provide reasonable rewards. inhibits, equality facilitates, stability impedes, inequality accelerates, equality Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The first blank in the sentence requires a verb that relates what too much inequality does to social mobility – resulting in political instability and weaker economic performance. It is rather a stretch to say that inequality will facilitate or accelerate social mobility – hence we can eliminate options 2 and 4. Between ‘equality’, and ‘inequality’ for the second blank, ‘inequality’ completes the sentence logically. “yet some amount of ………… is vital..’ to create incentive and competition, precludes ‘equality.’ Hence the option 3 contains the most appropriate words for the blanks – that too much inequality is has negative results, but some amount of inequality is necessary for growth. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: impedes, inequality Time taken by you: 42 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. Despite his _______ that philosophy must be historical, Nietzsche simultaneously understood writing philosophy historically to be a deeply _______ endeavor. skepticism, unproductive conviction, problematic reservation, nihilistic

certitude, absurdist

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Since the sentence begins with ‘despite’, it must contain contrasting ideas. So, let us look at two contrasting options available in the answer choices. The first part is about Nietzsche’s point of view about philosophy must be historical – it could be his skepticism, or his conviction that philosophy is historical. So his skepticism or conviction is contrasted with his simultaneous belief that writing about philosophy historically is unproductive or problematic – is he was skeptic, and unproductive do not provide the contrast – so the conjunction despite is a misfit. We can eliminate option 1. At eh same time we can also see that option 2 provides the contrast we are looking for and is correct. So we need to consider options that are contrasting in them, similar to conviction and problematic. Nihilism and absurdism are tow doctrines. Nihilism is a doctrine or a viewpoint that traditional values and beliefs are unfounded and that existence is senseless and useless. Absurdism, similarly, is a philosophy based on the belief that the universe is irrational and meaningless and that the search for order brings the individual into conflict with the universe. Hence, both the words are narrow in scope and technical, with narrow and specific meanings - cannot describe an effort to write historically about philosophy. We can eliminate options 3 and 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: conviction, problematic Time taken by you: 22 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position and enter its number in the space given below. Meditation is a process of expanding our awareness. Through meditation, we discover deep within ourselves the qualities of peace, calmness and love – and an underlying joy that doesn’t change under any circumstances. This expansion of consciousness is the essence of spiritual growth, and our relationships can be an excellent catalyst in that process. When we nurture these expanded states in ourselves and in others, profound changes can happen in our relationships. Instead of demanding, even subconsciously, that others fulfill our “needs”, we can rest in the inner fulfillment and contentment we experience in a meditative state. Thus cooperation replaces competition, and the joy of mutual giving replaces the tension of reciprocating demands. 1. Meditation is essential for the expansion of our consciousness and spiritual growth. Our relationships change from tension to cooperation and mutual giving. 2. Meditation affects us deeply by helping us grow spiritually and our relationships become the cause of innerfulfillment and contentment rather than competition and strife. 3. Meditation is the process of expanding our awareness to discover joy, peace, calmness and love not only in ourselves but also in our relationships.

4. Meditation helps us grow spiritually and to discover long lasting joy, peace, calmness and love in ourselves. Our relationships become catalysts of inner fulfillment rather than conflicts.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The main points in the passage to be captured in the précis are: Meditation helps us grow spiritually We discover peace, calmness, love, and joy that do not change. Relationships change to catalysts for inner fulfillment rather than conflict. Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph describes the benefits of meditation – it does not state that it is essential for the expansion for our awareness. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The resulting joy through meditation is absent in option 2. With its general statement that it helps us to grow spiritually, it misses the essence of the paragraph – the resulting peace and love. Also, it is incorrect to say that relationships become the cause of inner fulfillment. Catalysts being changed to source is an overstatement. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 misses a nuance; otherwise it is almost right. the paragraph states – we discover joy through meditation in ourselves. Our relationships then become catalysts to discover the same peace and inner fulfillment with others. This idea is lost in the third option. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It is the best précis and captures the key elements without any distortion. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 307 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position and enter its number in the space given below. Compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism. But there’s room for violence as well. Medieval Tibetan tales describe religious teachers breaking students’ bones, and then healing them magically to bring them insight; they tell of monks assassinating corrupt kings to save Buddhism in Tibet. Modern history brings us the stories, often neglected in the West, of the CIAbacked violent insurgency that Tibetan Buddhists waged against the Chinese occupation from the 1950s to the mid-1970s – and of an all-Tibetan refugee unit formed in India to fight the Chinese in a 1962 war.

1. Compassion was central to Tibetan Buddhism in the medieval times. But in the modern times, it has embraced violence to free itself from Chinese occupation. 2. Though compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism, violence has been deeply ingrained into its traditions from medieval times to the modern. 3. Though compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism, it has also accommodated violence for religious and political reasons. 4. From the teacher breaking students’ bones to violent insurgency against occupying Chinese, Tibetans Buddhism has always made room for violence.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points in the paragraph that an ideal précis should capture are: Compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism. But there’s room for violence as well. The examples are: religious teachers breaking students’ bones in the medieval times, and the CIA-backed violent insurgency against the Chinese occupation. Option 1 wrongly states that compassion was central to Tibetan Buddhism in the medieval times. The paragraph does not limit compassion of Tibetan Buddhism to medieval times alone. So eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It incorrectly states that ‘violence has been deeply ingrained into Tibetan Buddhism. This is an overstatement, because the paragraph states that Tibetan Buddhism has “made room for violence” under certain circumstances. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. ‘There’s room for violence’ is correctly presented as accommodating violence while retaining the basic tenet of compassion, and the examples of violence are presented in generalized forms as “for religious and political reasons.” Thus option 3 is correct. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses the most important part of the paragraph about compassion being the central tenet of Tibetan Buddhism. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 76 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the question, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the sentences does not fit into the context. Find the odd sentence and enter its number in the space given below.

. 1. According to a study, 9-32% of the workforce in developed economies couldbe displaced within the next decade. 2. As artificial intelligence and robotic technologies advance faster, many of thetasks and occupations that employ people can already be automated. 3. We urgently need to start furnishing workers with new skills to meet futurelabor-market demands. 4. Estimates of the share of automatable employment vary widely, from 14% of all jobs in OECD countries to nearly 50% of all jobs in the US. 5. A week rarely goes by without a new dystopian prediction about technologicallydriven mass unemployment.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The best way to deal with difficult out of context sentence questions is to first discover a mandatory pair. In this case even that looks at little tricky. However, “technologically driven mass unemployment” in sentence 5 is explained as result of what is stated in sentence 2 that “as artificial intelligence and robotic technologies advance faster, many of the tasks and occupations that employ people can already be automated.” So 5-1 is a mandatory pair. We are now able to identify the theme of the paragraph- mass unemployment resulting from automation. Sentence 4 directly relates to this theme as it states an estimate of automatable employment and hence the potential loss of jobs in the OECD countries and the US. Now, our task is limited to relating sentences 1 and 3 to this theme. Sentence 1 continues the theme by predicting that up to 32 per cent of jobs can be lost in developed economies. Sentence 3, however, talks about preparing workers to meet future labor market demands. There is no information in the other sentences or the paragraph as a whole about the future market demands. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 159 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 %

1. There was also a proposal for Facebook fully to disclose its spending on political lobbying. 2. The challenge runs far deeper than whether users click “Agree” on a new set of “Terms and Conditions.”

3. And there were proposals to nominate an independent board chair and change the shareholder-voting structure to reduce Zuckerberg’s influence. 4. That included proposals to publish a report on gender pay equity, and one on the public-policy issues associated with managing fake news and hate speech, including the impact on the democratic process, free speech, and a cohesive society. 5. At the company’s annual stockholder meeting, five proposals for how to begin addressing some of Facebook’s weaknesses were voted down.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question We can identify sentence 5 as the starter of the paragraph. This is the only standalone sentence. All other sentences have incomplete ideas apparently mentioned or clarified earlier. Sentence 5 says that the at the company’s annual stockholder meeting five proposals to address some of the weaknesses of Facebook were voted down. Sentence 4 describes what these proposals included – matters related to gender pay equity, public policy issues, fake news etc. Sentences 3 and 1 list the other proposals raised at the meeting and were voted down. So we can see that all the sentences except sentence 2 about the proposals made at the annual meeting of Facebook and were subsequently voted down. Sentence 2 is not related to this theme as it begins abruptly with “the challenge runs far deeper….” There is no mention of any challenge in the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 89 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

1. This may happen all over India, but in this exact way it happens only in my city. 2. It was an act that one sees every day in this town, and indeed all over the country, but seeing it in the company of an outsider put it in a completely different context. 3. The other day I was taking a visitor around my city and I saw something that made me stop in my tracks. 4. People from across classes sat on the parapets on the seafront in every kind of weather — single people, couples, friends, all turning their backs to the city and gazing at infinity.

5. It made me realize that this rather ordinary occurrence was a lens through which one could see a whole culture and understand, if not everything, a lot about the citizens of a place.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Sentences 1, 2 and 5 can be ruled for the starter, as they have references to something that has to be made clear. Comparing sentences 3 and 4, we see that sentence 3 starts the narration – the writer was taking a friend through his city – when he saw something that made him stop in his tracks. “Something” is the antecedent for the “it” in sentences 2 and 5. Whether the sequence is 325 or 352 needs some deliberation. 3-2-5- is a better sequence than 3-5-2 because 32 explains why the ordinary event (which we later learn that of people sitting on parapets) stopped him in his tracks – the reason was that the company of his friend put that incident in completely different context – that context is then explained in sentence 5. The event suddenly became “a lens through which one could see a whole culture and understand, if not everything, a lot about the citizens of a place.” Also, “it was an act one sees everyday … but it made me realize…” is better than “It made me realize …. It was a lens …,” and the “it was an act…” So we can decide on the sequence 325. Placing sentence 4 and 1 after the 3-2-5 sequence e is not difficult. “This may happen all over India …’ in sentence 1 refers to a particular incident the writer saw in Mumbai. The incident is that of ‘people sitting on parapets gazing at the horizon..” Hence 4-1 becomes the correct order after 325. Hence the correct answer is 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 225 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 1 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 1 %

1. When an organism changes in some fundamental way, it typically starts with a genetic mutation - a change to the DNA. 2. This is weird because that's really not how adaptations usually happen in multicellular animals. 3. But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions - occasionally it improvises changing which proteins are produced in the cell in a rare process called RNA editing.

4. Those genetic changes are then translated into action by DNA's molecular sidekick, RNA. 5. In a surprising twist, scientists discovered that octopuses, along with some squid and cuttlefish species, routinely edit their RNA (ribonucleic acid) sequences to adapt to their environment.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Sentence 1 explains how a typical genetic mutation or ‘fundamental’ evolutionary changes happen – by a change to the DNA. So sentence 1 begins the narrative. In comparison, the other sentences contain elements that make them unfit for the starter – “this is weird in sentence 2 will be an abrupt start. Similarly “but RNA doesn’t’’ in sentence 3, ‘those genetic changes in sentence 4, and ‘in a surprising twist’ in sentence 5, make them unsuitable as the starter. Sentence 1 is followed by sentence 4 – the ‘genetic mutation’ mentioned in 1 is referred to as “those genetic changes in sentence 4. Thus 1-4 is a mandatory pair. “This is weird” in sentence 2 is contrary to the “typical” process mentioned in 1. Also, the mention of RNA in sentence 3 and 5 has nothing to refer back to in sentence 1. Hence 1-4 is a mandatory pair. The 1-4 pair is then followed by sentence 3, because “translated into action by RNA” in sentence 4 is continued in sentence 3 as “But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions …” (or “translate into action”). Thus we get the sequence of 1-4-3. The remaining two sentences, sentences 5 and 2 can be placed more easily after the 143 sequence, in that order because, “this is weird….’ In sentence 2 refers back to the “RNA editing octopuses and some other marine animals carry out” without the typical genetic mutation that starts with DNA. Also, “In a surprising twist” mentioned in sentence 5 refers back to whole process explained in 143. Hence sentence 5 has to be placed after 143 and sentence 2 at the end to conclude the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 14352. Correct Answer: 14352 Time taken by you: 166 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 %

1. This highly uneven dispersion is a surprise. 2. Those populations are typically large in extended regions and gradually tail off in many directions. 3. Reptiles do not. 4. The number of mammal and bird species varies from place to place, but these groups of vertebrates still span much of the world. 5. New research shows they are highly concentrated in hotspots and are largely absent across the rest of the earth.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The starter sentence is fairly easy to identify. Only sentence 4 fits the bill as all the other sentences have references that derive their meaning from elsewhere. ‘This highly uneven dispersion’ in sentence 1, ‘those populations’ is sentence 2, make them unfit for the starter. Sentence 3 is too short and abrupt. Sentence 5 says “new research shows they are highly concentrated …” – the pronoun ‘they’ needs an antecedent. So we are sure that the paragraph starts with sentence 4. Finding the next sentence is difficult. Hence, change strategy and try to get a mandatory pair, instead of wasting time looking for the sentence to follow 4. Sentence 1 is a dangler. “This highly uneven dispersion is a surprise,” so, look for the sentence that defines the ‘uneven dispersion.’ Sentence 5 says, “… they are highly concentrated in hotspots and are largely absent across the rest of the earth.” So, 5-1- is a mandatory pair. So far we have 4 as the starter and 5-1 a mandatory pair. However, 5-1 cannot be placed immediately after 4, because 4 and 5-1 have contrary ideas. Sentence 4 says that mammals span much of the world. 5-1 pair talks about uneven dispersion. Hence they are contrary. Sentence 3 says ‘Reptiles do not’. This can bridge the gap between sentence 4 and the 5-1- pair. That mammals span the world – reptiles do not. So, “they” in sentence 5 refers to the reptiles in sentence 4. Hence we get the sequence 4351. Sentence 2 comes at the end of the paragraph and concludes it logically because “those populations” in sentence 5 refers to the “uneven dispersion” of reptiles in sentence 1. Hence the correct sequence is 43512. Correct Answer: 43512 Time taken by you: 142 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 6 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Prakash, Qadir, Roshni, Smita and Trisha secured the first five ranks – 1 to 5, not necessarily in the same order, in the IIT JEE 2017 Mains examination. The Mains examination had four sections namely; A, B, C & D. The following table provides information about the first three highest marks scored by the students in each section. The lowest and the second lowest marks scored by thestudents in each section is more than 4% but less than or equal to 12% of the total marks scored by these five students in that section (Refer to the bar chart given below). Marks scored by any student in any of these given four sections is an integer. Distinct marks were scored by these five students in Section A. The same holds true for all other sections as well. The total score of the students is equal to the sum of their marks in the individual four sections and the student with the highest total score is ranked 1st, the student with 2nd highest total score is ranked 2nd and so on.

1) Who obtained the first rank in the IIT JEE 2017 Mains examination? Qadir Prakash Smita Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

It can be seen that Smita has scored 235 marks and the maximum possible marks scored by all other students is less than 235. Therefore, Smita got the first rank. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Smita

Time taken by you: 291 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 457 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 2) If Qadir and Prakash scored 214 and 199 respectively in all the foursections combined together, then which of the following can be the total score of Roshni in all the four sections combined together? 176 183 203 212 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Qadir scored 14 in Section C and Prakash scored 33 in Section A. This means that Roshni scored 22 in Section A. So Roshni could have scored between (22 + 36 + 120 + 24 = 202)and (22 + 24 + 120 + 11 = 177) (both inclusive) in all the four sections put together. Out of the given options, only 183 is a possible score. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 183

Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 3) If Trisha obtained the maximum possible total score in all the sections and if the total scores of Prakash and Roshni are equal, then what is the total score ofQadir? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Trisha scored 200. Prakash and Roshni could have scored equal marks only when Roshni scored 33 in Section A and Prakash scored 11 in Section C. This means that Qadir scored a total of 214 marks. Therefore, the required answer is 214.

Correct Answer: 214

Time taken by you: 73 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 4) What could be the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible total scores obtained by Trisha in all the four sections combined together? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Maximum total score Trisha could obtain = 200 Minimum total score Trisha could obtain = 175 The required difference = 200 – 175 = 25 Therefore, the required answer is 25.

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A recruitment board declared the results of an examination for various job positions in the year 2017. Pie Chart - I shows the position-wise distribution of the candidates. A : Assistant-Savings Bank B : Assistant-Circle Office C : Assistant-Sorting D : Stenographers

E : Translators F : Typists G : Inspectors Pie Chart - II shows the region-wise distribution of the candidates. 60% of all the candidates were boys and the remaining 40% were girls.

1) If none of the candidates selected as Assistant-Sorting was from South & East, then at least what percentage of candidates from North were selected as Assistant-Sorting? 30% 32% 25% 24% Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30%

Time taken by you: 416 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 % 2) Given that not more than 25% of the candidates from any region selected as Assistant-Savings Bank, then the number of regions from where no candidate was selected as Assistant-Savings Bank cannot be more than

2 1 3 4 Video Explanation: Explanation: 15% of thecandidates were selected for post Assistant-Savings Bank. 25% of (North + East + South) = 25% of 74% = 18.75% Therefore, there were at least 3 regions from where one or the other candidate was selected as Assistant-Savings Bank. Hence, the number of regions from where no candidates selected as Assistant-Savings Bank cannot be more than 2. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 % 3) If all the girls were selected as either Assistant-Savings Bank or Assistant- Sorting, then at most what percentage of the boys from East, North & Central put together were selected as either Assistant-Savings Bank or Assistant-Sorting?

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let number ofcandidates be Y. Girls = 0.4Y and Boys = 0.6Y Number of candidates who were selected for position Assistant-Savings Bank or Assistant-Sorting = 0.5Y Boys who were selected for positions Assistant-Savings Bank and Assistant- Sorting = (0.5Y – 0.4Y) = 0.1Y Assume all the girls are from East, North or Central. Therefore, total number of boys from East, North & Central = 0.64Y – 0.4Y = 0.24Y

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 % 4) It is known that the number of distinct positions for which candidates were selected from North and East is six each, out of which exactly five are identical. Also, the number of candidates who were selected for each of these six positions in North is equal (this holds true for candidates in East as well). At most what percentage of candidates from South could be selected as Stenographers? 5% 10% 15% 20% Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5%

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A consumer electronics giant launched six flagship mobile handset models – S6, P9, I4, K7, M8 and Z5 in the span of eight years. No two handset models were launched within a period of 18 months. The launch dates of the handsetmodels are given below:

1) Which mobile handset model was the sixth to be launched? S6 P9 K7 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handsetmodels were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th

September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible.

Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

The handset model that was launched sixth was S6. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: S6

Time taken by you: 450 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 175 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 2) Which mobile handset model was the second to be launched? K7 M8 Z5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handsetmodels were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

The handset model that was launched second was M8. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: M8

Time taken by you: 12 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 3) Which mobile handset model was the fifth to be launched? P9 K7 Z5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

K7 was launched fifth. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: K7

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 4) Which handset model/s was/were launched between K7 and I4? Z5 M8 Both Z5 and M8 Neither Z5 nor M8 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handset models were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

Z5 was launched between K7 and I4. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Z5

Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Each of Pragya, Firdausi, Rimi, and Shekhar purchased marbles worth Rs. 500. The marbles purchased were of one or the other of the following four types: A, B, C and D. The prices of one marble each of type A, B, C and D was Rs. 10, Rs. 20, Rs. 50 and Rs. 100 respectively. Each of the given four persons purchased marbles of three different types and no two persons purchased the identical set of three types of marbles. The first bar chart provides information about the sum of the number of marbles of each type purchased by these four persons. The second bar chart provides information about the total number of marbles purchased by each of these four persons. It is known that Pragya purchased 10 marbles of type A. It is also known that the person who did not purchase marbles of type B purchased three marbles of type D.

1) Shekhar did not purchase marbles of type ___. D A C Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Shekhar did not purchase marbles of type A. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: A

Time taken by you: 478 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 351 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 65 % 2) Rimi did not purchase marbles of type ___. A C B Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Rimi did not purchase marbles of type B. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 3) How many marbles of type A were purchased by Firdausi? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Firdausi purchased 10 marbles of type A. Therefore, the required answer is 10.

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 61 % 4) The number of marbles of type C purchased by Firdausi was ___. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Firdausi purchased 4 marbles of type C. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a live hypnosis show, a famous hypnotist called one participant named Donald on stage. During the show, the hypnotist displayed a number on an electronic screen for only one second. He then gave Donald instructions to use the digits of the number that were displayed on the screen to create a new number (which used the same digits as the number displayed on the screen) and say the new number aloud. The hypnotist claimed that Donald could arrive at the new number in just three seconds’ time after conforming to all the instructions given to him. 1) The hypnotist displayed a 7-digit number (with all digits different) on the screenand said,”Donald, rearrange the digits of the number to create a number such that at least 4 digits of the number are in the same position as thenumber on the screen. Say the number you have created aloud!” How many different numbers could Donald have said aloud if he followed theinstructions of the hypnotist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: At least 4 digits are in the same position that means at most 3 digits arerearranged. If no digit is rearranged, Donald can say only one number (i.e. the number on the screen). If only one digit is rearranged, the remaining six digits must be in their correct positions. It is not possible to obtain a number like this. If two digits are rearranged, the remaining five digits are in their correct positions. The number of ways of selecting the five digits out of 7 that are in their correctpositions is 7C 5 = 21. The number of ways in which the remaining two digits can be misplaced = derangement of 2 = 1. Therefore, the required number of ways = 21 × 1 = 21 If three digits are rearranged, the remaining four digits are in their correct positions. The number of ways of selecting the four digits out of 7 that are in their correct positions is 7C 4 = 35. The number of ways in which the remaining three digits can be rearranged = derangement of 3 = 2. Therefore, the required number of ways = 35 × 2 = 70. Therefore, the required total number of numbers = 1 + 21 + 70 = 92. Therefore, the required answer is 92.

Correct Answer: 92

Time taken by you: 505 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 1 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 0 %

2) The hypnotist displayed a 7-digit number (with all digits different) on the screen and said,”Donald, rearrange the digits of the number to create a number. The position of each digit in the number can vary from its position in the number on the screen by at most one place. Donald, say the number you have created aloud” How many different numbers Donald could have said aloud if he followed the instructions of the hypnotist? 21 28 29 30 Video Explanation: Explanation: If the digits of the number can be misplaced by exactly one position, the digits that are getting misplaced will necessarily occupy the position of the adjacent digit in the original number. Suppose the original number is 1-2-3-4-5-6-7. We have the following cases: Case 1: When no digit is misplaced: In that case, the new number is same as the number displayed on the screen. There can be only one number of this type. Case 2: When exactly one pair of digits is misplaced: The pair of digits that are misplaced can be 1-2 or 2-3 or 3-4 or 4-5 or 5-6 or 6-7 (total 6). Case 3: When exactly two pairs of digits are misplaced: In all two pairs of digits are misplaced. If the first pair is 1-2, the second pair can be 3-4 or 4-5 or 5-6 or 6-7 (total 4). If the first pair is 2-3, the second pair can be 4-5 or 5-6 or 6-7 (total 3). If the first pair is 3-4, the second pair can be 5-6 or 6-7 (total 2). If the first pair is 4-5, the second pair can be 6-7 (total 1). We can get the required two pairs in 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 different ways. Case 4: When exactly three pairs of digits are misplaced: If in all six digits are misplaced, only one digit is in its correct position. If digits 2, 4 or 6 are in their correct positions, it is not possible to get three pairs of numbers that are getting misplaced. If digit 1 is in correct position, we can get the three pairs as 2-3, 4-5 and 6-7 (total 3). Similarly we will get 3 pairs each if digits 3 or 5 or 7 are in correct positions. Thus we will get 4 different numbers such that exactly six digits are misplaced. Therefore, the required number of new numbers = 1 + 6 + 10 + 4 = 21. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 21

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 % 3)

The hypnotist displayed an 8-digit number (with only one digit repeated exactly once) and said,”Donald,rearrange the digits of the number to create a number such that at most two digits of the number you have created (out of the eight) can be out of place. Say the number you have created aloud”. How many different numbers could Donald have said aloud if he followed the instructions of the hypnotist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Suppose seven digits of the number are 1-2-3-4-5-6-7 and the 8th(say 7) digit can be any one of these 7 placed next to any of the 7 digits. If no digit is out of place, the number is same as the number displayed on the screen. We cannot get exactly one digit out of the place. If exactly two digits are out of the place, we get the following three cases: Case 1: The two digits that are out of place do not include the repeated digit. In that case, the two digits that are out of place can be selected from the remaining digits in 6C 2 = 15 different ways. Case 2: The two digits that are out of place include the repeated digit one time. In that case, the second digit that is out of place can be any of the remaining 6 non-repeated digits. Therefore, the new number can be created in 2 × 6 = 12 different ways. Case 3: The two digits that are out of the place include the repeated digit two times. The repeated digits cannot be misplaced as in that case the new number will be same as the number displayed on the screen. Therefore, we can get 15 + 12 = 27 different numbers such that exactly two digits are misplaced. Therefore, the required answer = 1 + 27 = 28.

Correct Answer: 28

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 11 % 4) The hypnotist displayed the 8-digit number 12314356 on the screen and said, ”Donald, rearrange the digits of the number to create a number suchthat at most four digits in the number on the screen can be allowed to vary from their positions by upto one position in the number. Donald, say the number you have created aloud”. How many different numbers could Donald have said aloud if he followed the instructions of the hypnotist?

22 23 24 25 Video Explanation: Explanation: If the digits of the number are misplaced by one position, the consecutive digitsare swapping their positions. We have the following cases: Case 1: When no digit is misplaced In this case, there can be only one number 12314356. Case 2: When one pair of digits is misplaced In this case, there are 7 pairs of digits that can be misplaced. They are 1-2 or 2-3or 3-1 or 1-4 or 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6. The new number can be created in 7 different ways. Case 3: When two pairs of digits are misplaced We have the following cases: If the first pair is 1-2, the second pair can be 3-1 or 1-4 or 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6(total 5). If the first pair is 2-3, the second pair can be 1-4 or 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6 (total 4). If the first pair is 3-1, the second pair can be 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6 (total 3). If the first pair is 1-4, the second pair can be 3-5 or 5-6 (total 2). If the first pair is 4-3, the second pair can be 5-6 (total 1). Thus, we can get 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15 different numbers such that four digitsare misplaced. Therefore, the required number of new numbers = 1 + 7 + 15 = 23. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 23

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 19 %

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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Eight flowers, coded as F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6, F7 and F8, are planted in a garden in the shape of a circle (not necessarily in that order). The flowers are of different types – Rose, Lotus, Daffodil, Sunflower, Daisy, Calendula, Dahlia and Marigold, not necessarily in that order. The flowers are ranked in the descending order of their prices, rank 1 being the costliest, and no two flowers have the same price. The numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd. Further it is known that: I. The costliest flower is not opposite to the cheapest flower, which, in turn, isDaffodil. II. F1, Sunflower, is the fourth costliest and is planted opposite to the flower which isfourth cheapest and which is Marigold. III. Rose and Dahlia are adjacent to each other. IV. F2 is opposite to F3 and one of them is Calendula and the other is Lotus. V. Exactly one flower is planted between F5 and F1. The flower planted opposite to F5 is Rose. VI. F4 is planted to the immediate right of F1.The flower planted opposite to F4 is Daisy. VII. There is exactly one flower planted between F6 (which is the second cheapest flower) and the second costliest flower. 1) If F7 is adjacent to the Calendula, then Lotus is adjacent to F1 and F5 F1 and F7 F5 and F7 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

If F7 is adjacent to Calendula, then Lotus is adjacent to F1 and F5. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: F1 and F5

Time taken by you: 390 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 596 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 2) It is known that if the costliest and the cheapest flowers interchange their places,then the Lotus will be opposite to F7, then what must be the rank of F8? 1 2 3 5 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

Either F1 or F5 is opposite to F7. F1 is Sunflower of rank 4. F5 is cheapest flower of Daffodil. Daffodil interchanges place with the costliest flower. So, costliest flower has to be Lotus. As Lotus is opposite to F7, F7 must be Rose and F8 should be Marigold. Rank of Marigold is 5. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 113 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 3) If F7 is planted directly opposite to Sunflower, then F8 is 4th costliest 3rd costliest 5thcostliest Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

If F7 is planted directly opposite Sunflower, F7 is Marigold and F8 is Rose. Rose is the 3rd costliest flower. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 3rd costliest

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 57 % 4) Codes as well as ranks of how many flowers can be uniquely determined? 3 5 4 6 Video Explanation: Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

We know the following: F1 – Sunflower – Rank 4 F4 – Dahlia – Rank 6 F5 – Daffodil – Rank 8 F6 – Daisy – Rank 7 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 45 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Three couples (three males and three females) went together to Berlin for a vacation. Their names were A, B, C, D, E and F, in no particular order. Each of the six persons is carrying exactly one luggage bag. The weights of the luggage bags were W1 to W6 in no particular order such that W1 >W2 > W3 > W4 > W5 > W6. The heights of the luggage bags were H1 to H6 in no particular order such that H1 > H2 > H3 > H4 > H5 > H6. Further it is known that: 1. In exactly one of the three couples, the luggage bag with the female was heavier than that with the male . 2. The height of the luggage bag with C was H3. 3. The weight of the luggage bag with height H6 was W1.

4. E’s male partner is the only person having bag with less height than that of E’s bag. 5. For exactly one person, the height and weight of his/her luggage bag wereHj and Wj respectively. 6. The heights and weights of luggage bags of A and his female partner F were (Hm andWk) and (Hk and Wm) respectively. 7. The weight of the luggage bag with D was neither W5 nor W6. D, a female, was not the female partnerof B. 8. In points 5 and 6, the variables m, k and j can take values from 1 to 6. 1) For which of the following persons, the height and the weight of his/her luggagebag were Hj and Wj respectively (j can take values from 1 to 6)? B C E Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

From statement (6), the weights and the heights of the luggage bags with A and F must have been Hj and Wj (j = 2 and 4), not necessarily in that order. From statement (7), the weight of the luggage with D must have been W3. From statement (5), we can conclude that the person is E and therefore, the height and weight of the luggage bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, the weight of the luggage bag with C must have been W6. From statement (1), the weight of the luggage bag with A must have been W2 and that with F was W4.Hence, the height of the luggage bags with A and F must have been H4 and H2 respectively. The final arrangement can be tabulated as shown below:

The height and the weight of the bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: E

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 299 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 2) Which of the given persons has a luggage bag weighing W6? C A

E Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

From statement (6), the weights and the heights of the luggage bags with A and F must have beenHj and Wj (j = 2 and 4), not necessarily in that order. From statement (7), the weight of the luggage with D must have been W3. From statement (5), we can conclude that the person is E and therefore, the height and weight of the luggage bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, the weight of the luggage bag with C must have been W6. From statement (1), the weight of the luggage bag with A must have been W2 and that with F was W4.Hence, the height of the luggage bags with A and F must have been H4 and H2 respectively. The final arrangement can be tabulated as shown below:

C has a luggage bag weighing W6. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: C

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 % 3) Which of the given persons has a luggage bag having height H1? F D A Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

D has a luggage bag having height H1. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: D

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 % 4) What is the weight of the luggage bag with A? W6 W2 W4 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

The luggage bag with A has weight W2. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: W2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 14 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

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undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Total 6 teams, namely Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium, participated in Euro Cup Soccer Championship-2018. Each team played every other team twice in the tournament, once in its own country (called ‘home’ game) and once in the country of the opposite team (called ‘away’ game). All the games in the tournament were played at one of the following 6 venues: Munich (in Germany), Madrid (in Spain), Milan (in Italy), Paris (in France), Manchester (in England) and Brussels (in Belgium).

The following points are known about the tournament: 1. The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. 2. Germany lost to France at Munich. 3. France defeated Italy at Paris. 4. No match in the tournament ended in a draw. 1) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. France defeated England at Paris. b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels. c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester. d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. Which of the following teams given in the options won fewer total number ofgames (home + away) than the other teams given in the options? Germany France England Belgium Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Step 1: The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, Spain won all the home games while Italy lost all the home games. Also, if team A lost its home game against team B, that means team B won its away game against team A. We can develop the following table. (In the table,’1’ denotes victory while ‘0’ denotes defeat for a team. Also ‘G’ denotes Germany, ‘S’ denotes Spain, ‘I’ denotes Italy, ‘F’ denotes France, ‘E’ denotes England, ‘B’ denotes Belgium.)

Step 2: Germany lost to France in Munich (i.e. Germany lost its home game against France) and France defeated Italy at Paris (i.e. France won its home game against Italy). Also, out of the 5 home games, Germany won 4 and the only home game it lost was against France. We can now fill the table as follows:

We know the following: a. France defeated England at Paris (i.e France won its home game against England) b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels.(i.e. Belgium won its home game against Germany) c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester (i.e. England lost its home games against Italy and France) d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. (i.e. Belgium won its home game against Italy) Thus the table can be filled as follows:

It can be seen that Belgium won total 4 matches, England won total 5games, while both Germany and France won 6 games. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Belgium

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 341 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 2) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. France defeated England at Paris. b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels. c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester. d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. Which two teams won equal total number ofgames (home + away) in the tournament? Germany and France Belgium and England France and Spain No such two teams Video Explanation: Explanation:

It can be seen that both Germany and France won total 6 games. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Germany and France

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 3) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester. b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels. Results of how many games can be known? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

We also know: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester (i.e. England lost its home games against France and Belgium) b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels (i.e. Belgium won its home games against Germany and Spain) Now the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that the results of the games played by France at Paris cannot be determined: France vs. Germany, France vs. Spain, France vs. England, France vs. Belgium. Thus there are 4 such games. The results of the remaining 26 games can be determined. Therefore, the required answer is 26.

Correct Answer: Time taken by you:260 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 17 % 4) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester. b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels. Out of the away games played by Italy against Germany, Spain, France andEngland, how many games were won by Italy? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

It can be seen that Italy lost all the away games against Germany, Spain, France and England. Therefore, the required answer is 0.

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 %

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undefined The number of males and females in a town in 2017 was in the ratio 3 : 2. In 2018, both the male and female populations of the town increased such that the new ratio of the number of males and females in 2018 became 5 : 4. It is knownthat the male population increased by 20%. By what percentage did the total population of the town increase in 2018 over 2017? 9.6% 19.6% 20% 29.6%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 29.6%

Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 166 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined ‘p’ is a composite natural number that is less than 100. ‘p 2 – 4’ is the product oftwo prime numbers. Both the prime numbers are less than 100. How many such values of ‘p’ are possible?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: p2 – 4 = (p – 2) × (p + 2) If p2 – 4 is the product of two prime numbers, then (p – 2) and (p + 2) shouldbe prime numbers below 100.

There are 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100. They are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, and 97. Out of these, the values of p that satisfy our condition are 9, 15, 21, 39, 45, 69 and 81. Therefore, the required answer is 7.

Correct Answer: 7 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 11 %

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60° 30° 75° 15°

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30°

Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

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1 – log10099 1 –1 log10099 – 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –1

Time taken by you: 103 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined The cost price of product P is same as the selling price of product Q. If P is soldat Rs. 15 and the cost price of Q is Rs. 27, then the loss percentage on P is equal to the profit percentage on Q. What is the cost price (in Rs.) of product P? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 45 Time taken by you: 119 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 155 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

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Both of the above None of the above Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Both of the above Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Consider the quadratic equation x2 – (10m + 8)x + 25n = 0 where m and n are natural numbers. If the equation has real and equal roots, then how many solutions for (n, m) exist? 0 –1 1 Cannot be determined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: x2 – (10m + 8)x + 25n = 0 For the equation to have real and equal roots, b2 = 4ac Therefore, (10m + 8)2 = 4 × 25n 4(5m + 4)2 = 4 × 25n ? (5m + 4)2 = 52n ? 5m + 4 = 5n or –5n If m is a natural number 5m + 4 cannot be –5 n. Thus, no solution of (n, m) exist. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 159 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined A sequence of real numbers t0, t1, t2, t3 … is such that t0 = 2 and tn+1 + tn+1 × tn = tn for n > 0. The value of t999 is:

None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 230 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined A cone with height twice its base radius fits exactly inside a sphere. What is the ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cone? 125 : 48 125 : 32 125 : 64 125 : 27

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 125 : 32

Time taken by you: 77 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 %

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25 10 12 11

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 97 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined 100 ml of 45% concentrated alcohol solution is continuously heated. It is observed that after 10 minutes of heating, the concentration of alcohol in the solution increases to 60% due to evaporation of water alone. What is the rate (in ml/hour) at which

water is evaporating?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 150 Time taken by you: 46 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined The angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock at 03 :10 is half the angle made at time ______. 04 : 35 05 : 40 06 : 45 10 : 50

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: In 60 minutes, hour hand covers 30°. So in 10 minutes, it covers 5° and in 5 minutes, it moves 2.5°. At 3 : 10, the hour hand is 5° ahead of mark 3. As minute hand is at mark 2, the angle between the two 30 + 5 = 35°. At 4 : 35, the hour hand has covered (5 × 3 + 2.5) = 17.5° ahead of mark 4. Minute hand is at mark 7, As angle between 4 and 7 is 90°, the angle between the two 90 – 17.5 = 62.5°. At 5 : 40, the hour hand has covered (5 × 4) = 20° ahead of mark 5. Minute hand is at mark 8, as angle between 5 and 8 is 90°, the angle between the two 90 – 20 = 70°. At 6 : 45, the hour hand has covered (5 × 4 + 2.5) = 22.5° ahead of mark 6. Minute hand is at mark 9, As angle between 6 and 9 is 90°, the angle between the two 90 – 22.5 = 67.5°. At 10 : 50, minute hand is at mark 10 while hour hand is close to 11. So the angle between the two is less than 30°. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 05 : 40 Time taken by you: 116 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined A parallelogram has three of its vertices at (1, 2), (3, 8) and (4, 1). If the fourthvertex D lies in the fourth quadrant, then the x coordinate of D is:

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The average of ‘n’ consecutive integers is 22, where ‘p’ is the first of these integers. Which of the following cannot be the average of ‘3n’ consecutive integers that begin with ‘p’? (Assume that n > 1) 25 26 27 29

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since the average of ‘n’ consecutive integers is 22 (which is an integer), n is odd. Therefore, n can take values 3, 5, 7, …. We can create the following table.

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 172 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

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–2 2 –1 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J participate in a race in which only one person canwin. The probabilities that B, C, D, E … J win are

8, 27, 64, 125 … 1000 times respectively the probability that A wins. What is the probability that E wins the race?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

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80°

70° 60° None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 70° Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined The ratio of the length of the train Shramjeevi Express to the length of the platform AB is 2 : 5. The train enters the platform from the end A. If the train took 77 seconds to cross the platform completely, then how many moreseconds the rear end of the train would have taken to reach end B of the platform after the front end has reached B? 28 21 33 22

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 22

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

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0 1 2 More than 2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The number of points on the circle equals the number of spaces between thepoints around the circle. Moving from the point labelled (N – 7) to the point labelled (N – 44) requires moving (N – 7) – (N – 44) = 37 points and so 37 spaces around the circle.

Since the points labelled (N – 7) and (N – 44) are diametrically opposite, then moving along the circle from (N – 44) to (N – 7) results in travelling halfway around the circle. Therefore, N = 37 × 2 = 74.

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 74

Time taken by you: 389 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

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0 1 2 More than 2

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined Shyam bought 12 mangoes. He lost 3 mangoes in transit and sold the remaining mangoes at a price such that he gained an overall profit of 25%. By what percentage was the selling price of a mango more than its cost price?

None of these

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 124 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Mohan has to distribute 57 identical chocolates among 10 identical boxes such that each box has a distinct number of chocolates (at least 1). In how many ways can this distribution be done? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us first distribute 1, 2, 3, …, 9 and 10 chocolates in those 10 individual boxes. This amounts to total 55 chocolates. That means only 2 chocolates remain to be distributed.

Both these 2 chocolates can either be put in the box with 9 chocolates (1, 2, 3 … 8, 11, 10), the box with 10 chocolates (1, 2, 3 … 8, 9, 12) or one chocolate each in boxes with 9 and 10 chocolates (1, 2, 3 … 8, 10, 11).

But notice that the first and third case would result the same way of distributions. Therefore, the total number of possibilities will be 2.

Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 17 %

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1: 12

1: 9 1: 8 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 : 12 Time taken by you: 186 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined Durgesh can do a piece of work in 12 days whereas Murugesh can do 50% of the same work in 10 days. The same piece of work was completed by Durgesh and Murugesh in 11 days as follows: Initially both of them together started the work and worked together for 5 days. For the remaining days, Murugesh worked alone for a few days and then Durgesh completed the remaining work alone. For how many days did Murugesh work alone?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 Time taken by you: 150 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined Bag A contains balls that are numbered 1, bag B contains balls that are numbered 2 and bag C contains balls that are numbered 3. Preetam is required to take at least one ball from each bag such that the total sum of all the numbers on the balls drawn doesn’t exceed 100. Assume following cases: A : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag A and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. B : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag B and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. C : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag C and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. What is the sum total of the number of balls drawn from bag A in case A, bag B in case B and bag C in case C? 173 174 175 176

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 132

Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let a, b and c bethe number of balls drawn from bag A, bag B and bag C respectively.

Therefore, a + 2b + 3c < 100. Case A: Maximum value of ‘a’ will be when ‘b’ and ‘c’ are minimized to 1. The corresponding value of a = 95. Case B: Maximum value of ‘b’ will be when ‘a’ and ‘c’ are minimized to 1. The corresponding value of b = 48. Case C: Maximum value of ‘c’ will be when ‘a’ and ‘b’ are minimized to 1. The corresponding value of c = 32. [Note that for sum of numbers to be 100, one more ball from bag A must have drawn.] Therefore, the required answer = 95 + 48 + 32 = 175 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 175 Time taken by you: 133 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined undefined Two sides of an isosceles triangle have lengths 18 units and 41 units. What will be the area (in sq. units) of the triangle formed by joining the midpoints of all the sides? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 25 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 %

Mahesh has a bottle full of pineapple juice. He pours half the contents of the bottle into an empty can, fills the bottle completely with water, and mixes thoroughly. He then repeats this process 27 more times. Afterwards, he pours the contents of the bottle into the can. What is the ratio of the volumes of pineapple juice and water in the can, if capacity of the bottle is 4 litres? 1 : 13 1 : 14 1 : 15 1 : 16

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 : 14

Time taken by you: 295 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

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1: 2 1: 4 2: 5 1: 8 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1:4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined Sohan distributed equal number of coins among his three children A, B and C. It is known that A, B and C have four, five and eight children respectively. A distributed his share of coins equally among his children. The same was done by B and C. What could be the minimum possible number of coins distributed by Sohan? 144 108 96 120

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that A, B and C have four, five and eight children respectively. Also, A, B and C received same number of coins from Sohan. Therefore, to minimize the number of coins distributed by Sohan, the number of coins with each of A, B, and C must be LCM of 4, 5 and 8, i.e., 40. Therefore, minimum possible number of coins distributed by Sohan is 40 × 3 = 120. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 120

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 95 %

undefined The volume of water in a glass is two-fifth of the capacity of the glass.If 'V' litres of water is added to the glass, the volume of water in the glass will be 5 litres less than three-fifth of the capacity of the glass. Which of the following relations correctly represents the capacity (in litres) of glass? (2V + 25) (V + 25) (5V – 155) (5V + 25) Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (5V + 25) Time taken by you: 26 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 %

undefined In a class of 60 students, the average age of the 25 girls is 12 yearsand that of the boys is 18 years. Three of the students aged 18, 19 and 20 years leave the class and are replaced by 4 students of ages 10, 11, 10 and 11 years. Find the change in the average age of the class.

0.167 years 0.25 years 1.2 years 0.5 years

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0.5 years

Time taken by you: 58 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined There is an infinite supply of red, blue, orange and green marbles. The number of ways in which 2001 marbles can be arranged in a line such that no red marble is adjacent to a blue marble and no orange marble is adjacent to a green marble is 6 × 42001 4 × 32000 2 × 32001 3 × 42000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If the first marble is red, the next marble can be red, green or orange. If the first marble is green, the next marble can be red, blue or green. If the first marble is blue, the next can be green, orange or blue. If first marble is orange, the next one can be red, blue or orange. Thus, there are 4 choices for the first marble. After that, there are 3 choices for each of the remaining 2000 marbles. Therefore, the total number of ways = 4 × 32000

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 4 × 32000

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined The lengths of the inradius and base of an isosceles triangle are 6 cm and 16 cm respectively. Find the perimeter of the triangle.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Around 13,000 years ago North America had a more diverse mammal community than modern-day Africa. There were multiple horse species, camels, llamas and a now-extinct animal called Glyptodon, which looked something like a Volkswagen bug–size armadillo. Smilodon, a saber-toothed cat around the size of today’s African lion, skulked across the grasslands in search of ground sloths and mammoths. Seven-foot-long giant otters chowed down on massive trees. And such massive creatures were not just found in North America. On every continent mammals on average were a lot larger in the late Pleistocene, the geologic epoch spanning from around 2.5 million until about 11,700 years ago.

Scientists have long debated what caused all these large-bodied critters to go extinct while many of their smaller counterparts survived. A team of researchers led by University of New Mexico biologist Felisa Smith analyzed evidence from millions of years’ worth of mammalian extinctions and found that on each continent large mammals started to die out around the same time humans first showed up.

If the extinction trend continues apace, modern elephants, rhinos, giraffes, hippos, bison, tigers and many more large mammals will soon disappear as well, as the primary threats from humans have expanded from overhunting, poaching or other types of killing to include indirect processes such as habitat loss and fragmentation. The largest terrestrial mammal 200 years from now could well be the domestic cow, Smith’s research suggests. Some scientists lay the blame squarely on humanity’s shoulders, arguing overhunting doomed the planet's megafauna. After our hominid relative Homo erectus fanned out from Africa into Eurasia starting some two million years ago, Homo sapiens followed around 60,000 to 80,000 years ago and became widespread in Eurasia, joining our close cousins, the Neandertals and Denisovans. It is thought Homo sapiens later reached Australia between 50,000 and 60,000 years ago and finally settled the Americas between 13,000 and 15,000 years ago. In the time line of mammalian extinctions, large animals started to disappear only after humans or their hominid cousins showed up. But could that be a coincidence? Others have argued the main culprit behind these die-offs was the changing climate.

In North America the average mammal weighed around 98 kilograms before the ancestors of humans showed up. Today the average size is closer to eight kilograms. “We’ve lopped a couple orders of magnitude off the distribution of mammals’ [body sizes],” Smith says. For most of mammalian evolutionary history, an animal’ s size was not predictive of its extinction risk. That link only appeared once hominids began to live alongside large mammals. This finding does not mean climate-related changes could not have stressed some wildlife populations, enabling humans to more easily bring about their eventual downfall. Rather it suggests the greater likelihood of large-bodied mammals going extinct is tied to human activities. A suite of animals that evolved in Eurasia, Australia and the Americas without the risk of predation from tool-using, fire-making, group-living hominids were suddenly faced with a new threat. They simply could not adapt fast enough to survive the incursion of these omnivorous bipedal apes. In addition, Smith’s analysis looked at the size distribution of African mammals prior to the hominid migration into Eurasia. She found African mammals were also smaller on average once hominids began appearing on the landscape there—and they evolved right alongside one another. “They have evidence that hominids in Africa had already been impacting the size distribution of mammals on that continent before Homo sapiens evolved,” says paleoecologist Emily Lindsey, assistant curator and excavation site director of the La Brea Tar Pits Museum in Los Angeles, who was not involved in the study. What that means, she says, is “these groups of hominid species were having impacts on a continental scale before the evolution of modern humans.” And it does not take all that many hominids to have such broad effects. Driving a large species to extinction does not mean killing every last one of its members. “You just have to kill slightly more than are being produced each year,” Lindsey says. If a population's reproduction rate cannot compensate for its losses each year, within a few hundred to a couple thousand years the species will simply die out. Large-bodied mammals are especially vulnerable because they reproduce slowly. Mammoths and mastodons, for example, likely had a two-year gestation period, akin to modern elephants, and would have typically produced just one offspring at a time. It is therefore a lot easier to decimate a population of 100,000 mammoths than a population of 100,000 rabbits, which reproduce twice a year and birth by litter. 1) The central idea of the passage is that … Humans and other hominids have historically driven large animals to extinction but it is high time we start thinking about minimizing our impact on the Earth.

Human evolution and progress is replete with killing of large animals accelerating their extinction. Humans and other hominids accelerated the extinction of large species in the past and human activities are driving modern large mammals to extinction as well. Human activities combined with failure of large mammals to adapt to the changing climate led to their eventual downfall in the Pleistocene. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The passage starts by claiming that“On every continent mammals on average were a lot larger in the late Pleistocene …” The second paragraph ties the cause of extinction of these large mammals to human evolution by stating that “large mammals started to die out around the same time as humans first showed up.” The next paragraph states that if this extinction trend continues, then modern large mammals will also disappear, and the domestic cow may be the largest mammal alive 200 years from now. The author then explores in detail the link between human activities and the extinction of large species. Later, the passage states that “Large-bodied mammals are especially vulnerable [to extinction] because they reproduce slowly.” Thus, the main idea of the passage is that among other reasons human activities accelerate the extinction of large mammals even today. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest whether we must start thinking about minimizing our impact on Earth. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. This option is an exaggeration, we cannot conclude from the passage whether humans or their ancestors deliberately killed huge number of large mammals. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. This option correctly covers one of the themes of the passage that human activities led to the extinction of large mammals in the late Pleistocene. But it fails to mention the other major point of the passage that human activities are driving modern large mammals to extinct as well. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. This option covers the idea that human and other hominids were primarily responsible for extinction of large species in the past, and that humans may be driving modern large mammals to extinction through their activities. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Humans and other hominids accelerated the extinction of large species in the past and human activities are driving modern large mammals to extinction as well.

Time taken by you: 363 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 243 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a risk to the existenceof modern large mammals? The emergence of discontinuities in the environment of these animals. The destruction of the environment inhabited by these animals. Human activities coupled with the slow reproductive rate and longer gestation period of these mammals. The growing demand for meat due to human population explosion and overconsumption. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states“If the extinction trend continues apace, modern elephants, rhinos, giraffes, hippos, bison, tigers and many more large mammals will soon disappear as well, as the primary threats from humans have expanded from overhunting, poaching or other types of killing to include indirect processes such as habitat loss and fragmentation.” The discontinuities in the environment of large mammals mean habitat fragmentation of large mammals. It is an extinction risk for modern large mammals according to the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The destruction of the environment inhabited by large mammals amounts to habitat loss mentioned in paragraph 2. Thus, it is an extinction risk and we can eliminate the option. Option 3 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “Large-bodied mammals are especially vulnerable because they reproduce slowly.” Thus, we can conclude that large mammals are at a greater risk of extinction due to human activities since they have a slower reproductive rate and longer gestation period. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage contains no reference to the growing demand for meat and overpopulation of humans; also, large mammals are generally killed not for meat but for other commercial purposes. Also, even if they are killed for meat we have no data from the passage to conclude if they are being killed more than are being produced each year. So, option 4 is not advanced as an extinction risk to modern mammals. The correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: The growing demand for meat due to human population explosion and overconsumption.

Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 3) Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? The extinction of a majority of large mammals in Australia between50,000 to 60,000 years ago was the first significant impact that Homo sapiens had on a continental scale. Modern humans settled in the Americas in the late Pleistocene. An animal’s size cannot be linked to its extinction risk. Changing climate is the main reason behind extinction of large species. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The information in paragraph 4 is inadequate to infer that the arrival of Homo sapiens in Australia between 50000 to 60000 years ago was the“first” significant impact that Homo sapiens had. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 states that the extinction risk of an animal does relate to its size after the hominids began to live alongside large mammals. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author states in paragraphs 5 and 6 that generally the size of the animal is not linked to its extinction risk, but the link appeared after hominids began to live alongside large mammals. And, though there could have been climate related reasons for their extinction, there is “the greater likelihood of large-bodied mammals going extinct (because of) human activities.” Thus, we can infer that human activities were the primary reason for extinction while climate change only aided that process. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 4 states that “It is thought Homo sapiens later reached Australia between 50,000 and 60,000 years ago and finally settled the Americas between 13,000 and 15,000 years ago.” Also, paragraph 1 states that Pleistocene was the geological epoch spanning from around 2.5 million until 11,700 years ago. Thus, we can conclude that modern humans settle in the Americas in the late Pleistocene. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Modern humans settled in the Americas in the late Pleistocene.

Time taken by you: 167 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 4) Which of the following best sums up the findings of the study led by biologist Felisa Smith? Climate change aided by human activities was responsible for driving the extinction of large mammals. Climate-related changes could not have stressed wildlife populations, rather human activities are to be squarely blamed for their eventual downfall. Hominids were extremely proficient predators. Large animals faced greater extinction risk after humans or hominids started living alongside them. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The 6th paragraph states that human activities were primarily responsible for the extinction of large mammals and climate-change may have aided this extinction, not the other way round. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. We see in the6th paragraph that the author does not deny the role of climate change in the extinction of large mammals. He states climate change could have stressed the large mammalian populations. Hence, eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the question asked. The findings were not that hominids were extremely proficient predators but that the link between extinction-risk of animals and their size appeared only after hominids began living alongside them. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 5 states that“For most of mammalian evolutionary history, an animal’ s size was not predictive of its extinction risk. That link only appeared once hominids began to live alongside large mammals.” Thus, option 4 correctly sums up the findings of the team of researchers led by biologist Felisa Smith and is the correct answer. Thus the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Large animals faced greater extinction risk after humans or hominids started living alongside them.

Time taken by you: 90 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 5) All of the following statements about hominids are true EXCEPT: They fed only on food of animal origin. They tended to associate in social and cooperative groups. They could start and maintain fire. They walked on two feet. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 2 is incorrect. The third last paragraph describes hominids as“tool-using, fire-making, group living”. Thus, groupliving implies that hominids tended to live in social groups and cooperated with each other. This option is not an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “fire-making” suggests that hominids could start and maintain fire. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The 6th paragraph describes hominids as “omnivorous bipedal apes”. The word ‘bipedal’ means “twofooted”. So, eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. The word omnivorous means: feeding on both animal and vegetable substances. “Omnivorous” is used to describe hominids; hence, option 1 is contrary to the passage. Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: They fed only on food of animal origin.

Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 6) Large mammals could not survive the incursion of hominids because… Hominids killed every last one of the members of these large species. Hominids caused the death of more Pleistocene megafauna than it could reproduce. Hominids adapted fast enough to get a survival advantage over these mammals. Hominids impacted the size distribution of mammals on a continental scale. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The second last paragraph states“Driving a large species to extinction does not mean killing every last one of its members,” implying that such mass killing did not take place. Thus we can eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage makes no reference to ability of hominids to adapt fast and get a survival advantage. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant to the question. Even though hominids impacted the size distribution of mammals, it is not the reason why large mammals could not survive the incursion of hominids. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 6 states, “They (the large mammals) simply could not adapt fast enough to survive the incursion of these omnivorous bipedal apes.” Also, the 7th paragraph explains further that “If a population's reproduction rate cannot compensate for its losses each year, within a few hundred to a couple thousand years the species will simply die out.” Thus, we can conclude that hominids caused the death of more individuals of large mammals than those mammals could reproduce. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Hominids caused the death of more Pleistocene megafauna than it could reproduce.

Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. It was, quite literally, a dark and stormy night. The volcanic eruption of MountTambora in faraway Indonesia had plunged Europe beneath unceasing cloud; 1816 was known as “the year without a summer”. Rain was falling on the shore of Lake Geneva as, on an evening in mid-June, five young people gathered in a swanky villa for a ghost-story competition. The host was Lord Byron, at 28 already a jaded superstar. With him was John Polidori, a doctor of 20. They were joined by Percy

Bysshe Shelley, a 23 year old poet; his girlfriend Mary Godwin; and Mary’s stepsister Claire Claremont, also 18.

The contest yielded two ideas that became gothic classics. One was Polidori’s“The Vampyre”, originally intended as a queasy satire on Byron and the bloodsucking nature of celebrity. The other, infinitely more famous outcome was Mary’s tale of a scientist who confects a humanoid out of body parts. In the following weeks her story grew into “Frankenstein”, which was first published two centuries ago, in 1818. Few novels have had such mythical beginnings, and few have themselves achieved the status of myths, as“Frankenstein” has. It was the founding text of modern science fiction. Each generation of its readers finds new allegories for the anxieties and ambitions of what they take for modernity; the monster each sees is a reflection of themselves. Yet at the heart of the story, as of Mary’s biography, were primeval sadnesses and fears. Mary Shelley (as she soon became) was born into the radical aristocracy of her day. Writing her imaginary story of a being jolted to life by Victor Frankenstein, Mary drew on the cutting-edge science of her time, including galvanism and electricity. She formulated her plot as modern science itself was in its birth-throes. In the year of the novel’s publication an experiment was conducted in which electrical currents were passed through a corpse in a failed attempt at reanimation. The cadaver convulsed; its fingers twitched. But it remained resolutely dead—unlike Frankenstein’s monster: “With an anxiety that almost amounted to agony, I collected the instruments of life around me, that I might infuse a spark of being into the lifeless thing that lay at my feet…by the glimmer of the half-extinguished light, I saw the dull yellow eye of the creature open; it breathed hard, and a convulsive motion agitated its limbs.” For all the historical specificity of these references, the novel’s qualms about the underside of progress have never resonated more than in the 21st century. The issues raised by artificial life are no longer hypothetical. Genetic modification and robotics, current attitudes among scientists to techniques commonly known as “playing God” have made them urgent. Over the centuries the monster has been enlisted as an avatar for other sorts of change. Just as Frankenstein loses control of his creation, Mary’s story has travelled around the world, metastasising in ways she could not have imagined. It is celebrated in the form of books, plays and films. Mary’s monster, though, is not confined to page, stage and screen. Every time children stick out their arms and affect a ghoulish plod, he lives again. He has entered the English language as a byword for hubris and unintended consequences. Those coming to the original for the first time, expecting the sort of B-movie schlock horror it has inspired, may be surprised by its knotty, highbrow prose. Mary was a disciple of her philosopher father and, for all the science, the novel’s primary concern is ethics. That description of the monster’s birth, which became the primal scene in all the films, is actually fairly cursory. Her underlying aim was to explore the idea—derived from John Locke—of the newborn as a tabula rasa, whose character is determined by experience rather than innate qualities. It is because the creature is scorned, and deprived of a moral framework, that he becomes monstrous and seeks a gruesome revenge. “I was benevolent and good,” he pathetically tells Frankenstein; “misery made me a friend. Make me happy, and I shall again be virtuous.” The common error of thinking Frankenstein the name of the monster, rather than of his maker, can be traced not just to his namelessness in the novel but to the fact that, in the cast-list for the first stage blockbuster, the part was called simply “----”. The conflation, though, is more than a mistake. It captures the symbiosis of the two figures—the mutual cruelties of wayward offspring and remiss parent—and an eternal truth about neglect and its sequel. 1) In the context of the passage, what is implicit when children, during play,“stick out their arms and affect a ghoulish plod”? The grim associations, in the minds of people who may not even haveread Frankenstein, between pride and its downfall. The mythical status of Mary’s monster as a figure of horror that has caught the popular imagination. The association of pride and arrogance with a dangerous tendency to generate hate and violence. The unexpected spread of Mary Shelley’s story as something evoking fear rather than something that arouses philosophical debate. 2) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage, regarding JohnPolidori’s “The Vampyre”? It was not successful in showing that Byron’s ennui was a product of hisown desire for fame at the cost of his peace of mind.

It created a new type of creature in the world of ghost stories but was notas popular as Frankenstein It emerged as a genre by itself as it spawned countless other storiesabout creatures that drank blood. The initial intention of John Polidori was not to inspire horror even though he wrote a ghost story. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer does not comment on how “successful” The Vampyre was at any criteria. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. While the passage does state that Frankenstein was a more famous book than The Vampyre, we cannot infer from the passage that “It created a new type of creature in the world of ghost stories”. There is just one reference to the book and not enough information to proceed on. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The Vampyre is mentioned only in passing. The passage makes one point about it when it refers to the intentions of the author while writing the book. We cannot therefore infer from the passage that it “emerged as a genre by itself”. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The second paragraph states: “The contest yielded two ideas that became gothic classics. One was Polidori’s “The Vampyre”, originally intended as a queasy satire on Byron and the bloodsucking nature of celebrity”. Thus one can infer that the intention of Polidori while writing the book, was to satirise celebrity as something that was bloodsucking, figuratively, ruthless and inhumane. The passage reveals that while both he and Mary Shelley wrote ghost stories, Polidori’s intention originally was not so much to inspire horror through the story but to mock celebrity by painting a queasy or nauseating look at its “bloodsucking nature”. Retain option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: The initial intention of John Polidori was not to inspire horror even though he wrote a ghost story. Time taken by you: 143 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3)According to the passage, Mary Shelley’s book Frankenstein, is: Highbrow and hard to comprehend because of its philosophical perspective onthe ethics of scientific progress. Considerably popular because of its populist appeal to the sensational horror it inspires. Surprisingly intellectual considering the kind of lowbrow fame it has acquired through films based on it. A difficult book to read for those who have formulated an opinion of the story byviewing films based on it. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage refers to the book as one having “knotty, highbrow prose”. It does not state anywhere that “its philosophical perspective on the ethics of scientific progress” is what makes it difficult to comprehend. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The book is said to be “knotty” or difficult to read. It cannot then be said to be a populist or commonly appealing work. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. The writer states that: “Those coming to the original for the first time, expecting the sort of B-movie schlock horror it has inspired, may be surprised by its knotty, highbrow prose”. In other words, her book is surprisingly intellectual for people who have associated Frankenstein with the “B-movies” based on the book. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect as it derives a false conclusion from the given facts in the passage. The book is said to be“surprisingly complex” in comparison with the films derived from it. That does not mean that it is difficult, specifically, for those who have seen the films based on it. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Surprisingly intellectual considering the kind of lowbrow fame it has acquired through films based on it. Time taken by you: 58 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 23 % 4) According to the passage, “common error of thinking Frankenstein the name ofthe monster rather than of his maker is more than a mistake” for the following reasons EXCEPT: It signifies the intimate association of the novel’s author and its protagonist.

It signifies the intimate association of the monster and its creator. It signifies the unity of the two characters in the novel. It stands for the eternal truth about neglect and its consequences. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The last paragraph of the passage states, “The common error of thinking Frankenstein the name of the monster, rather than of his maker, can be traced not just to his namelessness in the novel but to the fact that, in the cast-list for the first stage blockbuster, the part was called simply “----”. The conflation, though, is more than a mistake. It captures the symbiosis of the two figures—the mutual cruelties of wayward offspring and remiss parent—and an eternal truth about neglect and its sequel.” The author of the essay suggests that the conflation somehow helped signify the subtle ethical issue on the novel. In the readers’, the nameless monster came to be known by its creator’s name as Frankenstein. The essayist suggests that the symbolism of the novel unifies the characters in the theme of neglect and its sequel, or the relation between and irresponsible child and the inefficient and careless parent. Option 1 is correct. The nameless monster had no association with the writer of the novel but only with its own creator, Victor Frankenstein. The novel does not highlight this aspect. Hence option 1 is the exception that will answer this question. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. As stated in the last paragraph, it signifies the symbiosis or the intimate association between the monster and its creator. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The creator of the monster Victor Frankenstein and the nameless monster are two main characters in the novel. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. As the last line of the passage suggests, the two characters in the novel symbolize the truth about neglect and its consequences. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: It signifies the intimate association of the novel’s author and its protagonist.

Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 % 5) The passage does NOT attribute which of the following motifs (themes)to thenovel Frankenstein? Monsters are not born monsters. Science can go too far. Actions have consequences. Bloodsucking nature of celebrity. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Though they are not analyzed in detail the passage, it hints at several motifs (themes) that are pursued in Mary Shelley ’s novel. The question asks us to find a theme that is not pursued. So we know that three of the given options are themes mentioned in the passage. Option is incorrect. It is a theme pursed in the novel. The penultimate paragraph states,“Mary Shelley’s underlying aim was to explore the idea—derived from John Locke—of the newborn as a tabula rasa, whose character is determined by experience rather than innate qualities.” Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The sixth paragraph states, “For all the historical specificity of these references, the novel’s qualms about the underside of progress have never resonated more than in the 21st century. The issues raised by artificial life are no longer hypothetical. Genetic modification and robotics, current attitudes among scientists to techniques commonly known as “playing God” have made them urgent.”Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The seventh paragraph states that the word Frankenstein has entered the English language as a byword for hubris and unintended consequences. Further the last paragraph also states that the novel is about the eternal truth about neglect and its consequences. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The theme of bloodsucking nature of celebrity is mentioned as the theme of Polidori ’s “The Vampyre”, and not Frankenstein. Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Bloodsucking nature of celebrity.

Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 6) It can be inferred from the passage that… Frankenstein was a collaborative effort between Mary Shelley and her futurehusband Percy Bysshe Shelley. Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein is the first Gothic novel in literature. In 1818, when Frankenstein was published it became the first science fiction novel. The story of Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein is largely auto biographical. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The first paragraph mentions Percy Bysshe Shelley as one of the five young people who gathered in a villa on Lake Geneva for a ghost-story competition. No collaborative effort is mentioned or implied. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions that the contest yielded two ideas that became gothic classics. There is no information in the passage from which it is possible to infer that Frankenstein was the first Gothic novel. In fact, historically there were Gothic novels before Frankenstein. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The third paragraph mentions that Frankenstein “was the founding text of modern science fiction.” So, the inference that it was science fiction novel is correct. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Though the passage mentions the influence of her philosopher father on Mary Shelley, and“at the heart of the story (like her biography) were primeval sadness and fears,” we cannot conclude that the novel itself was autobiographical. Primeval sadness and fears are not personal sadness or fears. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: In 1818, when Frankenstein was published it became the first science fictionnovel.

Time taken by you: 134 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. It’s always a welcome thing to learn that ideas that are commonplace in science fiction have a basis in science fact. One such fictional concept, “the warp drive” – alternately known as FTL (Faster-Than-Light) travel, Hyperspace, Lightspeed, etc. – actually has one foot in the world of real science. In physics, it is what is known as the Alcubierre Warp Drive. On paper, it is a highly speculative, but possibly valid solution of the Einstein field equations, specifically how space, time and energy interact.

Since Einstein first proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905, scientists have been operating under the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe. One of these restrictions is the belief that the speed of light is unbreakable and hence, that there will never be such a thing as FTL space travel or exploration. But then, in 1994, a Mexican physicist by the name of Miguel Alcubierre came along with proposed method for stretching the fabric of space-time in way which would, in theory, allow FTL travel to take pace. To put it simply, this method of space travel involves stretching the fabric of space-time in a wave which would (in theory) cause the space ahead of an object to contract while the space behind it would expand. An object inside this wave (i.e. a spaceship) would then be able to ride this region, known as a “warp bubble” of flat space. This is what is known as the “Alcubierre Metric”. Interpreted in the context of General Relativity, the metric allows a warp bubble to appear in a previously flat region of spacetime and move away, effectively at speeds that exceed the speed of light. The interior of the bubble is the inertial reference frame for any object inhabiting it. The mathematical formulation of the Alcubierre metric is consistent with the conventional claims of the laws of relativity and conventionalrelativisticeffects. Since the ship is not moving within this bubble, but is being carried along as the region itself moves, the laws of relativity would not be violated in the conventional sense. One of the reasons for this is because this method would not rely on moving faster than light in the local sense, since a light beam within this bubble would still always move faster than the ship. It is only “faster than light” in the sense that the ship could reach its destination faster than a beam of light that was traveling outside the warp bubble. However, there are few problems with this theory. For one, there are no known methods to create such a warp bubble in a region of space that would not already contain one. Second, assuming there was a way to create such a bubble, there is not yet any known way of leaving once inside it. As a result, the Alcubierre drive (or metric) remains in the category of theory at this time. In 2012, NASA’s Advanced Propulsion Physics Laboratory (aka.Eagleworks) announced that they had begun conducting experiments to see if a “warp drive” was in fact possible. This included developing an interferometer to detect the spatial distortions produced by the expanding and contracting space-time of the Alcubierre metric.

The team lead – Dr. Harold Sonny White – described their work in a NASA paper titled Warp Field Mechanics 101. He also explained their work in NASA’s 2012 Roundup publication: “We’ve initiated an interferometer test bed in this lab, where we’re going to go through and try and generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble. And although this is just a microscopic instance of the phenomena, we’re perturbing space time, one part in 10 million, a very tiny amount… The math would allow you to go to Alpha Centauri in two weeks as measured by clocks here on Earth. So somebody’s clock onboard the spacecraft has the same rate of time as somebody in mission control here in Houston might have. There are no tidal forces, no undue issues, and the proper acceleration is zero. When you turn the field on, everybody doesn’t go slamming against the bulkhead, (which) would be a very short and sad trip.”In 2013, Dr. White and members of Eagleworks published their results, which were deemed to be inconclusive. When it comes to the future of space exploration, some questions like“how long will it take us to get the nearest star?” seem rather troubling when we don’t make allowances for some kind of hypervelocity or faster-than-light transit method. How can we expect to become an interstellar species when all available methods will either take centuries (or longer), or will involve sending a nanocraft instead? At present, such a thing just doesn’t seem to be entirely within the realm of possibility. And attempts to prove otherwise remain inconclusive. But as history has taught us, what is considered to be impossible changes over time. Until then, we’ll just have to be patient and wait on future research. 1) Which of the following best describes the 2012 experiment of Eagleworks? They attempted to create a wave that would slightly distort spacetime andthen to detect the wave using investigative tools. They attempted to create conditions in which there would be no tidalforces, no undue issues, and the proper acceleration would be zero. They attempted to create a microscopic instance of a spacecraft whichwould not send the occupants slamming against the bulkhead. They attempted to make a microscopic spacecraft to go to Alpha Centauriin two weeks time as measured by clocks on Earth but the attempt was inconclusive. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. In paragraph 8, the passage quotes NASA’s 2012 Roundup publication as “We’ve initiated an interferometer test bed in this lab, where we’re going to go through and try and generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble.” Thus, we can infer that the team attempted to create a warp bubble and to detect that bubble using an interferometer (which can be said to be an investigative tool). Also, paragraph 3 states that “This method of space travel involves stretching the fabric of space-time in a wave which would (in theory) cause the space ahead of an object to contract while the space behind it would expand. An object inside this wave (i.e. a spaceship) would then be able to ride this region, known as a “warp bubble” of flat space.” Thus, we can infer that a warp bubble can be obtained by creating a wave that would distort spacetime. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. As seen in paragraph 8, “no tidal forces, no undue issues, and the proper acceleration is zero” are the just conditions necessary for the experiment to be successful, they do not sum up the research done by the NASA team. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 8 states that the NASA team attempted to create a microscopic instance of a warp bubble, not of a spacecraft. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, paragraph 8 states that the NASA team attempted to created a microscopic warp bubble not a spacecraft. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: They attempted to create a wave that would slightly distort spacetime andthen to detect the wave using investigative tools.

Time taken by you: 340 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) Which of the following statements holds true for Alcubierre Warp drive? It is inspired from ideas in science fiction. It can overcome the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe. It is possibly a valid solution of the Einstein field equations, which may, infuture, allow an object to travel at speeds that exceed the speed of light. It would require expanding and contracting space around an object. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that “the fictional concept [of] warp drive […] actually has one foot in the world of real science. In physics, it is what is known as the Alcubierre Warp Drive.” We cannot infer whether the concept in physics is inspired from ideas in science fiction. Thus we can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states that “Since Einstein first proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905, scientists have been operating under the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe.” Also, paragraph 4 states that, “[In Alcubierre metric] Since the ship is not moving within this bubble, but is being carried along as the region itself moves, the laws of relativity would not be violated in the conventional sense.” Thus, we can infer that Alcubierre metric would work under the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states that “… the metric allows a warp bubble to […] move away, effectively at speeds that exceed the speed of light.” Thus, we can conclude that the warp bubble and not an object would move at speeds greater than the speed of light. Also, if an object moves at speeds greater than speed of light, then it would violate Einstein’s laws of relativity. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 3 states that “… this method of space travel involves stretching the fabric of space-time in a wave which would (in theory) cause the space ahead of an object to contract while the space behind it would expand.” Thus, we can conclude that creating an Alcubierre warp drive requires expanding and contracting space around an object. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: It would require expanding and contracting space around an object. Time taken by you: 96 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) It can be inferred from the passage that the interferometer developed by NASAEagleworks team would … measure speeds greater than the speed of light. identify even minute disturbances in spacetime. generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble. maintain somebody’s clock onboard the spacecraft at the same rate oftime as somebody in mission control in Houston might have. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 7 clearly states that the NASA team developed an interferometer to detect spatial distortions. There is no mention of any relation between interferometer and measuring speed of light. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 7 states,“This included developing an interferometer to detect the spatial distortions …” Also, paragraph 8 states that “We’ve initiated an interferometer test bed in this lab, where we’re going to go through and try and generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble.” Thus, we can conclude that the interferometer would be able detect minute disturbances in space time. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. From paragraphs 7 & 8 we can infer that the interferometer would detect the microscopic instance of a little warp bubble generated on an interferometer test bed. Thus, the interferometer itself does not generate a microscopic warp bubble. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. “[To] maintain somebody’s clock onboard the spacecraft at the same rate of time as somebody in mission control in Houston might have” is a procedure to be followed during the experiment. It is not an activity done by the interferometer. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: identify even minute disturbances in spacetime.

Time taken by you: 67 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 4) All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT: Speed of light is unbreakable. Alcubierre metric is consistent with Einstein’s equations. Sending a nanocraft into space is a more viable solution than sending a spacecraft, which will take centuries or longer. FTL travel remains a hypothesis, since experimental verifications haveproved inconclusive. 5) Alcubierre metric remains in the category of theory because It is proven only mathematically. Survivability inside the warp bubble is questionable. The amount of energy required to warp spacetime is currently unattainable. An object inside the warp bubble will not experience time since the bubblewould effectively travel at speeds greater than the speed of light. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 4 states that“The mathematical formulation of the Alcubierre metric is consistent with the conventional claims of the laws of relativity and conventionalrelativisticeffects.” Also, paragraph 6 lists some problems with the Alcubierre metric and states that “As a result, the Alcubierre drive (or metric) remains in the category of theory at this time.” Further, paragraph 8 states that experiment to prove the Alcubierre metric“was deemed inconclusive”. Thus, we can conclude that Alcubierre metric remains in the category of theory since it is proven only mathematically. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 6 mentions that “…there is not yet any known way of leaving once inside it.” But, the passage does not speculate on the survivability inside the warp bubble. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not speculate on the amount of energy required to warp spacetime. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not speculate on the time experienced by an object inside the warp bubble. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: It is proven only mathematically.

Time taken by you: 112 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 57 % 6) The author comes to the conclusion that: FTL or Hypervelocity travel is not within the realm of possibility becauseattempts to prove otherwise remain inconclusive. Though interstellar travel is not considered possible today, over time itmay become a reality. History has taught us that humans continuously challenge what is considered impossible. It will take us centuries to get to the nearest star. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. In the last paragraph, the author is optimistic that even though Alcubierre drive or FTL travel does not seem possible at present, history has shown that what we consider impossible changes over time. Option 1 does not convey the optimistic tone of the conclusion made by the author. Thus, we can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The last paragraph states that“At present, such a thing just doesn’t seem to be entirely within the realm of possibility. [...] But as history has taught us, what is considered to be impossible changes over time. Until then, we’ll just have to be patient and wait on future research.” Option 2 conveys the optimism expressed by the author. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage is about the “Alcubierre warp drive” and the possibility of humans becoming interstellar species. Compared to option 2, option 3 does not convey the conclusion of the author in its entirety and is also a distortion of the passage. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is irrelevant to the conclusion made by the author. In second last paragraph, the author contemplates over questions like “how long will it take us to get the nearest star?” and “How can we expect to become an interstellar species when all available methods will either take centuries (or longer) … ?” But, it is not the conclusion of the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Though interstellar travel is not considered possible today, over time itmay become a reality.

Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. For an obscure temple no one’s heard of, Cholula (now part of Mexico) holds an impressive array of records: it’s the largest pyramid on the planet, with a base four times larger than theGreat Pyramid at Gizaand nearly twice the volume. Never mind the largest pyramid – it’s the largest monument ever constructed anywhere, by any civilisation, to this day. To locals it’s aptly known as Tlachihualtepetl ("man-made mountain”). Thanks to the church on top, it’ s also the oldest continuously occupied building on the continent. The story goes that until the locals began construction of an insane asylum in 1910, nobody knew it was a pyramid. Certainly, by the time the Spanish conquistador, Hernan Cortez and his army arrived in the 16th century, it was already a thousand years old and entirely concealed by vegetation.

Despite its enormous size, very little is known about the pyramid’s early history. It’s thought that the construction began around 300 BC; by who exactly remains a mystery. According to myth it was built by a giant named Xelhua, after he escaped a flood in the neighbouring Valley of Mexico. Most likely, the city’s inhabitants – known as the Choluteca – were a cosmopolitan mix. “It appears to have been multi-ethnic, with a great deal of migration,” says David Carballo, an archaeologist at Boston University, Massachusetts. Whoever they were, they probably had a lot of money. Cholula is conveniently located in the Mexican highlands and was an important trading post for thousands of years, linking the Tolteca-Chichimeca kingdoms in the North with the Maya in the South. Cortez called it "the most beautiful city outside Spain”. By the time he arrived, it was the second-largest city in the Aztec empire, though it had already exchanged hands numerous times. And here there are even more surprises. Infact it’s not one pyramid at all, but a great Russian doll of a construction, consisting of no less than six, one on top of the other. It grew in stages, as successive civilisations improved on what had already been built.“They made a conscious effort to maintain and in some cases display previous construction episodes. This is pretty novel, and shows deliberate efforts to link to the past,” says Carballo. According to legend, when they heard the conquistadors were coming, the locals covered the precious temple with soil themselves. In fact it may have happened by accident. That’ s because, incredibly, the largest pyramid in the world is made of mud.“Adobe” bricks are made by mixing mud with other materials such as sand or straw, and baking it hard in the sun. To make the pyramid, the outer bricks were smoothed with more earth to create a painting surface. In its prime, the temple was covered in red, black and yellow insects. In dry climates, mud bricks are extremely durable – lasting thousands of years. In humid Mexico, the mud creation was a fertile platform for tropical jungle. Today the city has reclaimed their pyramid, which can be explored via over five miles of tunnels constructed in the early 20thCentury. Nearly 500 years after the colonial conquest, the city must contend with a new invasion: tourists. 1) The central idea of the passage is that: The arrival of tourists could be detrimental to the Cholula temple which isof significant historical importance. The Pyramid of Cholula is incorrectly classified as a pyramid; in reality itis a great Russian doll of a construction built by successive civilisations that dominated the region. Even though the temple at Cholula is the largest monument everconstructed, it went unnoticed till the early 20th century because it was covered in vegetation. The Choluteca were prosperous and made an effort to maintain and buildupon the constructions of previous civilizations. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “... the city must contend with a new invasion: tourists.” However, it does not imply that arrival of tourists can cause damage to the temple site. Also, the reference to tourists is to provide a contrast in the last paragraph. It is not the main concern of the passage. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author does state that the structure “... is not a pyramid at all, but a great Russian doll of a construction ...” However, later in the passage the author repeatedly refers to the temple as a“pyramid”. The “Russian doll of a construction” is mentioned only to emphasize that the temple was developed in stages. It is not the central idea of the passage. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is correct. The passage starts with “For an obscure temple no one’s heard of, Cholula (now part of Mexico) holds an impressive array of records ...” This sentence clearly sets the tone of the passage by providing a contrast between the impressive records held by the temple and its relative anonymity. Throughout the passage the author highlights the fact that the pyramid was covered by forest and was discovered in the 20th century, in the year 1910. Thus, the author’s main concern is to emphasize that in spite of its impressive construction, the existence of the temple was not known till the early 20th century because it was covered in vegetation. Retain 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author states that “...they (the natives of Cholula) probably had a lot of money.” Also, it states that “It (the temple) grew in stages, as successive civilisations improved on what had already been built.” But, these points are made to emphasize the enormity of the temple and are not the central idea of the passage. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Even though the temple at Cholula is the largest monument everconstructed, it went unnoticed till the early 20th century because it was covered in vegetation.

Time taken by you: 84 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 % 2) It can be inferred from the passage that the relics of the “great Russian doll of a construction” were covered with soil by the locals themselves. looked like a mountain. were built by a giant named Xelhua. were home to insects. Video Explanation:

Explanation: “Relics”mean remains or remnants of an historical object. Option 1 is incorrect. Second last paragraph states that “According to legend, ... the locals covered the precious temple with soil themselves. In fact it may have happened by accident.” Thus, according to the author, the legend may not be true. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage states that “To locals it’s aptly known as Tlachihualtepetl ("man-made mountain”).” Thus, we can infer that the relics looked like a mountain. Retain 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states that, according to myth the pyramid was built by the giant named Xelhua, not the relics. Eliminate 3. Option 4 is incorrect. According to the passage, the temple in its prime was covered by insects and not the relics. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is [2].

Correct Answer: looked like a mountain.

Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 % 3) All these are true about Cholula EXCEPT: It had a tradition of folklore. It was a regional centre of importance. It was conquered by Hernan Cortez and his army. It was governed by various rulers in its history. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “According to myth it was built by a giant named Xelhua, after he escaped a flood in the neighbouring Valley of Mexico.” Thus, we can conclude that the story of Xelhua was passed down by a tradition of myths i.e. folklore. Thus, this option is not an exception. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that “Cholula is conveniently located in the Mexican highlands and was an important trading post for thousands of years, linking the Tolteca-Chichimeca kingdoms in the North with the Maya in the South.” Thus, we can conclude that it was a center of regional importance. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is correct. The passage states that “Certainly, by the time the Spanish conquistador, Hernan Cortez and his army arrived in the 16th century, it was already a thousand years old and entirely concealed by vegetation.” We cannot deduce from the word “arrived”, whether Hernan Cortez and his army conquered Cholula or not. Thus, option 3 is not inferable. Retain 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that “By the time he [Cortez] arrived, it was the second-largest city in the Aztec empire, though it had already exchanged hands numerous times.” Thus, we can safely infer that it was governed by various rulers. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is [3].

Correct Answer: It was conquered by Hernan Cortez and his army.

Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

How can you tell if someone is angry or happy? How do you know when you feel that way yourself? If you suffer from alexithymia, you can’t. The disorder, first identified in the 1970s, describes people who are unable to articulate their own feelings and can’t understand the feelings of others. They tend to have literal-minded dreams, and have trouble reading others’ facial expressions and nonverbal cues. They often run into difficulties at work and in their personal lives because of this emotional awareness deficit. They are, for all intents and purposes, emotionally blind. Alexithymia is rare. For most of us, the ability to read other people’s emotional signals and expressions develops gradually and with varying degrees of skill over a lifetime.

But while studying research by Clifford Nass, a Stanford University psychologist and expert on multitasking, I was reminded of alexithymia. Nass found that spending a lot of time in mediated environments undermines our ability to read others’ emotions. When Nass showed avid Internet users pictures of human faces or told them stories about people, they had trouble identifying the emotions being expressed. “Human interaction is a learned skill,” Nass concluded, “and they don’t get to practice it enough.”If emotions use our bodies as their theater, as the NeuroscientistAntonio Damasio puts it, what happens when that theater becomes virtual? As more of our emotional experiences occur online, we expand the quantity of our connections, more easily finding likeminded people with whom to share our feelings At the same time, we lose the physical cues that define face-to-face interaction and so risk undermining a crucial skill: how to read each other’s intentions and understand others’ feelings. If the vitriolic discussions about climate change on my favorite weather blogs are any guide, this leads many of us to assume the worst about each other’s motives. Although we all recognize rationally that there is another human being on the other side of the screen, ’s it becoming clear that our use of certain technology elevates some emotional responses over others. A recent study published in the Journal of Computer-Mediated Communication explored whether incivility online influenced people’s perceptions of an article, in this instance a neutral explanation of emerging technologies such as nanotechnology. The results were startling. Rude comments didn’t merely polarize readers; they changed their perception of the article. The researchers noted how“social reprimands such as nonverbal communication and isolation can curb incivility in face-to-face discussion,” but that, by contrast, “the Internet may foster uncivil discussion because of its lack of offline, in-person consequences.” As a result, they argued, this form of online incivility, which they called “the nasty effect,” may impede the “democratic goal” of public deliberation online. 1) Which of the following best sums up the findings of the research done by Clifford Nass? Multitasking on the internet inhibits our ability to identify human emotions. Social isolation can cause alexithymia. Alexithymics genuinely cannot read other people’s emotions since they don’t get enough opportunities to practice human interaction. Lack of face-to-face communication due to increased use of digital media hampers our ability to read facial emotions and other non-verbal cues to emotions. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The research by Nass is mentioned in paragraph 3, and the conclusion of the research is mentioned explicitly: Nass found that spending a lot of time in mediated environments undermines our ability to read others’emotions. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 3, the author states that Clifford Nass is an expert on multitasking but does not establish a relation between multitasking & the inability to read others’ emotions. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Again, in paragraph 3, the author states that he/she was reminded of alexithymia while studying research by Clifford Nass. But, the study itself did not contain any reference to alexithymia. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, the study by Clifford Nass did not mention alexithymics or alexithymia. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage states that “Nass found that spending a lot of time in mediated environments undermines our ability to read others’ emotions. [...] ‘Human interaction is a learned skill,’ Nass concluded, ‘and they don’t get to practice it enough.’” Thus, it can be safely inferred that increased use of digital media (i.e. mediated environment) leads to decreased face-to-face communication and hampers our ability to read other people’s emotions (i.e. facial expressions or other non-verbal communication). Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Lack of face-to-face communication due to increased use of digital media hampers our ability to read facial emotions and other non-verbal cues to emotions.

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 174 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 % 2) All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT: The ability to read other people’s emotions can’t be learnt from a screen in the same way it can be learnt from face-toface interactions. Alexithymia is the inability to express emotions or to understand others’ emotions. Habitual and prolonged use of the internet increases the risk of alexithymia. Alexithymia can be linked with poor marital quality. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Entire paragraph 3 is dedicated to explain the thought expressed in this option. Specifically, the author states,“‘Human interaction is a learned skill,’ Nass concluded, ‘and they don’t get to practice it enough.’ If emotions use our bodies as their theater, as the NeuroscientistAntonio Damasio puts it, what happens when that theater becomes virtual?”. Thus, this statement is true according to the passage and is NOT an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 1, it states that “The disorder, first identified in the 1970s, describes people who are unable to articulate their own feelings and can’t understand the feelings of others.” Thus, we can eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. In paragraph 3, the author states that he/she was reminded of alexithymia while studying the research done by Clifford Nass. But, the passage does not establish any association between prolonged internet use and alexithymia. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 1, it states that “They often run into difficulties at work and in their personal lives because of this emotional awareness deficit. They are, for all intents and purposes, emotionally blind.” Thus, it can be inferred that alexithymics may have poor marital life since they often run into difficulties in personal life. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Habitual and prolonged use of the internet increases the risk ofalexithymia.

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 8 % 3) The author discusses the results of the study published in the Journal of Computer-Mediated Communication to demonstrate that... incivility in online discourses not only polarizes readers but also spreadsrapidly thereby changing their perception of the topic under review. certain technologies can help us shed inhibitions and express some feelings in the way that we are reluctant to do in personal interactions.

the risk of social repercussions can limit uncivil behaviour in in-person discussions. “the nasty effect” may impede the “democratic goal” of public deliberation online. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. This option states that incivility spreads rapidly in online discourses. The passage, in the last paragraph, states that“Rude comments didn’t merely polarize readers; they changed their perception of the article.” The passage nowhere mentions the rapid spread of incivility in online discourses. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The last paragraph states that “... it’s becoming clear that our use of certain technology elevates some emotional responses over others. A recent study published in the Journal of Computer-Mediated Communication explored whether incivility online (in the form of reader comments) influenced people’s perceptions of an article ...” It is clear that the purpose of discussing the study is to back the claim/conclusion made in the preceding sentence. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is a premise of the study under discussion and not the writer’s purpose of referring to it in the essay. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is the conclusion of the study but does not highlight the purpose of the author to mention this recent study. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: certain technologies can help us shed inhibitions and express some feelings in the way that we are reluctant to do in personal interactions.

Time taken by you: 195 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 16 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Consider free trade. While it is beneficial overall, its adverse distributional effects are undeniable, and it is easy to say who gets hurt (for example, advanced-country workers in lower-value-added industries like steel) and who is doing the damage (developing countries that can produce and export the relevant good more cheaply). The losers may be a minority, but they can band together to amplify their voice and maximize their bargaining power, especially if they are geographically concentrated. With a clear target, their outrage acquires force and legitimacy.

Developed countries’ workers who are able to band together to protest againstthe adverse distributional effects of free trade, can do so forcefully and legitimately as they are geographically concentrated. Workers from developed countries stand to lose their jobs to workers fromdeveloping countries if they don’t band together to protest the adverse distributional impact of free trade which disproportionately benefits the workersfrom developing countries. As they are geographically concentrated, the developed countries’ workers can forcefully and legitimately protest the adverse distributional impact of free trade as they have a large but clear target in the workers of developing countries who benefit from free trade. The geographically concentrated workers from developed countries who lose toworkers from developing countries because of free trade, can protest effectively against free trade as they have a clear target. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The main points in the précis are: Free trade maybe beneficial overall but adversely impacts the developed countries’workers who lose their jobs to workers in developing countries. While the developed countries’ workers are a minority they can band together if they are geographically concentrated. As they have a clear target, their outrage acquires force and legitimacy. Option 1 states that Developed countries’ workers are able to band together to protest whereas the passage merely suggests that they can band together as a possibility. This is a distortion. The option also mentions that they are geographically concentrated, whereas again, the passage merely point out “if they are geographically concentrated.” Option 1 can be eliminated because it is categorical while the passage points to the possibility. Option 2 is incorrect as it misses main points of the passage. Also, the passage does not state that the workers from developing countries are not disproportionately benefitted. Eliminate option 2. Option 3, similar to option 2, states that the workers of developed nations are geographically concentrated. This is incorrect, as the paragraph merely considers their ability to protest if they are geographically concentrated. So we can eliminate option 3. Option 4 is the best précis. The geographically concentrated workers from developed countries … can protest effectively…’ correctly captures the potential that these workers can have if geographically concentrated. Option 4 also captures the other salient points in the passage. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: The geographically concentrated workers from developed countries who lose toworkers from developing countries because of free trade, can protest effectively against free trade as they have a clear target. Time taken by you: 210 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that bestcaptures the author’s position.

Art primarily appeases its core constituency, the type of people who call art“art”. And if at all art challenges the world view of people, it is of people who do not matter to it, like fanatics or conservative temple-goers, or heads of state. Art reassures the useful and upsets the rest. But most of the time, no matter what people say in literature festivals, art is not in great conflict with anyone. The world is not so easily appalled by artists any more. Most of the time, art succeeds not because it challenges world views but because it is “relatable”. Art succeeds merely appeases its core constituency to whom it is“relatable”. It is never in conflict with anyone, nor does it challenge the world view of people, except of those who don’t matter to it. Art bothers only a few people like fanatics and temple goers, and heads of state,so its reputation for conflict is exaggerated. It succeeds by appeasing its core constituency. Art appeases its core constituency and succeeds by being “relatable” to others. It is never in conflict with anyone, nor does it challenge the world views, except of those who don’t matter to it. Art succeeds by appeasing its core constituency and by being “relatable” to others. Artists are never appalling nor do they challenge the world view of people, except of fanatics, worshippers and heads of state. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The main points that the writer makes in this paragraph are the following: Art only appeases its core constituency. It may challenge the worldview of certain people (fanatics or conservative temple-goers, or heads of state), but those people don’t matter to art. When art succeeds it is not by challenging anyone’s world view but by being “relatable” for everyone. Option 1 is incorrect. It says art succeeded by appeasing its core constituency and by being relatable to it. The passage does not state that it is relatable only to its core constituency – but relatable in general. Success comes when people find it relatable and not relatable to the core constituency alone. Hence eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect as it is a complete misrepresentation by emphasizing how art bothers others. The author’s position is not how art bothers but how art succeeds. It is also incorrect to say that it succeeds by appeasing its core constituency. The view in the paragraph is that art always appeases its core constituency, but succeeds by being generally “relatable”. Hence eliminate option 2. Option 4 incorrectly lays emphasis on artists. To say that they challenge the world view of fanatics etc. takes away the emphasis from art. Hence we can eliminate option 4. Option 3 comparatively captures the main points and helps express the author’s position briefly and correctly. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Art appeases its core constituency and succeeds by being “relatable” to others. It is never in conflict with anyone, nor does it challenge the world views, except of those who don’t matter to it. Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s

The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. “Justice as fairness”, as developed by Rawls, treats all personal attributes as being morally arbitrary, and thus defines justice as requiring equality, unless any departure from this benefits everyone. This view is summarized in Rawls’s general conception of justice, which is that all social values - liberty and opportunity, income and wealth, and the social bases of selfrespect - are to be distributed equally unless an unequal distribution of any, or all, of these values is to everyone’s advantage: injustice is simply inequalities that are not to the benefit of all. According to Rawls’s, general conception of justice all personal attributesare morally arbitrary and all social values must be distributed equally for the benefit of all, unless a departure from this is to the benefit of all. Rawls’s general conception of justice defines “justice as fairness” as equal distribution of all social values for the benefit of everyone and injustice as inequalities that are not to the benefit of all. Rawls’s general conception of justice is based on the equal distribution of all social values unless unequal distribution is to everyone’s advantage; injustice is inequalities that are not to the benefit of all. Rawls treats all personal attributes as morally arbitrary and defines “justice as fairness” as the equal distribution of all social values for the benefit of all, and injustice as inequalities that are not to the benefit of all. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Rawls developed “justice as fairness” by treating personal attributes as morally arbitrary (In other words whether somebody was rich, poor, intelligent, unintelligent was inconsequential to Rawls’s idea of ‘justice as fairness’) All social values are to be distributed equally (In other words everyone enjoys equal liberty and opportunity, income and wealth, and the social bases of self-respect) An unequal distribution must also be to everyone’s advantage. Injustice is simply inequalities that are not to the benefit of all. Option 1 is incorrect for two reasons. First Rawls concern is to define“justice as fairness” and not the familiar concept of justice which everyone knows. Option 1 does not mention “justice as fairness’ at all. Second, Rawls also defines injustice – which is an unequal distribution of social values which is not to the benefit of all. Option 1 does not mention injustice. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. A major point in the paragraph, and vital to Rawls’s notion of ‘justice as fairness’ is the idea that personal attributes are morally arbitrary or unreasonable. This is not included in option 2 . Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It has the deficiencies of both option 1 and option 2 in not capturing the points about personal attributes being inconsequential and the conception of justice as ‘justice as fairness’ by Rawls. So option 3 gets eliminated. Option 4 captures all the salient points clearly and precisely without any distortion. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Rawls treats all personal attributes as morally arbitrary and defines “justice as fairness” as the equal distribution of all social values for the benefit of all, and injustice as inequalities that are not to the benefit of all. Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4,5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Until the 16th century, most urbanites in Europe lived in the same building that they worked in. 2. Everyone would sleep cheek by jowl, including servants, apprentices and, in large tracts of the continent, members of the extended family. 3. The main room would act as a shop or atelier during the day– latterly, many houses acquired a second storey for the household alone. 4. The idea of home as the preserve of the nuclear family is a product of modernity. 5. Privacy in the modern sense barely existed.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Hence the correct answer is 41325. This is medium difficulty question. Sentence 1 or Sentence 4 can start the paragraph. Since it’s difficult to be certain about the starter, we will try to discover the mandatory pair which will help us build the paragraph around it – then the number of sentences to arrange will also reduce to 3. Sentence 1 and 3 are a mandatory pair. Sentence 1 talks about how urbanites lived and worked in the same building in medieval Europe, and sentence 3 describes those buildings – in which a shop or atelier (meaning workshop) during the day, perhaps became the bedroom in the night. The sentence also mentions that later another storey was built to act as the household alone. So, sentences 1 and 3 are a mandatory pair. We can also notice that sentences 2 and 5 are another mandatory pair. Sentence 5 says that privacy barely existed in those times. The reason is explained in sentence 2: Everyone would sleep cheek by jowl; servants, apprentices and, the extended family. So 2- 5 have to be together in that order. These mandatory pairs are best placed in the order 1325. It makes the narration, about how the medieval Europeans lived, coherent and logical. Sentence 4 can be placed either before this sequence or after this sequence as it is a misfit in between. It is necessary to deliberate on the placement of sentence 4 seriously. If placed after sentence 5, it would emphasise the privacy aspect of sentence 5. That is one option. If placed before sentence 1 – the paragraph would begin, “the idea of home

as the preserve of the nuclear family is a product of modernity,” and then ‘until 16th century they worked and lived at the same place. Placing sentence 4 at the beginning, thus, is more logical than placing it at the end. Sentence 4 is better as an introduction than as a conclusion. Hence the correct answer is 41325. Correct Answer: 41325 Time taken by you: 12 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4,5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. The basic emphasis in media laws and regulation is on creating an enabling environment to work without fear or intimidation. 2. It would be disastrous if restrictions were to take precedence over the enabling environment. 3. The regulatory framework for the media is not a simple manual of dos and don’ts. 4. Reasonable restrictions are only a corollary to the enabling environment. 5. It is rather complex and tries to balance free speech and accountability without taking away the ability to question those in power.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The best sentence to start working with in this set of sentences is sentence 5. Sentence 5 says,it is rather complex and tries to balance free speech and accountability… We can now look for the sentence that defines the “it.” We find that sentence 3 defines the ‘it’ as ‘the regulatory framework for the media…’ Hence, 3-5 is a mandatory pair. We can also see that 3-5 also introduces the topic and thus the paragraph, that the regulatory framework for the media is

not a simple manual of dos and don’ts. It is rather complex and tries to balance free speech and accountability without taking away the ability to question those in power.’ Comparing sentences 1, 2 and 4 to follow the 3-5 pair, we see that all three sentences are discussing the enabling environment that the regulatory framework for the media should be creating. Sentence 1 which mentions that basic emphasis in media laws is that of creating an enabling environment comes immediately after the 3-5 pair. So we get the 3-5-1 sequence. After this we need to put sentences 4 and 2 in that order because sentence 4 says reasonable restrictions are a corollary of the emphasis on enabling environment and sentence 2 then points out that in the absence of the enabling environment restrictions on media would be disastrous. Hence the correct answer is 35142. Correct Answer: 35142 Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4,5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Reasons aren’t entirely clear, but likely include reprogramming errors: essentially, the donor egg cell’s nucleus holds on to a kind of genetic memory and resists the replacement with the new genetic material. 2. However, mortality rates for cloned animals are initially very high. 3. If they do survive, they’re generally healthy. 4. Animal cloning is becoming more common – and cloning extinct species could be on the horizon. 5. Animals cloned through this process, known as somatic cell nuclear transfer, have to survive that first shock after birth.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Statements 2 (however), 3 (they) and 5 (this) are clearly danglers. On further observation of statement 1, we note that the purpose for stating the“reasons” is not apparent. Thus, statement 1 is a dangler. Statement 4 is a standalone sentence and introduces the topic of the passage i.e. Animal cloning. Thus, the passage starts with stmt 4.

Now, let’s try to find a mandatory pair. Statement 2 states “However, mortality rates for cloned animals are initially very high”. We can relate this to statement 1, the reasons for high mortality rates of cloned animals aren ’ t entirely clear, but likely include reprogramming errors. Thus, 2-1 is a mandatory pair. Also, stmt 2 provides a contrast to stmt 4 and we get the sequence 4-2-1. In statement 5, “this process” refers to the explanation given in second part of statement 1,“the donor egg cell’s nucleus holds on to a kind of genetic memory and resists the replacement with the new genetic material”. Thus, stmt 5 follows stmt 1. Further, it states that “Animals cloned […] have to survive that first shock […]”. Stmt 3 elaborates on this survival of first shock by stating that “If they do survive, they’re generally healthy.” Thus, we get the mandatory pair 5-3. Hence, the correct sequence is 42153. Correct Answer: 42153 Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. This new fruit was odd-looking, originally with seeds, and would grow only in very particular tropical climates. 2. But as advances in transportation and refrigeration shortened the time it took to bring bananas to market, they rose in popularity, and cleverly marketed a fruit for the whole family. 3. However, the banana that people ate in the early 20th century was not the one we know today. 4. Bananas are one of the oldest known cultivated plants, but were first grown in the United States in the 1880sby entrepreneurs from Jamaica. 5. For years, the fruit was an unreliable product due to its short ripening period; the early banana salesmen would often open shipping crates full of rotten, unsellable fruit.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The paragraph talks about bananas. We can identify this as the broad topic of all five sentences. However, accuracy in outof-context sentence questions lies in identifying what aspect of the broad topic is the highlight of the paragraph, or the specific theme pursued in the paragraph. In this question, we can see that sentence 4 is the only standalone sentence– that bananas are one of the oldest cultivated plants and were first grown in the United States in the 1880s and that they were imported from Jamaica. None of the other sentences except sentence 1 can be related to sentence 4. Sentence 1 which talks about“this new fruit” clearly refers to the new fruit imported into the US by Jamaican entrepreneurs. Hence 4-1 pair gives us better idea

about the theme of the paragraph. Among the remaining three sentences we can find a connection between sentences 2 and 5. Sentence 5 is about how perishable bananas were and how salesmen would find their shipping crates full of rotten bananas. Sentence 2 talks about how advances in transportation helped increase the popularity of the extremely perishable fruit. So we find that 4-1 and 5-2 are pairs of sentences. Sentence 3 beginning with ‘however’ cannot be related to either of these pairs. In itself, sentence 3 talks about how bananas were different a century ago, from what we are used to now, is not out of context to the theme of how bananas came to be cultivated became popular in the US. Hence the correct answer to this question is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. It is such a feature of the city that, after recent unavoidable redecorations, the new owner spent days recreating the original patina of dirt, soot and less identifiable substances on the walls and imported a ton of pre-rotted rushes for the floor. 2. The drinkers were the usual bunch of heroes, cut-throats, mercenaries, desperadoes and villains, and only microscopic analysis could have told which was which. 3. The inside of the Mended Drum is now legendary as the most famous disreputable tavern on the Discworld. 4. The sense of having been transported in time to a better way of living was strong in the air as waiters in elegant uniforms moved between the tables in the inner dining space. 5. Thick coils of smoke hung in the air, perhaps to avoid touching the walls.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The sentences are broadly the description of a tavern named the“Mended Drum” mentioned in Sentence 3. Sentence 3 also describes it as the most disreputable tavern. All the other sentences provide a description of the atmosphere prevailing inside. Sentence 1 is a wry comment on the shabbiness of the tavern. The ‘unavoidable redecorations’ are said to add layers of dirt and the flooring consists of pre-rotted rushes (rushes are plants growing in wet places and typically having grass-like cylindrical leaves, used to make mats and baskets). Sentence 2 mentions the tavern’s patrons who are dubious characters, adding to the famous disrepute of the tavern. Sentence 5 gives the sense of how unhygienic the place is with the hyperbole that the smoke inside the tavern was suspended in the air, apparently in an effort to ‘avoid touching the walls. Thus the purpose of the paragraph is to portray the tavern as a dirty and dishonourable or shady place.

However, Sentence 4 paints a better picture of the tavern, unlike the other sentences; it mentions an air of nostalgia (a better way of living) with elegantly dressed waiters going about their business in sharp contrast to the otherwise grim picture. Thus option 4 is the correct answer. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 65 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 22 %

undefined In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) (numbered 1 to 5) that is/are INCORRECT in terms of grammar and usage. Ignore puncutation errors, if any. Then key in the numbers in the ascending order. 1. Like the name suggests, single-use plastic consists of all plastic products 2. that are only good for one-time use and must be discarded thereafter. 3. Single-use plastic items include plastic shopping bags, straws, cutlery, and water/beverage bottles. 4. The plastic used in each of these products is low-grade plastic– not recommended to be reused, often leech chemicals and are hard to recycle. 5. It lands up in dumping grounds around the world and gradually in our oceans where they threaten marine life.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Fragment 1 is incorrect. The preposition ‘like’ is incorrect in fragment 1. The sentence should be revised to ‘as the name suggests…” The confusion in using like or as is caused by a lack of understanding of the words’ roles. In formal writing, like is used as a preposition, describing where, when or how the noun in the sentence is doing whatever it may be doing. As is used as a conjunction joining two clauses. For example: The little girl looks like her mother is a correct sentence –the girl and her mother are compared using the preposition ‘like’ ; He can’t play cricket as he used to, is correct because as joins the clauses. Fragment 2 is correct. “only good for one-time use” and “good for only one-time use” are both correct with slightly different meanings. In other words, there is no misplaced modifier in this fragment. Segment 3 is correct. Segment 4 has subject verb agreement errors. The subject is “The plastic used in each of these products…”, the simple subject being ‘the plastic’; hence, the verbs “leech” and “are” are incorrect. The plastic ‘leeches chemicals and is hard to recycle” will be correct. The second verb “is” is optional. Segment 5 is incorrect. The pronoun “they” in “they threaten marine life” has no antecedent – or is inconsistent with the singular “it” at the beginning of the sentence referring back to “the plastic” in part 4. Hence the correct answer is 145. Correct Answer: 145

145 Time taken by you: 104 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 3 %

undefined In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) (numbered 1 to 5) that is/are INCORRECT in terms of grammar and usage. Ignore puncutation errors, if any. Then key in the numbers in the ascending order. 1. The main goal of E-commerce businesses is to engage their existing subscribers and get new visitors. 2. There are many ways to grow site’s traffic and customer engagement - by sending email notifications, SMS alerts, and doing web push notifications. 3. These are notifications sent to users’ desktop and mobile browsers. 4. These notifications are delivered on a user’s desktop or mobile browser — irregardless of whether or not the user is on the website. 5. These notifications allow users to get timely updates from the sites they love and allow developers to effectively reengage them with relevant content.

Section Video Explanation:

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 3 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The graph given below indicates the average runs scored by three players in the years2011-2015. Each player played exactly 10 innings every year.

The table given below indicates the number of times the players remained not out in each of the five years.

Number of dismissals in a year = Number of innings in that year – Number of not out in that year

1) Which of the following statements is correct? There is exactly one year in which two players scored equal runs. Sourav scored 15 runs more than Rahul did in the given period 20112015. Sachin scored more runs than both Rahul and Sourav in exactly two years in the given period 20112015. None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: The below table shows the numbers of runs scored by the players in the respective years.

Rahul as well as Sourav scored 400 runs in 2012. This is only one such instance.Thus, statement [1] is correct. In the given period 2011-2015, Sourav scored 2435 runs, while Rahul scored 2450 runs. So, Sourav scored 15 runs less than Rahul did. Thus, statement [2] is incorrect. Sachin scored more runs than both Rahul and Sourav in exactly three years in the given period 2011-2015. Thus, statement [3] is incorrect. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: There is exactly one year in which two players scored equal runs.

Time taken by you: 359 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 318 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 2) What is the absolute difference between A and B, where A = Sum of runs scored by Rahul in 2012 and runs scored by Sachin in 2014. B = Sum of runs scored by Sachin in 2011 and runs scored by Sourav in 2015. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The below table shows the numbers of runs scored by the players in the respective years.

A: Runs scored by Rahul in 2012 = 400 Runs scored by Sachin in 2014 = 675 Total runs = 400 + 675 = 1075 B: Runs scored by Sachin in 2011 = 400 Runs scored by Sourav in 2015 = 525 Total runs = 400 + 525 = 925 |A – B| = |1075 – 925| = 150 Therefore the required answer is 150.

Correct Answer: 150 Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 3) For how many years do the runs scored by Rahul and Sourav show a different trend? (i.e. if one value increases with respect to the previous year, the other decreases or remains same or if one decreases with respect to the previous year, the other increases or remains same.) 0 1 2 More than 2 Video Explanation: Explanation: The below table shows the numbers of runs scored by the players in the respective years.

In 2012, runs scored by both players decrease. In 2013, runs scored by both players increase. In 2014, runs scored by Sourav decreases whereas runs scored by Rahul remains same. In 2015, runs scored by Rahul decreases whereas runs scored by Sourav increases. The runs scored by Rahul and Sourav show different trend twice. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 78 % 4) In which year was the ratio between the average scores of any two players maximum? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The below table shows the total numbers of runs scored by the players in the respective years.

Correct Answer: 2014 Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs

Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. Andrew and Pablo together play a game. In each round of the game, each of them wagers $1. Game-masterGogo tosses an unbiased six faced die and the result is decided as follows: For Andrew: If the number is 2 or less, he loses the $1 he had wagered. If the number is 5 or more, he gains $1. Otherwise, he has no gain or loss. For Pablo: If the number is a perfect square, he loses $1. If the number is divisible by 3, he gains $1. Otherwise, he has no gain or loss. Example: If the die shows number 1, both the players give $1 to Gogo. If the die shows number 5, Gogo gives $1 only to Andrew. 1) If both Andrew and Pablo initially have $5, and after exactly 5 rounds both have lost all the money they initially had, then what could be the sum of the numbers rolled in the 5 rounds? 5 7 10 15 Video Explanation: Explanation: We can list out the numbers for which each of the players will win, lose, orbreak even:

In every round, each of them has lost $1. For both to lose, the number rolled in each round must be 1. Hence the total must be 5. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 285 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 190 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 2) If both Andrew and Pablo start the game with equal amounts with them and play three rounds, then what is the maximum possible difference between the amounts with them at the end, given that the numbers rolled in all three rounds were different? $4 $3 $2 $1

Video Explanation: Explanation: We can list out the numbers for which each of the players will win, lose, orbreak even:

If the number rolled is 2 or 3, Pablo has $1 more than Andrew. If the number is 4 or 5, Andrewhas $1 more than Pablo. If the number is 1 or 6, they both gain or lose the equal amount. So if 3 different numbers are rolled, the maximum Andrew can gain over Pablo is $2 (if the numbers are 4, 5 and either 1 or 6) and similarly the maximum Pablo can gain over Andrew is $2 (if the numbers are 2, 3 and 1 or 6). Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: $2

Time taken by you: 108 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 3) If both Andrew and Pablo start the game with $10 and after four rounds, the amounts with Andrew and Pablo are $13 and $12 respectively, then the sum of the numbers rolled in the four rounds is: 19 20 22 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: We can list out the numbers for which each of the players will win, lose, orbreak even:

Andrew must have won 3 and made no gain or loss in 1. Pablo must have won 3 and lost 1 or else won 2 and made no gain or loss in 2. Let us try out the cases: In following cases, Andrew can win 3 coins in 4 rounds:

So there are two cases, where Andrew wins 3 coins and Pablo wins 2 coins. Sum of the numbers of these 2 cases: Case 1 : 3 + 5 + 5 + 6 = 19 Case 2 : 4 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 22 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 29 % 4) If both Andrew and Pablo start the game with $5, and at the end of three rounds Andrew had exactly twice as much amount as Pablo had that time, then which of the following cannot be true? Andrew did not gain in any of the rounds. Andrew gained in all three rounds. Andrew gained in exactly one round. None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: We can list out the numbers for which each of the players will win, lose, orbreak even:

At the end of three rounds, starting from 5, the values achieved by each of the players must range between 2 and 8. So the cases in which one has double the amount of the other will be (4, 2), (6, 3) or (8, 4). Case 1: (4, 2) For Pablo to get 2 he must lose all three rounds, while Andrew, to get 4 must lose one round and have no gain or loss in the other two. This can be achieved by the rolls 1, 4, 4. So option [1] is possible. Case 2: (6, 3) For Pablo to get 3 he must lose two rounds and neither gain nor lose in one. (i) Andrew on the other hand must gain in two rounds and have a loss in one round. It is not possible for Andrew to win and for Pablo to lose in the same round and hence this case is not achievable. (ii) Andrew on the other hand must gain in one round and have no loss or gain in the other two. This can be achieved by the rolls 5, 4, 4. So option [3] is possible. Case 3: (8, 4) For Andrew to reach 8, he must win all three rolls. Also, For Pablo to reach 4 he must lose at least 1. It is not possible for Andrew to win and for Pablo to lose in the same round and hence this case is not achievable. So, option [2] can never be true. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Andrew gained in all three rounds.

Time taken by you: 172 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow.

1) Which of the following can be a possible value of ‘X’? 4500 4950 5500 5950 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4950

Time taken by you: 101 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 174 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 % 2) If in 2017, the number of men and women is same for any two out of the three sections, what could be the minimum percentage of women, present in a particular section? (Use the value of X obtained in the previous question.) 7.77% 9.09% 36.36% 41.82% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 9.09%

Time taken by you: 405 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 3) If out of the total number of Officers 60% are men, then what is the ratio of the total number of workers to the total number woman Officers?

1: 2 2: 1 3: 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3:2

Time taken by you: 75 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 105 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 4) In the year 2018, if only the number of men working in the factory increase by 20% over 2017. The ratio of Workers, Officers and Executives remains same as 3 : 5 : 1. What is the ratio of the total number of Workers in the year 2018 to the total number of Officers in year 2017? 183 : 275 275 : 183 1: 3 3: 1 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 183 : 275

Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 161 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. 24,000 people live in Siddhivinayak residential complex. The people living in the complex can be either males or females. Similarly the people living in the complex can be classified as vegetarians or non-vegetarians. It is known that there are 6,600 female adults residing in the complex. Following information is known: 1. The number of male adult vegetarians is twice the number of male children. 2. 40% of total children are non-vegetarian male children. 3. The number of female children is 25% less than male children. And half of the female children are vegetarian. 4. (1/6)th of female adults are vegetarian. 5. Non-vegetarian male adults are twice of vegetarian male children. 1) What is the ratio of non-vegetarian male children to vegetarian male adults? 7: 4 5: 3 7: 20 5: 13 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The required ratio =2800 : 8000 = 7 : 20 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 7 : 20

Time taken by you: 302 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 487 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 % 2) How many male adults are non-vegetarians? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

2400 male adults are non-vegetarians. Therefore, the required answer is 2400.

Correct Answer: 2400 Time taken by you: 117 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 3) What is the difference between total male and female population? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

14400 – 9600 = 4800 Therefore, the required answer is 4800.

Correct Answer: 4800

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 62 % 4) What percentage of total adults are vegetarian? 38.38 42.42 53.53 67.67 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 53.53

Time taken by you: 104 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs

Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. Eight children have been asked to choose at least one of the cartoon shows betweenMickey Mouse Clubhouse and Tiger & Pooh. Each child is from one of following classes: Nursery, KG and UKG, and each of these three classes is represented at least once among the group. There is at least one child from each of these three classes. There is at least one girl among the eight children and all the girls are from class KG. Further, it is known that: 1. At least two children chose Mickey Mouse Clubhouse but not Tiger & Pooh. 2. At least two children chose Tiger & Pooh but not Mickey Mouse Clubhouse. 3. At least one child has chosen both the given cartoon shows. 4. Among the eight children, only the children from UKG have chosen Tiger & Pooh. 1) Consider the following statements: I. All children from Nursery have chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse. II. All children from KG have chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse. III. All children from UKG have chosen Tiger & Pooh. IV. No child from Nursery has chosen Tiger & Pooh. How many of these statements must be true? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: If we consider statement 4, we can conclude that children from Nursery and KG have chosen only Mickey Mouse Clubhouse.

Therefore, statements I, II and IV must be true. However, it is possible for a child from UKG to have chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse but not Tiger & Pooh. Thus statement III is not necessarily true. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 380 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 2) If four of the children are girls, then all of the following statements must be true except: Exactly one child is from Nursery.

Exactly three of the children are from UKG. Exactly four children have chosen only Mickey Mouse Clubhouse. None of the above Video Explanation: Explanation: Since all the girls are from KG, children from Nursery and UKG must be boys. From, 2, 3 and 4 we can conclude that there are 3 children from UKG and 1 child from Nursery. Also, the number of children that chose only Mickey Mouse Clubhouse = 8 – 3 (i.e., the number of children from UKG) = 5

Thus, statement [3] is incorrect. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Exactly four children have chosen only Mickey Mouse Clubhouse.

Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) If the number of children from Nursery are more than that from UKG, then how many boys have chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse? 4 5 6 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From, 2, 3 and 4 we can conclude that there are at least 3 children from UKG One of the children must be from KG as there is at least one girl, and the remaining four children must be from Nursery. One of the three children (all boys) from UKG has chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse. All the children from Nursery have chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse and we will not count the child from KG as the child is a female child. Hence, five boys have chosen Mickey Mouse Clubhouse. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 52 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 32 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 34 % 4) Suppose one more child joins the group and the number of children from nursery is more than the number of children from UKG, which in turn is more than the number of children from KG. What could be the maximum possible number of girls in

the group? (Assume that all other conditions given remain the same) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: If children from Nursery > children from UKG > children from KG,the number of children from Nursery = 4, the number of children from UKG = 3 and the number of children from KG = 2. Since all the girls are from KG, the maximum possible number of girls = 2. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 31 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. Chandrakanta Devi has 8 grandchildren, named Ishu, Radhika, Deepa, Rinku, Ira, Vicky, Abhishek and Aanchal. She has 36 gold coins with her. On her 75th birthday, she gifted the coins among her grandchildren such that the eldest grandchild got 8 coins, the second eldest grandchild got 7 coins and so on and the youngest grandchild got 1 coin. After getting the coins, the 8 grandchildren played a game, in which each of them got different rank. The winner in the game got 8 coins from the eldest grandchild, the first runner up got 7 coins from the second eldest grandchild and so on. For every grandchild: a. Gain in the game = The number of coins with him/her after the game is over – The number of coins gifted to him/her by grandmother (if the number of coins after the game is more than the number of coins gifted by the grandmother). b. Loss in the game = The number of coins gifted to him/her by grandmother – The number of coins with him/her after the game is over (if the number of coins after the game is less than the number of coins gifted by the grandmother). Following points are known: 1. Vicky is not the eldest one and he did not win the game. 2. The number of coins gifted to Deepa by her grandmother was a composite number. The number of coins she had after the game was a prime number.

3. The grandmother gifted coins equal to the number of letters in the name of only one grandchild. 4. The number of coins gifted by the grandmother to Rinku was more than exactly 5 other grandchildren. She was the only one who did not have either gain or loss in the game. 5. Ira lost 4 coins in the game, which was more than the loss suffered by any other grandchild. Further, Ira did not get 7 coins from her grandmother. 6. Aanchal and Abhishek had consecutive number of coins both before and after the game, such that Aanchal got fewer coins than Abhishek both before and after the game. 7. Radhika gained more coins in the game than any other grandchild. 8. Ishu did not suffer a loss in the game. 9. Vicky did not get 5 coins from his grandmother. 1) Who is the youngest grandchild of Chandrakanta Devi? Radhika Aanchal Either Radhika or Aanchal None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: From (4):Rinku had 6 coins before and after the game. From (2): Deepa got either 4 or 8 coins before the game. From (3): Exactly one of them got number of coins equal to number of letters in his/her name from grandmother. This could not be Ira (3-letter name; as she lost 4 coins in the game.) This could not be Aanchal and Abhishek (7-letter name since Aanchal and Abhishek got consecutive number of coins in same order, if Aanchal got 7 coins then Abhishek (8-letters name) would have got 8 coins. This could not be Vicky (from (9)). This could not be Deepa (from (2)).This could not be Radhika(7- letters name) from (7). So it has to be Ishu (4-letters name.) Ishu definitely got 4 coins from grandmother. Now Deepa definitely got 8 coins. And after the game she had either 5 or 7 coins. From (5): Ira got 5 coins from grandmother. Radhika, Abhishek and Aanchal could not get 7 coins from grandmother, soVicky got 7 coins from grandmother. After the game, Vicky, Radhika and Ishu could not get 2 or 3 coins,thus Aanchal and Abhishek got 2 and 3 coins respectively after the game. It means Radhika got 3 coins from her grandmother. After the game, Ishu could not get 8 coins, so Radhika got 8 coins after the game.

Aanchal is the youngest grandchild of Chandrakanta Devi. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Aanchal

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 % 2) Who got 5 coins at the end of the game?

Deepa Ishu Radhika Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From (4):Rinku had 6 coins before and after the game. From (2): Deepa got either 4 or 8 coins before the game. From (3): Exactly one of them got number of coins equal to number of letters in his/her name from grandmother. This could not be Ira (3-letter name; and she lost 4 coins in the game.) This could not be Aanchal and Abhishek (7-letter name since Aanchal and Abhishek got consecutive number of coins in same order, if Aanchal got 7 coins then Abhishek (8-letters name) would have got 8 coins. This could not be Vicky (from (9)). This could not be Deepa (from (2)).This could not be Radhika(7- letters name) from (7). So it has to be Ishu (4-letters name.) Ishu definitely got 4 coins from grandmother. Now Deepa definitely got 8 coins. And after the game she had either 5 or 7 coins. From (5): Ira got 5 coins from grandmother. Radhika, Abhishek and Aanchal could not get 7 coins from grandmother, soVicky got 7 coins from grandmother. After the game, Vicky, Radhika and Ishu could not get 2 or 3 coins,thus Aanchal and Abhishek got 2 and 3 coins respectively after the game. It means Radhika got 3 coins from her grandmother. After the game, Ishu could not get 8 coins, so Radhika got 8 coins after the game.

Either Ishu or Deepa gets 5 coins after the game. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 % 3) If Deepa loses one coin in the game, then how many grandchildren gained exactly one coin from the game? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From (4):Rinku had 6 coins before and after the game. From (2): Deepa got either 4 or 8 coins before the game. From (3): Exactly one of them got number of coins equal to number of letters in his/her name from grandmother. This could not be Ira (3-letter name; and she lost 4 coins in the game.) This could not be Aanchal and Abhishek (7-letter name since Aanchal and Abhishek got consecutive number of coins in same order, if Aanchal got 7 coins then Abhishek (8-letters name) would have got 8 coins. This could not be Vicky (from (9)). This could not be Deepa (from (2)).This could not be Radhika(7- letters name) from (7). So it has to be Ishu (4-letters name.) Ishu definitely got 4 coins from grandmother. Now Deepa definitely got 8 coins. And after the game she had either 5 or 7 coins. From (5): Ira got 5 coins from grandmother. Radhika, Abhishek and Aanchal could not get 7 coins from grandmother, soVicky got 7 coins from grandmother. After the game, Vicky, Radhika and Ishu could not get 2 or 3 coins,thus Aanchal and Abhishek got 2 and 3 coins respectively after the game. It means Radhika got 3 coins from her grandmother. After the game, Ishu could not get 8 coins, so Radhika got 8 coins after the game.

Aanchal, Abhishke and Ishu gain exactly one coin. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 4) How many coins does Vicky lose in the game? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

7–4=3 Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. There are five doors D1, D2, D3, D4 and D5 in a line in that order equidistant from each other. Paths originate from each of the five doors that lead to five rooms R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 (not in any particular order). R1 is in front of D1; R2 is in front of D 2 and so on. The following information is known.

1. There are exactly two doors such that the door number of one opens to the room number of the other and vice versa (for example, Dm leads to Rn and Dn leads to Rm) and they are not next to each other. 2. Doors D3 and D5 lead to rooms that are adjacent to each other. 3. None of the doors leads to a room with the same number (for example, D 1 doesn’t lead to R1). 4. The path originating from D4 is shorter than any other path. 5. Length of the path joining door Dm and room Rn = |m – n| 6. Doors and rooms at the extreme ends are not connected to each other. 7. Path to R3 do not originate from D1. 1) The path originating from D3 leads to: R1 R2 R4 R5 Video Explanation: Explanation: The positions of the doors and rooms are as follows: R 1 R2 R3 R4 R5 D 1 D2 D3 D4 D5

But the second possibility contradicts condition 7, so it can be rejected.

Thus,the path originating from D3 leads to R1. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: R1

Time taken by you: 361 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 378 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 2) The second shortest path originates from: D1 D2 D3 D5 Video Explanation: Explanation: The positions of the doors and rooms are as follows: R 1 R2 R3 R4 R5 D 1 D2 D3 D4 D5

But the second possibility contradicts condition 7, so it can be rejected. The second shortest path originates from D3. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: D3

Time taken by you: 73 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 87 % 3) The paths to which of the following rooms are equal in length? R 2 and R4

R 3 and R 4 R 1 and R 4 R 1 and R 5 Video Explanation: Explanation: The positions of the doors and rooms are as follows: R 1 R2 R3 R4 R5 D 1 D2 D3 D4 D5

But the second possibility contradicts condition 7, so it can be rejected. The paths to R2, R4 and R5 are equal in length. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: R 2 and R4

Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 4) Which of the following options contains two valid paths that satisfy all the given conditions? D 1-R 4 and D 4-R 1 D 2-R 4 and D4-R 2 D 1-R 5 and D5-R 1 D 2-R 5 and D5-R 2 Video Explanation:

Explanation: The positions of the doors and rooms are as follows: R 1 R2 R3 R4 R5 D 1 D2 D3 D4 D5

But the second possibility contradicts condition 7, so it can be rejected. Among the given options, D2 -R5 and D5-R2 are valid paths. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: D 2-R 5 and D5-R 2

Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined

Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. In the annual sales meet of a multinational beverages company, the sales heads of 9 states: Delhi, Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Telangana were invited. The states of Delhi, Punjab and Rajasthan lie in the region north. The states of Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal lie in the region east, while the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Telangana lie in the region south. At the end of the sales meet, all the nine sales heads were asked to choose exactly one of the nine chairs – C1 to C9 on which they would like to sit for the group photograph. After each sales head chose his chair, it was decided to arrange the chairs in a row from left to right. During the conference, all the sales heads of states lying under north had a verbal altercation and hence no two of the three must be seated together. The following table provides information about the three possible arrangements:

1) Let ‘X’ be the number of distinct triplets of chairs chosen by the sales heads of the states lying under the region north. What is the value of 'X'? 2 3 4 5 Video Explanation: Explanation: For a selected seat by a member of the North region, the table below shows various options of chair for another member of the region.

Further, if the selected chairs are C1 and C4, options available should be common to C1 and C4. (C3, C4, C9) and (C1, C6, C8) do not have a common option. So, this case is not valid. If the selected chairs are C1 and C3, options available should be common to C1 and C3. (C3, C4, C9) and (C1, C9) have a common option C9. So, one of the valid case is C1, C3 and C9. Thus, the different possibilities (with respect to chairs chosen by sales heads of states lying under North) are as follows: Case A: C1, C3 and C9 Case B: C2, C5 and C7 Case C: C4, C6 and C8 The value of X is 3. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 29 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 193 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 52 % 2) Which of the following cannot be the chair chosen by a sales head of a state lying in the region north? C4 C7 C9 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: For a selected seat by a member of the North region, the table below shows various options of chair for another member of the region.

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 % 3) If C5 was chosen by the sales head of Delhi, then which of the following can be the chair chosen by the sales head of the state Punjab? C2 C8 Either C2 or C8 Neither C2 nor C8 Video Explanation:

Explanation: For a selected seat by a member of the North region, the table below shows various options of chair for another member of the region.

Correct Answer: C2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 % 4) Which of the following can be correct? If C6 was chosen by the sales head of Punjab, then C9 was chosen by the sales head of Delhi. If C9 was chosen by the sales head of Delhi, then C5 was chosen by the sales head of Rajasthan. If C5 was chosen by the sales head of Rajasthan, then C2 was chosen by the sales head of Punjab. None of the above. Video Explanation:

Explanation: For a selected seat by a member of the North region, the table below shows various options of chair for another member of the region.

Correct Answer: If C5 was chosen by the sales head of Rajasthan, then C2 was chosen by the sales head of Punjab.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 124 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined

5 7 9 Infinity

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 7

Time taken by you: 114 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 104 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined If the roots of the equation x3 – px2 + qx – r = 0 are in the ratio2 : 5 : 7 and r = 1890, then find the value ofp + q. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 573 Time taken by you: 74 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined There are a few two-rupee coins and a few five-rupee coins in a bag. If the number of five-rupee coins is tripled, then the amount in the bag increases by 75%. Which of the following can be the number of five-rupee coins in the bag? 13 18 32 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18 Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 107 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined

Rs. 840 Rs. 884 Rs. 947 Rs. 984

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 947 Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 %

undefined If the difference between the sum of first ten terms and the sum of first seven terms of an arithmetic progression is 5, then what is the sum of the first seventeen terms of the same series?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 100 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined

1:1 1:2 2:3

None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1:1

Time taken by you: 5 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined If x, y > 0, x ≠ y and xy = 9, then find the minimum value of [x2] + [y2].

Note: [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x. 16 17 18 19

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined Eight women take 10 days to complete a piece of work. Two men and ten children take 5 days to complete the same piece of work. One man working alone can complete twice the amount of work in 40 days. In how many days can one child and one woman complete 90% of the work? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 40 Time taken by you: 161 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The average age of A, B, C and D is two more than the average age of A, B and C and also three more than the average age of A and B. The average age of C and D is more than C’s age by 9 years 8 years 3 years 6 years Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 years Time taken by you: 154 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 155 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined A solution has milk and water in the ratio 7: 5. ‘a’ percent of the solution is removed and replaced with milk. The concentration of milk in the resulting solution is more than 60% but less than 80%. Which of the following best describes the value of 'a'? 5 < a < 54 4 < a < 52 6 < a < 55 7 < a < 53

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 < a < 52

4 < a < 52

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 141 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined What is the rightmost non-zero digit in the sum of 370 1231 + 1301230 ? 6 9 7 8

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 3701231 has 1231 trailing zeroes.

1301230 has 1230 trailing zeroes. The right most non zero digit of 3701231 + 1301230 will be the right most non zero digit of 1301230. This will be same as the unit’s digit of 31230. 1230 when divided by 4 gives remainder 2. Unit’s digit of 31230 is same as unit’s digit of 32, i.e. 9 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 9

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined

It is a continuously increasing function. It is a continuously decreasing function. It is a constant function.

None of the above. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: It is a constant function. Time taken by you: 104 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 61 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 15 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30 Time taken by you: 156 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined The ratio of the present ages of B and C is same as the ratios of ages of A and B eight years ago. Eight years from now, C will be as old as A was 8 years ago. The present ages (in years) of exactly two of them are perfect squares, which is not true for their ages eight years hence. Which of the following can be the sum of the present ages of A and B? 42 26 Both 42 and 26 Neither 42 nor 26 Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 42 Time taken by you: 150 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Amar and Akbar simultaneously start running towards each other from opposite ends of a linear racing track and take 64 seconds and 100 seconds respectively to reach the other end after crossing each other. If Amar and Anthony also simultaneously start running towards each other from the opposite ends of the same track and Amar takes 96 seconds to reach the other end after they cross each other, then how much time does Anthony take to run the entire length of the racing track? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 72 Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined A shopkeeper sells pens in economy packs of five pens per pack, each packbeing charged at the listed price of four pens. For every set of six such packs bought by a customer, the shopkeeper gives him one extra pen as a free gift. If the customer buys 15 economy packs, what is the approximate effective percentage discount that he gets? 22%

25% 28% 30%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 22%

Time taken by you: 212 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined There are two concentric circles of radii 15 and 17 respectivelycentred at point O. A tangent to the inner circle meets the outer circle at points P and Q. Find l(PQ). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 16 Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined If x is a natural number less than 250, then for how many values of x is the inequality (x – 100) (x – 102) (x – 104) (x – 106)....(x – 200) > 0 satisfied? 25 49 74 75

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The inequality is a product of 51 natural numbers. (x – 100)(x – 102)(x – 104) (x – 106) …. (x – 200) > 0 Out of these 51 terms, if odd number of terms are positive and even number of terms are negative, it will satisfy the inequality. If x < 100, there will be 51 negative terms and their product is negative. Therefore, x = 100, 102, 104, …, 200 the product is zero and the inequality is not satisfied. So, if x = 101, there will be one positive number and 50 negative numbers and their product will be positive. If x = 103, there will be two positive numbers and 49 negative numbers, their product will be negative. if x = 105, there will be three positive number and 48 negative numbers and their product will be positive. If x = 107, there will be four positive numbers and 47 negative numbers, their product will be negative.

…so on Thus, the inequality holds for 101, 105, 109, …., 197 Number of terms: 197 = 101 + (n – 1)4 Solving this, we get n = 25 All numbers greater than 200 and less than 250 will also satisfy the inequality and there are 49 such numbers. So, 49 + 25 = 74 numbers will satisfy the inequality. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 74 Time taken by you: 169 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined A milk vendor sells milk at 30% more than the cost price and also adds ‘L’ litres of water to every 5 litres of milk. If he gains 56% in all, find the value of ‘L’. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined A and B start a business in which A contributes entire capital and provides consultancy while B takes care of running the business. B is paid Rs. 120 per month out of the profit of the business for his work. After making payment to B, the remaining profit is equally divided between A and B. Further B pays Rs. 2,250 to A at the end of the year towards fees for consultancy provided by A. Calculate the total yearly profit if B’s income from the business is one half of A’s income from the business. Rs. 9,180 Rs. 9,000 Rs. 9,356 Rs. 10,000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 9,180 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 188 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined The selling price of a shirt is 75% less than its marked price and is five times its cost price. What is the ratio of the percentage discount offered and the percentage profit obtained on the sale of the shirt? 10 : 3 5: 2 3: 16 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 : 16

Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined

1:2 2:5 1:3 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2:5

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined In a class of 10 students, Vishal was the topper in English. He scored at least 70 marks while each of the remaining 9 students scored minimum 30 marks. If the sum of total marks scored by the 10 students in the class was 360, then in how many different ways could the marks have been scored by the 10 students? 29C

30C

20C

29C

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 29C

Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined The surface area of solid hemisphere is thrice the curved surface area of a solidcylinder. If the radius of the cylinder is one – third of that of the hemisphere, what is the ratio of radius of solid hemisphere to the height of the cylinder? 2:9 1:4 1:9 2:3

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2:3

Time taken by you: 160 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined 20 marbles are distributed among A, B, C and D such that the ratio of marbles received by A, B and C is 1 : 2 : 3. Which of the following cannot be the absolute difference between the marbles received by B and D? 12 4 6 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the marbles received by A, B and C bex, 2x and 3x respectively.

Value of x can be 1, 2 or 3. Therefore, marbles received by D = 20 – 6x

Difference between the marbles received by B and D = |20 – 6x – 2x| = 4|5 – 2x| = 12 or 4 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 84 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined In how many ways four distinct numbers A, B, C and D can be chosen from the set of first nine natural numbers such that B < A, B < C and D < C? 600 620 630 640

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Selecting any four numbers from {1, …, 9} can be done in9C4 ways. B < A, B < C, D < C Therefore, D < B < A < C or D < B < C < A or B < A < D < C or B < D < A < C or B < D < C < A.

Thus, each selection of 4 numbers can be assigned to any of the five options. Total number of ways = 9C4 × 5 = 630

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 630

Time taken by you: 126 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Consider an infinite sequence of numbers (a1, a2, a3 ... an) such that a1 = –3, a2 = 1, a3 = –1, a4 = 5 , a5 = –3 and an= an – 5 for n > 5. What is the value of (a1 + a2+ a3 +... + a110 + a111)?

–22 –23 –25 –24

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –25 Time taken by you: 137 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined In a city, the ratio of the number of men to the number of women is 3 : 4. Also, the ratio of the number of literate people to the number of illiterate people in the city is 3 : 25. If the ratio of the number of literate women to the number of illiterate women is 1 : 7, what is the ratio of the number of illiterate men to the number of literate men in the city? 10 : 1 11 : 1 12 : 1 None of these

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11 : 1

Time taken by you: 96 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined

0 1, then M – N > 0. If ratio M : N < 1, then M – N < 0. If ratio M : N = 1, then M – N = 0.

Given that PJ < PA< PS < PO < PN < PD and P4 < P3 < P2 < P1 For vendor P we can definitely conclude that: I.

The number of employees provided in October was more than that in September.

II. The number of employees provided in December was more than that in September. III. The number of employees provided in August was less than that in October. IV. The number of employees provided in August was less than that in December. We cannot draw any other conclusion about the other pairs of months. In August and September, the number of employees provided by vendor P was definitely less than that provided in October. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 466 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 27 % 2) In which of the given months, the number of employees provided by vendor P was the maximum? October November December Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: If ratio M : N > 1, then M – N > 0. If ratio M : N < 1, then M – N < 0. If ratio M : N = 1, then M – N = 0.

Given that PJ < PA< PS < PO < PN < PD and P4 < P3 < P2 < P1 For vendor P we can definitely conclude that: I.

The number of employees provided in October was more than that in September.

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 % 3) For vendor Q, the number of months in which more employees were definitely provided as compared to September and October is X and Y respectively. What is the value of (X – Y)? 0 –1 1 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: If ratio M : N > 1, then M – N > 0. If ratio M : N < 1, then M – N < 0. If ratio M : N = 1, then M – N = 0.

Given that QJ > QA= QS > QO > QN > QD and Q1 < Q2 < Q3 < Q4

For vendor Q we can definitely conclude that: I.

The number of employees provided in August was more than that in September.

II.

The number of employees provided in August was more than that in October.

III. The number of employees provided in November was more than that in December. We cannot draw any other conclusion about the other pairs of months.

It can be seen that X = 1 (August) and Y = 1 (August). Therefore, the value of X – Y = 1 – 1 = 0. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 253 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 32 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 16 % 4) Given that the number of employees provided by vendor P in the month of September and December were in the ratio 1 : 3

and the absolute value of B for these months was the same, and was equal to X. Which of the following relations is correct? 3P D = PS + 2X 3P S = PD + 2X 3P D = PS + 4X 3P S = PD + 4X Video Explanation: Explanation: If ratio M: N > 1, then M – N > 0 If ratio M: N < 1, then M – N < 0 If ratio M: N = 1, then M – N = 0

Correct Answer: 3P S = PD + 4X

Time taken by you: 109 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A survey was conducted in seven cities – New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai, Bangalore, Hyderabad and Pune. The people in these cities were asked to choose the person who is most suitable and deserving to be the next Prime Minister of India. The choices were P, Q, R and S. No person was allowed to make more than one choice. Each of P, Q, R and S was one of the candidates selected by people of at least one city. When the results of the survey were evaluated, it was observed that in each of the cities, the number of distinct choices (for the Prime Minister) made by the people of that city was two or three. Also, in every city, one or the other of the four given persons was chosen by more than fifty percent of the people of that city. Further, following points are known: 1. In no two cities, the combination of choices made by the people was the same. 2. The number of cities, where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q, is same and is more than or equal to 4. Also, each of these three persons was chosen by more than fifty percent of the people from exactly two cities. 3. R was chosen by more than fifty percent people in only those cities where the number of distinct choices made by the people was 2. 4. P, who was not chosen by any one from Mumbai, and was chosen by more than fifty percent people from Pune. 5. Q, who was not chosen by any one from Pune, was chosen by more than fifty percent people from Bangalore. Also, R was not chosen by any one from Bangalore. 6. The people of Hyderabad selected Q (chosen by more than fifty percent), P and R. 7. The number of cities where people made 3 distinct choices was one more than the cities where people made 2 distinct choices. 8. In no two cities of New Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai, the person chosen by more than fifty percent of the people was the same. The number of distinct choices made by the people from cities of Kolkata and Chennai was 2 and that from Bangalore was 3. 9. S was not chosen by the people from New Delhi. 1) Which of the following statements can be true?

R was chosen by more than 50 percent of people from New Delhi. R was chosen by more than 50 percent of people from Kolkata. R was chosen by more than 50 percent of people from Mumbai. More than one of the above. Video Explanation: Explanation: From (7), it is clear that four cities made 3 distinct choices and three cities made 2 distinct choices. So, the total count of choices made by the people from seven cities put together = 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18 Let, the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q be X and the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose S be Y. From (2), we get that Y + 3X = 18 and X is more than 4. X cannot be 6 as that would mean Y = 0 and it would violate the condition that each of P, Q, R and S was one chosen in at least one city. Therefore P, Q and R were chosen by people of 5 cities and S was chosen by people of 3 cities. From conditions (4), (5), (6), (8) and (9) we get

From (7), the number of cities where people selected 3 candidates = 4 and the number of cities where people selected 2 candidates = 3. S was not selected by people of Hyderabad and New Delhi. People of Hyderabad selected 3 different candidates. If people of New Delhi have also selected 3 candidates, the combination of candidates made by people of New Delhi and Hyderabad will be same, which will violate condition (1). Therefore people of New Delhi selected 2 candidates. Therefore, the people of Chennai, Kolkata and New Delhi selected 2 candidates while the people of other cities selected 3 candidates. So far we have,

From condition (2), R was selected by more than 50% people in two of the three cities out of New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. So far we have accounted for both the cities in which Q was selected by more than 50% people.Therefore Q was not selected by more than 50% people in New Delhi, Kolkata or Chennai. Therefore from condition (8), P and R were selected by more than 50% people in one of New Delhi and Kolkata. Therefore R was selected by more than 50% people in Chennai.

Now, we have yet to account for the city in which R was selected by more than 50% people. Let’s evaluate the following two cases: 1. R was chosen by more than 50% people in Kolkata. 2. R was chosen by more than 50% people in New Delhi. Case 1:

One of P and Q was chosen in Kolkata and the other was chosen in Chennai. Case 2:

One of P and Q was chosen by people in New Delhi and the other was chosen by people in Chennai. It can be seen that R could have been chosen by more than 50% people of either New Delhi or Kolkata. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer:

More than one of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 272 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 % 2) For how many cities, all the persons chosen by the people of that city can be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From (7), it is clear that four cities made 3 distinct choices and three cities made 2 distinct choices. So, the total count of choices made by the people from seven cities put together = 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18 Let, the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q be X and the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose S be Y. From (2), we get that Y + 3X = 18 and X is more than 4. X cannot be 6 as that would mean Y = 0 and it would violate the condition that each of P, Q, R and S was one chosen in at least one city. Therefore P, Q and R were chosen by people of 5 cities and S was chosen by people of 3 cities. From conditions (4), (5), (6), (8) and (9) we get

From condition (2), R was selected by more than 50% people in two of the three cities out of New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. So far we have accounted for both the cities in which Q was selected by more than 50% people. Therefore Q was not selected by more than 50% people in New Delhi, Kolkata or Chennai. Therefore from condition (8), P and R were selected by more than 50% people in one of New Delhi and Kolkata.

Therefore R was selected by more than 50% people in Chennai.

Now, we have yet to account for the city in which R was selected by more than 50% people. Let’s evaluate the following two cases:

1. R was chosen by more than 50% people in Kolkata. 2. R was chosen by more than 50% people in New Delhi.

Case 1:

One of P and Q was chosen in Kolkata and the other was chosen in Chennai. Case 2:

One of P and Q was chosen by people in New Delhi and the other was chosen by people in Chennai.

It can be seen that the candidates selected by the people of Mumbai, Bangalore, Hyderabad and Pune can be uniquely determined. However we cannot determine the candidates who are selected by the people of New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 3) Which of the following persons was chosen by the people from Chennai, but by no more than 50 percent of the people? P Q Either P or Q Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From (7), it is clear that four cities made 3 distinct choices and three cities made 2 distinct choices. So, the total count of choices made by the people from seven cities put together = 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18 Let, the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q be X and the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose S be Y. From (2), we get that Y + 3X = 18 and X is more than 4. X cannot be 6 as that would mean Y = 0 and it would violate the condition that each of P, Q, R and S was one chosen in at least one city.

Therefore P, Q and R were chosen by people of 5 cities and S was chosen by people of 3 cities. From conditions (4), (5), (6), (8) and (9) we get

From condition (2), R was selected by more than 50% people in two of the three cities out of New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. So far we have accounted for both the cities in which Q was selected by more than 50% people. Therefore Q was not selected by more than 50% people in New Delhi, Kolkata or Chennai. Therefore from condition (8), P and R were selected by more than 50% people in one of New Delhi and Kolkata. Therefore R was selected by more than 50% people in Chennai.

One of P and Q was chosen in Kolkata and the other was chosen in Chennai. Case 2:

One of P and Q was chosen by people in New Delhi and the other was chosen by people in Chennai. More than 50% people of Chennai selected R. But the other choice is either P or Q. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Either P or Q

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 % 4) In how many cities was S one of the chosen persons? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: From (7), it is clear that four cities made 3 distinct choices and three cities made 2 distinct choices. So, the total count of choices made by the people from seven cities put together = 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18 Let, the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q be X and the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose S be Y. From (2), we get that Y + 3X = 18 and X is more than 4. X cannot be 6 as that would mean Y = 0 and it would violate the condition that each of P, Q, R and S was one chosen in at least one city. Therefore P, Q and R were chosen by people of 5 cities and S was chosen by people of 3 cities. From conditions (4), (5), (6), (8) and (9) we get

From condition (2), R was selected by more than 50% people in two of the three cities out of New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. So far we have accounted for both the cities in which Q was selected by more than 50% people. Therefore Q was not selected by more than 50% people in New Delhi, Kolkata or Chennai. Therefore from condition (8), P and R were selected by more than 50% people in one of New Delhi and Kolkata. Therefore R was selected by more than 50% people in Chennai.

One of P and Q was chosen in Kolkata and the other was chosen in Chennai. Case 2:

One of P and Q was chosen by people in New Delhi and the other was chosen by people in Chennai. One or more persons of Mumbai, Pune and Bangalore chose S. Therefore, the required answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In the qualifiers for the 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup, cricket teams from European countries Netherlands and Ireland, African countries Zimbabwe and Kenya, and Asian countries Afghanistan and UAE were the only six participants. The format of the Qualifiers is as follows – The top two teams (in terms of number of matches won) qualified for the world cup. In case of a tie for the top two teams, the two teams that qualify for the world cup was to be decided in a tie-breaker round. Two matches were played every day over six days (Monday to Saturday). One match each was played in the morning slot and in the evening slot every day. The teams playing the evening match did not play the next day. Each team played four matches, one match against every team except the team from the same continent. Every team played two morning and two evening matches. No team play two matches in a day. The following information regarding the schedule for the tournament is known. 1. All teams except Ireland played their morning matches on consecutive days. 2. Afghanistan won all their matches while Kenya lost all their matches. 3. UAE won their match on Friday evening. 4. Ireland lost its match on Saturday morning. 5. Afghanistan defeated the teams from Europe on Tuesday evening and Thursday morning. 1) Which team played against UAE on Friday evening? Netherlands Zimbabwe Ireland Cannot be Determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From the first condition, we can deduce that Ireland played its morning matches on Monday and Saturday. Therefore, Netherlands played against Afghanistan on Thursday morning and Ireland played against them on Tuesday evening. Since, Afghanistan played on Tuesday evening; itdid not play on Wednesday. So, Netherlands played on Wednesday morning and Afghanistan play on Friday morning. From condition 3, UAE won on Friday evening, which means they did not play on Saturday. Also, Ireland lost on Saturday morning, it must be against Zimbabwe since Kenya lost all their matches. Zimbabwe played Friday and Saturday morning. Zimbabwe and UAE played on Friday, so they cannot play Thursday evening, hence, it must be Kenya and Ireland. UAE and Zimbabwe played each other on Wednesday evening. The remaining slots and the final schedule is as below.

Afghanistan won all their matches and Kenya loses all their matches. Zimbabwe won against Ireland on Saturday morning and UAE won against Netherlands on Friday evening. Based on these results, the table looks as follows:

The outcomes of Ireland vs. UAE, Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands and Zimbabwe vs. UAE is not known to us. From the table, we see that UAE won against Netherlands on Friday Evening. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Netherlands

Time taken by you: 402 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 453 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 60 % 2) How many teams played their evening matches on alternate days? 1 2 3 4 Video Explanation:

The outcomes of Ireland vs. UAE, Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands and Zimbabwe vs. UAE is not known to us. Zimbabwe, Ireland, UAE and Kenya played their evening matches on alternate days. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 157 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 49 % 3) If UAE lost both their remaining matches, then which team of qualified for the World Cup 2019, if it is known that tie-breaker was not required? (Here remaining matches means the matches whose outcomes are not known to us.) Netherlands Zimbabwe Ireland Cannot be Determined Video Explanation:

The outcomes of Ireland vs. UAE, Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands and Zimbabwe vs. UAE is not known to us. If UAE lost both their matches, the table will look as follows:

The result of Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands is not known to us. If Zimbabwe beat, they directly qualify for the World Cup. If Zimbabwe lost to Netherlands, then UAE, Ireland, Zimbabwe and Netherlands will win 2 matches each necessitating a tie-breaker. As tie-breaker was not needed, Zimbabwe beat Netherlands, and qualified for the World Cup. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Zimbabwe

Time taken by you: 126 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 % 4) If Zimbabwe lost both the remaining matches, then which team qualified for the World Cup 2019? (Here remaining matches means the matches whose outcomes are not known to us.)

Netherlands UAE Ireland Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From the first condition, we can deduce that Ireland played its morning matches on Monday and Saturday. Therefore, Netherlands played against Afghanistan on Thursday morning and Ireland played against them on Tuesday evening. Since, Afghanistan played on Tuesday evening; itdid not play on Wednesday. So, Netherlands played on Wednesday morning and Afghanistan play on Friday morning. From condition 3, UAE won on Friday evening, which means they did not play on Saturday. Also, Ireland lost on Saturday morning, it must be against Zimbabwe since Kenya lost all their matches. Zimbabwe played Friday and Saturday morning. Zimbabwe and UAE played on Friday, so they cannot play Thursday evening, hence, it must be Kenya and Ireland. UAE and Zimbabwe played each other on Wednesday evening. The remaining slots and the final schedule is as below.

The outcomes of Ireland vs. UAE, Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands and Zimbabwe vs. UAE is not known to us.

Afghanistan definitely qualified for the ICC Cricket Word Cup 2019. If Zimbabwe lost both the matches the table is as follows:

In this case, Zimbabwe, Ireland, Netherlands and Kenya lost 3, 2, 2 and 4 matches. UAE lost 0 matches. Therefore, though the result of the match between UAE vs. Ireland is not known UAE definitely qualified. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: UAE

Time taken by you: 12 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are 12 persons, 3 each from four different families – the Ahuja’s, the Sharma’s, the Malhotra’s and the Mishra’s. Given below are five groups, each group consisting of four persons such that no group consists of two persons from the same family.

Further it is given that: I. R and Y are not from the same family. II. T and Y are not from the same family. III. O is from the Ahuja’s. IV. Neither T nor Y are from the Sharma’s. 1) X is from the same family as: Q W Z Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Consider members of groups C and E. From I and II, R and T are not Y’s family members. X and Y are members of group E so, X is not from Y’s family. So, group C has member V from Y’s family. Q and Y are members of group B. O and V are members of group D. So, O and Q are not members of Y & Z’s family. So, S represents the family; to which Y and V belong; in group A. Thus, from III and IV, Y, V and S belong to family 1 (i.e., either Mishra's orMalhotra's). Now consider groups A and D. Neither Q nor Z are from same family as O. Among members of group B, Q, Z and Y are not from Ahuja family. So, W has to be from Ahuja family. R and V are not Ahuja family members. If T is from Ahuja family, then group E will not have a representation of Ahuja family. Thus, Ahuja family: O, W and X. Consider remaining members of groups A, B and C. R and Z has to be from one family. And Q and T from the other family. Now from members of groups D and E, it can be concluded that R, Z and P are members of a same family, while Q, T and U are from one family. So, from IV, Sharma family: R, Z and P Q, T and U belong to family 2 (i.e., eitherMalhotra's or Mishra's).

X is from the same family as W. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: W

Time taken by you: 611 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 302 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 51 % 2) Who among the following is definitely from the Sharma’s? Z P Both Z and P Either Z or P Video Explanation:

Both Z and P are from Sharma family. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both Z and P

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 51 % 3) Which of the following statements is not correct? If Q is from the Mishra’s, then S is from the Malhotra’s. X is from the Ahuja’s and Z is from the Sharma’s. If U is from the Malhotra’s, then S is from the Mishra’s. None of these. 4) For how many persons, the exact families they belong to can be uniquely determined 10 9 8 6

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. Eight persons – Aman, Anant, Andrew, Barry, Bob, Dave, Debby and Dev – are to be seated around a round table facing inwards. The following information is provided regarding their seating arrangement. 1. There is only one pair of persons whose names start with the same letter such that the two persons in the pair sit diametrically opposite to each other. 2. The two persons who are seated at an angle of 135° (in clockwise as well as anti-clockwise directions) with respect to Aman have their names starting with the same letter. 3. Dave sits diametrically opposite Aman. Anant sits diametrically opposite a person whose name starts with the immediate next letter in the alphabet. 4. Both the immediate neighbours of Bob have their names starting with different letters. 1) If position of Bob is fixed, the positions of how many people (including Bob) can be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: From (1) and (3) the two people sitting diametrically opposite must be Dev and Debby. From (2), either (Andrew and Anant) or (Barry and Bob) are seated on Dave’s sides. If Barry and Bob are on Dave’s sides, it will violate condition (4). Therefore, Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order. The seating arrangement is as follows:

If position of Bob is fixed, positions of Aman, Bob, Berry and Dave can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 256 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 199 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 % 2) Who sits at an angle 90° in anti-clockwise direction with respect to Dave? Dev Barry Debby Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From (1) and (3) the two people sitting diametrically opposite must be Dev and Debby. From (2), either (Andrew and Anant) or (Barry and Bob) are seated on Dave’s sides. If Barry and Bob are on Dave’s sides, it will violate condition (4). Therefore, Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order. The seating arrangement is as follows:

Either Dev or Debby sits at an angle of 90° in the anti-clockwise direction with respect to Dave. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 259 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 3) If Anant sits to the immediate right of Dev, then who sits second to the left of Debby? Aman Bob Dave Barry Video Explanation:

Explanation: From (1) and (3) the two people sitting diametrically opposite must be Dev and Debby. From (2), either (Andrew and Anant) or (Barry and Bob) are seated on Dave’s sides. If Barry and Bob are on Dave’s sides, it will violate condition (4). Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order. The seating arrangement is as follows:

If Anant sits to the immediate right of Dev, the seating arrangement is as follows,

From this arrangement, we see that the person sitting second to the left of Debby is Dave. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Dave

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 % 4) If Andrew sits at an angle of 90° with respect to Barry, then what is the measure of the angle (in degrees) between Bob and Andrew in the clockwise direction? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

If Andrew sits at an angle 90° with respect to Barry, the seating arrangement is,

Bob and Andrew sit diametrically opposite to each other. Therefore, the required answer is 180.

Correct Answer: 180

Time taken by you: 23 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 76 %

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Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined undefined How many different types of regular convex polygons having more than 12 sides have the measures (in degrees) of both their interior angles and their central angle (i.e., the angle subtended by one of the side at the centre of the polygon) as integer values (in degrees)? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 14 Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 9 %

undefined A bag contains three different types of marbles red, blue and green. The ratio of the number of red marbles to the number of blue marbles is 1 : 2 and the total number of green marbles is 20. In all, 5 green marbles and 2 red marbles are replaced by equal number of blue marbles. Now, the ratio of the number of red marbles and the number of blue marbles in the bag is 1 : 3. Find the total number of marbles in the bag. 56 59 62 65

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the initial number of red marbles and blue marbles be x and 2x respectively.

Total number of marbles = x + 2x + 20 =3x + 20 If 2 red and 5 green marbles are replaced by blue marbles, the bag will have (x– 2) red marbles, (2x + 7) blue marbles and 15 green marbles. By the given conditions,

Correct Answer: 59 Time taken by you: 53 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 146 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 %

undefined A bacterium gives birth to 2 bacteria in each hour. It is dies immediately after reproducing for the second time. If a single bacterium is kept in a favourable medium, then what will be the bacteria population at the end of 5 hours? 63 120 148 164

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: At the end of 2 hours, 1 bacterium dies. At the end of 3 hours, those bacteria die who were born at the end of 1 hour. Total Living Bacteria at the end of n hours = New born in that hour + Total bacteria at the end of (n- 1) hour - Bacteria born in (n - 2) hour Going ahead with this understanding, we can tabulate the data as follows:

Therefore, the required answer is 164. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 164

Time taken by you: 210 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 26 %

undefined The average of X numbers decreases by 1.5 when 75% of the X numbers are reduced by 5 each and remaining numbers are increased by Y. The value of Y is: Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 53 %

undefined The number of apples Manoj need for 12 days is two-fifth of the number of apples Vinod needs for 20 days. By what percentage is the number of apples needed by Vinod more than that by Manoj for 180 days? 80% 50% 125%

75%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 50%

Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 137 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 %

undefined The number of zeroes at the end of 500C 250 is: Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 113 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 %

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11 7 4 9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11 Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 326 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Consider the following two equations |2x – 3| – 2y = 0 |3x + 2y| = 1

If points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are the two values of (x, y) respectively that satisfy both the equations, what is the value of |x 1× x2 × y1 × y2|? 0 77 154 105

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 154 Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 124 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 %

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In the adjoining diagram, ABCD is a parallelogram with m∠BCD = 135°. AB is diameter of the circle and ℓ(AB) = 12 cm. What is the area common between the circle and the parallelogram (in cm2)?

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 109 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 151 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 75 %

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1 2 0.5 Cannot be determined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 31 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

undefined How many combinations of the letters of the word ‘MAHARASHTRA’ are possible such that ‘R’ is always immediately followed by ‘H’? 15120 7560 3360 1680

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 7560 Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined A shopkeeper uses false weights and thereby cheats customer by giving 750 gm instead of 1 kg. He also claims that he sells rice at cost price. In order to increase his sales he offered 125 gm of rice free with every 1 kg of rice. What is his overall percentage (approximate) profit if a customer buys 1 kg of rice and if the shopkeeper uses false weight to measure 125 gm also? 14.28% 18.52% 21.42% 28.56%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 7560 Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined The price of an article is first increased by 20%, then decreased by 10%, then increased by 30% and finally decreased by 40%. Approximately, what was the price of the article, when expressed as a percentage of its initial price? 68% 77% 85% 105%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If the initial price is P, then the final price will be P × 1.2 × 0.9 × 1.3 × 0.6 = 0.8424 P.

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 85% Time taken by you: 40 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 %

undefined In a kilometer race, Prakash beats Qasim by 60 seconds, and gets beaten by Robin by 40 seconds. If Qasim ran at 2 m/s, at what speed did Robin run? 2.5 m/s 2.6 m/s 2.75 m/s 2.25 m/s

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2.5 m/s Time taken by you: 217 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined Two identical samples of 225 ml of a composite liquid M, which is a mixture of liquids A, B and water, were sent to two testing labs P and Q to determine the ratio in which A, B and water is present in M. While transporting the 225 ml sample to lab P, some water accidently seeped into the sample and the lab gave the test results as 2 : 3 : 5. While transporting the other sample to lab Q, some water got evaporated and the test results came out to be 6 : 9 : 10. If the amount of water that got added in the first sample is four times the amount of water that got evaporated in the second sample, find the ratio in which the three liquids A, B and water are present in M. 2:3: 15 8 : 12 : 15 12 : 18 : 25 6:9: 11 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose x = quantity of water evaporated from the sample sent to lab Q. Therefore the quantity of water got added to the sample sent to lab P = 4x. Volume of the sample tested by lab P: 225 + 4x Volume of the sample tested by lab Q: 225 – x Report given by lab P is 2 : 3 : 5 and the report given by lab Q is 6 : 9 : 10

Suppose volumes of liquid A, liquid B and water in the sample reached to lab P are 6a, 9a and 15a respectively. Sample sent to lab Q has same volume of liquid A and liquid B. Therefore volume of liquid A and liquid B in the sample sent to lab Q is also 6a and 9a respectively. The liquid A, liquid B and water in the sample sent to lab Q are in the ratio6 : 9 : 10. Therefore volume of water in the sample reached to lab Q = 10 a.

From the table, we can see that 5a = 5x or a = x. In order to calculate the ratio of the three in original sample, we need to add water with volume‘a’ to the sample sent to lab Q. Therefore, the volume of liquid A, liquid B and water will become 6a, 9a and 11a or the required ratio will be 6: 9 : 11. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 6 : 9 : 11

6 : 9 : 11 Time taken by you: 318 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined A function g(x) defined for all real values of x such that g(2x + 4) = 5g(x) + 2. If g(12) = 17, then what is the value of 5g(0)? 0 3 2 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 27 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Ram has 20 pencils – some of type A and others of type B. The length of each pencil of type A is 5 cm while that of type B is 8 cm. Ram gave ‘a’ pencils of type A to Shyam. In return, Shyam gave ‘a’ pencils of type B to Ram. If the average length of pencils with Ram is increased by 1.5 cm, then what is the value of ‘a’? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The total number of pencils with Ram remained the same after the exchange.

Also, net increase in the sum of lengths of pencils with Ram = (8– 5)a = 3a Increase in average length of pencils with Ram = 1.5 × 20 = 30 ? 3a = 30 ? a = 10 Therefore, the required answer is 10. Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

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2 9y 12y 6y

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 9y

9y Time taken by you: 54 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 137 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 92 %

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 15 Time taken by you: 270 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 13 %

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The age of Virat ‘A’ years ago was two-fifths of what his age would be ‘A’ years from now. His age ‘B’ years from now would be four times of what his age was ‘B’ years ago. The ratio A : B is:

7: 5 5: 7 4: 3 3: 4 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5:7 Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined A group of men (all work with equal efficiency) working together can complete a job in M hours. Instead of working together, after every 8 hours, half of the men of the group working at that point of time leave the job. Continuing this way, the job is finished in 40 hours. What is the value of M? 15

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 110 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

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logx 3 = 6 logx 6 = 3 log36 = x log63 = x

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: logx 3 = 6

Time taken by you: 163 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined If |x2 – 5x + 6| < |x2 – 9|, then which of the following is always true? |2x2 + 3x + 1| < 2

Both the above None of the above Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The questions that Ambar got wrong can be determined in10C 2 ways and Pranav has got his 3 wrong from the remaining 8

in 8C 3 ways. So, total number of ways = 10C 2 × 8C 3 ways = 2520. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 2520 Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined If |x2 – 5x + 6| < |x2 – 9|, then which of the following is always true? |2x2 + 3x + 1| < 2

Both the above None of the above Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: None of the above

None of the above Time taken by you: 241 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined John, Tony and Roger are at points A, B and C respectively on a straight line. Initially, at time t = 0, distance between John and Tony is same as the distance between Tony and Roger. At time t = 0, John and Tony start running towards each other at speeds of 12 m/s and 9 m/s respectively. At t = 0, Roger starts running towards Tony with constant speed ‘s’ such at any instant, the distance between John and Tony is same as the distance between Tony and Roger. What is the value of ‘s’? 12 m/s 21 m/s 30 m/s 39 m/s

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30 m/s Time taken by you: 37 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Which of the following discount scheme on the marked price is most favourable to the buyer? Three successive discounts of 20% each. Three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% in any order. The successive discounts of 5%, 20% and 35% in any order.

Buy 3 and get 2 free.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: The successive discounts of 5%, 20% and 35% in any order. Time taken by you: 162 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined If m and n are positive real number such that log16m4n6 = 5 and log32mn4 = 9, and mn2 = 2k , then the value of k is: Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 13 Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined If x – y2 = 4 and x2 + y4 = 26, where x and y are positive and real, then the value of x is: Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 Time taken by you: 32 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined In how many ways can 5 identical red balls, 6 identical green balls and 7 identical blue balls be arranged in a row such that all the red balls are together and no two green balls are together? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 672 Time taken by you: 110 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 17 %

undefined Two identical rectangles having length = 24 units and breadth = 7 units are inscribed in a circle of area ‘a’ as shown in the figure given below. The area of the shaded region is (a − b). The value of 'b' is:

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Area of the shaded region = (a – b), where ‘b’ is the area covered by the rectangles. Area covered by the rectangles = (24 × 7) + (24 – 7)(7) = 287 Therefore, the required answer is 287. Correct Answer: 287 Time taken by you: 116 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 97 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined For what value of k, is the line (2x – y + 1) + k(x + 3y + 2) = 0 perpendicular to x = 4? –2 2

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined A farmer has 88 m of barbed wire fencing. With this he encloses a fieldof area X sq. m. What can be said about the maximum possible value of X? 600 < X < 650 550 < X < 600 500 < X < 550 450 < X < 500 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The maximum area that can be enclosed within a given perimeter is a circle.

Correct Answer: 600 < X < 650 Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 485 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Any universal concept of time must ultimately be based on the evolution of the cosmos itself. When you look up at the universe you’re seeing events that happened in the past – it takes light time to reach us. In fact, even the simplest observation can help us understand cosmological time: for example the fact that the night sky is dark. If the universe had an infinite past and was infinite in extent, the night sky would be completely bright – filled with the light from an infinite number of stars in a cosmos that had always existed. For a long time scientists, including Albert Einstein, thought that the universe was static and infinite. Observations have since shown that it is in fact expanding, and at an accelerating rate. This means that it must have originated from a more compact state that we call the Big Bang, implying that time does have a beginning. In fact, if we look for light that is old enough we can even see the relic radiation from Big Bang – the cosmic microwave background. Realising this was a first step in determining the age of the universe. But there is a snag, Einstein’s special theory of relativity, shows that time is … relative: the faster you move relative to me, the slower time will pass for you relative to my perception of time. So in our universe of expanding galaxies, spinning stars and swirling planets, experiences of time vary: everything’s past, present and future is relative. So is there a universal time that we could all agree on? It turns out that because the universe is on average the same everywhere, and on average looks the same in every direction, there does exist a “cosmic time”. To measure it, all we have to do is measure the properties of the cosmic microwave background. Cosmologists have used this to determine the age of the universe; its cosmic age. It turns out that the universe is 13.799 billion years old. So we know time most likely started during the Big Bang. But there is one nagging question that remains: what exactly is time? To unpack this question, we have to look at the basic properties of space and time. In the dimension of space, you can move forwards and backwards; commuters experience this everyday. But time is different, it has a direction, you always move forward, never in reverse. So why is the dimension of time irreversible? This is one of the major unsolved problems in physics. To explain why time itself is irreversible, we need to find processes in nature that are also irreversible. One of the few such concepts in physics (and life!) is that things tend to become less “tidy” as time passes. We describe this using a physical property called entropy that encodes how ordered something is. Imagine a box of gas in which all the particles were initially placed in one corner (an ordered state). Over time they would naturally seek to fill the entire box (a disordered state) – and to put the particles back into an ordered state would require energy. This is irreversible. It’s like cracking an egg to make an omelette – once it spreads out and fills the frying pan, it will never go back to being egg-shaped. It’s the same with the universe: as it evolves, the overall entropy increases. It turns out entropy is a pretty good way to explain time’s arrow. And while it may seem like the universe is becoming more ordered rather than less – going from a wild sea of relatively uniformly spread out hot gas in its early stages to stars, planets, humans and articles about time – it’s nevertheless possible that it is increasing in disorder. That’s because the gravity associated with large masses may be pulling matter into seemingly ordered states – with the increase in disorder that we think must have taken place being somehow hidden away in the gravitational fields. So disorder could be increasing even though we don’t see it. But given nature’s tendency to prefer disorder, why did the universe start off in such an ordered state in the first place? This is still considered a mystery. Some researchers argue that the Big Bang may not even have been the beginning, there may in fact be “parallel universes" where time runs in different directions. 1) According to the passage, “the fact that the night sky is dark”, indicates … that Big Bang may not have been the beginning of time.

that there is a beginning of time as we know it. that light sources are few in our universe. that the universe itself has always existed. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. The darkness of the night sky is mentioned in order to point to the fact that light sources in the universe are finite as the universe itself is finite. And this points to the fact that there is a point where the universe and therefore time, as we know it, began. The first paragraph states: “If the universe had an infinite past and was infinite in extent, the night sky would be completely bright – filled with the light from an infinite number of stars in a cosmos that had always existed.” Option 1 is incorrect. The passage explains that ‘time’, as we know it, originated with Big Bang. Option 1 is contrary to this. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The darkness of the night sky is an indication that there is a beginning for time as we know it. As the first paragraph states, the universe clearly has a finite past, as can be inferred from the finite stars that light up the night sky. Also, paragraph 2 states: “This means that it must have originated from a more compact state that we call the Big Bang, implying that time does have a beginning.” Therefore, retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. ‘Few’ is a relative term. The number of light sources is less important than the fact that light sources are not infinite. But in an infinite universe the light sources would also be infinite. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage goes on to say that the universe had a definite beginning-- that it has not always existed. Therefore, reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: that there is a beginning of time as we know it.

Time taken by you: 341 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 231 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? Light in the cosmos comes from stars. Time has the same dimensions as space. The Big Bang is not a generally accepted theory. The universe is growing larger at a consistent rate. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. Refer to the last line of paragraph 1 – “If the universe had an infinite past and was infinite in extent, the night sky would be completely bright – filled with the light from an infinite number of stars in a cosmos that had always existed.” Thus, it is clear that the sources of light in the cosmos are stars. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The 7th paragraph states: “we have to look at the basic properties of space and time. In the dimension of space, you can move forwards and backwards; commuters experience this everyday. But time is different, it has a direction, you always move forward, never in reverse.” Thus, time does not have the same dimensions as space does. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions the Big Bang as a point of reference. For example, it states: “This means that it must have originated from a more compact state that we call the Big Bang, implying that time does have a beginning.” Though, at no point in the passage does it imply that the Big Bang is not a generally accepted theory. Therefore, reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 2 where it states: “For a long time scientists, including Albert Einstein, thought that the universe was static and infinite. Observations have since shown that it is in fact expanding, and at an accelerating rate.” The universe is expanding at an accelerating, and not a consistent rate. Therefore, reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Light in the cosmos comes from stars.

Time taken by you: 70 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 44 % 3) The passage implies that cosmic microwave background: while ubiquitous, is a residue of starlight is a radiation that pervades the cosmos is proof of the entropy that is the property of all matter is a measure of the inherent instability of the cosmos Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states: “In fact, if we look for light that is old enough we can even see the relic radiation from Big Bang – the cosmic microwave background.” The cosmic microwave background is, therefore, said to be a residue of the Big Bang, and not that of starlight. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. The cosmic microwave background is said to be ‘the relic radiation from Big Bang’. The passage also states: “It turns out that because the universe is on an average the same everywhere, and on average looks the same in every direction, there does exist a “cosmic time”. To measure it, all we have to do is measure the properties of the cosmic microwave background.” This implies that the cosmic microwave background is a radiation that can be detected all through the universe; it is the relic radiation following the Big Bang, lingering in this measure. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Entropy is said to be a physical property that encodes how ordered something is. The cosmic wave background, on the other hand, is said to be the residual radiation from the Big Bang that can be used to measure the passage of time by studying the properties of the background radiation. The passage does not imply, therefore, that this cosmic microwave background is the proof of entropy. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The ‘inherent instability of the cosmos’ is too vague and unspecific an assessment to derive from the contents of the passage and what it states about the cosmic microwave background. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: is a radiation that pervades the cosmos

Time taken by you: 114 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 4) The fact that time is relative to position and speed can imply all of the following EXCEPT: A human on earth can view a star that is yet to form. The order in the cosmos is deceptive. A powerful enough device can read the microwaves post the big bang. The personal experience of time is individual and not uniform. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is not implied in the passage and is therefore correct. There is nothing in the passage to imply that the future can be ‘viewed’. The passage states: “In the dimension of space, you can move forwards and backwards; commuters experience this every day. But time is different, it has a direction, you always move forward, never in reverse.” So, while the radiation from the big bang can be read, the time that lies ahead is out of bounds to our understanding. Retain option 1. Option 2 is implied in the passage. The penultimate paragraph states: “It turns out entropy is a pretty good way to explain time’s arrow. And while it may seem like the universe is becoming more ordered rather than less – going from a wild sea of relatively uniformly spread out hot gas in its early stages to stars, planets, humans and articles about time – it’s nevertheless possible that it is increasing in disorder.” The implication is that order in the cosmos is deceptive. Reject option 2. Option 3 is implied in the passage. Refer to the passage where it states: “It turns out that because the universe is on average the same everywhere, and on average looks the same in every direction, there does exist a “cosmic time”. To measure it, all we have to do is measure the properties of the cosmic microwave background.” Thus, option 3 is implied in the passage. Reject option 3. Option 4 is implied in the passage. Refer to the third paragraph: “…Einstein’s special theory of relativity, shows that time is … relative: the faster you move relative to me, the slower time will pass for you relative to my perception of time. So in our universe of expanding galaxies, spinning stars and swirling planets, experiences of time vary: everything’s past, present and future is relative.” In other words, the personal experiencing of time is individual and not uniform. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: A human on earth can view a star that is yet to form.

Time taken by you: 154 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 53 % 5) According to the passage, which of the following could possibly give us a clue to explaining the paradox of order in a universe that clearly prefers disorder? The measure of time that is reflected in the cosmic waves such as x-rays and microwaves The radiation measures from gravitational bodies, formed since the big bang The evaluation of notional entities like relative time and relative space The information that could be gleaned from gravitational fields Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer to the passage where it states: “And while it may seem like the universe is becoming more ordered rather than less – going from a wild sea of relatively uniformly spread out hot gas in its early stages to stars, planets, humans and articles about time – it’s nevertheless possible that it is increasing in disorder. That’s because the gravity associated with large masses may be pulling matter into seemingly ordered states – with the increase in disorder that we think must have taken place being somehow hidden away in the gravitational fields.” The disorder is therefore possibly hidden in the gravitational fields, according to the passage. There is no mention of x-rays in the passage. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Radiation measure, from gravitational bodies, is not a concept that is referred to in the passage. Reject option 2. Option 3 – Measuring time and space is not connected with Entropy, in the passage. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage states that “…the gravity associated with large masses may be pulling matter into seemingly ordered states – with the increase in disorder that we think must have taken place being somehow hidden away in the gravitational fields.” Thus, according to the passage, the information contained in gravitational fields could possibly give us a clue to understanding the paradox of order, in a world that clearly prefers disorder. Retain option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: The information that could be gleaned from gravitational fields

Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 6)

According to the passage, which of the following is not true of entropy? It is a property of all things in the cosmos. The consequences of entropy cannot be reversed. Entropy is the property that reveals the state of order of something. Entropy explains the fact that microwaves are lingering remnants of things. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is true of Entropy and follows from what has been said in the passage. The passage states: “To explain why time itself is irreversible, we need to find processes in nature that are also irreversible. One of the few such concepts in physics (and life!) is that things tend to become less “tidy” as time passes.” Thus, all things are said to possess Entropy. Reject option 1. Option 2 is also true of Entropy and follows from the passage. Entropy defines the “processes in nature that are also irreversible”. Therefore, it is true to state that the consequences of entropy cannot be reversed. Reject option 2. Option 3 is the stated definition of Entropy -- that ‘a physical property called entropy encodes how ordered something is.’ Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. Microwaves are not defined in the passage and certainly cannot be said to be the “lingering remnants of things”. Thus option 4 is not true of Entropy. Retain option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Entropy explains the fact that microwaves are lingering remnants of things.

Time taken by you: 39 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 4 questions. Choose the best answer to eachquestion. Democracy is a powerful way of disrupting status quo, challenging power equations, shaking up cliques and cartels, pockets of monopoly and exclusivity. The gift of modern democracy is that it effects the change of power through the ballot box. This is a great achievement that we have found a means of transferring power without bloodshed, to disrupt power non-violently. However, once we choose to respect the ballot box, it means that we have tacitly agreed to subordinate our personal will to the will of the collective. Does this mean that we have lost our right to protest? Far from it. It is vital to retain our individual freedom of speech and expression, our capacity to discern and dissent, to dialogue and debate. A democracy is only functional when these individual freedoms are proudly enshrined and robustly protected. Before we become vociferous champions of the cause of individual freedom, it is imperative that we first become individuals. A system that has found ways to manipulate groups to vote en masse – whether on the basis of caste, religion, gender, or even ideology – is not a true democracy. It is feudalism in democratic garb. A thriving democracy, like an authentic spiritual process, is based on the notion of individual freedom. But only when individuals look beyond the lure of populist political and religious propaganda can true democracy and true spirituality be born. In both cases, the individual must emerge from peer pressure and cronyism, narrow group interests and power lobbies. A true spiritual process is never authoritarian. It is always fluid, open-ended and open to debate. This has always been the view of spirituality in this subcontinent. This is a culture of quest, not commandment. Here what we consider to be ‘sacred’ can be debated. It does not have to be obeyed. Even when beings believed to be divine appeared in this land – from Shiva

to Krishna – we did not simply obey them. We questioned them, debated with them. Likewise, the Indian Constitution is not a set of commandments. If it were, it would be the political equivalent of religious authoritarianism. Once you emerge as an individual, it is important to realise that your freedom has an impact on others. To live in a democracy means we have agreed to allow everyone the right to the same freedoms. You may choose to protest a policy, or denounce a film, but if you shut down a city or state to express your rage, you are muzzling other people’s liberties as well. This is personal whim masquerading as freedom, irresponsibility masquerading as individual initiative. The question we must ask ourselves as a nation is this: are we exercising our individual freedom constructively or destructively? Is our freedom truly empowering or is it sabotaging other citizens’ right to well-being? Before we speak of individual freedom, we have to honestly ask a more fundamental question: have we truly become responsible individuals yet? 1) The author claims that democracy is a formidable system to bring about a shift in how power is exercised, because: It empowers citizens to make responsible voting decisions based on the competence of the representatives and not on populist propaganda. It provides citizens the right to protest. It has the ability to disrupt the incumbent power structures. It enables citizens to exercise power by electing representatives from among themselves for a fixedterm. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that democracy empowers citizens to make responsible voting choices. In fact, paragraph 3 states that “A system that has found ways to manipulate groups to vote en masse – whether on the basis of caste, religion, gender, or even ideology – is not a true democracy.” Thus, the author implies that a democratic system could be manipulated to prevent responsible voting. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 does not answer the specific question. Paragraph 2 states that, in a democracy, by submitting to the will of the collective, we do not lose our right to protest. Also, you will notice in paragraph 1 that the passage does not suggest that ‘right to protest’ is what makes democracy a powerful way of disrupting the status quo or bringing about a shift in how power is exercised. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 1. The ability to disrupt power structures is not the sole reason as to why democracy is called a powerful system. Power could also be disrupted by other systems of governance; though this may be violent and involve bloodshed, which is not desirable. Thus we can eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that “Democracy is a powerful way of disrupting status quo, challenging power equations, [and so on]. The gift of modern democracy is that it effects thechange of power through the ballot box. It is a great achievement that we have found a means of transferring power without bloodshed, to disrupt power non-violently.” Thus correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: It enables citizens to exercise power by electing representatives from among themselves for a fixed-term.

Time taken by you: 265 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 16 % 2) According to the passage all of the following hypothetical events would undermine democracy EXCEPT: A political party filed a Public interest litigation to ban a film which is based on true events in the life of that party’s founder. In the national elections, voters from a particular state voted en masse for the Left- wing communist party.

The Indian farmers association has endorsed the Right-wing nationalist party in general elections, since the party has promised full loan waivers. Workers of a state-level party ransacked shops that did not have signboards in the state’s official language. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Paragraph 3 states that “A system that has found ways to manipulate groups to vote en masse – whether on the basis of caste, religion, gender, or even ideology – is not a true democracy.” The next paragraph states “… the individual must emerge from peer pressure and cronyism, narrow group interests and power lobbies.” Also, the second last paragraph states that “… it is important to realise that your freedom has an impact on others. …if you shut down a city or state to express your rage, you are muzzling other people’s liberties as well.” Option 2 is incorrect. “Voters voting en masse on the basis of an ideology” is not true democracy according to the passage. Thus, voters from a particular state voting for the Left-wing communist party would undermine democracy and, therefore, is not an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Supporting a political party, based on narrow group interests like full loan waivers for farmers, would undermine democracy. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Ransacking shops will amount to impacting other people’s liberties and not allowing the due process of law to be followed. Thus, it would undermine democracy and is, therefore, not an exception. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. Though, trying to stop the release of a film may amount to violating the freedom of speech and expression, this case is an exception because the political party has followed the legal course of action by filing a PIL in a court. Now, it is up to the court to decide if the right to privacy of the political party and its founder weighs against the right to freedom of expression of the filmmakers. Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: A political party filed a Public interest litigation to ban a film which is based on true events in the life of that party’s founder.

Time taken by you: 182 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 3) The central idea of the passage is that: Democracy acts as an equalizer of power. Democracy is the rule of the majority. A functional democracy can only be built on a culture of rights and responsibilities. Cronyism and factionalism can stifle democracy. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The passage extols democracy as the best form of government that can “disrupt status quo, challenge power equations, shake up cliques and cartels, pockets of monopoly and exclusivity” nonviolently. The writer, then points out how the system can be manipulated by vested interests and how individual freedom is closely related to individual responsibility. In brief, the writer is concerned about describing how a democratic system of governance ought to be functioning. From this point of view, options 1, 2, and 4 present different aspects of democracy and not the complete gist of the essay. Option 1 talks only about the disruption of status quo and power equations. Option 2 merely defines democracy, and option 4 highlights two of the potential risks faced by democracy. They are, thus, inadequate to represent the central idea of the passage. Option 3, on the other hand, captures the main argument in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: A functional democracy can only be built on a culture of rights and responsibilities.

Time taken by you: 28 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 % 4) The writer invokes “spirituality’ in the context of Indian Constitution for which of the following reasons? Indian Constitution is the political equivalent of the religious texts of the subcontinent. Indian Constitution is considered sacred. Indian Constitution allows amendments and discussions of its fundamental laws. Indian Constitution is akin to religious authoritarianism.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Danino has expressed dissatisfaction that many genetic studies have attributed the ‘spread of agriculture’ into the subcontinent to migrations. Just to be sure that no one thinks that the practice of agriculture is in the genes, I would like to point out that the spread of the technology of agriculture was associated with the movement of people; agriculturists who took the technology to new regions and taught it to the locals in the new region. Movement of people implies movement of genes. Some migrants ‘export’ their genes to a new region by taking spouses from the new region and producing children with them who stay in the new region. We can never be sure that the attribution of agriculture having been introduced to the Indian subcontinent by migrants is fully true. However, genetic data do support this model, especially of the spread of modern, organized agriculture. Having said this, I must also emphasize, once again, that collection of more extensive data is always more helpful in understanding our past and of the spread of our inventions and innovations. A Y-chromosomal signature, haplogroup J, was shown to be associated with the spread of modern agriculture. This signature has its highest frequency in the Fertile Crescent region – the region comprising the present-day countries of Syria, Lebanon, Turkey – where the technology of modern agriculture was invented about 7,000–10,000 years ago. Collection of deeper data showed that this signature is quite heterogeneous and is composed of at least four sub-signatures, one of which – haplogroup J2b2 – is confined to the India–Pakistan region. This sub-signature arose over 13,000 years ago and hence its introduction into India could not have been by migrants who introduced modern agriculture into India. We showed that the haplogroup J2b2 possibly arose in India, because the highest frequency of this haplogroup is found in India. We discovered multiple epicentres of this haplogroup in India and interestingly these epicentres neatly coincided with the seats of introduction of early forms of agriculture in India (as evidenced by the study of fossilized pollen grains by Fuller and his team). It is unlikely that haplogroup J arose independently multiple times in geographically separated places. It probably arose in an ancient population who had spread themselves in geographically separated regions and they invented rudimentary forms of agriculture independently in multiple geographical regions. However, it is notable that these early forms of agriculture remained largely confined to India and Pakistan region.

1) Danino believed that genetic studies, which “attributed the ‘spread of agriculture’ into the Indian subcontinent to migrations,” are: incorrect because migrants did not introduce agriculture into the subcontinent. true because it was indeed migrants who introduced agriculture into the subcontinent. only partially correct as early forms of agriculture were indigenously developed in the subcontinent. originally results of expert intuition but later validated by an improved ability to decipher evidence. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. The passage begins by stating Danino’s dissatisfaction with the presently accepted genetic studies that attribute the spread of agriculture into the subcontinent to migration. The passage, then, relates the advent and spread of agriculture to genetic studies. A “Y-chromosomal signature haplogroup J” is believed to be associated with the spread of modern agriculture, because the gene has its highest frequency in the Fertile Crescent region, where modern agriculture was invented 7000 to 10000 years ago. However, the haplogroup J has four sub signatures, one of them being haplogroup j2b2. This group which is specific to the India- Pakistan region arose 13000 years ago. And, the India-Pakistan region has had early forms of agriculture, unique to this region, much before when modern agriculture originated in the Fertile Crescent. Modern, organized agriculture then spread to other regions including the India-Pakistan region. However, in the first paragraph itself, the spread of modern agriculture is attributed to migrants: “However, genetic data do support this model,(referring to the spread of agriculture in the subcontinent) especially of modern organized agriculture.” Hence, Danino believed that the studies were only partially correct. Option 3 precisely expresses this idea. Option 1 is incorrect. The option is tricky. While it is true that migrants did not introduce (in the sense of originate) agriculture as a practice, this fact is also derived from genetic studies. Hence, the statement that Danino believed genetic studies to be incorrect is misleading. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is factually incorrect – the studies did not show that agriculture was introduced by migrants. The passage says that rudimentary forms of agriculture were indigenously developed. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not state anything about expert intuitions and how they were validated later. The option is unrelated to the passage and irrelevant to the question; it acts as a mere distractor. So, reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: only partially correct as early forms of agriculture were indigenously developed in the subcontinent.

Time taken by you: 272 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 157 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) It can be inferred from the passage that the study of “fossilized pollen grains” … helps reconstruct the forms of past vegetation. helps detect the genetic makeup of plants. helps trace the genetic mutations of cultivated plants. helps trace the genes of the cultivators. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The mention of study of “fossilized pollen grains” is made quite briefly in the passage. The third paragraph states, “We discovered multiple epicentres of this haplogroup in India and interestingly these epicentres neatly coincided with the seats of introduction of early forms of agriculture in India (as evidenced by the study of fossilized pollen grains by Fuller and his team).” The writer takes the technical details for granted, and implies that the study of fossilized pollen is related to the existence of rudimentary forms of agriculture in that place. A general reader of the article can draw only this inference and nothing more. The closest option to this idea is option 1– that the study of fossilized pollen can help archeologists reconstruct the vegetation of that time. This reconstruction has to precede any conclusion about what type of vegetation it was – whether agriculture or, simply, natural growth. Option 1, hence, cannot be disputed and is the correct answer to this question. Options 2 and 3 are technical statements. They may be correct. But only a technocrat or a biotechnology expert can make these inferences, based on their technical knowledge. Reject options 2 and 3. Option 4, which says that the genes of the cultivators can be traced by looking at the fossilized pollen grains, appears far- fetched even for an ordinary reader. Reject option 4 as well. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: helps reconstruct the forms of past vegetation.

Time taken by you: 250 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 % 3) All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT: The genetic signature haplogroup J caused the invention of agriculture. The haplogroup J2b2 probably arose in India. The spread of the technology of agriculture was associated with the movement of people. The haplogroup J has more sub-signatures than just J2b2. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The third paragraph states thus: ‘We showed that the haplogroup J2b2 possibly arose in India, because the highest frequency of this haplogroup is found in India.’ From this, it is clear that option 2 is true. Similarly, the author, in the first paragraph states, ‘I would like to point out that the spread of the technology of agriculture was associated with the movement of people; agriculturists who took the technology to new regions and taught it to the locals in the new region’. Thus, option 3 is true as well. The second paragraph mentions, ‘Collection of deeper data showed that this signature is quite heterogeneous and is composed of at least four subsignatures, one of which – haplogroup J2b2 – is confined to the India–Pakistan region’. Hence, option 4 is also true. However, the second paragraph also states that ‘haplogroup J was shown to be associated with the spread of modern agriculture. This signature has its highest frequency in the Fertile Crescent region where the technology of modern agriculture was invented’. We can thus conclude that there is a correlation between haplogroup J and agriculture. However, the passage presents no data that can conclude that haplogroup J caused the invention of agriculture. Hence, the presence of haplogroup J and agriculture in a particular region can be said to be just a case of correlation, and not that of causation. In the first paragraph, the author cautions against such a mistaken belief. “Just to be sure that no one thinks that the practice of agriculture is in the genes, I would like to point out that the spread of the technology of agriculture was associated with the movement of people” Hence, option 1 cannot be said to be true. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: The genetic signature haplogroup J caused the invention of agriculture.

Time taken by you: 282 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer for each question. A lack of restraint is perhaps the best response to Ishiguro’s novel, The Remains of the Day, which is the tale of a man so burdened by propriety that he lets the love of his life slip through his fingers. Mr Stevens is chief of staff at an English stately home; as the novel opens, in the summer of 1956, he is set to undertake a motoring trip to visit Miss Kenton, a housekeeper who left 20 years earlier to get married. The butler says he wants to ask her if she’d consider returning to work: “Miss Kenton, with her great affection for this house, with her exemplary professionalism, was just the factor needed to enable me to complete a fully satisfactory staff plan for Darlington Hall.” But Stevens isn’t fooling anyone, especially when he lets slip that a letter (“her first in seven years, discounting Christmas cards”) contains hints her marriage is falling apart. Unreliable narrators – those mysterious figures the reader must try to work out – are ten a penny in fiction. Ishiguro, instead, likes to give us unwitting narrators: speakers who remain trapped in self-preserving fictions, mysteries even to themselves. Bit by bit, you learn to look for the real emotions running beneath the buffed surface of the prose. Stevens reminisces grandly about his former employer, Lord Darlington, an aristocrat who aligned himself with the Nazis and eventually died in disgrace. He sifts through memories of his father – a butler himself, who was aloof to the point of abuse – and holds forth about “dignity”, a concocted ideal that has to do “with a butler’s ability not to abandon the professional being he inhabits”. Each journal entry becomes a mannered exercise in avoidance and projection. When Stevens reaches a sensitive subject – such as whether Miss Kenton was driven away by his refusal to admit his feelings for her – he veers off into self-protective prattling, carrying on for pages before he feels able to continue. “All in all,” he writes tellingly, “I cannot see why the option of her returning to Darlington Hall and seeing out her working years there should not offer a very genuine consolation to a life that has come to be so dominated by a sense of waste.” We get a picture of a man trying desperately to keep a lid on his emotions – and what a complete picture it is. The Remains of the Day does that most wonderful thing a work of literature can do: it makes you feel you hold a human life in your hands. When you reach the end, it really does seem as if you’ve lost a friend – a laughably pompous, party-hat-refusing, stick-inthe-mud friend, but a good friend nonetheless. You want to give him a hug, except he’d be outraged. The Remains of the Day is a book about a thwarted life. It’s about how class conditioning can turn you into your own worst enemy, making you complicit in your own subservience. It’s probably quite an English book – I can’t imagine readers in more gregarious nations will have much patience with a protagonist who takes four decades to fail to declare his feelings. “Hanging on in quiet desperation is the English way,” as Pink Floyd sang. It’s a book for anyone who feels they’ve ever held themselves back when something that truly mattered was within their grasp. Most of all, though, it’s a book about love. Stevens is forced to let go of his illusions about Lord Darlington, his filial pride, his cherished “dignity”, until all that remains is Miss Kenton and what might have been. The story reaches its low-key climax in the quiet surroundings of a Cornish tea-room. I once heard that, to make the reader cry, a writer should try to keep the characters dry-eyed. There are some tears in this novel – yet perhaps not enough, because the tale of the steadfast, hopelessly mistaken Stevens gets me every time. If you haven’t read The Remains of the Day, I hope you’ll let me park my professional dignity and beg you to get hold of a copy pronto. And if you’ve read it and loved it, then – whatever you do – don’t keep your feelings to yourself. 1)

The main conclusion of the review is that Stevens has: Been an unusual fictional character in his inability to view himself sensibly and express himself clearly. Suffered the consequences of a concocted ideal when he could have focused on what matters the most – love. Effectively shown the reader the need to express emotions without repression. Been instrumental in the writer’s own understanding of himself as an emotional person first and a professional later. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The review neither states nor implies that Stevens was “an unusual fictional character.” Neither does the reviewer suggest that Stevens was unable to view himself sensibly. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Option 2 states, “suffered the consequences of a concocted ideal.” While the review portrays Stevens as being “burdened by propriety” and as a man “desperately trying to keep a lid on his emotions”, it does not suggest that what Stevens displayed was a “concocted ideal”. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. While the reviewer strongly recommends the book and “beg you to get hold of a copy” for its literary value, he does not say that the book has been instrumental in his understanding of himself, emotionally or professionally. So reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. The passage starts with the opinion, “A lack of restraint is perhaps the best response to Ishiguro’s novel” and ends with the advice “whatever you do – don’t keep your feelings to yourself”. In the review, the writer stresses on the sense of loss caused by Stevens’ inability to express himself. And, therefore, he ends the review by urging us to express our emotions. Thus, the main conclusion of the review is that the character of Stevens has effectively shown the reader, the need to express emotions without repressing them. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Effectively shown the reader the need to express emotions without repression.

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 170 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 48 % 2) The reviewer believes that at the root of Stevens’ mistaken view of himself was: His sense of loyalty to his own father who had been a rather unsentimental person. His sense of belonging to a certain position in society. His belief in the importance of his job as Lord Darlington’s butler. The notion that Darlington Hall was more important than his emotional life. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is incorrect. The author mentions class conditioning as the fundamental reason for why Stevens prioritized his duty to the point where he stifled his own needs. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that loyalty to his father was the reason behind his mistaken view of himself. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The job itself was not the cause of his mistaken view of himself. Rather, it was his status in the society, and the consequences of social hierarchy and class consciousness that had led to this mistaken view of himself. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, option 4 attributes Steven’s mistaken view of himself to the particulars of his job. It misses the broader social and personal traits that Ishiguro wants to highlight through his work of literature. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. Refer to paragraph 5. “The Remains of the Day is a book about a thwarted life. It’s about how class conditioning can turn you into your own worst enemy, making you complicit in your own subservience.” Thus, Stevens’ view of himself is basically a product of his class conditioning, of seeing himself as a butler. He does not feel the need to serve his country because he believes that his duty lies in serving the men who live in its grand houses. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: His sense of belonging to a certain position in society.

Time taken by you: 274 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) In the last paragraph the reviewer states that “perhaps there are not enough tears” in the novel, because: The reviewer was strongly moved by the character of Stevens who himself remains oblivious to his own tragedy. The reviewer feels like removing his own restraints every time he reads about the restrained impulses of Stevens. He finds the quiet desperation of Stevens’ to be typically English nature, and feels it could be more expressive. He believes that it is important to express emotions instead of keeping them bottled. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. Refer the last paragraph. “I once heard that, to make the reader cry, a writer should try to keep the characters dry-eyed. There are some tears in this novel – yet perhaps not enough, because the tale of the steadfast, hopelessly mistaken Stevens gets me every time.” There are not enough tears in the book, yet the book is able to evoke a greater sense of tragedy in its readers, including the reviewer. So the reviewer comments that the emotions in the novel were far less than what the reader was made to feel. Thus option 1 is correct. Option 2 is incorrect. It is incorrect to say that the writer “feels like removing his own restraints”, as there is no information in the passage to this effect. He merely states that the story gets him every time. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The reviewer’s statement does not relate to Stevens’ character being portrayed as typically English. Reject option3. Option 4 is incorrect. He states the need for more tears, because the book gets to him every time. He would have reacted less emotionally if the story had more tears. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: The reviewer was strongly moved by the character of Stevens who himself remains oblivious to his own tragedy.

Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 49 % 4) The narrator in Ishiguro’s Remains of the Day is all of the following EXCEPT: Someone who denies his feelings in order to live by an ideal he believes in. Someone who goes to great lengths to avoid admitting to his own emotions. Someone who is difficult to understand and to predict. Someone with a strong sense of duty and an inability to enjoy himself. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect because it is not an exception. Stevens is the narrator in the novel. Paragraph 5 talks about the “protagonist – Stevens himself – who takes four decades to fail to declare his feelings.” Paragraph 3 states how “each journal entry becomes a mannered exercise in avoidance and projection.” The reviewer portrays Stevens as “wasted life.” So, reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect as it is not an exception. Paragraph 3 reads: “Each journal entry becomes a mannered exercise in avoidance and projection. When Stevens reaches a sensitive subject… he veers off into self-protective prattling, carrying on for pages before he feels able to continue. … (his) life has come to be so dominated by a sense of waste.” Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. In Paragraph 1, Stevens is described as “a man so burdened by propriety that he lets the love of his life slip through his fingers.” Paragraph 4 describes Stevens as “a laughably pompous, party-hat-refusing, stick-in-the-mud friend.” Hence, option 4 is not an exception. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. Refer paragraph 2 – “Unreliable narrators – those mysterious figures the reader must try to work out – are ten a penny in fiction. Ishiguro, instead, likes to give us unwitting narrators: speakers who remain trapped in self-preserving fictions, mysteries even to themselves.” Thus, Stevens is not an unreliable narrator (someone who is difficult to understand), but an unwitting one. One who is a mystery to himself, but reveals himself to the reader through his avoidances and projections. In paragraph one, the writer states: “But Stevens isn’t fooling anyone…” Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Someone who is difficult to understand and to predict.

Time taken by you: 39 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 % 5) In the fifth paragraph, the reviewer calls Ishiguro’s Remains of the Day as “quite an English book” because: The English are the kind of people to find something meaningful in a thwarted life. Living on in quiet desperation is familiar to the English sensibility. The English way of life would find Stevens’ choices to be idealistic. The English are unique in their understanding of what honour and idealism mean. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer the fifth paragraph. “The Remains of the Day is a book about a thwarted life. It’s about how class conditioning can turn you into your own worst enemy, making you complicit in your own subservience. It’s probably quite an English book – I can’t imagine readers in more gregarious nations will have much patience with a protagonist who takes four decades to fail to declare his feelings. “Hanging on in quiet desperation is the English way,” as Pink Floyd sang. It’s a book for anyone who feels they’ve ever held themselves back when something that truly mattered was within their grasp.” The reviewer, thus, calls it quite an English book, as the protagonist’s behavior appears to be something the British would identify themselves with. Option 1 is incorrect. The English are said to be different from gregarious people in their instinctive understanding of quiet desperation. That does not mean that they find a thwarted or repressed life ‘meaningful’ or appreciable. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The option says that they find Stevens idealistic. The reviewer does not comment on what the English society would find idealistic or what they idealize. So, the option goes beyond the scope of the passage. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, option 4 talks about the uniqueness of the English concepts about idealism and honor, whereas the reviewer does not even remotely make any such suggestion. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. As the passage says in paragraph 5, “Hanging on in quiet desperation is the English way,” as Pink Floyd sang. Thus, the reference to Remains of the Day as “quite an English book” is meant to point out that it resonates with the English sensibility. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Living on in quiet desperation is familiar to the English sensibility.

Time taken by you: 120 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 % 6) According to the reviewer, which of the following is the greatest achievement of Ishiguro in The Remains of the Day?

Delineation of the typical English culture and ethos. The technique of narration through journal entries. The true to life portrayal of the character of Stevens. Representing the pitfalls of exemplary professionalism. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The fourth paragraph states: “The Remains of the Day does that most wonderful thing a work of literature can do: it makes you feel you hold a human life in your hands. When you reach the end, it really does seem as if you’ve lost a friend …You want to give him a hug, except he’d be outraged.” Thus, the reviewer, notwithstanding other aspects of the novel, finds the portrayal of Stevens’ character the most wonderful thing about the novel. Hence, option 3 is correct. Options 1, 2 and 4 are, either directly or indirectly, said to be contributing to the beauty of the novel. However, since the reviewer has explicitly stated what he found most wonderful about the novel, option 1 is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: The true to life portrayal of the character of Stevens.

Time taken by you: 25 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 5 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Lifelong learning will help you be happier, earn more, and even stay healthier, experts say. Plus, plenty of some of the smartest names in business insist that the best way to get smarter is to read. So what do you do? You go out and buy books, lots of them. But life is busy and intentions are one thing, actions another. Soon you find your shelves (or e-reader) overflowing with titles you intend to read one day, or books you flipped through once but then abandoned. Is this a disaster for your project to become a smarter, wiser person? If you never actually get around to reading any books, then yes. You might want to read up on tricks to squeeze more reading into your hectic life and why it pays to commit a few hours every week to learning. But if it's simply that your book reading in no way keeps pace with your book buying, I have good news for you (and for me, I definitely fall into this category)your overstuffed library isn't a sign of failure or ignorance, it's a badge ofhonor. That's the argument author and statistician Nassim Nicholas Taleb makes in his bestseller The Black Swan. He kicks off his musings with an anecdote about the legendary library of Italian writer Umberto Eco, which contained a jaw-dropping 30,000

volumes. Did Eco actually read all those books? Of course not, but that wasn't the point of surrounding himself with so much potential but as-yet-unrealized knowledge. By providing a constant reminder of all the things he didn't know, Eco's library kept him intellectually hungry and perpetually curious. An ever growing collection of books you haven't yet read can do the same for you. A private library is not an ego-boosting appendage but a research tool. Read books are far less valuable than unread ones. The library should contain as much of what you do not know as your financial means, mortgage rates, and the tight realestate market allows you to put there. You will accumulate more knowledge and more books as you grow older, and the growing number of unread books on the shelves will look at you menacingly. Indeed, the more you know, the larger the rows of unread books. Let us call this collection of unread books an anti-library. An anti-library is a powerful reminder of your limitations - the vast quantity of things you don't know, half know, or will one day realize you're wrong about. By living with that reminder daily you can nudge yourself towards the kind of intellectual humility that improves decision-making and drives learning. "People don't walk around with anti-résumés telling you what they have not studied or experienced (it's the job of their competitors to do that), but it would be nice if they did," Taleb claims. Why? Perhaps because it is a well-known psychological fact that it is the most incompetent who are the most confident of their abilities and the most intelligent who are full of doubt. (Really, it's called the Dunning-Kruger effect). It's equally well established that the more readily you admit you don't know things, the faster you learn. So stop beating yourself up for buying too many books or for having a to-read list that you could never get through in three lifetimes. All those books you haven't read are indeed a sign of your ignorance. But if you know how ignorant you are, you're way ahead of the vast majority of other people. 1) Having a library of many unread books promotes intellectual humility because: As the Dunning Kruger effect shows, it is the ignorant that are the most confident. The number of unread books is a reminder of one’s own ignorance. Anti-libraries are known to contribute to a sense of one’s own inadequacy. It stimulates one’s desire to acquire more knowledge. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. It is irrelevant to the question asked. Dunning-Kruger effect refers to the psychological fact that “the most incompetent who are the most confident of their abilities and the most intelligent who are full of doubt”. The incompetent cannot be equated with a person who has many unread books in his library. He may be a well-read person aware of his limitations. Hence, reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Ignorance is not the same as inadequacy. The latter is a very broad term and is not specific to knowledge. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Intellectual humility is said to be arrived at, from the awareness of one’s ignorance and not from the desire to acquire more knowledge, which is another offshoot of having a library. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. Refer paragraphs 4 and 5. “Read books are far less valuable than unread ones. The library should contain as much of what you do not know …………..Indeed, the more you know, the larger the rows of unread books. Let us call this collection of unread books an anti-library……..By living with that reminder daily you can nudge yourself towards the kind of intellectual humility that improves decision-making and drives learning.” Thus, option 2 correctly points out that the unread books remind us of our own ignorance and, thus, lead to intellectual humility. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: The number of unread books is a reminder of one’s own ignorance.

Time taken by you: 93 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 29 % 2) The author mentions the Dunning-Kruger effect in order to:

Explain the effect of cognitive bias on one’s selfperception. Make his argument technically authentic. Bring to focus the academic background of his argument. Compare his own conclusions with already established ones. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Dunning Kruger effect is mentioned in the penultimate paragraph. Cognitive bias is neither mentioned nor invoked in this context. A cognitive bias is a mistake in reasoning, evaluating, remembering, or other similar cognitive processes, often occurring as a result of holding onto one's preferences and beliefs, regardless of contrary information. There are several types of cognitive bias – an example is the bandwagon effect, in which one does something only because many others do it. So, option 1 is irrelevant. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The writer does not go into psychology, which is the academic background of the argument that he has used. So, reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer does not compare his conclusion with anything else; the term is mentioned in parenthesis, only as a passing reference, to impart authenticity to his own observation. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. The relevant part of the passage reads: "……… it is a well-known psychological fact that it is the most incompetent who are the most confident of their abilities and the most intelligent who are full of doubt. (Really, it's called the Dunning-Kruger effect). It's equally well established that the more readily you admit you don't know things, the faster you learn.” The author mentions the Dunning-Kruger effect in parentheses, after referring to a ‘well-known psychological effect’ and, adds that it ‘is equally well established’. Thus, he resorts to technical jargon in order to bring out the authenticity or ‘well-established’ nature of his argument. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Make his argument technically authentic.

Time taken by you: 113 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 31 % 3) Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? Why the books you have read are less important than the books you will never read. Why you should surround yourself with books that you will never read. Why you should surround yourself with more books than you will ever have time to read. The Library and the Anti-Library – A Reader’s Dilemma. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The passage can be summarized briefly as following: lifelong learning or reading is important; however, unread books in one’s library (which the writer calls anti-library) should not worry a good reader – they help him to realize the limit of his knowledge, cultivate humility and learn more. Option 1 is not an appropriate title – it erroneously states that the books one has read are less important than the books one will never read. The passage does not suggest this – on the contrary, it is said that an anti-library is important for an avid reader. Option 2 is inappropriate. There is no point in surrounding oneself with books that one will never read, unless one is a good reader. The word ‘never’ is also problematic because an unread collection will only inspire a good reader to read more. Eliminate option 2 as well. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not explain or suggest any dilemma on the part of the reader. Option 3 is the best title. It briefly captures the message of the article. ‘Why you should surround yourself with more books than you will ever have time to read’ presumes that one is in the habit of reading and that there will be books that one may never find time to read – yet, it is necessary to surround oneself with books because an anti-library, as the writer calls these books, helps one acquire humility and the desire to learn more. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Why you should surround yourself with more books than you will ever have time to read.

Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 49 % 4) It can be inferred from the passage that Umberto Eco … was one of the best read people in history. was a character in the Italian mythology. read most of the 30,000 books in his private library. had the largest rows of unread books in his private library. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. In the third paragraph, the writer brings up the book The Black Swan by Nassim Nicholas Taleb and remarks that Taleb “kicks off his musings with an anecdote about the legendary library of Italian writer Umberto Eco, which contained a jaw-dropping 30,000 volumes. Did Eco actually read all those books? Of course not, but that wasn't the point …” The writer, then explains why it is important to have unread books in one’s collection if one is a good reader. In the fourth paragraph, the writer mentions the point of the anecdote (not a myth) about the library of Umberto Eco. He says, “Indeed, the more you know, the larger the rows of unread books.” – from this reasoning, it can be inferred that (whether from the number of books he read, or from the number of books he did not read) he was one of the best-read people in the world. So option 1 is the correct answer. Option 2 is contrary to the fact, as Umberto Eco – who owned the legendary library-- is not a fictional character. He was an Italian novelist, literary critic, philosopher, and a university professor; he was born on 5th January 1932 and died on 19 February 2016. Options 3 and 4 contradict each other. Neither of them can be chosen without assuming the other to be false. And, according to the passage, the implications in both the options make option 1 true. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: was one of the best read people in history.

Time taken by you: 181 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 % 5) According to the passage, a good reader must accumulate a large anti-library for all the following reasons EXCEPT: It makes him/her a smarter, wiser person. For a habitual reader, it is a badge of honor. An anti-library is a research tool. It can help one get rid of mistaken beliefs. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is the correct answer. The first paragraph raises the question as to whether the titles one hasn’t read (or the anti-library) indicate the end of one’s project to become a smarter, wiser person. The direct implication is that it is not the anti-library, but the library or the books that one reads that make one a wiser and smarter person. Anti-library is useful in many other ways though, some of which are explained in the passage. So, option 1 is the correct answer. Options 2, 3 and 4 are not exceptions, but are mentioned or implied in the passage at various places. Option 2 can be found at the end of the second paragraph: “the overstuffed library … is a badge of honor.” The fourth paragraph begins thus: “A private library is not an ego-boosting appendage but a research tool.” So, option 3 is also not an exception. Option 4 is implied in the fifth paragraph: “An anti-library is a powerful reminder of your limitations the vast quantity of things you don't know, half know, or will one day realize you're wrong about.” This justifies option 4. Hence the correct answer to this question is option 1.

Correct Answer: It makes him/her a smarter, wiser person.

Time taken by you: 85 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position.

If you ask most people how tattoos work, they’re likely to get it wrong. The most pervasive oversimplification is that tattoo needles inject ink into the skin, deep enough that it stays put. In fact, tattoo needles are more like the nib of a fountain pen than a syringe; the ink isn’t shot down through the needle, but suspended at the end of it when an artist dips the tool into a well. Then, when the tip of the needle pierces a hole in the recipient’s skin, capillary action draws the ink down into the dermis. That’s how the ink gets into your skin. But why does it stay there? Scientists recently discovered that tattoos are made possible not by ink-saturated skin cells, but by immune cells called macrophages. Most people wrongly believe that in tattoos, ink is injected deep into the skin permanently. In truth, the ink suspended at the tip of the needle is drawn into the dermis by capillary action, when shot into skin. Scientists recently discovered that it’s immune cells and not skin cells that preserve this ink. The most popular misconception about tattoos is that the ink injected deep into the skin remains there forever. In truth, ink, suspended at the tip of the needle, is shot into skin and sucked by the dermis. Scientists recently discovered that it’s not the cells, but macrophages that make tattooing possible.

The most popular misconception about tattoos is that ink is injected into the skin permanently. In truth, ink is suspended at the tip of the needle, which is then sucked by the dermis through capillary action, when shot into skin. It has long been known that it’s not skin cells, but macrophages (immune cells) that preserve this ink. The most popular misconception about tattoos is that ink is injected into the skin permanently. In truth, ink is suspended at the tip of the needle, which is then injected into the dermis through capillary action. Scientists have discovered that it’s not skin cells, but macrophages (immune cells) that preserve this ink. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points are: ? The most popular misconception about tattoos is that ink is injected into the skin, deep enough to preserve it forever. ? In truth, ink is suspended at the tip of the needle. Capillary action draws the ink down into the dermis . ? Scientists have discovered that it’s not skin cells, but immune cells that preserve this ink.

Option 1 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured effectively in option 1. Retain option 1.

Option 2 is incorrect. It appears to suggest that the ink injected deep into the skin (during the process of tattooing) remaining there forever is itself a misconception. The phrase, ‘Sucked by the dermis’ is also a problematic representation of the passage. Also, the option states, “not the cells, but the macrophages”, and this gives incomplete information. Eliminate option 2.

Option 3 is incorrect. The summary contains factual errors; that it’s not skin cells, but macrophages (immune cells) that preserve tattoos is a longestablished and, therefore, popular knowledge, as per the summary. In contrary to this, the passage says that the discovery was made by scientists quite recently. Eliminate Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The summary contains factual errors. The ink that is suspended at the tip of the needle is not injected into dermis, but sucked in by the dermis through capillary action. In fact, this is a significant point that distinguishes truth from popular belief.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Most people wrongly believe that in tattoos, ink is injected deep into the skin permanently. In truth, the ink suspended at the tip of the needle is drawn into the dermis by capillary action, when shot into skin. Scientists recently discovered that it’s immune cells and not skin cells that preserve this ink. Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Writing involves not only the hand and wrist but also the arm, the shoulder and often the whole body. Quill-users were well aware of this, and would choose from the right wing or the left—ideally the third or fourth feather of a goose-wing, but possibly the finest feathers of swans, or ravens, or crows—to make the quill curve towards the hand or away from it, whichever felt more natural. Children forming letters sit hunched with concentration, small fingers clenched round crayons, little pink tongues darting out of mouths. After a page or three of writing against the clock, the ablest college student flaps his wrist to ease the ache in it. In like manner, each and every instance of writing is a physical act involving varying degrees of exertion. Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. The 3 rd of 4 th feather from either side of a goose-wing or the finest feathers of other birds were considered the best by quill users. From a child sitting hunched while learning to write to a student flapping his wrist after writing long passages, every act of writing is quite physical.

Writing is a physical act involving employment of the whole body. Quill users were aware of this. From a child sitting hunched while learning to write to a student flapping his wrist after writing a test, every act of writing is quite physical. Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. Knowing this, quill users chose only the best quills, in order to write naturally. A child’s posture while learning to write or a college student flapping his wrist after writing against time reveals the physical exertion in writing. Writing is a physical act involving employment of different body parts. Quill users, being aware of this, were particular about using only the best quills. The physical exertion is evident in every act of writing. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points are: Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. Quill users, who knew this, chose only the best quills, in order to write naturally. From a child sitting hunched while learning to write to a student flapping his wrist after writing fast for long, every act of writing is quite physical. Option 1 is incorrect. It fails to establish a proper cause-effect link between ‘writing being a physical act’ and ‘quill users using only the best quills to write’. By mentioning the features that made the best quills, a lot of unnecessary details are included. Also, ‘long passages” is an extrapolation that may not be correct. So, eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, this summary fails to mention the relation between the awareness of quill users and their choice of the best quills. Also, ‘writing a test’ is also not as per the paragraph. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured effectively in option 3. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The phrase ‘different body parts’ is a misrepresentation of the passage. ‘The physical exertion is evident in every act of writing’ is rather too terse. In the absence of any details regarding the physical action, the option fails to convey the essence. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. Knowing this, quill users chose only the best quills, in order to write naturally. A child’s posture while learning to write or a college student flapping his wrist after writing against time reveals the physical exertion in writing. Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Pastafarianism began with a satiric open letter written by then-25-year-old Bobby Henderson in response to the Kansas Board of Education’s decision to teach the theory of intelligent design alongside evolution in public schools. Henderson argued that schools ought also to devote class time to teaching the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe. This, he reasoned, was as probable a version of intelligent design as any other. The letter inspired a biblical flood’s worth of memes and launched a religious group that now claims a global membership. As this so-called Pastafarianism has grown, some branches of this movement have started demanding the rights and privileges enjoyed by more established religious organizations. What started as a fake religion is now angling to be an authentic one. Bobby Henderson introduced pastafarianism as part of his protest against teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools. He introduced the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe, reasoning it to be as valid as the other. His theory is now popular enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity.

Pastafarianism began in Kansas with Bobby Henderson’s satirical response to the idea of teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools, arguing that the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe is as valid as the other. The idea is now popular enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity. Pastafarianism puts forward the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe. It began with Bobby Henderson’s disagreement about teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools. The movement has now become a globally accepted religious identity. Pastafarianism puts forward the theory that a flying spaghetti monster created the universe. It began with Bobby Henderson’s opposition to teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools in Kansas. Now, the religion not only claims global membership but also demands an authentic identity. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The major points are:

Pastafarianism started in Kansas with Bobby Henderson’s satirical response to the idea of teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools. He argued that the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe is as valid as the other. The idea is now popular enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity. Option 1 is incorrect. In option 1, the focus has been shifted from pastafarianism to the movement’s founder, Bobby Henderson. Though it includes the essential points, their representation is distorted because the satirical intent of the founder of Pastafarianism is not mentioned in the précis. Hence option 1 presents the précis in an altogether different perspective. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured briefly in option 2. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, Option 3 also misses the satire behind Henderson’s theory. The theory was introduced as a satirical response, which is not included in the précis, thus making it appear as a serious theory. The option also states that this event gained enough ground to become a new religious identity, while the passage states that there is only a claim. Rejection option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The summary is inconsistent in saying, ‘Now, the religion not only claims global membership...’, because the text does not say anything about pastafarianism already being an established religion. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Pastafarianism began in Kansas with Bobby Henderson’s satirical response to the idea of teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools, arguing that the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe is as valid as the other. The idea is now popular enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity. Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

3. In India, one can use derivative contracts to hedge against dollar, euro, U.K. pound and yen. 4. While all such currency contracts are cash-settled in rupees, the Securities and Exchange Board of India, now allows cross currency contracts on euro-dollar, pound-dollar and dollar-yen. 5. Currency derivatives are exchange-based futures and options contracts that allow one to hedge against currency movements.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. In this question, it is not very easy to quickly find a mandatory pair and build the paragraph around it. Only sentence 4 is a dangler with ‘such currency contracts’ –all the other sentences seem to refer to the same contract; hence, it is not possible to find a mandatory pair with sentence 4. So, we need to build the paragraph from starter up. Sentence 4 is not fit to be a starter. In itself, and in comparison with the other sentences, sentence 5 is the best starter. It defines and describes what Currency Derivative contracts are. Sentence 5 also states these futures and options contracts allow one to ‘to hedge against currency movements.’ This idea is continued in sentence 2 as follows: “One can use a currency future contract to exchange one currency for another at a future date…” etc. So 5-2 is a mandatory pair. At first glance, both, sentences 1 and 3 can follow the 5-2 pair. However, on scrutiny, 1-3 is the logical order after 52, because the mention of “certain currency” in sentence 1 has to be placed before “dollar, euro, U.K. pound and yen… etc.,” in sentence 3. So, we get the sequence 5213. With only sentence 4 left to place, we need to merely check whether it is the concluding sentence. The mention of additional currencies, other than the ones mentioned in sentence 4 and the expression, “now allows”, makes sentence 4 the concluding sentence of the paragraph. Hence the correct sequence is 52134.

Correct Answer: 52134 Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided. 1. More importantly, while existing large urban agglomerations have remained mostly constant in number since 2005, smaller clusters have risen significantly. 2. With an increase in urban population will come rising demands for basic services such as clean water, public transportation, sewage treatment and housing. 3. Over 34% of India’s current population lives in urban areas, rising by 3% since 2011. 4. And yet, cities look and feel downtrodden, riven with poverty and poor infrastructure, with little semblance of urban planning. 5. By some estimates, India’s urban population could increase to 814 million by 2050.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. We can build the paragraph from the starter up. “More importantly” in 1 and “And yet” in 4 make them unfit to be starters. Comparing sentences 3, 5 and 2, we can see that sentences 5 and 2 can be placed only after the broad topic i.e., the size of “India’s current urban population”, when the pace of urbanization in India is introduced. So, we can be sure that sentence 3 starts the paragraph. The next sentence can be placed only after careful analysis and deliberation. All the remaining sentences seem to fit logically after sentence 3. Comparing these four sentences, we see that sentence 2 looks the least likely to follow sentence 3, not because 3-2 does not make sense, but because the other combinations are better, and sentence 2 can follow any of the other possible combinations. (We have to compare 3-1 vs. 3-4 vs. 3-5). Sentence 1, which begins with “more importantly” states that new smaller “urban clusters are coming up.” So 3-1 is a mandatory pair conveying “34 % percent of India’s population lives in urban areas” and “new smaller clusters” have also come up. In other words 3-1, put together, state the point the writer is making – the current size of India’s urban population and the pace of India’s urbanization. After deciding on 3-1 as the best pair at the beginning of the paragraph, we see that sentence 5 is the most logical one to follow this pair. Sentence 5 reinforces the pace – that by 2050 ‘urban population could increase to 814 million…” So, we get the 3-1-5 sequence. So, sentences 4 and 2 have to be placed after 315. The order 4-2 and 2-4 both appear good. Sentence 2 is a prediction about the future demands for basic services, infrastructure etc., Sentence 4 that begins with “and yet…” talks about the lack of urban planning, and how cities look and feel today. “And yet, cities look and feel downtrodden…” is writer’s direct reaction to the estimate of projected increase in the future … and still there is no “semblance of planning”. So, the order of 4-2 is more logical than 2-4. In addition, sentence 2 as the concluding sentence is much better than sentence 4 as the concluding sentence. Thus, 4-2 is a better sequence that 2-4. Hence the correct sequence is 31542.

Correct Answer: 31542 Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 2 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided. 1. There are moments in the text where he reveals his own sense of alarm at what he is discovering about human origins and development, especially the perverse nature of the human animal, the being he calls ‘the sick animal’. 2. It clearly merits, though, the level of attention it receives and can justifiably be regarded as one of the key texts of European intellectual modernity. 3. Although it has come to be prized by commentators as his most important and systematic work, Nietzsche conceived On the Genealogy of Morality as a ‘small polemical pamphlet’ that might help him sell more copies of his earlier writings. 4. It is a deeply disturbing book that retains its capacity to shock and disconcert the modern reader. 5. Nietzsche himself was well aware of the character of the book.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Sentence 3 can be easily identified as the starter sentence. The other sentences are not stand-alone sentences. They derive their sense from other sentences. Sentence 3 introduces the subject of the paragraph – Nietzsche’s bookOn the Genealogy of Morals and the esteem in which commentators hold the book in spite of Nietzsche’s intention of publishing it only to publicise and increase the sales of his earlier works. Sentence 2 follows sentence 3. The mention of “the level of attention the book receives…” in sentence 2 is a reference to the attention the book received from the commentators mentioned in sentence 3. So, 3-2 is a mandatory pair. Sentence 4 follows the 3-2 pair. Other sentences don’t logically follow this pair. Sentence 4 describes Nietzsche’s book further and states the reason as to why it became “one of the key tests of modernity”. Thus, it continues from sentence 2. So we get the sequence 3-2-4 It is now easy to place sentences 5 and 1 in that order, after the 324 sequence, because the pronoun “he” used several times in sentence 1 has its antecedent in sentence 5, and it is Nietzsche himself. Hence the correct answer is 32451.

Correct Answer: 32451 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not fit into the context? Key in the number of the out-of-context in the space provided. 1. These remain the largest skill category by hours worked in many countries. 2. Jobs requiring basic cognitive skills face the biggest challenge from automation. 3. This highlights the potential for automation and AI to displace even white-collar office workers. 4. Physical and manual skills will be surpassed by higher cognitive skills in terms of hours worked. 5. The same is true of physical and manual skills, such as gross motor skills.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is an easy question In out-of-context-sentence questions, the first task is to discover the theme of the paragraph. One way you can do this is by constructing the paragraph from start to end, and then identifying the theme. Another way is to find a mandatory pair and relate the other sentences to the mandatory pair. In this question, both methods will work well. Sentence 2 begins the paragraph, explicitly stating the theme– that of job loss due to automation. But in case you are trying to find a mandatory pair, you could begin with sentence 1 and look for what “these jobs” in sentence 1 refers to. Then, you find that 2-1 is a mandatory pair. Jobs requiring the basic cognitive skills face the biggest challenge from automation, and these jobs make up the majority of jobs in the world. Sentence 5 extends the same risk to jobs requiring physical and manual skills. So, sentences 2-1-5 make a logical sequence in that order. Sentence 4 continues with the same theme of jobs that are at risk because jobs requiring physical and manual skills will be replaced by jobs that require higher cognitive skills. But, sentence 3 talks about the potential risk faced by white-collar workers from automation and Artificial intelligence. White-collar workers do not belong to the classes of jobs mentioned in the other four sentences. In other words, they are not jobs requiring the basic cognitive skills, nor are they jobs requiring manual or physical skills. Besides, “this highlights the potential” in sentence 3 - is not related to anything that is said in the other sentences. So, sentence 3 is out-of-context. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not fit into the context? Key in the number of the out-of-context in the space provided. 1. Few scientists dispute that we live in a deterministic universe in which all effects have causes thus limiting us. 2. At least to a small degree, according to our current best scientific understanding, our universe is indeed indeterminate. 3. Either we are all delusional, or else the problem is framed to be conceptually impenetrable. 4. Thus we believe that we are active agents within the universe, both determined by it and helping to determine it through our choices. 5. And yet we all act as if we have free will—that we make choices among options and retain certain degrees of freedom within constraining systems.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. In the set of five sentences, we see that only sentence 1 is stand-alone; the others contain fragments that make them dependent statements: ‘this’ (2), ‘the problem’ (3), ‘thus’ (4), ‘and yet’ (5). So, we can look for the sentence that comes after 1. This will give us a mandatory pair and help us identify the theme. Still another way to solve this question is by trying to discover a mandatory pair and then, identifying the theme. The best sentence to begin with is sentence 5 because, “and yet we all act as if we have free will…” gives us a very clear clue about the sentence before it – something that contrasts our belief in free will. Sentence 1, which talks about ‘a deterministic universe’ provides the contrast that we are looking for – so, 1-5 is a mandatory pair. It is

generally accepted by scientists that we live in a deterministic universe … and yet, we act as if we have free will. So, the theme is related to the determinism of the universe and our apparent behaviour as if we are free. Now, if we relate the remaining three sentences to this theme, sentence 4 immediately follows the 1-2 as “thus we believe that we are active agents …” is a continuation of sentence 5. Between sentences 2 and 3, sentence 3 still discusses about our false belief or delusion that we have a free will. Sentence 2 is about the universe being indeterminate. Indeterminate means not fixed or something that is vague. This is a new idea. Hence the odd sentence is 2. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 12 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 %

A. Disinterested (1)/ Uninterested (2) researchers say that there is no convincing evidence for this convoluted theory. B. At the beginning of each week, I am reminded of how much I loathe (1)/ loath (2) Monday mornings. C. The company’s liquid assets are all together (1) / altogether (2) worth over 15 billion dollars. D. In order to titivate (1) titillate (2) consumer interest, the company is offering free shipping on all purchases.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. "Disinterested" and "uninterested" have different meanings. A disinterested person is impartial, unbiased, or has no stake in the outcome; an uninterested person is bored, unconcerned, or indifferent. The researchers in the context of the first sentence are not uninterested or bored and unconcerned people; they are objectively looking at the theory i.e., without biases. Hence, ‘disinterested’ is correct in the context. Similarly, loath vs. loathe have different meanings and different uses within a sentence. Loathe is a verb which means to detest or dislike. Loath is an adjective which means reluctant or unwilling. The adjective ends with a hard th and rhymes with growth or both. The verb, loathe ends with a soft th like the sound in smooth or breathe. The context of the second sentence requires a verb. Hence, we get 11 in these two sentences. In sentence 3, we need the second choice or “altogether”. “Altogether” is an adverb meaning “completely,” or “entirely”. For example: “When he first saw the examination questions, he was altogether (or completely) baffled.” “All together,” in contrast, is a phrase meaning, “in a group.” It is never used as a phrasal adverb. Hence, the correct choice here is option 2 meaning ‘totally or wholly” as an adverb modifying “worth”. In sentence 4, the verbs “titillate” and “titivate” sound alike but do

not have the same meaning. Titillate, a more common word, means 'stimulate or excite', as in ‘the press are paid to titillate the public’. Titivate, on the other hand, means 'adorn or smarten up', as in ‘she titivated her hair’. The context in sentence 4 takes the second word or option 2. Hence the correct answer is 1122. Correct Answer: 1122 Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined In the following question there are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are highlighted and numbered 1 and 2. Only one of the words fits correctly in the sentence. Choose the word that forms the correct sentence in each sentence and enter the sequence of four numbers as your answer. (For example if the word numbered 1 is correct in each of the four sentences, the answer sequence will be 1111) A. The prolonged medication did not effect (1) / affect (2) any change in the severity of his condition. B. After the long journey we wanted to rest a while (1) / awhile (2) before moving on. C. The flyover was built and made operational in less (1) fewer (2) than three weeks. D. The city has taken measures to reduce the incidents (1) /incidence (2) of vandalism.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Affect and Effect – very often confused words - can be used both as a noun and a verb. Effect as a verb means ‘to bring about’ and affect as a verb means ‘to influence’. In sentence A, ‘effect’ is the correct choice because it means the medications did not bring about any change in the condition of the disease. Hence, (1) is the answer. In sentence B, the two-word expression a while is a noun phrase, consisting of the article a and the noun while (time). The one-word awhile is an adverb that means “for a short time or period.” (we say, “stay awhile” meaning ‘stay for some time’, or ‘stay for a while’). In the current context the single word a while gives a meaningful sentence. So, we get 12 for the first two sentences. In sentence C, we have another confusing pair less/ and fewer. The basic rule about the precise uses of “less” and “fewer” is simple. Use “fewer” with countable, individual things, and “less” with uncountable amounts, volumes, etc. So: “I should drink less coffee,” but “I should eat fewer doughnuts.” However, use less with a number that describes a quantity considered as a single bulk amount: “The police recovered less than Rs. 1000/-“ ; or “It happened less than five years ago”; “The recipe calls for less than two cups of sugar” etc. Since sentence C refers to a time span, we have to use less than three weeks. So, we get 121 in the first three sentences. In sentence D, incidence is correct. The singular noun incidence usually refers to the rate at which something happens, as in ‘The city has taken measures to reduce the incidence of vandalism’. Incidence is sometimes confused with the similar-sounding words incidents. Incident is an event or happening. Incidence means occurrence. In the context, we need to say ‘the occurrence of vandalism’. Hence, 2. The correct answer is 1212.

Correct Answer: 1212

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 2 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Bruce, Natasha, Peter, Steve, Tony and Wanda are students of Marvel International School. Their final exam marks in the various subjects are given below with a few values missing. It is also known that the maximum marks in any subject is 100.

Fill in the missing values and solve the questions given below.

1) What is the average total score of all the six students? 443 449 451 453 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 453

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 492 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 % 2)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The values of, Natasha’s score in English = 96 Wanda’s score in Science = 92 Total marks scored by Steve = 470 Total marks scored by Tony = 471 Total marks scored in Maths = 558 Total marks scored in English = 556, therefore A = 96 + 92 = 188 B = |C – D| = |971 – 1114| = |–173| = 173 C = 470 + 471 = 941 D = 558 + 556 = 1114

Therefore, the required answer is 5.

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 % 3) If the condition for assigning grades to the students are slightly changed; the grades are assigned on the basis of the total score only, irrespective of the individual scores, then the grades of how many students will be changed?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

While assigning grades, if we take only the total score into consideration, irrespective of the individual scores, the grades for Bruce and Natasha will be upgraded. Hence, 2 is the answer.

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 4) Due to a calculation error, all the students were allotted 5 extra marks in Maths. The error was corrected later on. According to the updated results, how many students got the B grade? 2 1 3 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The updated result sheet is as follows.

According to this table, the grades for all others remain the same except Wanda. The total marks scored by Wanda drop from 453 to 448. She misses the total score criteria by 2 marks and hence her grade is changed from B to C. There is no one who gets the B grade. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs

% Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In a town there are 1000 people. Those with age less than 21 years are classified as boys or girls on the basis of their gender and those with age 21 or more are classified as men or women on the basis of their gender. Males consist of boys and men, while females consist of girls and women. The following bar–charts provide information about the illiterate and literate people in that town.

1) If the total number of males in the town is more than the total number of literates, then what could be the maximum possible number of literate girls in the town? 232 233 234 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 232

Time taken by you: 1005 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 247 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 52 % 2) If the total number of literates is more than the total number of men and women in the town put together, then what is the maximum possible number of men in the town? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The maximum value of number of men in town is obtained when A = 235. Number of men in town = 358 – A + 60 = 418 – A = 418 – 235 = 183

Therefore, the required answer is 183.

Correct Answer: 183

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 33 % 3) If the total number of females in the town is 400, then how many illiterate men are there in the town?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that 400 = A + 124 + 48 + 182 or A = 46 Number of illiterate men = 358 – 46 = 312. Therefore, the required answer is 312.

Correct Answer: 312

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 4) If the difference between the total number of illiterate and the number of females in the town is 82, then which of the following can be the total number of men and women in the town put together? 453 454 455 456 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 456

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 184 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In 2016, a survey of 128 investors was conducted. These investors invested in one or more of the following three, ‘investment vehicles’. A: Fixed Deposits (FDs) B: Equities C: Mutual Funds (MFs)

It was found that 57 investors invested in FDs, 72 investors invested in Equities and 63 investors invested in MFs.

The total amount invested by these investors in the given three investment vehicles was Rs.5,63,000. The following was the break-up of the percent investment in FDs, MFs and Equities.

1) If the number of people who invested in all the three investment vehicles in 2016 was 18. The sum of the number of people who invested in both Equity and MFs (but not in FDs) and both in MFs and FDs (but not in Equity) in 2016 was 20. What percentage of investors have invested in both FDs and Equity (but not in MFs) in 2016? 4.25% 6.25% 8.25% 9.25% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6.25%

Time taken by you: 222 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 334 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 2) It is known that total 7 investors invested in both FDs and MFs (but not in Equity). Approximately, what percentage of investors invested in only one of the three investment vehicles? (Use the data from the previous question) 57% 60% 64% 70% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 64%

Time taken by you: 98 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 98 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 % 3) What was the difference in the average amount per investor invested in Equity and MFs (in Rs.)? 1799 994 1304 Cannot be determined. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 994

Time taken by you: 53 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 72 % 4) In 2017, total amount invested by these 128 investors in the given three investment vehicles increased to Rs. 6,00,000. However, the total investment in Equity remained same as that in 2016. The ratio of the investments in FDs and MFs in 2017 was 6 : 5.

Suppose x = Percent increase in the amount invested in MFs in 2017 over the amount invested in FDs in 2016 y = Percent increase in the amount invested in FDs in 2017 over the amount invested in MFs in 2016

What is the approximate difference between x and y? 6.4

9.4 11.8 14.8 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6.4

Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 151 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. At this year’s Mileon Games, the top 3 winners in each event receive medals (Gold, Silver and Bronze for the 1st, 2nd and 3rd place respectively). Every single medal at the long distance running events was won by athletes from just 5 countries, P, Q, R, S and T. Ten athletes (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J) from these 5 countries participated. None of the 5 countries had more than 3 athletes representing it. Table 1 below gives the number of medals in long-distance running won by each country, while Table 2 gives the number of medals won by 9 of the athletes. There was no tie for any of the positions in the events under consideration.

1) The five countries are ranked according to descending order of total points according to the following system: a Gold Medal is worth 3 points, a Silver is worth 2, and a Bronze is worth 1. Which country will be ranked 3rd? P Q R S Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since the total number of Bronze medals is 15, the number of Silver and Gold medals must also be 15. Thus we can see than x must be 7 and y must be 2. Also, since the 9 athletes mentioned have won, between them, 14 Gold, 13 Silver and 13 Bronze, we can conclude that the 10th athlete, J must have won 1 Gold, 2 Silver and 2 Bronze medals.

We can now use these completed tables to answer the questions: The scores for the individual countries, according to the given system, will be P – 9, Q – 13, R – 14, S – 34 and T – 20. Hence the ranking will be S, T, R, Q, P and hence R will be ranked 3rd. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: R

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 213 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 43 % 2) The countries are now ranked in descending order of Gold medals won. If the number of Gold medals is the same, then the country with a higher number of Silver medals will be ranked higher. Under this system, how many countries will not change their ranking from that in the previous question? 2 3 4 none Video Explanation:

We can now use these completed tables to answer the questions: According to the new system, the ranking will be S, Q, T, R, P. As can be seen, only S and P retain their rankings from the previous question. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 % 3) How many athletes represent country T? 3 2 1 Either 1 or 2 Video Explanation:

We can now use these completed tables to answer the questions: Country T has a total of 2G + 6S + 2B medals. The two G could be won by two different athletes or by a single athlete. Case 1: Two athletes have won 1 G each. But all such combinations give at least 3 B, so this is impossible. Case 2: One athlete has won 2 G. In this case by trial and error we find that this athlete can only be A, and to complete the medals tally we need two other athletes F and H. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 % 4) A country M is said to be crushed by a country N if N wins more medals than M in each category (Gold, Silver and Bronze). Which of the following is true about the 5 given countries? There is exactly one country which is not crushed by any other No country is crushed by more than one other country There exists one country which is crushed by exactly two others There are exactly two countries which crush at least one other country Video Explanation:

We can now use these completed tables to answer the questions: S and T are not crushed by any country. So option (1) is false. P, Q and R are all crushed by S (but by no other country) so option (3) is false. S is the only country which crushes any other country. Hence option (4) is false. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: No country is crushed by more than one other country

Time taken by you: 32 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Four friends, named Aanvi, Saanvi, Pinti and Sonti are playing a game of housie. Each of them has one ticket with total nine numbers printed on it. Ishan is hosting the game. He announces one number at a time. If the number announced by Ishan is same as one of the numbers on the ticket with a player, the player cuts that number on the ticket. Prizes are as follows : First four : The player who cuts first 4 numbers on her ticket first. First eight : The player who cuts first 8 numbers on her ticket first. Full house : The player who cuts all the numbers on her ticket first. The game ends when one of the players cuts all the numbers in her ticket. Till then all the players continue playing the game. Further information : 1. Pinti won the prize for 'Full house'. 2. All three prizes won by three different players. Saanvi, who had maximum number of perfect squares in her ticket, did not win any prize. 3. Ishan did not announce two even or two odd numbers consecutively. 4. The first four numbers announced were the multiples of 5. 5. Ishan did not announce 17 and 36 till the end. 6. Sonti had more odd numbers in her tickets than Aanvi had in her ticket. 7. ‘First four’ was achieved once Ishan announced fourth number. 8. ‘First eight’ was achieved once Ishan announced 12th number. 9. ‘Full house’ was achieved once Ishan announced 14th number. 10. Ishan did not announce any number, which was not present on the ticket with at least one of the four friends. Following was the pictorial representation of the tickets with the four friends. Ticket 1 -

Ticket 3

1) Who won the prize for 'First eight' cut? Sonti

Aanvi Pinti

Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Ticket 2 –

Ticket 4

Explanation: Using Point 2, ticket 1 has three perfect square numbers (1, 25 and 36), while tickets 2, 3 and 4 have two perfect squares (tickets 2 & 4: 4 and 49, while ticket 3: 9 and 25). Therefore Saanvi has ticket 1.

Using point 1 and 5, Pinti had ticket 4 because that was the only ticket that did not have 17 or 36.

Using point 6, Sonti had ticket 2 while Aanvi had ticket 3.

Using points 4 and 7, the ticket with 4 multiples of 5 won ‘First Four’ when Ishan had finished announcing four numbers. Ticket 3 was the only ticket (other than ticket 1) with 4 multiples of 5. Therefore Aanvi with Ticket 3 won ‘First Four’ and the first four numbers announced were 25, 30, 45 and 60 in some order such that even and odd numbers were not announced consecutively.

By the time Ishan announced first four numbers, Saanvi had cut one number (25), Sonti did not cut any number, Aanvi had cut four numbers (25, 30, 45, 60), while Pinti had cut two numbers (30, 45).

Using point 2, as Saanvi did not win any prize, Pinti won ‘Full House’ and Aanvi won ‘First Four’, Sonti must have won ‘First Eight’. Also, using point 8, the ‘First Eight’ was completed when Ishan announced next 8 numbers. We have seen earlier that Sonti did not cut any number in first four. Therefore the next 8 numbers announced by Ishan were all the numbers on the ticket with Sonti, except 17 (in some order such that odd and even numbers were not announced consecutively).

By the time Ishan announced 12 numbers, Saanvi had cut additional 2 numbers (22 & 51), Aanvi had cut additional one number (54), while Pinti had cut 5 additional numbers (4, 22, 31, 49 & 51).

Using point 9, Pinti completed ‘Full House’ when Ishan announced two more numbers. Those two numbers must be 5 and 12. When Ishan announced these two numbers, both Saanvi and Aanvi cut one more number (5 and 12 respectively).

We can summarize as follows:

Sonti won the prize for ‘First eight’ cut. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Sonti

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 332 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) th number When Ishan announced the last number, Saanvi also cut one number on the ticket with her. What was the 13 announced by Ishan? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using Point 2, ticket 1 has three perfect square numbers (1, 25 and 36), while tickets 2, 3 and 4 have two perfect squares (tickets 2 & 4: 4 and 49, while ticket 3: 9 and 25). Therefore Saanvi has ticket 1.

Using point 1 and 5, Pinti had ticket 4 because that was the only ticket that did not have 17 or 36.

Using point 6, Sonti had ticket 2 while Aanvi had ticket 3.

By the time Ishan announced first four numbers, Saanvi had cut one number (25), Sonti did not cut any number, Aanvi had cut four numbers (25, 30, 45, 60), while Pinti had cut two numbers (30, 45).

By the time Ishan announced 12 numbers, Saanvi had cut additional 2 numbers (22 & 51), Aanvi had cut additional one number (54), while Pinti had cut 5 additional numbers (4, 22, 31, 49 & 51).

We can summarize as follows:

The last number (14 th) announced must be 5. As the last two numbers announced were 5 and 12, the 13 th number must be 12. Therefore, the required answer is 12.

Correct Answer: 12

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 21 % 3) Starting from the beginning of the game, what was the number of numbers cut by Aanvi by the time one friend completed

the ‘First Eight’? 4 6 7 8 Video Explanation: Explanation: Using Point 2, ticket 1 has three perfect square numbers (1, 25 and 36), while tickets 2, 3 and 4 have two perfect squares (tickets 2 & 4: 4 and 49, while ticket 3: 9 and 25). Therefore Saanvi has ticket 1.

Using point 1 and 5, Pinti had ticket 4 because that was the only ticket that did not have 17 or 36.

Using point 6, Sonti had ticket 2 while Aanvi had ticket 3.

By the time Ishan announced first four numbers, Saanvi had cut one number (25), Sonti did not cut any number, Aanvi had cut four numbers (25, 30, 45, 60), while Pinti had cut two numbers (30, 45).

By the time Ishan announced 12 numbers, Saanvi had cut additional 2 numbers (22 & 51), Aanvi had cut additional one number (54), while Pinti had cut 5 additional numbers (4, 22, 31, 49 & 51).

We can summarize as follows:

The required answer = 4 + 2 = 6. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 % 4) What was the sum of the total number of numbers cut by the four friends on their cardstill the end of the game? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Using point 1 and 5, Pinti had ticket 4 because that was the only ticket that did not have 17 or 36.

Using point 6, Sonti had ticket 2 while Aanvi had ticket 3.

By the time Ishan announced first four numbers, Saanvi had cut one number (25), Sonti did not cut any number, Aanvi had cut four numbers (25, 30, 45, 60), while Pinti had cut two numbers (30, 45).

By the time Ishan announced 12 numbers, Saanvi had cut additional 2 numbers (22 & 51), Aanvi had cut additional one number (54), while Pinti had cut 5 additional numbers (4, 22, 31, 49 & 51).

We can summarize as follows:

The required sum = 4 + 8 + 7 + 9 = 28. Therefore, the required answer is 28.

Correct Answer: 28

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 13 %

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Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six persons, three from India and three from Pakistan. They are standing at a point X, which lies exactly on India-Pakistan border, on a line joining Amritsar in India and Lahore in Pakistan. Each one of them starts walking at the same time on hearing the sound of a gunshot during the evening flag lowering ceremony. Those from India start walking towards Amritsar and those from Pakistan start walking towards Lahore.

Following points are known exactly half an hour after they start walking: I.

The six persons had covered different distances out of 1 km, 2 km, 3 km, 4 km, 5 km and 6 km.

II. The sum of the distances travelled by P and T is 8 km. III. R and S are 7 km away from each other. IV. The sum of the distances travelled by Q and U is 6 km. V.

The sum of the distances travelled by T and U is 3 km.

VI. R is closer to Amritsar as compared to P. VII. T is closer to Lahore as compared to S. VIII. U is closer to Amritsar as compared to T. 1) Who among the given persons has covered 4 km? Q R S Cannot be determined

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Maximum distance travelled by a person is 6 km. So, from III, exactly one among R and S is an Indian. Now the distances covered by (P, T) can be (5 km, 3 km) or (2 km, 6 km) in any order. Distances covered by T and U can be 1 km and 2 km in any order. Therefore, it can be concluded that T covers 2 km, U covers 1 km and P covers 6 km. Therefore, from IV, distance covered by Q is 5 km. Now from III, distances covered by (R, S) can be (4 km, 3 km) in any order. As P covers 6 km, it can be concluded that he must be from Pakistan (from VI). As U covers 1 km and T covers 2 km, it can be concluded from VII that U is an Indian and T is a Pakistani. So, Q is an Indian. Therefore from VII, it can be concluded that S is an Indian. Thus, Indians: Q(5 km), U(1 km) and S(4 km or 3 km) Pakistanis: P(6km), T(2 km) and R(3 km or 4 km)

Either R or S has covered 4 km. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 350 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 74 % 2) After half an hour has passed since the gunshot was fired, who among the given persons was closest to the point X? U

S T U or S Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum distance travelled by a person is 6 km. So, from III, exactly one among R and S is an Indian. Now the distances covered by (P, T) can be (5 km, 3 km) or (2 km, 6 km) in any order. Distances covered by T and U can be 1 km and 2 km in any order. Therefore, it can be concluded that T covers 2 km, U covers 1 km and P covers 6 km. Therefore, from IV, distance covered by Q is 5 km. Now from III, distances covered by (R, S) can be (4 km, 3 km) in any order. As P covers 6 km, it can be concluded that he must be from Pakistan (from VI). As U covers 1 km and T covers 2 km, it can be concluded from VII that U is an Indian and T is a Pakistani. So, Q is an Indian. Therefore from VII, it can be concluded that S is an Indian.

Thus, Indians: Q(5 km), U(1 km) and S(4 km or 3 km) Pakistanis: P(6km), T(2 km) and R(3 km or 4 km)

U has covered 1 km. Hence, U was closest to the point X. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: U

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 3) Who among the following is from Pakistan? Q R

S None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum distance travelled by a person is 6 km. So, from III, exactly one among R and S is an Indian. Now the distances covered by (P, T) can be (5 km, 3 km) or (2 km, 6 km) in any order. Distances covered by T and U can be 1 km and 2 km in any order. Therefore, it can be concluded that T covers 2 km, U covers 1 km and P covers 6 km. Therefore, from IV, distance covered by Q is 5 km. Now from III, distances covered by (R, S) can be (4 km, 3 km) in any order. As P covers 6 km, it can be concluded that he must be from Pakistan (from VI). As U covers 1 km and T covers 2 km, it can be concluded from VII that U is an Indian and T is a Pakistani. So, Q is an Indian. Therefore from VII, it can be concluded that S is an Indian.

Thus, Indians: Q(5 km), U(1 km) and S(4 km or 3 km) Pakistanis: P(6km), T(2 km) and R(3 km or 4 km)

R is from Pakistan. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: R

Time taken by you: 20 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 % 4) Who among the following is from India? P T U

None of these

Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum distance travelled by a person is 6 km. So, from III, exactly one among R and S is an Indian. Now the distances covered by (P, T) can be (5 km, 3 km) or (2 km, 6 km) in any order. Distances covered by T and U can be 1 km and 2 km in any order. Therefore, it can be concluded that T covers 2 km, U covers 1 km and P covers 6 km. Therefore, from IV, distance covered by Q is 5 km. Now from III, distances covered by (R, S) can be (4 km, 3 km) in any order. As P covers 6 km, it can be concluded that he must be from Pakistan (from VI). As U covers 1 km and T covers 2 km, it can be concluded from VII that U is an Indian and T is a Pakistani. So, Q is an Indian. Therefore from VII, it can be concluded that S is an Indian.

Thus, Indians: Q(5 km), U(1 km) and S(4 km or 3 km) Pakistanis: P(6km), T(2 km) and R(3 km or 4 km)

U is from India. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: U

Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Total 12 individuals—A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L—are sitting in concentric circular arrangement such that six of them form the inner circle and the remaining six form the outer circle. Those who form the inner circle face outwards (away from the center) while those who form the outer circle face inwards (towards the center). The seats are arranged on the two circles in such a way that the angle subtended by the adjacent seats at the center is equal. Further, there are three different diameters of the circles such that four persons (two on outer circle and two on inner circle) sit along each of the three diameters. The following information is known. – B is facing both H and F. – A is facing only J.

– C, D, G and K form a straight line (in no particular order). – C is to the immediate left of E. – G is two places to the left of B. – H, E, F and B form a straight line (in no particular order). – K is facing only D. – L is facing both I and J. 1) Who is to the immediate right of K? F H Either F or H Neither F nor H Video Explanation:

Explanation: The 12 persons are sitting in the following arrangement:

A person can face two persons only if he is in the outer circle From statement 1, we can conclude that B is in the outer circle and either H is directly and F’s indirectly facing B or visa versa. Also, using statement 6, we can determine the circular arrangement to be as follows:

Using statement 3, 4, 5 and 7 we can add more details to our arrangement.

Using statements 2 and 8 we can complete our arrangement as follows:

Using this, we can answer all the questions Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Either F or H

Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 498 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 2) Which of the following could be the ones that form the outer circle (not in any particular order)? G-J-K-E-B-C

G-H-J-L-B-D G-F-C-H-L-B G-L-J-F-E-D Video Explanation: Explanation: The 12 persons are sitting in the following arrangement:

Using statement 3, 4, 5 and 7 we can add more details to our arrangement.

Using statements 2 and 8 we can complete our arrangement as follows:

Using this, we can answer all the questions Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: G-H-J-L-B-D

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 82 % 3) If F is facing only one person, who is facing H? F Both E and B Neither E nor B Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: The 12 persons are sitting in the following arrangement:

Using statement 3, 4, 5 and 7 we can add more details to our arrangement.

Using statements 2 and 8 we can complete our arrangement as follows:

Using this, we can answer all the questions Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Both E and B

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 4) Which of the following pairs is not facing each other? (Use information from the previous question) I-L C-K G-D F-B Video Explanation:

Explanation: The 12 persons are sitting in the following arrangement:

Using statement 3, 4, 5 and 7 we can add more details to our arrangement.

Using statements 2 and 8 we can complete our arrangement as follows:

Using this, we can answer all the questions Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: C-K

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Four persons, named K, L, M and N are playing a game with a standard pack of cards. All the cards are of the following four suits: Clubs, Diamonds, Hearts or Spades. The following points are known about the cards the four persons initially had before the game began: A. Each person had two cards of different suits. B. In all the possible pairs that can be made from these four persons, the two persons in each pair had at most one suit in common. C. No person had the following combination of the two suits: (Spades and Clubs) and (Diamonds and Hearts). D. L had one card of suit Hearts and the other card of suit Spades. E. M did not have a card of suit Spades. The game progressed in two rounds. The following points are known about the two rounds of the game: I. In the first round, K and M exchanged exactly one card with each other. Similarly, in the first round, L and N exchanged exactly one card with each other. Before the first round began, K and M did not have any suit in common. Similarly before the first round began, L and N did not have any suit in common. II. At the end of the first round, N had cards of the suits Clubs and Spades. III. After the first round was over, the four persons then continued to play the second round using the same cards each of them had with them at the end of the first round. IV. In the second round, K and L exchanged exactly one card with each other. Similarly, in the second round, M and N exchanged exactly one card with each other. Before the second round began, K and L did not have any suit in common. Similarly before the second round began, M and N did not have any suit in common. 1) Which of the following is definitely correct about the cards the four persons initially had before the first round began? K had card of suit Spades. M had card of suit Diamonds. N had card of suit Clubs. More than one of the above. Video Explanation:

Explanation: We denote the cards belonging to suits Club, Diamond, Heart and Spade as C, D, H and S respectively. All possible combinations of two cards of different suits: CD, CH, CS, DH, DS and HS

From condition C, K, L, M and N had CD, CH, HS and DS in some order. From condition D, L had HS. Now from I, N cannot have cards from suits H and S. So, N had CD. Therefore, it can be concluded that M had CH (from E) and hence, K had DS.

Statements [1] and [3] are correct.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: More than one of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 290 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 % 2) After Round 1, how many different possibilities with respect to the combination of cards with the four persons exist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We denote the cards belonging to suits Club, Diamond, Heart and Spade as C, D, H and S respectively. All possible combinations of two cards of different suits: CD, CH, CS, DH, DS and HS

At the end of the first round, as N had CS (from II), L had HD. From IV, L exchanged exactly one card with K and the two did not have any suit in common. So, at the end of the first round, K had CS. Similarly, at the end of the first round as N had CS, M had HD.

Thus,

It can be seen that only one possibility exists.

Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 25 % 3) After Round 2, how many different possibilities with respect to the combination of cards with the four persons exist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

From condition C, K, L, M and N had CD, CH, HS and DS in some order. From condition D, L had HS. Now from I N cannot have cards from suits H and S. So, N had CD. Therefore, it can be concluded that M had CH (from E) and hence, K had DS. At the end of the first round, as N had CS (from II), L had HD. From IV, L exchanged exactly one card with K and the two did not have any suit in common. So, at the end of the first round, K had CS. Similarly, at the end of the first round as N had CS, M had HD. Thus,

After Round 2:

It can be seen that there are 4 possibilities each for (K&L) and (M&N). Therefore, the required answer is 16.

Correct Answer: 16

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 18 % 4) If K had cards of suits Diamond and Spade at the end of Round 2 how many different possibilities exist with respect to the

cards with the four persons at the end of Round 2? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

After Round 2:

If K had Diamond & Spade at the end of Round 2, L had Clubs & Hearts. There are 4 possibilities for the cards with (M & N).

Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs

Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined The length of arc AC of a circle is one-sixth of the circumference of the circle. B is the midpoint of the arc AC. If the radius of the circle is 2 cm, then what is the length of the line segment AB?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 229 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 145 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined A tank has an inlet pipe attached to it. The inlet pipe can fill the tank such that the tank could be completely filled at 10 AM if it is opened in the morning of the same day. However the pipe had a leak, which was not noticed. As a result of the leak, the tank was only 60% full at 10 AM. What was the ratio of the rate at which the inlet pipe fills the tank to that at which the leak empties the tank?

2:1 5:2 9:5 9:4

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: In the absence of leak, the tank would have been 100% full at 10 AM. That means the leak empties 40% of the tank till 10 AM. ? The ratio of the rate at which the pipe fills the tank to the rate at which the leak empties

the tank = 100 : 40 or 5 : 2

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 5:2

Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 89 %

undefined Given that two roots of 2x3+ ax + b = 0 are 5 and −4. What is the value of (a + b)? –42 –82

–32 –41

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 2(5)3 + a(5) + b = 2(–4) 3 + a(–4) + b 250 + 5a + b = –128 – 4a + b Solving this, we get a = –42 2x3 + ax + b = 0

Substituting value of a = -42 and x = -5, we get 250 – 210 + b = 0 b = –40 ? a + b = (–42) + (–40) = –82 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: –82

Time taken by you: 117 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined If the roots of the equation (x – a)(x – 2b) = 6 are 0 and –1, then what is the sum of the roots of the equation (x + 2a)(x + 4b) = 0? –2 1 2 –1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 362 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined Two identical circles are as shown below. Find the area of the shaded region.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 90 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 %

undefined The nth term of an AP is 48 and the (n + 10)th term of the same AP is 88. Find the sum of all the terms of the AP from 48 to 88 (both included). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 748 Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined If the length of one of the sides of a right-angled triangle is ‘sin θ’ and the length of the hypotenuse is 1, then what will be the length of the perpendicular drawn on the hypotenuse from the opposite vertex?

2sinθ sin2θ

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined Akash can complete a piece of work alone in 85 days. Brijesh alone can complete the same work in 51 days. Akash completes one-fifth of the work, after which Brijesh joins him and they complete the work together. If the payment for the work is Rs. 85000, how much amount (in Rs.) will Akash be paid?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 42500 Time taken by you: 162 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined Two identical unbiased dice are thrown at random. What is the probability that the product of the numbers on the two dice is even?

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined How many three-digit odd numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 6 and 8 if repetition of the digits is not permitted? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 1 has to be the units digit of the number. Out of the four remaining numbers, hundreds place can be filled in 3 ways and the tenth place can be filled in 3 ways by the remaining three numbers. Therefore, the required answer = 3 × 3 = 9.

Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined In a rectangle of sides 5 cm and 4 cm, the largest possible circle C1 is drawn (touching 3 sides of the rectangle). In the remaining part of the rectangle, the largest possible circle C 2 is drawn. Find the radius of C2 (in cm).

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Election was held to select the chairman of the governing council of ICC. The result of the election indicated that 25% of the people voted for Ravi and the rest voted for Sunil. Later it was discovered that the voting machine was faulty and 20% of the people whose votes were recorded in favour of Ravi had actually voted for Sunil and 50% of the people whose votes were recorded in favour of Sunil had actually voted for Ravi. If the difference between the people who actually voted for Ravi and those who actually voted for Sunil was 3,00,000, how many people actually voted for Ravi? 6,50,000 7,00,000 10,80,000 11,50,000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the total number of people who voted be x. Votes recorded for Ravi = 0.25x and votes recorded for Sunil = 0.75x

People who actually voted for Ravi = 0.25x – 0.2(0.25x) + 0.5(0.75x) = 0.575x People who actually voted for Sunil = 0.75x – 0.5(0.75x) + 0.2(0.25x) = 0.425x

Difference = 0.575x – 0.425x = 0.15x = 300000 ? x = 20,00,000

Number of people who actually voted for Ravi = 0.575(2000000) = 11,50,000 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 11,50,000 Time taken by you: 172 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 203 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined There are three 1 litre bottles of alcohol. Bottle A consists of ethyl alcohol and water in the ratio 4 : 1. Bottles B and C consists of water and methyl alcohol in the ratio 1 : 2 and 7 : 1 respectively. Solutions from bottles A, B and C are mixed in the volume ratio M : 3 : 4. If the percentage composition of ethyl alcohol and water are equal in the resultant solution, then the value of M is: 7.5

8 8.5 9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 7.5

Time taken by you: 246 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 167 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined The ratio of volumes and curved surface areas of two cylinders is 1 : 3 and 1 : 2 respectively. Find the ratio of radii of the two cylinders. 1:2 2:3 3:4 1:4

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2:3

Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 %

undefined 105 oranges were distributed among four children – A, B, C and D. A gets twice as many oranges as B and 15 less than the combined oranges received by C and D. If D received twice the number of oranges as C, then how many more oranges were received by B as compared to C? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of oranges received by A and B be 2x andx respectively.

Let the number of oranges received by A and B be 2x andx respectively. Let the number of oranges received by C and D be y and 2y respectively.

Therefore, 2x = y + 2y – 15 = 3y – 15 ? 3y – 2x = 15 Also, 2x + x + 2y + y = 105 ? x + y = 35 Solving we get 5y = 85 or y = 17 and x = 18 Therefore, x – y = 18 – 17 = 1 Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

5 Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined The power consumed by an air conditioner is partly fixed and partly varies with the number of hours for which the air conditioner is switched on. The ratio of the power consumed when the air conditioner is switched on for 4 hours and 16 hours is 1 : 3. What will be the ratio of power consumed when the air conditioner is switched on for 6 hours and 10 hours? 1:2 2:3 3:4 4:5

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the power consumed, fixed component and variable component be P, x and y respectively.

Correct Answer: 2:3

Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

undefined Ram has a total of 126 cats and dogs. The number of dogs with Ram is more than twice the number of cats with him. What can be the minimum possible difference between the number of dogs and cats with him? 41

42 43 44

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 44

Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined A two-digit number in base 5 gets reversed when expressed in base 7. What will be the same number in base 6? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 99 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined

If SQ measures 5 cm, then what is the value of x (in cm)? (All the lengths given are in cm) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined If the average of ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ is equal to the average of ‘2a’ and ‘d’ and also equal to thrice the average of ‘b’ and ‘d’, then which of the following is the average of ‘5b’, ‘2c‘ and ‘a’? 3d 2d 2a 3a

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3a Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 184 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined ‘41a11b’ is a six-digit number that is divisible by both 3 and 11. The sum of its digits is less than 20. How many such numbers are possible? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 214 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined In how many different ways 5 identical apples, 5 identical cherries and 10identical oranges can be arranged such that no two oranges are adjacent to each other? 11! × 10! 252 2772 (10!)2 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2772 Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined What is the number of positive integer solutions of the equation 5x – 8y = 11 such that y < 14? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 100 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined If f(x + 2) = 2x2 – 4x, then find f(x – 2). 2x 2 – 20x – 48 2x 2 – 20x + 48

2x2 + 20x + 48 2x2 + 20x – 48 Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that f(x + 2) = 2 x 2 – 4x = 2( x + 2) 2 – 12x – 8 = 2( x + 2) 2 – 12(x + 2) + 16 Therefore, f(x – 2) = 2( x – 2) 2 – 12(x – 2) + 16 = 2 x 2 – 20x + 48 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 2x 2 – 20x + 48

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined In a polynomial P = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, c is the only coefficient which is zero.If the roots of P are all distinct and are in AP, which of the following is true?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined A real number x > 1 satisfies log2(log4x) + log4(log16x) = 0. Find the value of log2(log16x) + log4(log2x). 0

–1 1 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined Ramesh borrowed a sum of Rs 2 lakhs from a bank at 10% interest per annum for a period of two years. He needed to repay the loan in two equal yearly installments to be paid at the end of the first and the second years. If interest was calculated at the end of the year on the principal outstanding during the year, what is the value of each installment?

Rs. 1,20,300 Rs. 1,15,238 Rs. 1,18,372 Rs. 1,10,000 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 1,15,238

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined One of the root of y2 + By + C = 0 is 6 and that of Cy2 + By + 1 = 0 is (–0.25). What is the value of B? –1 –4 –2 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined How many non-null subsets does the set of odd composite numbers between 1 and 100 have? (225 – 1)

(224 – 1) 225 224

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: There are 50 odd numbers between 1 and 100. Out of which 1 is neither prime nor composite. Similarly out of 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100, one prime number (2) is even and remaining 24 are odd. Therefore the number of odd composite numbers between 1 and 100 is : 50 – 1 – 24 = 25 Number of non-zero subsets of a set with ‘n’ elements = 2 n – 1 Therefore, required answer is (225 – 1). Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: (225 – 1)

Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined If f(y) = max(5y2, 3y + 8) for all real values of y, then what is the minimum value off(y)? 22.8 12.8 6 5

Section Video Explanation:

Therefore, required answer is (225 – 1). Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: (225 – 1)

Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Summer vacations in a school started from a particular Monday in the month of April. The last day in the month of May of the same year was Wednesday. If the summer vacations started from the third Monday of April, then on which date did the summer vacations start? 15th April 16th April 17th April 19th April Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: May has 31 days. If the last day of May was Wednesday, then 3 rd May was also Wednesday. This implies that 30th April was Sunday. Therefore, 24 th April was Monday and 17 th April was a Monday. Since, the vacations started from the third Monday of April, we can conclude that the summer vacations started on 17th April. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 17th April Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 169 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

The passage below is accompanied by 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Countries with greater gender equality see a smaller proportion of women taking degrees in science, technology, engineering and mathematics (STEM), a new study has found. Dubbed the “gender equality paradox”, the research found that countries such as Albania and Algeria have a greater percentage of women amongst their STEM graduates than countries lauded for their high levels of gender equality, such as Finland, Norway and Sweden. The researchers, from Leeds Beckett University and the University of Missouri, believe this might be because countries with less gender equality often have little welfare support, making the choice of a relatively high-paid STEM career more attractive. The study, published in Psychological Science, also examined what motivates girls and boys to study STEM subjects, including overall ability, interest or enjoyment in the subject and whether science subjects were a personal academic strength. The researchers found that while boys’ and girls’ achievements in STEM subjects were broadly similar, science was more likely to be boys’ best subject. Girls also tended to register a lower interest in science subjects. These differences were near-universal across all the countries and regions studied. Professor of psychology GijsbertStoet said this could explain some of the gender disparity in STEM participation. “The further you get in secondary and then higher education, the more subjects you need to drop until you end with just one. We are inclined to choose what we are best at and also enjoy. This makes sense and matches common school advice. So, even though girls can match boys in terms of how well they do at science and mathematics in school, if those aren’t their best subjects and they are less interested in them, then they’re less likely to choose to study them. The researchers then looked at how many girls might be expected to choose to further study in STEM-based areas on these criteria. The results show that there is a disparity in all countries, but with the gap once again larger in more gender-equal countries. “Broader economic factors appear to contribute to the higher participation of women in STEM in countries with low gender equality and the lower participation in gender-equal countries.” Countries with higher gender equality tend also to be welfare states, providing a high level of social security for their citizens, compared to those with lower gender equality which tend to have less secure and more difficult living conditions. Using the UNESCO overall life satisfaction figures as a proxy for economic opportunity and hardship, the researchers found that in more gender-equal countries, overall life satisfaction was higher. Professor Stoet said: STEM careers are generally secure and well-paid but the risks of not following such a path can vary. Despite extensive efforts to increase participation of women in STEM, levels have remained broadly stable for decades, but these findings could help target interventions to make them more effective, the researchers said. “It’s important to take into account that girls are choosing not to study STEM for what they feel are valid reasons, so campaigns that target all girls may be a waste of energy and resources,” Professor Stoet said. “If governments want to increase women’s participation in STEM, a more effective strategy might be to target the girls who are clearly being lost from the STEM pathway – those for whom science and maths are their best subjects and who enjoy it but still don’t choose it,” he said. “If we can understand their motivations, then interventions can be designed to help them change their minds.” 1)The central idea of the passage is that: The results of a study on gender participation in STEM are counter-intuitive and do not reflect gender equality prevalent in society in general. The results of a study on gender disparity in STEM can be used to help target interventions to improve female participation in STEM. Initiatives designed for improving female participation in STEM can be more effective if based on the results of the study on gender disparity. The study on gender disparity in STEM results have been contradictory and must be used to bring gender parity in STEM. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is a difficult question.

Option 1 is incorrect. The first paragraph states that “… countries such as Albania and Algeria have a greater percentage of women amongst their STEM graduates than countries lauded for their high levels of gender equality, such as Finland, Norway and Sweden.” Option 1 states nothing more than this; hence does not capture the central idea. Counter-intuitive means “contrary to intuition or to common-sense expectation.” Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage looks at the results of a study on gender disparity and concludes by stating that the paradox can be further analysed for practical use in interventions. Thus the central idea of the passage is to use the results of the study on gender disparity to design effective interventions and increase female participation in STEM. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage ends with the suggestion that the results of the study can be put to good use. However the central idea of the passage cannot be said to be the design of effective interventions based on the study. Option 3 is also highly misleading in its reference to gender disparity in general – the passage is limited the sex ratio in STEM. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not comment on the study being illogical. The option also says, ‘the study must be used to bring gender parity in STEM.’ The passage is about improving female participation in STEM through intervention – not about bringing gender parity. Reject option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: The results of a study on gender disparity in STEM can be used to help target interventions to improve female participation in STEM. Time taken by you: 290 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 224 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 % 2)According to the passage, the study proves all of the following EXCEPT: Gender equality does not lead to greater female participation in STEM. Female participation in STEM is lower in higher gender equality countries than in lower gender equality countries. Female participants in STEM in countries with higher gender equality are more risk-averse than those in countries with lower gender equality. Girls in less gender-equal countries were more likely to graduate in STEM than girls in more gender-equal countries. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult EXCEPT question. Option 1 is incorrect. The study observes that gender equality does not lead to greater female participation in STEM. The first sentence the passage points out that “Countries with greater gender equality see a smaller proportion of women taking degrees in science, technology, engineering and mathematics (STEM), a new study has found.” Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In paragraph 5, the passage asserts that “The results show that there is a disparity in all countries, but with the gap once again larger in more gender-equal countries.” This implies that in countries with greater gender equality,females participated at lower proportions in STEM than in countries with lower gender equality. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. One can conclude from the passage that students in gender-equal countries are less likely to feel economic pressure and therefore, less likely to choose careers in STEM which are better paying. Professor Stoet says that “STEM careers are generally secure and well-paid but the risks of not following such a path can vary.” One can conclude therefore that students in gender-equal countries have a much higher social security and the risk of not taking a well-paid career path in STEM is much lower for them. So option 3 which states that they are more risk-averse does not apply to them. It is girls in low gender-equal countries that avoid risk by taking up higher paying STEM careers. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Comparing the gender disparity in gender-equal and low gender-equal countries, the passage does conclude that girls in low gender-equal countries are more likely than their counterparts in gender-equal countries, to choose STEM. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Female participants in STEM in countries with higher gender equality are more risk-averse than those in countries with lower gender equality. Time taken by you: 161 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 3)The study looks at all of the following factorsaffecting choice of STEM subjects EXCEPT: A student’s overall academic aptitude.

A student’s curiosity about the subject or subjects under STEM. Affirmative action towards a gender-equal society. Social organisation and economic factors. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the second paragraph. It states: “The study, published in Psychological Science, also examined what motivates girls and boys to study STEM subjects, including overall ability, interest or enjoyment in the subject and whether science subjects were a personal academic strength.” “Overall academic aptitude” is the same as the “overall academic ability” of the student. This is included as a criterion and is not an exception. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. “…interest or enjoyment in the subject” is a motivation mentioned in the passage and is the same as “curiosity about the subject”. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct, as it is an exception. The passage does not mention affirmative action in the form of reservation etc. for female students in STEM. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Social organisation and economic factors are implied in the study. The first and second paragraphs talk about how female participation in STEM is determined by the prevalent level of gender-equality in society. Gender-equality is essentially an aspect of social organisation – for example ‘patriarchy’ or ‘matriarchy’ is a form of social organisation – decision making powers and property rights etc., are with either with males or females in the family. Economic factors are also included in the study. Paragraph 6 states: “Broader economic factors appear to contribute to the higher participation of women in STEM in countries with low gender equality and the lower participation in gender-equal countries.” Therefore reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Affirmative action towards a gender-equal society. Time taken by you: 41 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 4)According to the passage, the gender disparity in STEM participation arises partly from: In general, boys show a greater interest in STEM than girls do. The absence of any real consequences to not choosing STEM for girls. Reasons that validate the choice of girls not to study STEM. The economic disparity between the girls who choose STEM and those who do not. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. Refer paragraph 3: “The researchers found that while boys’ and girls’ achievements in STEM subjects were broadly similar, science was more likely to be boys’ best subject. Girls also tended to register a lower interest in science subjects. These differences were near-universal across all the countries and regions studied.” Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. ‘The absence of any real consequence for not choosing STEM’ as the option suggests is contrary to the passage. Paragraph 6 and 7 explain that the risk of not choosing STEM is varies in different societies, and it is high for girls in gender-unequal countries. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions in the 8th paragraph that “It’s important to take into account that girls are choosing not to study STEM for what they feel are valid reasons, so campaigns that target all girls may be a waste of energy and resources …” The implication is that this is unsubstantiated reason or merely what girls feel. Option says – ‘reasons that validate this belief…’ So it is incorrect. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not mention any economic differences between girls who choose STEM and those who do not. Economic indicators are mentioned in relation to the welfare support and social security in gender-equal and gender unequal countries. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: In general, boys show a greater interest in STEM than girls do. Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 53 % 5)According to the passage, in gender-equal countries: Majority of the girls who study STEM do so because of their interest in the subject rather than for economic or other reasons. STEM is a high paying career option but entails more difficult working conditions for women. The risk of not choosing a career in STEM is lower than it is in gender unequal countries. STEM is not chosen as a career by as many people as it is in gender unequal countries. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 explains that even though girls match boys in terms of how well they do at science and mathematics in school, they are unlikely to choose to study them further if they are not interested in the subjects. Hence the research also factored in the interest factor. Paragraph 5 states: The researchers then looked at how many girls might be expected to choose to further study in STEM-based areas on these criteria. The results show that there is a disparity in all countries, but with the gap once again larger in more gender-equal countries. Hence option 1 is contrary to the passage. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state that career options in STEM leads more difficult working conditions in gender-equal countries. In fact, the passage does not bring up the working conditions under STEM at all. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. Paragraph 6 states: “Broader economic factors appear to contribute to the higher participation of women in STEM in countries with low gender equality and the lower participation in gender-equal countries. … Countries with higher gender equality tend also to be welfare states, providing a high level of social security for their citizens, compared to those with lower gender equality which tend to have less secure and more difficult living conditions.” Hence we can conclude that women in gender-equal countries do not risk their security by not choosing the high paying careers in STEM. Retain Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not state or imply anything about the number of people choosing STEM in gender-equal countries or others. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: The risk of not choosing a career in STEM is lower than it is in gender unequal countries. Time taken by you: 108 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 6)According to the passage, which of the following is likely to reduce the gender disparity in STEM? Campaign to target girls to encourage them to study STEM. Bring in legislation to improve gender parity in society. Initiate reforms for the economic development. Design incentives to prevent drop outs from STEM. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The eighth paragraph quotes Professor Stoet, “It’s important to take into account that girls are choosing not to study STEM for what they feel are valid reasons, so campaigns that target all girls may be a waste of energy and resources,” So campaigns to target girls in general is unlikely to reduce the gender disparity in STEM. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Gender parity is society does not help to reduce the gender disparity in STEM, because the passage observes that the disparity is more pronounced in gender-equal countries. Thus is stated in the first paragraph. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 6 states: “Broader economic factors appear to contribute to the higher participation of women in STEM in countries with low gender equality and the lower participation in gender-equal countries.” So, though development may help initially, it acts against gender parity in STEM in the long run. So it is likely to help only in undeveloped countries. Option 4 is correct. The passage states that the girls choose to avoid STEM for what they feel are valid reasons. Refer the last paragraph. “If governments want to increase women’s participation in STEM, a more effective strategy might be to target the girls who are clearly being lost from the STEM pathway – those for whom science and maths are their best subjects and who enjoy it but still don’t choose it.” Hence, preventing dropouts through interventions with the target group is likely to improve the sex ratio in STEM. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Design incentives to prevent drop outs from STEM. Time taken by you: 32 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. As Palestinians massed at the Gaza Strip’s border, Israeli soldiers fired on them, killing around 60 people. Shortly afterwards, the New York Times tweeted: “Dozens of Palestinians have died in protests as the US prepares to open its Jerusalem embassy.” Social media went ballistic. “From old age?” was one incredulous reply. #HaveDied quickly became a hashtag campaign. The fault was soon laid not only at the door of theTimes, but at a feature of English grammar. As Glenn Greenwald, a left-wing journalist, put it, “Most Western media outlets have become quite skilled—through years of practice—at writing headlines and describing Israeli massacres using the passive tense so as to hide the culprit.” His view was retweeted over 5,000 times and echoed by other critics. The problem is that theTimes’s tweet was not passive. “Have died” is the verb “to die” in the active voice and the perfect tense. Ironically, many people, in “correcting” theTimes’s supposed passive, replaced the active “have died” with a passive alternative, such as “Dozens were shot by Israeli troops.” English and most other European languages have both an active voice (Steve kicked John) and a passive (John was kicked by Steve). Style manuals, includingThe Economist’s, generally deprecate the passive voice. It is longer, for one thing. For another, it is often found in heavy academic and bureaucratic prose. Inexperienced writers tend to over-use it. But critics of the passive often confuse two different things: syntax and semantics. Syntax has to do with the mechanics of putting a sentence together. InSteve kicked John, Steve is the subject and John is the direct object. But inJohn was kicked by Steve, John is now the subject, even though he is still the kickee, and Steve is still the kicker. In both the active and passive sentences above, Steve is the “agent” and John is the “patient”, in the jargon of semantics. Flipping their syntactic form does nothing to their semantic role. There is one big wrinkle. Only in the passive can the agent be omitted entirely (John was kicked). That is another reason for the passive’s bad rap. In the case of “have died”, though, neither patients nor passives come into it.To die is an intransitive verb. Intransitive verbs have no direct object (you can’t saySteve died John). There is no patient. For the same reason, there is no passive form at all. You can’t say John was died by Steve. So what the critics really meant is that theTimeserred in using an intransitive verb. This is, in fact, an unfortunate choice. When gunshots land, someone shoots and someone is shot, two roles, a subject and an object, an agent and a patient, in any reasonable description. Journalists are often told to report “who-what-when-where-why” in headlines and first sentences. In cases like this they really need “who-whom-when-where-why.” But merely reporting the full facts accurately does not save journalists from espousing a point of view. “Soldiers kill dozens of protesters” has a very different feel from “Dozens of protesters killed by soldiers”, even though they describe the same proposition. And this is to say nothing of word choice. Both active and passive forms can give the victims’ perspective, with active verbs like “Soldiers massacre protesters” or passive formulations such as “Protesters gunned down by army”. The same goes for the other side: “Soldiers shoot rioters”, say, or “Rampaging mob turned back from border”. Words are more important than grammar. And no matter what their sympathies, reporters have a duty to give all the relevant facts. Headlines and the openings of stories are especially important. Nobody gets them right every time, but subeditors might consider letting enormous font-sizes shrink to accommodate more information. As for the armchair grammarians: it is time to give attacks on the (mostly blameless) passive voice a rest. 1)The primary purpose of the passage is to: emphasize that even though passive voice is longer and allows the object to be omitted entirely, it is unduly targeted by armchair grammarians. indicate that use of intransitive verb, not passive tense, is responsible for evasive headlines. show that the meaning conveyed by a statement is more important than its grammatical structure.

point out that grammar must not be blamed for the shortcomings of headline writers. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The passage can be summarised as below: - The New York Times erred when it tweeted that “Dozens of people have died in protests as the US prepares to open its Jerusalem embassy.” It did not specify how the protestors died. -People on social media laid the blame not only on the Times but also on passive voice, a feature of English grammar which allows the agent or doer of the action to be omitted. -The author states that the tweet was not in passive voice but in active voice and perfect tense. -Through different examples, the author explains that words are more important than grammar and that grammar must not be blamed for the evasive or biased headlines published by journalists and subeditors. Option 1 is incorrect. The primary purpose of the passage is not to defend passive voice against armchair grammarians, but to highlight the fact that evasive reporting is a result of either incompetence or biased views of journalists and editors. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author does not lay blame on any particular feature of English grammar for incomplete or evasive headlines. In fact, the author states that the words used by the headline writers are more important than the form of grammar used. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage specifically addresses the issue of incomplete information in headlines and the opening sentences of a report. This option misses out on the important issue of evasive headlines. Hence eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It correctly summarizes the essence and the primary purpose of the passage, which is, that features of grammar cannot be blamed for the inefficiencies of headline writers. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: point out that grammar must not be blamed for the shortcomings of headline writers. Time taken by you: 274 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 12 % 2)All of the following statements are NOT true according to the passage EXCEPT: Social media went ballistic over unverified claims by the New York Times, trying to influence public opinion on important matters. Only in passive voice, the object of the verb can be omitted entirely. Academicians and bureaucrats as writers are generally inexperienced. Most Western media outlets use passive tense to write evasive headlines. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. “All these are NOT true EXCEPT’ in the question stem means we need to choose the statement which is true Option 1 is incorrect. This option takes the statements of paragraph 1 out of context and is thus irrelevant. The author does NOT state that the claims made in the New York Times tweet were unverified, rather he/she states as a fact that Israeli soldiers fired on Palestinians, killing around 60 people. The author states that NYT did not reveal complete information in its tweet. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 6 states that “Only in passive can the agent be omitted entirely.” However as explained in the 4 th and 5th paragraphs, the agent and the object are grammatically distinct functions, and are not the same. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. In paragraph 2, author quotes Glenn Greenwald as “Most Western media outlets have become quite skilled …at … using the passive tense so as to hide the culprit.” But then the author disagrees with this statement and points out that the Times’ tweet was not passive. Thus, according to the author the given statement is not true. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. Or it is a true statement. In paragraph 4, the author states that passive voice is generally not recommended by style manuals because “it is often found in heavy academic and bureaucratic prose. Inexperienced writers tend to overuse it.” Thus, we can conclude that academic s and bureaucrats are generally inexperienced writers. Hence, the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Academicians and bureaucrats as writers are generally inexperienced. Time taken by you: 179 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 21 % 3)The author uses “Ironically” in the third paragraph to point out that: Many people on social media realized that passive voice must be inevitably used to provide complete facts and description of the events described in the Times’ tweet. The Times’ tweet used intransitive verb rather than passive voice to hide the culprit. Many people presumed that the Times’ tweet used passive voice to hide the culprit, while it actually used the active voice. Many people ended up using the passive voice while correcting the presumed passive voice in the Times’ tweet. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Paragraph 3 states that “Ironically, many people, in ‘correcting’ theTimes’s supposed passive, replaced the active ‘have died’ with a passive alternative, such as ‘Dozens were shot by Israeli troops.’” Thus, we can conclude that the irony is that many people corrected the Times’ supposed passive tweet (which was actually in active voice) by replacing it with a sentence in passive voice. Option 1 is incorrect. As discussed, the irony is not that many people realized that passive voice must be inevitably used to report complete facts. Rather, the author states the opposite - that both active and passive voices may be used to convey complete information or to hide information. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author does not argue that the irony of the situation is the use of intransitive verb instead of passive voice as it helps to hide the culprit. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The irony is not that people presumed the NYT tweet to be in passive voice while it was actually in active voice. The irony is that people corrected the presumed passive tweet using passive voice itself. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. This option correctly identifies the irony. People criticised NYT for using the passive voice. Bu NYT’s tweet was in reality in the active voice. And, when they offered corrections to NYT’s supposed passive voice, they used passive voice themselves. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Many people ended up using the passive voice while correcting the presumed passive voice in the Times’ tweet. Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 % 4)Style manuals, generally disapprove of the passive voice for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: Passive voice lays emphasis on the patient rather than the agent. Passive sentences are often wordy and indirect. Passive voice allows leaving out the agent. Inexperienced writers tend to use passive voice excessively which can lead to confusion about who is responsible for the action. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states that “Style manuals, generally deprecate the passive voice. It is longer, for one.” Thus we can conclude that style manuals disapprove of the passive voice because it makes the sentence wordy and indirect. Thus, option 2 is not an exception. Eliminate it. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 6 states that “Only in passive voice can the agent be eliminated.” This can create confusion and give incomplete information and hence it is not recommended by style manuals. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states that “For another, it is often found in heavy academic and bureaucratic prose. Inexperienced writers tend to overuse it.” Thus, style manuals disapprove of passive for this reason. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. The passive voice does emphasize the patient rather than the agent – e.g., John was kicked by Steve. However, the passage does not state that style manuals disapprove of the passive voice for this reason. Thus Option 1 is an exception. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Passive voice lays emphasis on the patient rather than the agent. Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 39 % 5) Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? If all the relevant facts are reported, then neither the arrangement nor the choice of words would affect the biasness of a report. The passive voice can be clear and the active voice can be a dodge or vice versa. Online news media do not face the space constraints that traditional newspapers have to cope with. Using smaller font-sizes in the headlines and opening sentences of stories will ensure neutral reporting of all the “who-what-whenwhere-why” facts. Video Explanation: Explanation: Medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 9 states that word choice can change the perspective of the report. It can change the perception of the reader either in favour of the victim or the perpetrator. Also, the last paragraph concludes, “Words are more important than grammar.” Thus, we cannot conclude that choice of words would not affect the biasness of the report. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. In the passage, there is no mention or suggestion of the space constraints faced by online news media. It merely states in the last paragraph that “… subeditors might consider letting enormous font-sizes shrink to accommodate more information.” Option 3 is not inferable and can be eliminated. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage suggests in the last paragraph that using smaller font-sizes to accommodate more information is a valid option that subeditors may consider. This does not imply that using smaller font-sizes will ensure neutral reporting. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. As stated in paragraph 9, “Both active and passive forms can give the victims’ perspective … The same goes for the other side …” thus we can conclude that active voice can be a dodge while passive voice can be used to convey the information clearly. Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: The passive voice can be clear and the active voice can be a dodge or vice versa.

Time taken by you: 77 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 22 % 6)The author’s conclusion that “the Times erred in using an intransitive verb” is based on the assumption that: Palestinians were unarmed and staging a peaceful protest. Israeli soldiers used force to disband the protestors. Israeli soldiers were responsible for the death of Palestinian protestors. Palestinian protestors were armed and Israeli troops were forced to retaliate. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Option 1 is incorrect. This option does not make any mention of Israeli soldiers or their actions, which makes option 1 ambiguous and irrelevant. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Even if the Israeli soldiers used force to disband the protestors, the Times could not have been sure that the protestors died because of the actions of Israeli soldiers. This option is not an assumption. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is beyond the details available in the passage. The passage does not imply that Palestinian protestors were armed and Israeli soldiers were forced to retaliate, and hence the Times erred in using the intransitive verb “have died”. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The controversy related to the tweet by Times revolves round the assumption that Israeli soldiers were responsible for the death of the 60 Palestinians. The corrected report: “Dozens were shot by Israeli troops” explicitly stats this assumption. Thus, the Times erred by not stating the perpetrators i.e. Israeli soldiers. Hence, the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Israeli soldiers were responsible for the death of Palestinian protestors. Time taken by you: 66 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Equating money with value is in many cases a necessary expedient. People make transactions with money, of one form or another, rather than with “utility” or happiness. But even if economists often have no choice but to judge outcomes in terms of who ends up with how many dollars, they can pay more attention to the way focusing on “material well-being”, as determined by the “measuring rod of money”, influences and constrains their work. The measuring rod itself often causes trouble. Not every dollar is of equal value, for instance. You might think that if two economists were forced to bid on an apple, the winner would desire the apple more and the auction would thereby have found the best, welfaremaximising use for the apple. But the evidence suggests that money has diminishing marginal value: the more you have, the less you value an extra dollar. The winner might therefore end up with the apple not because it will bring him more joy, but because his greater wealth means that his bid is less of a sacrifice. Economists are aware of this problem. It features, for example, in debates about the link between income and happiness across countries. But the profession is surprisingly casual about its potential implications: for example, that as inequality rises, the price mechanism may do a worse job of allocating resources. Equating dollar costs with value misleads in other ways. That economic statistics such as GDP are flawed is not news. In a speech in 1968 Robert Kennedy complained that measures of output include spending on cigarette advertisements, napalm and the like, while omitting the quality of children’s health and education. Despite efforts to improve such statistics, these problems remain. A dollar spent on financial services or a pricey medical test counts towards GDP whether or not it contributes to human welfare. Social costs such as pollution are omitted. Economists try to take account of such costs in other contexts, for example when assessing the harms caused by

climate change. Yet even then they often focus on how environmental change will affect measurable production and neglect outcomes that cannot easily be set against the measuring rod. Economists also generally ignore the value of non-market activity, like unpaid work. By one estimate, including unpaid work in American GDP in 2010 would have raised its value by 26%. As Diane Coyle of Cambridge University has argued, the decision to exclude unpaid work may reflect the value judgments of the officials who first ran statistical agencies. But it seems likely that economists today still treat things which cannot easily be measured as if they matter less. Economists are at their least useful when a measuring stick should not be used at all. They have been known to calculate, for example, the financial gains from achieving gender equality. But gender equality has an intrinsic value, regardless of its impact on GDP. Similarly, species loss and forced mass migration impose psychic costs that resist dollar valuation but are nonetheless important aspects of the threat from climate change. Such quandaries might suggest that ethical issues should be left to other social scientists. But that division of labour would be untenable. Indeed, economists often work on the basis that tangible costs and benefits outweigh subjective values. Alvin Roth, for example, suggests that moral qualms about “repugnant transactions” (such as trading in human organs) should be swept aside in order to realise the welfare gains that a market in organs would generate. Perhaps so, but to draw that conclusion while dismissing such concerns, rather than treating them as principles which might also contribute to human well-being, is inappropriate. Further, the very act of pulling out the measuring rod alters our sense of value. Though the size of the effect is disputed, psychological research suggests that nudging people to think in terms of money when they make a choice encourages a “businesslike mindset” that is less trusting and generous. Expanding the reach of markets is not just a way to satisfy preferences more efficiently. Rather, it favours market-oriented values over others. 1)Which of the following statements best reflects the author’s argument? Economists should find a better measuring tool than money to measure economic health. Money distorts the value system and presents people as merely economic entities. Economists should evaluate the effects of using money as a measuring tool for value. The use of money as a tool for evaluating preferences is misleading as it ignores non- monetary aspects of the economy. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer points out that using money as a tool, influences the evaluation of value and this must be addressed. He does not recommend that an alternative to money should be considered. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author acknowledges that “Equating money with value is in many cases a necessary expedient.” So the author’s argument is not about money distorting the value system but about its effects going unexamined. The word expedient means suitable for achieving a particular end in a given circumstance – in simpler words, useful or practical. Option 2 is, hence, too drastic. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. Refer paragraph 1. “But even if economists often have no choice but to judge outcomes in terms of who ends up with how many dollars, they can pay more attention to the way focusing on ‘material well-being’, as determined by the ‘measuring rod of money’, influences and constrains their work.” The last paragraph states that psychological research proves money to be a factor causing changes in human behavior and therefore the economy. Thus the passage argues for an examination of the effect of using money as a measure of value. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage argues for the examination of the effect money has as a tool of evaluation. Using money as a tool is misleading because it does not recognize non-monetary aspects – as stated in option 4 is only one of the several reasons contained in the main argument. Reject option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Economists should evaluate the effects of using money as a measuring tool for value. Time taken by you: 325 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 12 % 2) According to the passage, a ‘division of labor’ between economists and social scientists is untenable (last paragraph) because: Social scientists and economists perceive money differently and social scientists cannot assess economic value. Economists find little value in the systems of social scientists as they are not as focused on creating tangible benefits. Certain situations defy dollar valuation and the welfare gains from transactions are intrinsically tied to moral considerations.

Only when economists and social scientists work together can the costs and welfare gains of an economic project be calculated accurately. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Untenable means unsustainable or simply flawed. The question in effect asks us why the division of labor between economists and social scientists is not possible. The relevant information occurs in the final two paragraphs. “Economists are at their least useful when a measuring stickshould not be used at all. They have been known to calculate, for example, the financial gains from achieving gender equality. But gender equality has an intrinsic value regardless of its impact on GDP … Such quandaries might suggest that ethical issues should be left to other social scientists. But that division of labor would be untenable.” The author then refers to Alvin Roth’s argument in favor of organ trade for its benefits sweeping aside the moral qualms against it. Thus the author’s reason for saying that a division of labor between ethicists and economists is not possible is that certain transactions are essentially moral and not merely economic. These ideas are captured in option 3. Options 1 and 2 are incorrect because implicitly both the options make the so-called division of labour tenable because they present economists and ethicists as disconnected entities. Option 4 is incorrect because it is incorrect to say “only when….” The passage does not suggest that economist always need to work together with ethicists. Only in certain calculations of costs or benefits, like ‘repugnant transactions’, are ethics and economics closely related. So the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Certain situations defy dollar valuation and the welfare gains from transactions are intrinsically tied to moral considerations.

Time taken by you: 108 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 29 % 3)GDP as a measure of value is flawed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: It fails to account for costs incurred by the failure of big investments such as those made in financial services. It includes even those economic activities that are damaging to human welfare as growth in output. It does not take into account the costs and the damage caused to the quality of life by certain economic activities. It includes only those negative outcomes, which can be quantified in monetary terms. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct because it is not mentioned as a flaw of GDP as a measure of value. Paragraph 3 states that: “A dollar spent on financial services or a pricey medical test counts towards GDP whether or not it contributes to human welfare.” The reference to financial services thus does not include anything about the failure of big investments. Option 2 is not an exception. This is stated in the passage as a shortcoming of using GDP. Refer paragraph 3 which states: “Robert Kennedy complained that measures of output include spending on cigarette advertisements, napalm and the like….” Therefore, reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions costs of pollution (arising out of economic activity) as an example of damage, and which is not accounted for in the GDP. Reject option 3. Option 4 is not an exception as it is stated in the passage. Refer the last sentence of paragraph 3 – “Yet even then they often focus on how environmental change will affect measurable production and neglect outcomes that cannot easily be set against the measuring rod.” Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: It fails to account for costs incurred by the failure of big investments such as those made in financial services. Time taken by you: 135 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 4)The author refers to ‘repugnant transactions’ (last paragraph) for which of the following reasons? To distinguish between economic transactions which add positive value to the economy and those that are of a dubious moral impact. To show the error in the argument of economists that welfare concerns can be addressed without distinguishing them from concerns for economic growth. To provide an instance of what happens when economists are asked to explain the morality of dubious economic activity. To build a case for the idea that all economic activities are not equal in the moral sense and they should be assessed on certain standards before being allowed in the market. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer last paragraph. The example makes a point about how economists think. It is not about distinguishing between positive economic transactions and transactions of a dubious moral impact. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. ‘Repugnant transactions’ like those in the human organs market, point to the contrast in economic values and welfare values. While there is no doubt that organ donations are useful, their sale in a ‘market’ is what causes moral concern. Alvin Roth represents the economists who dismiss these concerns. The conclusion by the economists, that welfare gains can be addressed in the same way as economic gains without acknowledging moral concerns, is what leads the writer to state: “…to draw that conclusion while dismissing such concerns, rather than treating them as principles which might also contribute to human well-being, is inappropriate.” Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The example points out the stance of economists on welfare concerns of using money as a measuring tool. It is not about what happens when economists are asked to explain anything about dubious economic activity. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The example is not used to make any point about what should be allowed in the market. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: To show the error in the argument of economists that welfare concerns can be addressed without distinguishing them from concerns for economic growth. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 20 % 5)According to the passage, “as inequality rises, the price mechanism will do a worse job of allocating resources”, because: Resource allocation occurs based on diminishing marginal value. Resources allocation happens on the basis of the ability to pay for the resource. The measuring rod of money will distort the relative utility of an item. Satisfying preferences on the basis of wealth undermines price mechanism. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. In the second paragraph, the author explains the concept of diminishing marginal value using the example of the apple. The apple which represents welfare or joy goes to the person who can offer the best price. Diminishing marginal value prevents welfare-maximizing because, the more you have the less you value the extra dollar you paid for the apple. As inequality rises – price mechanism will do a worse job of allocating resources because the person who will derive the maximum welfare from a good is prevented from having it because a person who has the maximum dollars to spare will be able to possess the good. In the process overall welfare associated with the good reduces. From this point of view option 1 is correct. Option 2 is incorrect because the ability to pay for a resource is different from the possession of extra dollars or diminishing marginal value. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect because utility and welfare/joy are two different concepts. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect as it describes what happens to proce mechanism and not how price mechanism affects allocation in case of inequality. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Resource allocation occurs based on diminishing marginal value. Time taken by you: 156 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 18 % 6)Which one of the following about “trading in human organs” is asserted in the passage? Moral qualms about organ trade should be swept aside to realize the welfare gains of the market in organs. Moral issues related to organ trade should be left to social scientists. Moral principles related to the organ trade may also contribute to human well-being. Trading in human organs is that part of social welfare that can be brought directly or indirectly into relation with the measuring rod of money. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The answer is directly stated in the last paragraph of the passage. The last paragraph states that “Alvin Roth, for example, suggests that moral qualms about ‘repugnant transactions’ (such as trading in human organs) should be swept aside in order to realise the welfare gains that a market in organs would generate. Perhaps so, but to draw that conclusion while dismissing such concerns, rather than treating them as principles which might also contribute to human well-being, is inappropriate.” The author thus holds the moral qualms about organ trade as not only valid but also essential – as these principle are also likely to contribute to human well-being as trading in organs itself leads to welfare gains. From this point of view option 3 is asserted in the last paragraph. Option 1 is incorrect in stating that moral qualms should be swept aside for the welfare gains from the organs market. This assertion is contrary to the last paragraph. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The second sentence of the paragraph states that such ‘division of labour’ – leaving moral concern to social scientists - is untenable. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is also contrary to the passage. The author does not assert anything to justify option 4 – that organ trade can be brought directly or indirectly under the measuring rod of money. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Moral principles related to the organ trade may also contribute to human well-being. Time taken by you: 46 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 29 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. In an age when most people get their news from social media, mafia states have had little trouble censoring social-media content that their leaders deem harmful to their interests. But for liberal democracies, regulating social media is not so straightforward, because it

requires governments to strike a balance between competing principles. After all, social-media platforms not only play a crucial role as conduits for the free flow of information; but they also face strong criticism for failing to police illegal or abusive content, particularly hate speech and extremist propaganda. These failings have prompted action from many European governments and the European Union itself. The EU has now issued guidelines for Internet companies, and has threatened to follow up with formal legislation if companies do not comply. In fact, Germany has already enacted a law that will impose severe fines on platforms that do not remove illegal user content in a timely fashion. These ongoing measures are a response to the weaponization of social-media platforms by illiberal state intelligence agencies and extremist groups seeking to divide Western societies with hate speech and disinformation. Specifically, we now know that the Kremlinlinked “Internet Research Agency” carried out a large-scale campaign on Facebook and Twitter to boost Donald Trump’s chances in the 2016 US presidential election. The tech giants, for their part, will continue to claim that they are merely distributing information. In fact, they are acting as publishers, and they should be regulated accordingly – and not just as publishers, but also as near-monopoly distributors. To be sure, censorship and the manipulation of information are as old as news itself. But the kind of state-sponsored hybrid warfare on display today is something new. Hostile powers have turned our open Internet into a cesspool of disinformation, much of which is spread by automated bots that the major platforms could purge without undermining open debate – that is, if they had the will to do so. Social-media companies have the power to exert significant influence on our societies, but they do not have the right to set the rules. That authority belongs to our democratic institutions, which are obliged to ensure that social-media companies behave much more responsibly than they are now. 1)The problem that liberal democracies face with respect to current social media is – Liberal democracies are obliged to ensure that social media companies behave much more responsibly than they behave now. While mafia states have no trouble censoring social media content, liberal democracies fail to do so. Liberal democracies find it difficult to control hate speech and disinformation while upholding the right to free speech. The weaponization of social media platforms by illiberal state intelligence agencies and extremist groups. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The problem faced by liberal democracies with respect to social media is stated in the first paragraph. “… for liberal democracies, regulating social media is not so straightforward, because it requires governments to strike a balance between competing principles. After all, social-media platforms not only play a crucial role as conduits for the free flow of information; but they also face strong criticism for failing to police illegal or abusive content, particularly hate speech and extremist propaganda.” So while it is easy for mafia states and illiberal states to censor social media to suit their propaganda, liberal democracies face the conflict between right to freedom of speech and the need to regulate online illegal content. Option 1 is incorrect. The obligation to ensure that media behaves more responsibly does not create any problem for liberal democracies – the problem faced by them is the balance they are required to maintain between competing principles - the principles of freedom of expression and the need to regulate illegal content. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. While it is true that mafia states control and manipulate social media, democracies have no intention to do so. It is the hate speech and illegal content that create the problem – not censoring social media per se. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The problem faced by liberal democracies to ‘balance competing principles’ is precisely stated in option 3. Their obligation to ensure that social media companies behave more responsibly implies that these companies regulate content – but the regulation of media will go against the principles of freedom of speech. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The weaponization of social media platforms is a problem in itself. This is not the problem of liberal democracies alone. Hence eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Liberal democracies find it difficult to control hate speech and disinformation while upholding the right to free speech. Time taken by you: 151 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 198 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 % 2)According to the passage, the weaponization of social-media platforms results from … Proposed legislation by European governments to regulate online content. The design of illiberal states and groups to destabilize western societies. Legislation in Germany that will impose severe fines on social media platforms for illegal content.

Internet Research Agency’s campaign to destabilize western societies. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The answer is stated in the third paragraph. Referring to the measures undertaken by European countries especially Germany to regulate the online user content, the writer states, “these ongoing measures are a response to the weaponization of social-media platforms by illiberal state intelligence agencies and extremist groups seeking to divide Western societies with hate speech and disinformation.” Hence the reason for the weaponization is the design of illiberal states and extremist groups to disrupt western societies. Option 1 is incorrect. The proposed legislation is a result of the weaponization of these platforms. Weaponization did not result from these legislations. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The illiberal state intelligence agencies and extremist groups seek to divide western societies through these social platforms because they want to divide western societies with hate speech and disinformation. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The legislation in Germany to impose fines arises from the prevalence of hate speech and propaganda online – in other words, weaponization prompted the legislation and it did not result from the legislation. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The Internet Research Agency’s campaign is a specific example of a campaign undertaken during Trump’s election and not something that the weaponization of social media groups resulted from. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: The design of illiberal states and groups to destabilize western societies. Time taken by you: 73 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 3)The passage supports all the following EXCEPT: The response of social-media companies to threats to liberal societies has been inadequate. There is a strong case for treating social-media companies as publishers. Social media censorship and manipulation of information are sometimes state-sponsored. Liberal democracies have received criticism for failing to curb illegal content and extremist propaganda on social platforms. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage supports the inference that the response of social-media companies to threats posed by illiberal state intelligence agencies and extremist groups is inadequate. Paragraph 4 states that the internet has become a cesspool of disinformation much of which is spread by automated bots; also, that it is possible for internet companies to purge these automated bots, but they do not show the will to do it. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage supports the inference that social media companies should be treated as publishers. In paragraph 4, we find the argument of tech giants that they should not be regulated because they are merely distributing information. The writer counters this argument by saying that in fact, they are publishers and should be regulated accordingly, and as distributors they are more like near-monopoly distributors. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. That the state censors and manipulates information is stated in the first and third paragraphs. The fourth paragraph also mentions that this is a kind of state- sponsored hybrid warfare by mafia states. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The first paragraph states, “after all, social-media platforms not only play a crucial role as conduits for the free flow of information; but they also face strong criticism for failing to police illegal or abusive content, particularly hate speech and extremist propaganda.” The criticism is directed at social media platforms and not at liberal democracies. So the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Liberal democracies have received criticism for failing to curb illegal content and extremist propaganda on social platforms. Time taken by you: 54 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 %

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. The concept of multitudinous self is based on the psychologist UlricNeisser’s account of the self, laid out in his paper ‘Five Kinds of Self-knowledge’. Neisser encourages us to reevaluate the sources of information that help us to identify the self. There are five sources, which are so different from one another that it is plausible to conceive each as establishing a different ‘self’. First there is the ecological self, or the embodied self in the physical world, which perceives and interacts with the physical environment; the interpersonal self, or the self-embedded in the social world, which constitutes and is constituted by inter-subjective relationships with others; the temporally extended self, or the self in time, which is grounded in memories of the past and anticipation of the future; the private self which is exposed to experiences available only to the first person and not to others; and finally the conceptual self, which (accurately or falsely) represents the self to the self by drawing on the properties or characteristics of not only the person but also the social and cultural context to which she belongs. The multitudinous self is a variation of the Neisserian self in that it individuates the self as a complex mechanism with many dimensions that interact and work together to maintain a more or less stable agency over time. At times these different dimensions of the ‘self’ contradict each other. Interpersonally, I might come across as gregarious, and present an image of someone who enjoys companionship, yet my private sense of self might be that I am shy and introverted. Because these five dimensions are all more or less integrated, however, they help with self-regulation, and function as a locus of experience and agency. The multitudinous self gives a partial but helpful representation of the selves we encounter in our daily lives. It is also scientifically scrutable. To see how this is so, take the following example. We can acquire information about the selfhood of 12-year-olds, tracking information about them in all five dimensions by relying on both first-person and third-person perspectives. First, we could interview them on how the physical changes in their bodies are manifested in their ecological dimension: how the changes in their height or weight affect their physical activity, or how such physical changes affect their interpersonal dimension through their effects on the nature and quality of their interpersonal relationships. Similarly, we can acquire information on how the physiological changes are manifested in the temporal, private and conceptual aspects of themselves. For instance, through first-person reports, we can evaluate what kind of short-term memory loss a preteen might be experiencing, and whether it affects his sense of the future. This would yield information about the temporal dimension of the preteen self. Or we might learn about the private aspect of the self by interviewing them about ‘what it is like’ to be 12. Finally, to develop a robust understanding of how their self-concepts are evolving in response to the changes they are undergoing, we might ask them how they represent themselves to themselves. A girl’s (or boy’s) weight might be considered in a typical range for her height, sex and age, but not seem so to herself. 1) According to the passage, how is the multitudinous self, different from the Neisserian self? The multitudinous self can be understood scientifically while the Neisserian self cannot be scrutinized. The Neisserian self is a tool to help understand the unitary self while the multitudinous self is a tool that helps create actual psychological evaluations. The Neisserian self is a collection while the multitudinous self is a combination. The multitudinous self creates a unified solution for the divergent tendencies outlined by the Neisserian self. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does state that the multitudinous self is “scientificallyscrutable” – in other words that it is open to scientific understanding. But this does not imply that the Neisserian self cannot be scrutinized. There is nothing in the passage to indicate that the Neisserian division of selves cannot be studied. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The question asks for the difference between the two perspectives of self. Option 2 states two valid facts about the perspectives which do not represent any difference between them. Therefore reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. The second paragraph states that: “The multitudinous self is a variation of the Neisserian self in that it individuates the self as a complex mechanism with many dimensions that interact and work together to maintain a more or less stable agency over time.” Thus the difference between the two approaches to the self is that the Neisserian self sees the discrete parts of the whole as distinct sources while the multitudinous self, views the self as an individual that combines these qualities. Collection refers to a group of discrete units while a combination refers to a unit which has mixed together different things. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The multitudinous self is said to be a variation of, and not a solution for, the Neisserian self. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The Neisserian self is a collection while the multitudinous self is a combination.

Time taken by you: 210 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 26 % 2) In Neisserian psychology, which of the following is the method used by a self for identifying the self? Drawing on the characteristics of the person and the socio-cultural environment. Presenting the socio cultural environment to the person. Suspending the information from other four dimensions of the self to focus on one. Gradually withdrawing the inter-personal self from the social world. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is correct. Refer the last line of the first paragraph….“and finally the conceptual self, which (accurately or falsely) represents the self to the self by drawing on the properties or characteristics of not only the person but also the social and cultural context to which she belongs”. Thus the conceptual self represents the self to the self by drawing on the characteristics of the person and the sociocultural environment. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The characteristics of the self are more important for a sense of self than the characteristics of the socio-cultural environment. Therefore, reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. There is no mention in the passage, of a situation where this may happen – i.e., the suspension of four other dimensions. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not state anywhere that the interpersonal self withdraws from the social world for any reason. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Answer: Drawing on the characteristics of the person and the socio-cultural environment.

Time taken by you: 57 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 3)In the given example of the girl who incorrectly feels that her weight is abnormal, one can conclude from the passage that: Her multitudinous self has received incorrect information from her Neisserian self. Her Neisserian self and her multitudinous self have merged to create inefficiency. Her Neisserian self is not well-integrated enough to create a stable multitudinous self. Her Neisserian self, failed to help with self-regulation and act as a locus of experience and agency. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 2 states that the multitudinous self is a variation of the Neisserian self in that it is an integration of the 5 Neisserian sources of information. The example of the girl shows how scientific scrutiny of the multitudinous self occurs – Paragraph 3 states, “We can acquire information about the selfhood of 12-year-olds, tracking information about them in all five dimensions by relying on both first-person and third-person perspectives”. “Similarly, we can acquire information on how the physiological changes are manifested in the temporal, private and conceptual aspects of themselves.” Thus the five dimensional Neisserian self is used as a base for getting information from the multitudinous self – the integrated self. In the case of the example the girl whose self-image is incorrect, the multitudinous self has received incorrect information from the Neisserian self. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The multitudinous self is the merging of the five dimensions of the self from Neisserian psychology. It is incorrect therefore to speak of the merging of the multitudinous and the Neisserian self as option 2 does. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The question is not one of stability as this option suggests. The multitudinous self is not unstable because of wrong information from the Niesserian self but has simply received this incorrect information from it. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Self-regulation as used in the second paragraph refers to the integration of the five dimensions of the self. Also viewing information incorrectly does not mean that the self fails to act as a locus of experience and agency. In the example of the girl in fact, it does act as a locus of experience and agency – or a point of control of experience and agency. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Her multitudinous self has received incorrect information from her Neisserian self. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 20 %

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undefined A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. In logic, gradualism gave rise to fuzzy logic, i.e., to the development of logical systems explicitly built to better model the logical and semantic

behaviour of gradual properties. In these logics, instead of the membership relation of set theory representing whether an object belongs to a predicate’s extension, there is a membership function assigning values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers to objects and sets representing the predicate’s extension. Thus, we can account for the behaviour of propositions like “John is bald” where John is a borderline case of baldness. Given how widespread vagueness and similar phenomena are, it is not surprising that fuzzy logic has found heaps of applications, mostly outside philosophy.

Fuzzy Logic which arose in logic through gradualism accounts for propositions with widespread vagueness and similarity, instead of the membership function of set theory which assigns values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers to objects. Instead of the membership relation of set theory, Fuzzy Logic which arose in logic through gradualism accounts for propositions with widespread vagueness and similarity by assigning them values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers to objects. Instead of the membership relation of setheory, Fuzzy Logic which has heaps of applications outside philosophy, accounts for propositions with vagueness and similarity by assigning values to objects within the interval of real numbers 0 and 1. Fuzzy logic, logical systems with real world applications, accounts for the logical and semantic behavior of gradual properties of objects by assigning them values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers, instead of the membership relation of set theory. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The paragraph explains fuzzy logic. The main points in the passage to be captured in the précis are:

In logic gradualism gave rise to fuzzy logic.

Fuzzy logic is a model for the logical and semantic behavior of gradual properties.

In Fuzzy logic instead of the membership relation of set theory, vague and similar phenomena are assigned values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers.

Fuzzy logic is used in real world applications.

Option 1 is incorrect. It is erroneous conceptually. The option states that set theory assigns values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers to objects. It not set theory but fuzzy logic that does this. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Technically the option is correct but an inadequate précis or essence of the paragraph. The most important aspect of fuzzy logic is a system that accounts for the logical and semantic behavior of gradual properties – technically it is achieved by assigning values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers to objects. Option 2 mentions only the technical aspect and not its purpose. Also, the real world applications of fuzzy logic are not included in the option. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 is similar to option 2. It highlights the technical specifications and the real world applications of fuzzy logic. However, the purpose of technical aspects which is “accounting for the logical and semantic behavior of gradual properties of objects” is not mentioned. The problem with options 2 and 3 is that only a person who has read the entire paragraph will be able to make sense of both. So we eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It captures the essence of the paragraph and faithfully communicates it to the reader most closely to the original paragraph. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer:

Fuzzy logic, logical systems with real world applications, accounts for the logical and semantic behavior of gradual properties of objects by assigning them values within the [0, 1] interval of real numbers, instead of the membership relation of set theory. Time taken by you: 140 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Care must be taken when talking about “society” doing “some ‘nudging.’” Most advocates of ‘nudging’ – including the 2017 Nobel economics laureate, Richard Thaler – wish to empower the state to nudge. Whatever you think of the propriety, wisdom, or justice of adults being ‘nudged’ away from choosing options that they would otherwise choose, any nudging done by the state is not nudging done by society. Instead, nudging done by the state is in reality nudging done by particular flesh-and-bloodindividuals. Describing such nudging as being done by “society” masks the danger that lurks in giving some individuals the power to superintend the lives of other individuals. What good reason have you to suppose that those individuals who are empowered to nudge others are themselves immune from the psychological quirks that allegedly justify their power to nudge others? And further, what good reason have you to trust that the nudgers, when their nudges fail, won’t redouble their efforts to direct the lives of others by resorting toshoving? Nudging by governments gives too much power in the hands of individuals who may end up shoving if nudging fails. There is little reason to support “nudging” of any type as the individuals empowered to nudge can end up abusing their power and shoving. One should exercise caution while supporting nudging by governments as it empowers individuals to superintend the lives of others without restraint. Governments empower individuals to “nudge” others although these individuals are susceptible to misusing their power over others. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The main points in the paragraph, which summarise the author’s position are: When “nudging” by society is advised, it is usually associated with the power of the state to “nudge”.

In reality it is flesh and blood individuals who nudge on behalf of the state and they gain the power to superintend the lives of others.

The individuals who are empowered by the state to nudge end up shoving when their nudges fail. Option 1 is correct. It captures the essence of the précis and states that “nudging”, which is the subject of the passage, can be dangerous if allowed by governments. This is the author’s position which is elaborated in the passage. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The précis starts by stating that care must be taken before discussing any “nudging” by society. It goes on to state the reasons why such care is required. However, the option states that “there is little reason to support nudging.” The passage merely cautions against ‘nudging’, it does not state or imply that there is little reason to support nudging. Reject option 2.

Option 3 is incorrect. The précis does not state that the individuals are empowered to act “without restraint” by the government. It merely points to the plausibility of their overstepping their roles. This does not mean “without restraint’; hence option 3 is a distortion. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The précis in option 4 misrepresents the passage by stating that governments actually empower individuals to nudge. The passage discusses the potential risks in empowering individuals to nudge others and what must be kept in mind during any such discussion on nudging by society or state. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Nudging by governments gives too much power in the hands of individuals who may end up shoving if nudging fails. Time taken by you: 139 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 13 %

undefined A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. The moral is that smart people can be masters of manytrades, though Ottolenghi claims that it took him a lot longer to “really experience pastry with my hands” (six months) than to make his way through Hegel (an excruciating few weeks). At forty-three, he is not much changed from the recovering philosopher-geek of his Amsterdam years—lanky, loping, and quite tall, with the same short, sticking-up dark hair and fashionably stubbled chin, and even a version of the same black-rimmed student glasses. The differenceis that today he wears the happy smile of a man who has left behind “The Phenomenology of Mind” for baked eggplants with lemon thyme, za’atar, pomegranate seeds, and buttermilk-yogurt sauce—and, in the process, become the pen, prime mover, and public face of a partnership of four close colleagues who have quietly changed the way people in Britain shopand cook and eat. Ottolenghi is a good example of how smart people can be multi-skilled as he has moved from a Hegel-spouting philosophy student to being an entrepreneur chef who has singlehandedly revitalised Britain’s approach to food. Smart people can be multi-skilled, as evident in the successful transition of Ottolenghi from a philosopher-geek student to a successful entrepreneur chef who may not have changed much in appearance but has changed the way Britain approaches food. The success of Ottolenghi, an erstwhile philosopher-geek who turned successful entrepreneur-chef and energised Britain’s approach to food, is a reminder that smart people can be multi-taskers. Smart people are multi-taskers and this is apparent when you consider the success of philosopher turned chef Ottolenghi who, at 43, has changed the way Britain approaches food. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question with very close options.

The paragraph is about Ottolenghi – an entrepreneur in London – how after studying philosophy he finally became a chef and the public face of an enterprise that changed the way people in Britain shopand cook and eat. The main points in this description about Ottolenghi, which a précis should ideally capture are:

Smart people can be multi-skilled, like Ottolenghi who is a chef and has studied philosophy.

He has not changed much in appearance since his student days but has become happier by changing his focus from philosophy to

food.

This transition has led to him partnering in an entrepreneurship that has caused a change in Britain’s approach to food.

Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 incorrectly states that Ottolenghi singlehandedly revitalized Britain’s approach to food. The passage states that he is the face of a partnership. Also ‘revitalized’ (given a fresh lease of energy to) is different from “changing.” The reference to being someone who spouts Hegel is also an exaggeration. So we can reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. It captures all the main points of the paragraph – the paragraph states the idea that smart people can be masters of many trades and gives the example of Ottolenghi to prove this. The better part of the paragraph dwells on how Ottolenghi moves from being a philosopher student to being a connoisseur of food. It is peppered with adjectives and descriptions, which need not be mentioned in the summary. Option 2 concisely captures the essence of the description. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. If option 1 uses the term “revitalized’ Britain’s approach tot food, option 3 states “energized the food scene.” The passage states that Ottolenghi’senterprise “changed the way people in Britain shopand cook and eat.” Since the passage refers to innovations rather than energizing or revitalizing. We can eliminate option 3 for the same reason as option 1. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses the important point of the transition from philosophy to food. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: Smart people can be multi-skilled, as evident in the successful transition of Ottolenghi from a philosopher-geek student to a successful entrepreneur chef who may not have changed much in appearance but has changed the way Britain approaches food. Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 75 %

1. In the counter-reality of the tournament, a mood of self-confidence, altruism, and openness to the “other” revailed. 2. In stark contrast to the “real world,” the two leading powers, the United States and China, played no role in the tournament. 3. For Europeans, and even more so for the French, the 2018 World Cup was a Corneillian event. 4. The month-long soccer tournament in Russia offered an enchanted respite from a tumultuous world and revealed the better angels of our nature. 5. The seventeenth-century philosopher and satirist Jean de La Bruyère once quipped that, “Corneille portrays men as they should be; Racine depicts them as they are.”

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. It is easy to discover a mandatory pair in this set of sentences by even a casual reading. Sentence 3 mentions that 2018 World Cup was a Cornellian moment for the Europeans. What Cornellian moment means has reference to sentence 5 which quotes the satirist and philosopher Jean de La Bruyère, “Corneille portrays men as they should be…” So 5-3 is a mandatory pair. So the theme of the paragraph also becomes very clear to us – ‘The 2018 World Cup portrayed people as they should be ….’ When we try to relate the remaining sentences 1, 2 and 4 to this pair, we can see that sentence 4 expands on what we should be specifying it quite clearly as revealing “better angels of our nature” – So 534 is a coherent sequence. Now, we need to relate sentence 1 and 2. The real world is said to be “tumultuous” in sentence 4, sentence 1 says “In the counter-reality of the tournament, a mood of selfconfidence, altruism, and openness … prevailed. Hence sentence 1 is related to the same theme. Sentence 2 which states, ‘In stark contrast to the “real world,” the two leading powers, the United States and China, played no role in the tournament.” Neither the real world (which is said to be tumultuous, nor the “stark contrast” to this real world can be made sense of. Hence it becomes the odd sentence. The correct answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 57 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not fit into the context? Key in the number of the out-of-context in the space provided. 1. The explanation for this intolerance is that the gene that codes for the production of an enzymecalled lactase, which enables babies to digest the lactose, is normally switched off in late childhood. 2. And yet two-thirds of adults worldwide cannot drink liquid milk, because they are intolerant tolactose. 3. About 10,000 years ago, farmers in Anatolia allowed bacteria to consume the lactose turning milkinto curd, cheese, and yoghurt to get round lactose intolerance. 4. Mother’s milk may be the only food that humans were biologically programmed to consume. 5. About 7,000 years ago, a genetic mutation arose among farmers in Central Europe that prevented the lactase gene from being switched off in childhood.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The best sentence to start working with in this question is sentence 1 itself. Sentence 1 begins as “the explanation for this intolerance…”, which means the intolerance must be spelt out in some other sentence. Identifying the pair will give us not only a mandatory pair but clear clue about the theme of the paragraph as well.

“This intolerance…’ mentioned in sentence 1 refers to ‘lactose intolerance’ mentioned in sentences 3 and 2. However 3-1 is not as logical as 2-1. In 2-1, the reason why ‘two third of the adults in the world cannot drink liquid milk’ in sentence 2 is explained in sentence 1, that though babies can digest milk the production of enzyme lactase which helps them digest milk, is switched off in adults; hence, adults develop lactose intolerance. So 2-1 is a mandatory pair. We also understand the broad theme of the paragraph is lactose intolerance in adults, though babies can digest milk fully. If we now try to relate sentences 3, 4, and 5 to this theme, we can see that the abrupt beginning of sentence 2 with “and yet” highlights the contrast is a continuation from sentence 4. “Mother’s milk may be the only food that humans were biologically programmed to consume “, “And yet two-thirds of adults worldwide … are intolerant to lactose.” So 4-2-1 is a logical sequence. Of the remaining sentences – sentence 5 and sentence 3 – sentence 5 is still related to the biological programming that enabled humans to digest milk as babies but not as adults, because the enzyme needed to digest lactose was turned off during growth. Sentence 5 states that in certain populations a genetic mutation prevented the lactase gene from being switched off in childhood. But, sentence 3 talks about how some farmers invented a method allowing bacteria to consume lactose to get round the problem of lactose intolerance – which has nothing to do with lactose intolerance and human biology. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 67 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not fit into the context? Key in the number of the out-of-context in the space provided. 1. If the price of an automobile had declined as rapidly as the price of computing power, one could buy a car today for the same price as a cheap lunch. 2. The crucial change is the enormous reduction in the cost of transmitting and storing information. 3. Information that once would fill a warehouse now fits in your shirt pocket. 4. Instantaneous communication by telegraph dates back to the mid-nineteenth century. 5. The key characteristic of the current revolution is not the speed of communications.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question.. In the first reading of the sentences, we cannot easily find the starter of the paragraph – however, a careful reading to identify the common theme can yield results. Sentence 1 compares the price of an automobile to the price of computing power; Sentence 2 talks

about the reduction in the cost of transmitting and storing information. Sentence 3 is about how enormous amounts of data or information can now be packed into tiny devises that fit in our pockets. Sentence 4 is about the speed of communication in the past –that instantaneous communication dates back to the telegraph in the mid-nineteenth century. Sentence 5 states that the current revolution is not the speed of communication. We can see that sentences 4 and 5 are related. Put together they tell us that the current revolution (in communication) is not about the speed – speed was available even in the mid-nineteenth century when instantaneous communication was possible through telegraph. Now it is possible to relate sentence 2 to this theme – that the crucial change is the enormous reduction in cost of transmission and storing of information. So, 5,4, and 2 in that order make a logical sequence. Sentence 1 is related to this theme because it hypotheses what the cost of a car would be today if the price of an automobile had declined as rapidly as the price of computing power. Sentence 3 which talks about the space required ot store data comparatively in the past and now is altogether a different theme. Hence the correct answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 52 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 6 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 7 %

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Explanation: This is an easy question. The first thing we notice in this question is that sentences 1, 2, and 4 are unsuitable for the starter; “feels it as cold” in sentence 1, “thus” in sentence 2, and “from this experience” in sentence 4 show that they depend on some other sentence for their meaning. Comparing sentences 3 and 5, we can see that sentence 5 is illustration of John Locke’s example, that is mentioned in Sentence 3… that the difference between subjective and objective is illustrated by John Locke’s example of holding one’s hands separately in hot and cold water. Sentence 5 then explains the next step – when both hands are placed in tepid water – the same objective reality (of tepid water)

one experiences this difference between the subjective and the objective. So 3-5 is a mandatory pair. Since the “it” in sentence 2 can only refer to the “tepid water” in sentence 5 – that “When one places both hands into a bucket of tepid water,” “One hand feels it as cold; the other feels it as hot “. Hence 3-5 pair is followed by sentence 2. So, we get 3-5-2. Sentence 1, beginning with ‘thus’ helps to conclude the example, because it is an explanation of the example given in 3-5-2. Sentence 1 puts the hot/cold /tepid water experience in perspective as “one perceiving mind can hold side-by-side clearly differing impressions of a single object…” – single object being the tepid water. So, sentence 1 comes after 352. Sentence 4 concludes the paragraph. If one mind can have two differing impressions, it also becomes possible that (as in sentence 4) “two different perceiving minds could have clearly differing impressions.” Thus the correct sequence is 35214. Correct Answer: 35214 Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 10 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 7 %

1.This development displeased owners of these mills and their relatively highly paid workers – owners and workers who had a great deal of influence in Washington. 2.The intent of this legislation was not to help low-paid workers but, instead, to protect the markets of wealthy north-eastern factory owners and their employees by artificially burdening their southern rivals with excessive costs. 3.So Congress and FDR in 1938 ‘solved’ this ‘problem’ instead with the Fair Labour Standards Act, which imposed a nationwide minimum wage. 4.In the 1920s and 1930s, textile mills located in the American south ate increasingly into the market shares of textile mills located in the northeast, especially Massachusetts. 5.In part because the U.S. Constitution ensures that the United States remains a free-trade zone, Congress was unable directly to obstruct Americans’ purchases of southern textiles by punitively taxing those purchases.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. It is easy to identify that sentence 4 begins the sequence. Sentence 4 states that in the 1920s and ‘30s , textile mills located in places like Massachusetts were threatened by the textile mills in the south of the USA. The next sentence after sentence 4 is also easy to identify. Sentence 1 refers to “these mills” mentioned in 4 and explains that the owners and workers of these mills were displeased; also, that they were influential in the U S government. Hence 4-1 is mandatory pair at the beginning of the paragraph. 4-1 is then followed by sentence 5, because sentence 5 refers back to why “this development displeased the owners of these mills” in sentence 1. Also, sentence 5 explains why “Congress was unable directly to obstruct Americans’ purchases of southern textiles…”

Sentence 3 follows the 415 sequence because beginning with “so” it explains how the Congress solved the problem. The paragraph then is closed well with sentence 2. Thus the correct sequence is 41532.

Thus the correct sequence is 41532. Correct Answer: 41532 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 19 %

1. Made by ancient members of the human lineage, called hominins, the chipped rocks are estimated to be as much as 2.1 million years old. 2. The oldest stone tools outside Africa have been discovered in western China. 3. Instead, they may have been small bipedal apes, with brains about the size of a chimpanzee’s. 4.The age of the Chinese tools suggests that the hominins who made them were neither tall nor big-brained. 5.The find may add a new chapter to the story of hominin evolution, suggesting that some of these species left Africa far earlier than once believed and travelled over 8,000 miles east of their evolutionary birthplace.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a Medium difficulty question. It is easy to identify the starter of the paragraph. Statement 2 is the only standalone sentence in the set. It talks about the discovery of the oldest stone tools outside Africa. So we can be sure that sentence 2 starts the paragraph. At first glance, sentence 1 and sentence 5 can be placed after sentence 2. However, the reference to hominin evolution in sentence 5 makes it clear that it can come only after sentence 1 in which human lineage called hominin is introduce in sentence 1. So we get 2-1 as a mandatory pair. Sentence 5 which begins with “The find may add a new chapter to the story of huminin evolution…” connect logically to the discovery of the oldest tools and to the huminin discussed in the 2-1 pair. Thus, the sequence of 215 is easy to identify and is logical and coherent. Now look at sentences 3 and 4. Clearly, both of them are closely connected in that they speak of the physique and brain size of hominins.

Sentence 3 begins with ‘instead’, indicating that this statement continues form the idea that, “hominins … were neither tall nor bigbrained” to “instead they may have been small and bipedal apes…” in sentence 4. So sentence 3 comes after sentence 4. This gives us another mandatory pair, 4-3. So the 4-3 pair can be placed after the 215 sequence to complete the paragraph. Hence the correct sequence is 21543. Correct Answer: 21543 Time taken by you: 103 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 12 %

1. In this fast-moving cycle, housing and fixed-asset prices (as well as the currency’s value) will increase faster than productivity growth in the tradable sector, owing to supply constraints. 2. Abandoning the distorted and imbalanced incentive structure, and ensuring that both creditors and debtors share and manage risks, would help break the cycle. 3. Yet, because the usual response – socialization of bank losses, with a privileged few keeping the profits and bonuses they accrued while the bubble was growing – creates moral hazard, the cycle is likely to be repeated. 4. The second type of risk reflects the cycle experienced in underdeveloped, non-market-based economies as they make the transition to a market-oriented economy. 5.As households and investors borrow cheaply to invest in rapidly appreciating housing and fixed assets, bubbles form and then burst, spurring crises.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The starter sentence is not immediately obvious but is reached by elimination. Sentence 1 refers to ‘this fast moving cycle’, sentence 2 refers to the cycle again, and sentence 3 starts with ‘yet’. Between sentences 4 and 5, we see that sentence 5 refers to a situation already established – As households…..invest in rapidly appreciating housing’. Thus, though sentence 4 mentions the second type of risk, it makes for the only possible starter and we can see that the rest of the paragraph refers to “the cycle of risk experienced in underdeveloped, non-market-based economies as they make the transition to a market-oriented economy.” Sentence 1 elaborates on the ‘cycle experienced in underdeveloped, non-market based economies’ that is mentioned in sentence 4. Hence 4-1 is a mandatory pair. So we have 4-1 at the beginning of the paragraph.

Sentence 1 and sentence 5 are logically related as sentence 1 refers to a fast increase in housing and fixed-asset prices, and sentence 5 states the effect of the increasing prices as “households and investors borrow cheaply to invest in rapidly appreciating housing and fixed assets”. So we get the sequence 4-1-5 leaving only two more sentences to be fixed. Sentence 3 is about the repetition of the cycle and sentence 2 is about what will help break this cycle. So it is easy to place sentences 3 and 2 in that order after the 415 sequence. Thus the correct answer to this question is 41532. Correct Answer: 41532 Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 5 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 3 %

undefined undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. NET 2017 was an Engineering entrance test conducted by National Institute of Engineering. The exam consisted of three subjects: Maths, Physics and Chemistry. All questions in NET 2017 were either of 2 marks or 3 marks. The following table gives information about the percent-wise distribution of the 2 marks and 3 marks questions in the three subjects.

The pie-chart given below provides subject-wise distribution of the marks scored by Krishnan and Murali, two students who appeared for NET 2017.

There was no negative marking for incorrect answers or unattempted questions. A total of 300 questions were asked in NET 2017, out of which the number of questions on Maths was 100. It is known that Krishnan and Murali scored 400 and 320 marks respectively in NET 2017. 1) What is the minimum number of 3-mark questions that Murali could have attempted in NET 2017? 8 7 6 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let the number of 2-marks and 3-marks questions be ‘100a’ and ‘100b’ respectively. The total number of questions is 300.

? 100a + 100b = 300 and 30a + 40b = 100 Solving for a and b, a = 2 and b = 1.

We have the following table:

Murali could have scored 96 marks in Maths and 160 marks in Physics by attempting only 2-marks questions.

The maximum marks scored by Murali in Chemistry by attempting only 2-marks questions = 20 × 2 = 40

? The minimum marks scored by Murali in Chemistry by attempting 3-marks questions = 64 – 40 = 24

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 8

Time taken by you: 744 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 303 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 2) Ramanathan, a third student also appeared for NET 2017. What could be the maximum possible marks that he could have scored? 800 700

1000 1200 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Let the number of 2-marks and 3-marks questions be ‘100a’ and ‘100b’ respectively. The total number of questions is 300.

? 100a + 100b = 300 and 30a + 40b = 100 Solving for a and b, a = 2 and b = 1.

We have the following table:

Total number of questions having 2 marks = 60 + 120 + 20 = 200 Total number of questions having 3 marks = 40 + 25 + 35 = 100

? The maximum possible score = 200 × 2 + 100 × 3 = 700

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 700

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 3) If Krishnan attempted fewest possible questions in Maths in NET 2017, what was the ratio of the 2-mark and 3-mark questions attempted by him in Maths? 2:1 1:2 1:1 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let the number of 2-marks and 3-marks questions be ‘100a’ and ‘100b’ respectively. The total number of questions is 300.

? 100a + 100b = 300 and 30a+ 40b = 100 Solving for a and b, a = 2 and b = 1.

We have the following table:

Correct Answer: 1:1

Time taken by you: 32 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 4) Which of the following can be the number of 2-mark questions that Krishnan could have got correct in Chemistry ? 19 18 17 16 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let the number of 2-marks and 3-marks questions be ‘100a’ and ‘100b’ respectively. The total number of questions is 300.

? 100a + 100b = 300 and 30a + 40b = 100 Solving for a and b, a = 2 and b = 1.

We have the following table:

Correct Answer: 18

Time taken by you: 65 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

1) The highest percentage growth in the production of tea between any two consecutive years was in: 2011-2012 2010-2011 2016-2017 2012-2013 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Hence, [2]. (Note : The second and third bar in the graph is for 2005 and 2010 and hence cannot be considered in this question.)

Correct Answer: 2010-2011

Time taken by you: 947 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 404 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 2) In 2013, the share of exports as a percentage of production was: 28.50% 22.67% 15.35% 12.25%

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 22.67%

Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 3) Export as a percentage of production was greatest in the year: 2000 2017 2011 2005 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Alternatively, Exports are maximum in years 2000. Also production is least in that year. Hence the percentage is the maximum for 2000.

Correct Answer: 2000

Time taken by you: 31 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 % 4) Between 2013 and 2016, the total exports as percentage of total production was: Between 14% and 17% Between 18% and 24% Between 26% and 30% Between 8% and 12% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Between 18% and 24%

Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a reality TV show named ‘King of the Jungle’, ten Bollywood celebrities participated. Each of these ten participants was given a unique natural number between 1 and 10 (both included) for the show. The show lasted for 9 days, and on each day one participant was eliminated from the show and the show continued with the remaining participants. Also, on each day, one or more than one person received ‘immunity’. The person(s) who received immunity on a day could not be eliminated from the show on that day. This immunity was given at the discretion of the host of the show. For elimination, all the participants on a day voted for elimination of exactly one other participant who did not have an immunity on that day. No participant voted for his/her own elimination. The participant who received maximum votes on a day was eliminated. It is known that exactly one person received maximum votes on all days and there were no ties for the maximum votes on any of the days. The person who was not eliminated till the end was declared winner. The following table provides information about the numbers assigned to persons who received immunity on each of the nine days.

1) If participant with number 3 was eliminated on the fifth day, then what was the number of the participant eliminated on the third day? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: All participants except 8 were given immunity on at least one day from day 1 to day 9. So participant 8 must be the one eliminated on the first day. All participants except 1 were given immunity on at least one day from day 2 to day 9. Participant 8 was already eliminated on day 1. So participant 1 must be the one eliminated on the second day. All participants except (3 & 9) were given immunity on at least one day from day 3 to day 9. So one of 3 & 9 must be the one eliminated on the third day. All participants except (2 , 3 & 9) were given immunity on at least one day from day 4 to day 9. So one of 2, 3 & 9 must be the one eliminated on the fourth day. Participant 10 was given immunity on the 5 th day. Participants 4, 5, 6 & 7 were given immunity on one of the days between 6 and 9. Therefore one of 2, 3 & 9, who was present at the beginning of day 5 was eliminated on day 5. Participants 4 & 6 were given immunity on day 6, while 5 & 7 were given immunity later. Therefore, participant 10 was eliminated on day 6. Participant 7 was given immunity on day 7, while 5 & 7 were given immunity later. Therefore, either 4 or 6 was eliminated on day 7. Participant 5 was given immunity on day 8, while 7 was given immunity later. Therefore, either 4 or 6 was eliminated on day 8. Participant 7 was given immunity on day 9. Therefore, 5 was eliminated on day 9. Thus, participant 7 was the winner of the reality show.

If the participant number 3 was eliminated on the fifth day, participant number 9 was eliminated on the third day. Therefore, the required answer is 9.

Correct Answer: 9

Time taken by you: 27 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 337 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 74 % 2)

If participant with number 6 was eliminated on the seventh day, then what was the number of the participant eliminated on the fourth day? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: All participants except 8 were given immunity on at least one day from day 1 to day 9. So participant 8 must be the one eliminated on the first day. All participants except 1 were given immunity on at least one day from day 2 to day 9. Participant 8 was already eliminated on day 1. So participant 1 must be the one eliminated on the second day. All participants except (3 & 9) were given immunity on at least one day from day 3 to day 9. So one of 3 & 9 must be the one eliminated on the third day. All participants except (2 , 3 & 9) were given immunity on at least one day from day 4 to day 9. So one of 2, 3 & 9 must be the one eliminated on the fourth day. Participant 10 was given immunity on the 5 th day. Participants 4, 5, 6 & 7 were given immunity on one of the days between 6 and 9. Therefore one of 2, 3 & 9, who was present at the beginning of day 5 was eliminated on day 5. Participants 4 & 6 were given immunity on day 6, while 5 & 7 were given immunity later. Therefore, participant 10 was eliminated on day 6. Participant 7 was given immunity on day 7, while 5 & 7 were given immunity later. Therefore, either 4 or 6 was eliminated on day 7. Participant 5 was given immunity on day 8, while 7 was given immunity later. Therefore, either 4 or 6 was eliminated on day 8. Participant 7 was given immunity on day 9. Therefore, 5 was eliminated on day 9. Thus, participant 7 was the winner of the reality show.

The participant eliminated on the 4th day was 2 or 3 or 9. Therefore, the required answer is 0.

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 60 % 3) What could be the maximum sum of the votes that could have been possibly cast for the elimination of the participant with number 3 on all days before his elimination (including the day of his elimination)? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’ or if participant with number 6 was not eliminated till the end.) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Participant with number 3 was given immunity on days 1 and 2. So he got 0 votes on days 1 and 2.

For maximizing the sum of votes, we have to assume that the participant with number 3 was eliminated on day 5.

On day 3, there were 8 participants, on day 4, there were 7 participants and on day 5, there were 6 participants. Participant 3 could have got maximum 3 votes on day 3 and 3 votes on day 4 when he was not eliminated. He could have got maximum all 5 votes when he was eliminated on day 5. 3 + 3 + 5 = 11 Therefore, the required answer is 11.

Correct Answer: 11

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 7 % 4) For how many of the nine days can we determine the number assigned to the participant who was eliminated? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

We can determine the number assigned to the participant who were eliminated on days 1, 2, 6 and 9. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 20 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 32 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In the table given below, Mahesh, Yogesh, Suresh and Laxman are disguised as A, B, C and D. The table also provides information about the runs scored by each of them in the first four matches – Match 1, Match 2, Match 3 and Match 4 between India and Australia. P, Q, R and S denote the four matches.

(i) The total runs scored by Mahesh is less than that scored by Yogesh. (ii) The total runs scored by the four given players in Match 2 is the maximum. (iii) Suresh scored more runs than Laxman in three matches. (iv) Mahesh did not score a century in any of the given matches, but did score at least one fifty 1) Suresh is disguised as D C A B Video Explanation:

Explanation:

From (i) and (iv): Mahesh has to be A. This means Yogesh has to be C From (ii): S is Match 2 From (iii): Case 1: Suresh is B – Laxman can be D Suresh cannot be D So, the only possible case is as follows: A – Mahesh, B – Suresh, C – Yogesh, D – Laxman Suresh is disguised as B. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 407 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 % 2) In how many matches were the runs scored by Mahesh more than Yogesh but less than Suresh? 3 2 1 0 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

From (i) and (iv): Mahesh has to be A. This means Yogesh has to be C From (ii): S is Match 2 From (iii): Case 1: Suresh is B – Laxman can be D Suresh cannot be D So, the only possible case is as follows: A – Mahesh, B – Suresh, C – Yogesh, D – Laxman There is only one match, i.e. Match 2 in which runs scored by Mahesh were more than Yogesh but less than Suresh. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 % 3) If in Matches 1 & 3, the same total number of runs was scored by the given batsmen, then which of the following is definitely true? Mahesh scored the most runs in Match 4. Yogesh scored 120 runs in Match 3. Laxman did not score the least number of runs in Match 4. The difference between the runs scored by Suresh and Yogesh in Match 1 was 20. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

From (i) and (iv): Mahesh has to be A. This means Yogesh has to be C From (ii): S is Match 2 From (iii): Case 1: Suresh is B – Laxman can be D Suresh cannot be D So, the only possible case is as follows: A – Mahesh, B – Suresh, C – Yogesh, D – Laxman P is disguised as Match 4. Of the given options only option (1) is correct Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Mahesh scored the most runs in Match 4.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 % 4) Which match is disguised as P? Given below are two statements – X and Y. X – Mahesh scored 40 runs in Match 1 Y – Suresh scored his minimum runs in Match 4. Match 1 Match 2 Match 3 Match 4 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From (i) and (iv): Mahesh has to be A. This means Yogesh has to be C From (ii): S is Match 2 From (iii): Case 1: Suresh is B – Laxman can be D

Suresh cannot be D So, the only possible case is as follows: A – Mahesh, B – Suresh, C – Yogesh, D – Laxman From statement X, R is Match 1. This means from statements X and Y, Match 3 is disguised as P. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Match 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

There are eight persons in a hall. Each of these eight person speaks exactly one language out of Malayalam, Kannada, Tamil and Telugu. The number of persons speaking these four languages is the same. These eight persons are to be seated in eight chairs named A to H arranged in the hall in a row from left to right in that order. Samantha and John were asked to set guidelines with respect to how the eight persons would be seated on the chairs. The guidelines set by Samantha were as follows: A. The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in seats (B, E) or (C, D) or (F, H) or (A, G) only. B. The persons speaking Tamil can be seated in seats (A, H) or (B, C) or (D, F) or (E, G) only. C. The persons speaking Kannada can be seated in seats (A, D) or (B, H) or (C, G) or (E, F) only. D. The persons speaking Malayalam can be seated in seats (A, F) or (B, G) or (C, E) or (D, H) only. The guidelines set by John were as follows: E. The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in seats B, E or H only. F. The persons speaking Tamil can be seated in seats C, F or H only. G. The persons speaking Malayalam can be seated in seats B, D or G only. H. The persons speaking Kannada can be seated in seats A, E or G only. 1) If the guidelines set by Samantha are followed, which of the following seats cannot have a Telugu speaking person sitting on it? H D C G Video Explanation: Explanation: The guidelines set by Samantha were as follows: The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in seats (B, E) or (C, D) or (F, H) or (A, G) only. Accordingly we getget four cases:

The persons speaking Tamil can be seated in seats (A, H) or (B, C) or (D, F) or (E, G) only.

The persons speaking Malayalam can be seated in seats (A, F) or (B, G) or (C, E) or (D, H) only. From this condition, Malayalam speaking persons cannot come in Case 1a as seats A, B, E & H are occupied by Telugu and Tamil speaking people. Therefore, Case 1a is eliminated. Similarly, Cases 1b, 3a & 3b are eliminated. We are left with 4 cases : Cases 2a, 2b, 4a & 4b.

The persons speaking Kannada can be seated in seats (A, D) or (B, H) or (C, G) or (E, F) only. Using this condition, the two persons speaking Kannada can be accommodated in the remaining two places in each of the 4 cases. We arrive at the following table as per Samantha’s guidelines:

As per John’s guidelines, The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in B, E or H only. Therefore, Telugu speaking people can be seated in seats (B, E) or (B, H) or (E, H) only. We get 3 cases.

The persons speaking Kannada can be seated in seats A, E or G. The possible pairs of seats are (A, E), (A, G) and (E, G). Accordingly, we can fill the above table: In Case 2, Kannada speaking people can be seated in any pair out of the 3 possible.

The persons speaking Tamil can be seated in seats C, F or H. The possible pairs of seats are (C, F), (C, H) and (F, H). In Case 1, Tamil speaking people can be seated in any pair out of the 3 possible.

Malayalam speaking people can be seated in seats (B, D) or (B, G) or (D, G) only. In Case 1, Malayalam speaking people cannot be accommodated as seats B & G are already occupied. Therefore, this case is eliminated. We are left with 2 cases. Kannada speaking people can be seated in seats (A, E) or (A,G) or (E,G) only. Using this condition, the remaining seats can be filled in both the cases.

If the guidelines set by Samantha are followed, seats B, E, F and H cannot have a Telugu speaking person sitting on it. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: H

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 419 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 83 % 2) As per the guidelines set by Samantha, the persons speaking Malayalam would be separated by

1 seat 3 seats 4 seats Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: The guidelines set by Samantha were as follows: The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in seats (B, E) or (C, D) or (F, H) or (A, G) only. Accordingly we getget four cases:

The persons speaking Tamil can be seated in seats (A, H) or (B, C) or (D, F) or (E, G) only.

As per John’s guidelines, The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in B, E or H only. Therefore, Telugu speaking people can be seated in seats (B, E) or (B, H) or (E, H) only. We get 3 cases.

Malayalam speaking people can be seated in seats ( B, D) or (B, G) or (D, G) only. In Case 1, Malayalam speaking people cannot be accommodated as seats B & G are already occupied. Therefore, this case is eliminated. We are left with 2 cases. Kannada speaking people can be seated in seats (A,E) or (A,G) or (E,G) only. Using this condition, the remaining seats can be filled in both the cases.

As per the guidelines set by Samantha, the persons speaking Malayalam would be separated by 4 seats (case 1) or 4 seats (case 2) or 3 seats (case 3). Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 70 % 3) As per the guidelines set by John, the seats of which of the following can be uniquely determined? Persons speaking Tamil Persons speaking Kannada Persons speaking Malayalam Persons speaking Telugu Video Explanation:

Explanation: The guidelines set by Samantha were as follows: The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in seats (B, E) or (C, D) or (F, H) or (A, G) only Accordingly we getget four cases:

The persons speaking Tamil can be seated in seats (A, H) or (B, C) or (D, F) or (E, G) only.

The persons speaking Malayalam can be seated in seats (A, F) or (B, G) or (C, E) or (D, H) only From this condition, Malayalam speaking persons cannot come in Case 1a as seats A, B, E & H are occupied by Telugu and Tamil speaking people. Therefore, Case 1a is eliminated. Similarly, Cases 1b, 3a & 3b are eliminated. We are left with 4 cases : Cases 2a, 2b, 4a & 4b.

As per John’s guidelines, The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in B, E or H only. Therefore, Telugu speaking people can be seated in seats (B, E) or (B, H) or (E, H) only. We get 3 cases.

Malayalam speaking people can be seated in seats ( B, D) or (B, G) or (D, G) only. In Case 1, Malayalam speaking people cannot be accommodated as seats B & G are already occupied. Therefore, this case is eliminated. We are left with 2 cases. Kannada speaking people can be seated in seats (A,E) or (A,G) or (E,G) only. Using this condition, the remaining seats can be filled in both the cases.

As per the guidelines set by John, the seats persons speaking Tamil can be uniquely determined. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Persons speaking Tamil

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 161 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 % 4) If the guidelines set by John were to be followed, which of the following seats cannot be occupied by a person speaking Malayalam? D G B None of the above Video Explanation: Explanation: The guidelines set by Samantha were as follows: The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in seats (B, E) or (C, D) or (F, H) or (A, G) only. Accordingly we getget four cases:

As per John’s guidelines, The persons speaking Telugu can be seated in B, E or H only. Therefore, Telugu speaking people can be seated in seats (B, E) or (B, H) or (E, H) only. We get 3 cases.

Malayalam speaking people can be seated in seats ( B, D) or (B, G) or (D, G) only. In Case 1, Malayalam speaking people cannot be accommodated as seats B & G are already occupied. Therefore, this case is eliminated. We are left with 2 cases. Kannada speaking people can be seated in seats (A,E) or (A,G) or (E,G) only. Using this condition, the remaining seats can be filled in both the cases.

If the guidelines set by John were to be followed, seats other than B, D and G cannot be occupied by a person speaking Malayalam. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of the above

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Nine numbers 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 and 19 were filled in the (3 × 3) matrix shown below:

The names of the three rows were Orange, Apple and Mango, while the names of the three columns are KitKat, Dairy Milk and 5 Star, as shown. Each cell formed by the intersection of the rows and columns contained exactly one number. Further it is known that: I. 11 was in a cell just above the cell in which 12 was filled. II. 12 was in a cell that is immediate right of the cell in which 13 was filled.

III. 14 was in a cell that is immediate left of the cell in which 15 was filled. IV. 16 was in a cell just below the cell in which 19 was filled. V. 17 was in a cell that is immediate right to the cell in which 18 was filled. 1) For how many numbers, the cells in which they were filled can be uniquely determined? 9 7 6 5 Video Explanation: Explanation: Numbers 11 and 12 could not be in theKitKat column as 13 could not be filled in that case. If the numbers 11 and 12 were in the Dairy Milk column, both 19 and 16 could not be filled in the same column. If the numbers 19 and 16 were in the 5 Star column, then either (18 & 17) or (14 & 15) could not be filled in the same row. Therefore, 11 and 12 were not in the Dairy Milk column. Therefore, numbers 11 and 12 were in the 5 Star column. Accordingly we get two cases.

In case 2, 19 and 16 were filled in either KitKat or Dairy Milk columns. In either case, both (14 & 15) and (18 & 17) could not be filled in the same row. Therefore Case 2 is eliminated. In case 1, for both (14 & 15) and (18 & 17) to be in the same row, (19 & 16) were filled in the KitKat column in Apple & Mango rows. Therefore, (14 & 15) and (18 & 17) were filled in the remaining spaces in Orange and Mango rows. Accordingly we get two cases.

We can uniquely determine the positions of 11, 19, 13, 12 and 16. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 873 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 376 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 2) If the sum of all the numbers in row Apple is same as that of all the numbers in column Dairy Milk, then in which cell was 18 filled? Row Orange, Column KitKat Row Mango, Column Dairy Milk Row Orange, Column Dairy Milk Row Mango, Column KitKat Video Explanation:

Explanation: Numbers 11 and 12 could not be in theKitKat column as 13 could not be filled in that case. If the numbers 11 and 12 were in the Dairy Milk column, both 19 and 16 could not be filled in the same column. If the numbers 19 and 16 were in the 5 Star column, then either (18 & 17) or (14 & 15) could not be filled in the same row. Therefore, 11 and 12 were not in the Dairy Milk column. Therefore, numbers 11 and 12 were in the 5 Star column. Accordingly we get two cases.

The sum of all the numbers in row Apple is 44. The sum of all the numbers in column Dairy Milk is 46(in case 1a) and 44 (in case 1b). Thus, case 1b is applicable. 18 is filled in ‘Orange- KitKat’ cell.

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Row Orange, Column KitKat Time taken by you: 24 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 125 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 87 % 3) If the sum of all the numbers in row Orange is same as that of all the numbers in column 5 Star, then the sum of all the numbers in column KitKat is: 53 49 Either 53 or 49 Neither 53 nor 49 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Numbers 11 and 12 could not be in the KitKat column as 13 could not be filled in that case. If the numbers 11 and 12 were in the Dairy Milk column, both 19 and 16 could not be filled in the same column. If the numbers 19 and 16 were in the 5 Star column, then either (18 & 17) or (14 & 15) could not be filled in the same row. Therefore, 11 and 12 were not in the Dairy Milk column. Therefore, numbers 11 and 12 were in the 5 Star column. Accordingly we get two cases.

Case 1a: The sum of all the numbers in row Orange = 40 The sum of all the numbers in column 5 Star = 40 Case 1b: The sum of all the numbers in row Orange = 46 The sum of all the numbers in column 5 Star = 38 Case 1a is applicable. The sum of all the numbers in column KitKat = 14 + 19 + 16 = 49 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 49

Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 4) If the sum of all the numbers in column Dairy Milk is 6 more than that in column 5 Star, then in which cell was 14 filled? Row Orange, Column KitKat Row Mango, Column Dairy Milk

Row Mango, Column 5 Star Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Numbers 11 and 12 could not be in theKitKat column as 13 could not be filled in that case. If the numbers 11 and 12 were in the Dairy Milk column, both 19 and 16 could not be filled in the same column. If the numbers 19 and 16 were in the 5 Star column, then either (18 & 17) or (14 & 15) could not be filled in the same row. Therefore, 11 and 12 were not in the Dairy Milk column. Therefore, numbers 11 and 12 were in the 5 Star column. Accordingly we get two cases.

Case 1a: The sum of all the numbers in column Dairy Milk = 46 The sum of all the numbers in column 5 Star = 40 Case 1b: The sum of all the numbers in column Dairy Milk = 44 The sum of all the numbers in column 5 Star = 38 In both cases the difference is 6. Therefore we cannot determine the exact position of 14. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Anna, Benson, Chris, Dennis, Elena and Frank are the six employees of a company who work on three different projects, namely Project P, Project Q and Project R. Out of the six employees, Anna and Elena are women while remaining four, namely Benson, Chris, Dennis and Frank are men. Anna, Chris and Frank are managers while Benson, Dennis and Elena are associates. Each project must have one manager and one or more associates working for it. Each manager works on only one project while out of the three associates, one works on only one project, one other associate works on two projects while the third associate works on all the three projects. The following information is known: a. Project Q has involvement of maximum number of employees. b. Both the women work together on one project. There is only one project on which only male employees work. c. Benson is a new joinee and is assigned to work on only one project. d. Dennis and Elena work together on exactly two projects. e. Number of employees working for project P is more than the number of employees working for project R. f. Anna works for project P. 1) Which of the following must be incorrect? Chris work on project Q. Benson work on project on which only men work. Dennis and Anna work on project P. Benson and Frank work on one project. Video Explanation: Explanation:

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Benson work on project on which only men work.

Time taken by you: 446 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 381 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) Which of the following combinations must be correct? Project P – Dennis, Elena, Anna Project R – Dennis, Frank Project Q – Dennis, Elena, Benson, Chris Project P – Dennis, Benson, Anna Video Explanation: Explanation:

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Project P – Dennis, Elena, Anna

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 3) Which of the following can be correct? Frank works on a project with two other men and one woman. Chris works on a project with one man and one woman. Elena works on two projects with two men. Benson and Anna work together on a project. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Frank works on a project with two other men and one woman.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 % 4) Which of the following combinations can be correct? Project Q - Dennis, Elena and Frank only. Project P - Anna, Elena and Frank only. Project R - Dennis and Frank only. Project R - Benson, Elena, Dennis and Chris only. Video Explanation: Explanation:

Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Project R - Dennis and Frank only.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Five friends named Ashmit, Bikram, Careena, Danny and Eliana are playing a game called ‘Magical chairs’ and are seated in no particular order around a circle on five chairs. The chairs are numbered 1 to 5 in that order as we move in the clockwise direction. The game is played in multiple rounds. In each round, music starts playing and when the music stops, each of the five persons shifts their positions in the clockwise direction by as many positions as written on the chair they were seated on at the beginning of the round. The next round begins with the positions of the persons at the end of the previous round. If the positions of all the players at end of a particular round are identical either to their initial positions or their positions at the end of any earlier round, the game is stopped. After the first shift of positions by all the persons, it was observed that only Ashmit was seated on the same chair as he was seated initially. 1) In how many different ways the persons can be seated on the chairs initially? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The person initially seated on seat 5 moves 5 chairs in the clockwise direction in every step or that person continues to occupy the same chair in all the subsequent rounds. The person seated on seat 1 moves 1 chair in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 2 in the next round. The person seated on seat 2 moves 2 chairs in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 4 in the next round. The person seated on seat 3 moves 3 chairs in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 1 in the next round. The person seated on seat 4 moves 4 chairs in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 3 in the next round. If we denote persons initially seated on chairs 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5 as P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5, we get

Thus Round 4 is the last round. Since Ashmit is seated on Chair 5 in all the rounds, he occupies chair P5. The other 4 persons can be seated on the remaining 4 chairs in 4! = 24 different ways. Therefore, the required answer is 24.

Correct Answer: 24

Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 159 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 58 % 2) Initially, Eliana is the only person seated between Danny and Careena and she is not seated on chairs 1 or 4. Similarly, initially Danny is the only person seated between Ashmit and Eliana. What is the number of the chair occupied by Bikram? (Write 6 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Thus Round 4 is the last round. Since Ashmit is seated on Chair 5 in all the rounds, he occupies chair P5. If Danny is the only person between Ashmit and Eliana, because the arrangement is circular, we have two possibilities. Given: Eliana is the only person between Danny and Careena. Bikram can be seated either in Chair 1 or Chair 4. Therefore, the required answer is 6.

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) How many rounds did the game have before it was stopped? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Thus Round 4 is the last round. Since Ashmit is seated on Chair 5 in all the rounds, he occupies chair P5. The game had 4 rounds before it stopped. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 53 % 4) If it is known that initially before the game began, Bikram was the immediate neighbour of Ashmit and at the end of round 2, Bikram was not in chair 4, how many persons will be seated between Ashmit and Bikram at the end of the third round in the clockwise direction starting with Ashmit? (Write 5 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Thus Round 4 is the last round. Since Ashmit is seated on Chair 5 in all the rounds, he occupies chair P5. If initially Bikram was the immediate neighbour of Ashmit, Bikram could be either in chair 4 (P4) or Chair 1 (P1). If Bikram is initially in chair 1 (P1), at the end of round 2, he will be in chair 4. So this case is eliminated. If Bikram is initially in chair 4 (P4), he is in chair 2 at the end of the third round. Thus there is one person between Ashmit and Bikram at the end of the third round (on chair 1 ) starting from Ashmit. Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Five friends named Ashmit, Bikram, Careena, Danny and Eliana are playing a game called ‘Magical chairs’ and are seated in no particular order around a circle on five chairs. The chairs are numbered 1 to 5 in that order as we move in the clockwise direction. The game is played in multiple rounds. In each round, music starts playing and when the music stops, each of the five persons shifts their positions in the clockwise direction by as many positions as written on the chair they were seated on at the beginning of the round. The next round begins with the positions of the persons at the end of the previous round. If the positions of all the players at end of a particular round are identical either to their initial positions or their positions at the end of any earlier round, the game is stopped. After the first shift of positions by all the persons, it was observed that only Ashmit was seated on the same chair as he was seated initially. 1) In how many different ways the persons can be seated on the chairs initially? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The person initially seated on seat 5 moves 5 chairs in the clockwise direction in every step or that person continues to occupy the same chair in all the subsequent rounds. The person seated on seat 1 moves 1 chair in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 2 in the next round. The person seated on seat 2 moves 2 chairs in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 4 in the next round. The person seated on seat 3 moves 3 chairs in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 1 in the next round. The person seated on seat 4 moves 4 chairs in the clockwise direction or moves to chair 3 in the next round. If we denote persons initially seated on chairs 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5 as P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5, we get

Correct Answer: 24

‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Correct Answer: 6

Video Explanation:

Thus Round 4 is the last round. Since Ashmit is seated on Chair 5 in all the rounds, he occupies chair P5. The game had 4 rounds before it stopped. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Video Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined

6 −4 –2 –6

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined All students of Polyglot Foreign Language Academy study exactly one foreign language. One third of the students study German, one fourth of the students study French, one fifth of the students study Spanish and the remaining 'N' students study Norwegian. Which of the following can be a value of 'N'? 116 117 118 119

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 117 Time taken by you: 286 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 184 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 %

undefined

–1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 69 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined Box A contains ‘n’ apples and ‘n’ oranges while box B contains ‘2n’ apples and ‘2n’ oranges. A single fruit is randomly taken out from box A and put in box B. Then a single fruit is randomly taken out from box B. What is the probability that the fruit taken out from box B is an apple?

Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined

A number 'N' is such that it has 3 distinct prime factors and a total of 24 factors. If one of the prime factors is the average of the other two, then what is smallest possible value of 'N'? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: For minimizing the value of N, the three prime factors must be 3, 5 & 7. Let N = 3a × 5b × 7c The number of factors of N = (a + 1)(b + 1)(c + 1) Also, 24 = 2 × 3 × 4. In order to minimize N, a = 3, b = 2 and c = 1 N = 3 3 × 52 × 7 1 = 4725 Another possibility, 24 = 6 × 2 × 2. In order to minimize N, a = 5, b = 1 and c = 1 N = 3 5 × 51 × 71 = 8505 Therefore, the required answer is 4725. Correct Answer: 4725 Time taken by you: 102 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined A three digit odd number ‘abc’ has digits a, b and c (all non-zero) in the hundred’s, ten’s and unit’s places respectively. The first and the third digits (i.e. a and c) are consecutive integers. Sum of the squares of the second and the third digits is a perfect square. Similarly one more than the number formed by the first two digits (i.e. the two digit number ‘ab’) is also a perfect square. The number ‘abc’ is: A prime number Divisible by 7 Fifth power of an integer Cube of an integer

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: a, b and c are natural numbers. As ‘abc’ is an odd number, ‘c’ can be either 1/3/5/7 or 9. Since the first and third digits are consecutive integers, ‘a’ can be 2/4/6 or 8. Sum of squares of ‘b’ and ‘c’ is a perfect square. As ‘c’ is odd, the only possibility is c = 3 and b = 4. (Note: Pythagorian triplet with all the three numbers as single digit natural numbers is (3, 4, 5). One more than the number formed by first two digits is also a perfect square. Therefore a = 2. Therefore the number ‘abc’ is 243. Since 243 = 35 , option [3] is true. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Fifth power of an integer Time taken by you: 131 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 183 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined For how many integer values of 'x' is the product (x 3 – 7x + 6)(x3 + 7x2 + 14x + 8) negative? 0 1 2 More than 2

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: If we put x = 2 in(x3 – 7x + 6), we get x 3 – 7x + 6 = 0. Therefore (x – 2) is the factor of (x3 – 7x + 6). Using synthetic division, the other factor can be found out and that is equal to (x2 + 2x – 3). x3 – 7x + 6 = (x – 2)(x2 + 2x – 3) = (x – 2)(x – 1)(x + 3) In (x3 + 7x2 + 14x + 8), sum of even coefficients is equal to the sum of odd coefficients. Therefore, (x + 1) is the factor of (x 3 + 7x2 + 14x + 8). Using synthetic division, the other factor can be found out and that is equal to (x2 + 6x + 8). x3 + 7x2 + 14x + 8 = (x + 1)(x2 + 6x + 8) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(x + 4) The product is negative if the two terms, (x3 – 7x + 6) and (x3 + 7x2 + 14x + 8) have opposite signs. The curves can be plotted as follows:

Thus we can see that for no integer value of x, the product is negative. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 247 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined A faulty clock gains 15 minutes every hour. The time is set correctly between 3 PM and 4 PM, when the hour and minute hands of the

clock coincide. How many times will the minute- hand and hour-hand meet in the next 30 hours? 33 34 35 36

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 34 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 23 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 98 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Which of the following is divisible by 17? 1813 + 1 3213 + 1 5113 + 1 6713 + 1 Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 98 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined How many 4-digit numbers exist such that they leave remainders 1, 2, 3 and 4 when divided by 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively? 18 20 21 22

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since the numbers leave remainders 1, 2, 3 and 4 when divided by 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively (i.e. a remainder of -3 in each case), the

Since the numbers leave remainders 1, 2, 3 and 4 when divided by 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively (i.e. a remainder of -3 in each case), the required set of numbers N must be of the form N = LCM(4, 5, 6, 7)k - 3 = (420k – 3), where k is a natural number.

Therefore, the first 4-digit number of the form (420k - 3) = 420 × 3 - 3 = 1257

The following numbers will be spaced 420 numbers apart. This means that these numbers will form an AP with first term, a = 1257 and common difference, d = 420.

a20 = 1257 + 19 × 420 = 9237 a21 = 9657 This will be the last 4-digit number.

Therefore, there are 21 such numbers.

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 21 Time taken by you: 275 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 132 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined If a certain sum triples in ‘n’ years under simple interest, then the ratio of the period (in years) in which the sum would become eight times to that in which it would become twelve times is: 2:3 7 : 11 5 : 13 Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the principal be‘P’. Therefore, the amount at the end of ‘n’ years = P + 2P = 3P The Interest for ‘n’ years = 2P

For the amount to become eight times, the interest should become 7 P. It will take 3.5n years for the same. For the amount to become twelve times, the interest should become 11 P. It will take 5.5n years for the same. The required ratio = 3.5n : 5.5n = 7 : 11 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 7 : 11 Time taken by you: 73 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Amit and Bimal start running simultaneously from a same point on circular track in opposite directions at speeds of 4 m/s and 8 m/s respectively. If the track length is 600 m, then how far is Bimal from the starting point 15 seconds after he crosses Amit for the first time? (in metres) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 80

Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined A tank has three pipes—Pipe A, Pipe B and Pipe C attached to it. Pipe A and Pipe C alone can fill an empty tank completely in 4 hours and 8 hours respectively. Pipe B can empty a completely filled tank in 6 hours. Initially the tank is empty. The three pipes are operated in a particular sequence such that in the first hour, only pipe A is opened. In the second hour, pipes A and B are opened. In the third hour, only pipe B is opened. In the fourth hour, pipes B and C are opened. In the fifth hour, only pipe C is opened. This cycle of 5 hours is repeated. After how many hours will the tank be completely filled for the first time? 15 hours 10 hours 20 hours 16 hours

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose the capacity of the tank is 24 units. Therefore pipe A will fill 6 units per hour while pipe C will fill 3 units per hour and pipe B will empty 4 units per hour. Following table shows the number of units filled in:

Correct Answer: 16 hours Time taken by you: 199 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined Find the sum of the series (1 + 22 + 33 ) + (2 + 32 + 43 ) + (3 + 42 + 53 ) + … + (18 + 192 + 203 ).

Find the sum of the series (1 + 22 + 33 ) + (2 + 32 + 43 ) + (3 + 42 + 53 ) + … + (18 + 192 + 203 ).

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 46731 Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 97 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined A container contains 30 litres of a mixture of orange, apple and litchi juice. If 20 litres of a mixture containing orange and apple juice in the ratio 2 : 3 is added to the container, the ratio of orange, apple and litchi juice become 2 : 3 : 5. What would have been the ratio of orange, apple and litchi juice in the container, if 10 litres of a mixture containing apple juice and litchi juice in the ratio 2 : 3 was to be added to the original mixture? 6 : 3 : 31 2 : 7 : 31 1:4:9 2 : 3 : 10

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: When 20 liters of a mixture containing orange and apple juice in the ratio 2: 3 is added to the container, Volume of orange juice added = 8 litres Volume of apple juice added = 12 litres After the addition, the total volume of the mixture in container = 30 + 20 = 50 litres We are given that the Ratio of orange, apple and litchi juice becomes 2 : 3 : 5 ? Orange juice = 10 litres, Apple juice = 15 litres and Litchi juice = 25 litres ? The original volumes of orange, apple and litchi juice in the container is 2 litres, 3 litres and 25 litres respectively. Now, 10 litres of a mixture containing apple juice and litchi juice in the ratio 2 : 3 is added to the original mixture. ? Quantity of Apple juice added = 4 litres and the quantity of Litchi juice added = 6 litres. ? The required Ratio = 2 : 7 : 31 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 2 : 7 : 31 Time taken by you: 194 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 189 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined ABCDEF is a regular hexagon. A circle passes through the vertices A and D as shown in the figure given below. If the radius of the circle is 10 cm and the shortest distance between the center of the circle and diagonal AD is 6 cm, then what is the shortest distance between side BC and the center of the circle?

1 cm

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 164 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined RQ is a pole and S is a point on the ground. The angle of elevation of points R and P on the pole from S is 60 degrees and 30 degrees respectively. If PR is 20 m, then find PQ. 10 m 20 m 25 m 40 m

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10 m Time taken by you: 67 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 166 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined If a, b, c, d and e are the roots of the equation x 5 – 3x4 – 5x3 + 15x2 + 4x – 12= 0, what is the value of (a + 1)(b + 1)(c + 1)(d + 1)(e + 1) + (a + b + c + d + e)? 0 3 –17 22

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since a, b, c, d and e are the roots of the equation x5 – 3x4 – 5x3 + 15x2 + 4x – 12 = 0. a+b+c+d+e=3 Sum of roots taken two at a time= –5 Sum of roots taken three at a time = –15 Sum of roots taken four at a time= 4 Product of roots = 12 When we expand (a +1) (b + 1) (c + 1) (d + 1) (e + 1), the expansion will contain (a + b + c + d + e)+ Sum of roots taken two at a time+ Sum of roots taken three at a time + Sum of roots taken four at a time + Product of roots + 1. Therefore, (a + 1) (b + 1) (c + 1) (d + 1) (e + 1) = 3 – 5 –15 + 4 + 12 + 1 = 0 Also, a + b + c + d + e = 3 ? (a + 1)(b + 1)(c + 1)(d + 1)(e + 1) + (a + b + c + d + e) = 0 + 3 = 3

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 149 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined Consider sets containing three elements, Sn = {n, 2n + 1, 3n + 2}. For how many values of n, where n is a natural number and n < 1000, both sets Sn and Sn+1 contain exactly one element that is divisible by 7? 282 142

143 280

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If n is divisible by 7, both 2n and 3n are divisible by 7. Therefore(2n + 1) and (3n + 2) cannot be divisible by 7 if n is divisible by 7. If both (2n + 1) and (3n + 2) were to be divisible by 7, the difference between the two, (n + 1) should be divisible by 7. In order to make the difference between the two numbers divisible by 7, the values of n should be 6/13/20/27 etc. Corresponding values of 2n+1 are 13/27/41/55 etc that leave a remainder of 6 when divided by 7. Therefore out of the three elements of the sets, at most one element can be divisible by 7.

The values of n for which the first element is divisible by 7 are n = 7, 14, 21, 28 etc. The values of n for which the second element is divisible by 7 are n = 3, 10, 17, 24 etc. The values of n for which the third element is divisible by 7 are n = 4, 11, 18, 25 etc. Therefore values of n for which both Sn and Sn+1 contain exactly one element that is divisible by 7 are n = 3, 10, 17, 24... These values form AP with a = 3 and d = 7. Each of these values leaves remainder 3 when divided by 7. 1000, when divided by 7 leaves remainder 6. Therefore highest three-digit multiple of 7 is 994. Therefore last three digit value that satisfies the requirement is 997.

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 143 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 %

undefined The loss on the sale of 60 oranges is equal to the selling price of 15 oranges. By what percentage is the selling price of 1 orange less than that of its cost price? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20 Time taken by you: 193 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Given that the area of ∆OAB is 6 square units where O is the origin and B lies on the X–axis. If the coordinates of A are (1, 2), then what is the x-coordinate of B? 6 3 –6 6 or –6

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 or –6 Time taken by you: 94 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Given that f(x) + f(2x) + f(3x) = g(x) and g(x + 6) = g(x – 2) + 7. If g(8) = 22, then what is the value of f(0)? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined A six digit number ABCDEF is reversed to get a new number FEDCBA. The two numbers are added to get the answer 48X374 (where X is a digit, not necessarily distinct from A, B, C, D, E and F). Find the value of X. 4 5 6 7

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Explanation: ABCDEF= 100000A + 10000B + 1000C + 100D + 10E + F …(i) FEDCBA = 100000F + 10000E + 1000D + 100C + 10B + A …(ii) Adding (i) and (ii), we get ABCDEF + FEDCBA = 100001(A + F) + 10010(B + E) + 1100(C + D) = 48X374 100001(A + F), 10010(B + E) and 1100(C + D) are divisible by 11. 48X374 is divisible by 11. ? (4 + X + 7) – (3 + 8 + 4) is divisible by 11. The only single-digit value of X satisfying this is 4. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 154 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 89 %

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

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∆ABC is a right angled triangle with lengths of two perpendicular sides AB and BC as 4 cm each. Curve BXP is drawn with center A and radius 4 cm and curve BYQ is drawn with center C and radius 4 cm, as shown in the figure. What is the area of the shaded region (in sq. cm)?

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 157 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined N is a three-digit number in the decimal system such that it ends with the same number of zeroes (at least one) when written in Base 2, Base 3 and Base 5. How many different values can N have? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If N ends with 1 zero when written in Base 2, 3 & 5, then it should be of the form 30p (2 × 3 × 5) where p is 1 or a prime number other than 2, 3 and 5. The values p can take are 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29 or 31 (for higher values, N will cease to be 3 digit). Hence, 8 values. Note: 30 × 72 , 30 × 73 , 30 × 112 , 30 × 7 × 11 etc will also satisfy the condition of number of zeroes, but the resultant numbers will not be 3-digit numbers. If N ends with 2 zeroes when written in Base 2, 3 & 5, then it should be of the form 900p (22 × 32 × 52 ). For the number to be 3 digit the

only value that p can take is 1. Hence 900 is the only value that is possible in this case. If N ends with 3 or more zeroes, then the resultant number will have more than 3 digits. Therefore, there are 9 values that N can have. Therefore, the required answer is 9. Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 116 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 6 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined If 200! is exactly divisible by nn , where ‘n’ is a natural number less than or equal to 30, then which of the following is not a possible value of ‘n’? 13 17 21 27

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 17 Time taken by you: 69 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined In how many ways you can climb up 8 steps if minimum and maximum numbers of steps you can take at a time are 1 and 6 respectively? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 17 Time taken by you: 69 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: (6m + 3)y2 + (9m – 6)y + 6a = 0 (2n + 2)y2 +(8n + 6)y + 6a = 0 6m + 3 = 2n + 2 & 9m – 6 = 8n + 6 Solving the above two equations we get 15m = -16 and 30n = -81 30n - 15m = -65 ? |6n - 3m| = 13 Therefore, the required answer is 13.

Correct Answer: 13 Time taken by you: 73 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 15 %

undefined Eight identical cubes with edge length 1 cm are attached to each other as shown in the figure given below.

What is the distance between the points A and B?

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 105 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined In how many ways can five fruits – apple, orange, banana, mango and peach be put in five boxes labelled A, B, C, D, and E such that there is one fruit in each box, apple is neither in box A nor B, mango is not in box D and peach is either in box C or E? 18 20 24 30

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Apple can be put in box C or D or E. Mango can be put in box A or B or C or E Peach can be put in box C or E. Orange and Banana have no restrictions. Let us first place the fruit with minimum choices, i.e. Peach. If Peach is placed in box C or E, there are two boxes in which the apple can be placed. If the apple is placed in box D, the remaining 3 fruits can be placed in 3! = 6 ways. If the apple is placed in box E, then there are two b oxes in which the mango can be placed and the remaining 2 fruits can be placed in 2 ways i.e. a total of 4 ways.

Total ways = 2(6 + 4) = 20

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 20 Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined In ∆ABC, the ratio of lengths of sides AB and AC is 3 : 5. AD is one of the altitudes of triangle. The ratio of circumradius of ∆ABC to length of AD is 1 : 2. If AB = x cm and AD = y cm, then which of the following represents the correct relation between x and y? 5y = 3x 5y2 = 3x2 6y2 = 5x2 3y2 = 5x2 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3y2 = 5x2 Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of 4 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Fire is a bonus for many species, destroying parasites and competitors, providing warmth and light, clearing land and improving visibility, and attracting and scattering nutritious prey. The ancestors of human beings may have come to appreciate the value of fire probably long before subsequent generations discovered how to create and maintain it. Archaeological records provide ample evidence of fires occurring spontaneously – as a result of volcanic action, sunlight, lightning, build-ups of gases – from millions of years ago onwards. So our ancestors would have had plenty of opportunities to observe fires, develop strategies for coping with them and even benefit from them. It is not clear when humans began to use fire. Some debated findings suggest that the australopithecines, distant ancestors of Homo sapiens, could have been using fire at Makapansgat, in South Africa, 1.5 million years ago, while others put the figure at only 500,000 years ago, which would make fire a new tool in the repertoire of Homo erectus. A novel find in 2004 suggests that Homo erectus may well have used fire some 790,000 years ago. Experts think that the control of fire encouraged social interaction, enabled dramatic changes in the diet of proto-humans and gave them the ability to defend themselves against wild animals. Fire would certainly have offered early humans huge advantages with respect to survival and reproduction; so there would have been a strong incentive to learn how to create as well as control it. Sterkfontein, a South African cave, provides a classic illustration of how fire helped the balance of power to shift towards intelligent humans, and away from brawny beasts. Early layers of the cave reveal humans to be the prey of big cats; in later ones, contemporaneous with evidence of human-made fire, the predators are being consumed by us. By burning scrubland, fires enabled human hunters to see their prey more clearly. Cooked food was easier to chew and digest, and could also be preserved for longer, leaving more time for activities not related to hunting or gathering. Fire may also have become a useful element in the hunt itself. Evidence in Spain suggests humans might have used fires to drive herds of large mammals – including elephants – off a precipice; a lazy way of butchering in volume. Fire lent us a massive advantage. The burning of scrubland also encouraged the growth of edible grasses and legumes – exactly the plants that humans would later come to domesticate. In addition to being edible by us, these first crops would have attracted hosts of small game to the site, which could then be picked off at will. It is impossible to imagine farming without fire. For a start, the cereal crops first domesticated were only truly edible as a result of fire – either boiled into a pottage or baked into a crude bread. Fire would have attracted small pack animals to the fringes of human settlements, where humans would have captured them and domesticated them. Most importantly of all, it cleared the land and replenished its resources. In numerous tribal groups, land is still claimed by means of setting light to it: man establishes his perceived dominion over nature with fire, as he almost certainly did 10,000–12,000 years ago, when global warming coincided with a population bulge. At this point the need for new territory might well have necessitated mass torching of the land. As areas became settled, the occupants re-enacted the original ‘claiming’ fire every two years or so, aware that the ashes would revivify and enrich the soil. This classic ‘slash and burn’ technique continues in some parts of the world to this day. 1) The central idea of this passage is: The uses of fire in daily life The significance of fire in human cultures. The discovery of fire by ancestral humans The importance of the domestication of fire Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Though the passage discusses the benefits of fire reaped by human ancestors, it does not mention the uses of fire in our day-to-day lives. This option is out of context and can be rejected. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not talk about fire in cultural terms or the importance of fire in different human cultures. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The discovery of fire is discussed only in the second paragraph, not the entire passage. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage is about how ancestral humans tamed fire, and used it to their advantage in a number of ways, for thousands of years. The passage stresses the significance of fire in the advancement of intelligent humans over brawny beasts. Thus, option 4 best sums up the main topic of the passage. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: The importance of the domestication of fire

Time taken by you: 243 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 % 2)According to the passage, all of the following are the advantages of fire EXCEPT: Fire helps in the forging of tools. Fire helps attract useful animals. Fire helps enrich the soil for farming. Fire encourages social interaction among people. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 2 is incorrect. In the last paragraph, it is stated that “fire would have attracted small pack animals to the fringes of human settlements, where humans would have captured them and domesticated them.” Thus, this option is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. It is stated in the last paragraph thus: ‘…the ashes would revivify and enrich the soil’. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is stated in the second paragraph that “experts think that the control of fire encouraged social interaction”. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. Option 1 is merely common knowledge. It is not mentioned in the passage that fire was used for the purpose of forging tools. Hence, option 1 is an exception. Retain option 1. Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Fire helps in the forging of tools. Time taken by you: 33 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the relationship of ancestral humans with fire? Ancestral humans were reaping the benefits of fire before they learnt to tame it. Experts have been unable to agree as to when ancestral humans began to use fire. Evidence from Sterkfontein in South Africa shows that ancestral humans could have been using fire 1.5 million years ago. Ancestral humans would have been strongly motivated to learn to use fire to their advantage.

Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. It paraphrases the second sentence of paragraph 1: “The ancestors of human beings may have come to appreciate the value of fire probably long before subsequent generations discovered how to create and maintain it.” Thus, option 1 is true. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The second paragraph begins thus: “It is not clear when humans began to use fire.” The passage then mentions different dates, according to different sources, such as 1. 5 million years, 500,000 years, 79000 years etc... Option 2 can be inferred from the different dates given in paragraph 2. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. It is stated in paragraph 3 that “…there would have been a strong incentive to learn how to create as well as control it.” Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. According to paragraph 2, the findings that indicate that ancestral humans could have been using fire 1.5 million years ago, were fromMakapansgat in South Africa, not Sterkfontein. Thus, option 3 is NOT true. Retain option 3. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Evidence from Sterkfontein in South Africa shows that ancestral humans could have been using fire 1.5 million years ago.

Time taken by you: 155 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 % 4) The passage supports all of the following EXCEPT: Fire has played an important role in the evolution of humans. Control of fire led to dramatic changes in the diet of primitive humans. The use of fire allowed proto-humans to go from being prey to predators. Global warming was triggered by the population bulge 10 to 12 thousand years ago. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy EXCEPT question. Option 1 is incorrect because it is not an exception. The first paragraph talks about how “ancestors of human being may have come to appreciate the value of fire probably long before subsequent generations discovered how to create and maintain it.” The essay then briefly describes how fire has played an important role in the lives of “australopithecines, distant ancestors of Homo sapiens,” in the life of “hunter gatherers” and finally about the domestication of fire and its significance. Hence, Option 1 is supported by the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect because it is also not an exception. The second paragraph states that “experts think that control of fire encouraged social interaction, enabled dramatic changes in the diet of proto-humans and gave them the ability to defend themselves against wild animals”. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It can be inferred from paragraph 3, which states that “Early layers of the cave reveal humans to be the prey of big cats; in later ones, contemporaneous with evidence of human-made fire, the predators are being consumed by us.” Therefore, it is not an exception. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is an exception. The last paragraph states that “global warming coincided with a population bulge 10,000–12,000 years ago.” Global warming – which is also a natural process is thus not attributed to population bulge. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Global warming was triggered by the population bulge 10 to 12 thousand years ago.

Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 4 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Albert Einstein’s theory of general relativity is a century old next year and, as far as the test of time is concerned, it seems to have done rather well. For many, indeed, it doesn’t merely hold up: it is the archetype for what a scientific theory should look like. Einstein’s achievement was to explain gravity as a geometric phenomenon: a force that results from the distortion of space-time by matter and energy, compelling objects – and light itself – to move along particular paths, very much as rivers are constrained by the topography of their landscape. General relativity departs from classical Newtonian mechanics and from ordinary intuition alike, but its predictions have been verified countless times. In short, it is true. Einstein himself seemed rather indifferent to the experimental tests, however. The first came in 1919, when the British physicist Arthur Eddington observed the Sun’s gravity bending starlight during a solar eclipse. What if those results hadn’t agreed with the theory? ‘Then,’ said Einstein, ‘I would have been sorry for the dear Lord, for the theory is correct.’ That was Einstein all over. As the Danish physicist Niels Bohr commented at the time, he was a little too fond of telling God what to do. But this wasn’t sheer arrogance, nor parental pride in his theory. The reason Einstein felt general relativity must be right is that it was too beautiful a theory to be wrong. This sort of talk both delights today’s physicists and makes them a little nervous. After all, isn’t experiment – nature itself – supposed to determine truth in science? What does beauty have to do with it? ‘Aesthetic judgments do not arbitrate scientific discourse,’ the string theorist Brian Greene reassures his readers in his book The Elegant Universe. ‘Ultimately, theories are judged by how they fare when faced with cold, hard, experimental facts.’ Einstein, Greene insists, didn’t mean to imply otherwise – he was just saying that beauty in a theory is a good guide, an indication that you are on the right track. Einstein isn’t around to argue, of course, but I think he would have done. It was Einstein, after all, who said that ‘the only physical theories that we are willing to accept are the beautiful ones’. And if he were simply defending theory against too hasty a deference to experiment, there would be plenty of reason to side with him – for who is to say that, in case of a discrepancy, it must be the theory and not the measurement that is in error? But that’s not really his point. Einstein seems to be asserting that beauty trumps experience come what may. He wasn’t alone. Here’s the great German mathematician Hermann Weyl: ‘My work always tries to unite the true with the beautiful; but when I had to choose one or the other, I usually chose the beautiful.’ So much for John Keats’s ‘Beauty is truth, truth beauty.’ And so much, you might be tempted to conclude, for scientists’ devotion to truth: here were some of its greatest luminaries, pledging obedience to a different calling altogether. 1) What is the main point of this passage? Beauty is not truth when it comes to scientific theories. Scientists tend to prefer beautiful scientific theories over verifiable ones. For scientists like Einstein, the beauty of a theory in itself indicated its truth rather than its experimental verification. Einstein and other scientists have proved how beauty is an important quality of scientific theories. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Throughout the passage, the author talks about how some scientists – especially Albert Einstein – claim that the authenticity of a theory can be judged by its beauty and verified throughexperience, rather than through experiments. Though the author mentions other scientists who question such a view, it is not the focus of the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. To say scientists prefer beautiful theories rather than verifiable ones is a misrepresentation. The passage does not imply this preference. The particular point discussed in the passage through Einstein’s example is that relativity is such a beautiful theory that its beauty indicated its truth – thus, its experimental confirmation which had to follow was even irrelevant to Einstein. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The suggestion that Einstein and other scientists have “proved” that beauty is important, misrepresents the intent of the passage, which is beauty arises from the truth of the theory. Beauty alone is not the aim of a scientific theory. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. It, correctly and precisely, sums up the main point of the passage, which is how beauty, truth, and experimental confirmation are related to one another. Retain option 3. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: For scientists like Einstein, the beauty of a theory in itself indicated its truth rather than its experimental verification.

Time taken by you: 346 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 205 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 2)Which of the following, if true, would NOT validate Einstein’s views as stated in this passage? Throughout history, the most successful and important scientific theories have been the most ‘beautiful’ ones. Though scientists know that M-theory is true; it is beyond experimentation, extremely complex and hardly ‘beautiful’. The term ‘beauty’, as used by scientists, is merely another word for anything that throws light on the basic structure of the universe. ‘Beauty’ in scientific terms merely means simplicity, and simple theories are more likely to be true. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. According to the passage, Einstein considered his scientific theories to be ‘beautiful’, which he took to mean that they were automatically true, whether or not they were supported by experimental findings. Options 1 and 4 are incorrect. If these options are true, they lend support to and validate Einstein’s faith in ‘beauty’ as a good predictor of correct scientific theories. Thus, we can reject options 1 & 4. Option 3 is incorrect. If a ‘beautiful’ scientific theory ‘throws light on the basic structure of the universe’, then Einstein’s faith in the beauty of a theory is strengthened or validated. Eliminate option 3. Option 2 is correct. M-theory (or any theory for that matter) is experienced to be true by scientists – but no experiments can be conducted to prove it. It is also extremely complex to understand, and therefore does not qualify to be beautiful. Therefore, it does not support Einstein’s point of view that the beauty of a theory in itself points to its truth. In short, a theory that is not beautiful can also be true and experienced as such. Retain option 2. Hence, option 2 is the right answer. Correct Answer: Though scientists know that M-theory is true; it is beyond experimentation, extremely complex and hardly ‘beautiful’. Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 % 3)Which of the following is NOT true about Einstein’s theory of general relativity, as per this passage? It postulates that any object can distort the fabric of space-time.

It confirms the ordinary intuition that light travels in a straight line. It explained how gravity works. It suggested that matter and energy can bend light. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is true and thereby incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that Einstein explained “gravity as a geometric phenomenon: a force that results from the distortion of space-time by matter and energy …” The terms ‘matter and energy’ imply that any object can distort space-time. Thus, option 1 is true and can be rejected. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is true and thus an exception. Paragraph 1 states thus: “Einstein’s achievement was to explain gravity as a geometric phenomenon.” Thus, option 3 is true. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is true and thus an exception. Refer paragraph 1: “… gravity [is] a geometric phenomenon: a force that results from the distortion of space-time by matter and energy, compelling objects – and light itself – to move along particular paths …” Thus, we can conclude that matter and energy distort space-time, thereby compelling light to bend. Thus, option 4 is true as per the passage and can be eliminated. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 cannot be concluded to be true from the passage and is thus incorrect. Rather, paragraph 1 states the opposite that “General relativity departs from classical Newtonian mechanics and from ordinary intuition alike …” Newtonian Physics and common intuition maintains that light does not bend. General relativity contradicted this. Retain option 2. Hence, option 2 is NOT true and is the right answer. Correct Answer: It confirms the ordinary intuition that light travels in a straight line. Time taken by you: 99 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 % 4) According to the passage, which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? Niels Bohr – Denmark Brian Greene – String theory Arthur Eddington – General Relativity Hermann Weyl – ‘Beauty is truth, truth beauty’ Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect since it is matched correctly, as per the passage. Niels Bohr is said to be a Danish physicist, as per the third paragraph. So, option 1 has a correct pair and can be rejected. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect, because it is correctly matched. Brian Greene is a string theorist, according to paragraph 4. So, option 2 is also correct and can be eliminated. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is also incorrect. In the second paragraph it is mentioned that Arthur Eddington conducted an experiment for the first time in 1919 that confirmed General Relativity. Thus, it is correctly matched. He observed Sun’s gravity bending starlight during a solar eclipse, as mentioned in paragraph 2. So, Eddington and solar eclipses are connected. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Refer the last paragraph. The quotation is from John Keats and not from Hermann Weyl. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Hermann Weyl – ‘Beauty is truth, truth beauty’ Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 4 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. What do we mean by ‘colour’? This might seem uncontentious enough. In spite of the old solipsism that I can never know if my experience of ‘red’ is the same as yours, we all agree when the term is appropriate and when it is not. Yet there are hordes of ‘lowerlevel’ colour terms in most modern languages over which the scope for dispute is limitless: when does puce become russet, burgundy, rust-red? This is partly a matter for perceptual psychology; but the language of colour reveals much about the way we conceptualize the world. Linguistic considerations are often central to an interpretation of the historical use of colour in art. Pliny claimed that painters in Classical Greece used only four colours: black, white, red and yellow. This noble and restrained palette, he said, is the proper choice for all soberminded painters. After all, didn’t Apelles, the most famous painter of that golden age, choose to limit himself within this austere range? We cannot check the accuracy of this claim, for all of Apelles’ works are lost, along with almost every other painting his culture produced. Yet we do know that the ancient Greeks possessed a considerably wider range of pigments than these four. As for the Romans, no fewer than twenty-nine pigments have been identified in the ruins of Pompeii. Might Pliny have exaggerated the paucity of Apelles’ palette? And if so, why? In part, the reason might be metaphysical: four ‘primary’ colours equate neatly with the Aristotelian quartet of elements: earth, air, fire, water. But the breadth of colour use in classical painting may also be obscured by linguistics. In interpreting archaic writings on the use of colour in art, there is, for example, ample scope for confusion between red and green. The medieval term sinople could refer to either red or green until at least the fifteenth century. The Latin word caeruleum carries a similar ambiguity between yellow and blue. There is no Latin word for brown or grey, but this does not imply that the Roman artists did not recognize or use brown earth pigments. How could red and green ever be conflated? From a modern-day perspective this appears absurd, because we have in our minds Isaac Newton’s rainbow spectrum and its corresponding colour terminology, with its seven bands firmly delineated. The Greeks saw a different spectrum, with white at one end and black at the other – or more properly, light and dark. All the colours lay along the scale between these two extremes, being admixtures of light and dark in different degrees. Yellow was towards the light end (it appears the brightest of colours for physiological reasons). Red and green were both considered median colours, midway between light and dark – and so in some sense equivalent. The reliance of medieval scholars on Classical Greek texts ensured that this colour scale was perpetuated for centuries after the temples of Athens stood in ruins. In the tenth century AD, the monk Heraclius still classified all colours as black, white and ‘intermediate’. Thus whether or not an artist considers two hues to be different colours or variants of the same colour is largely a linguistic issue. The Celtic word glas refers to the colour of mountain lakes and straddles the range from a brownish-green to blue. The Japanese awo can mean ‘green’, ‘blue’ or ‘dark’, depending on the context; Vietnamese and Korean also decline to distinguish green from blue. Some languages have only three or four colour terms. 1)Which of the following, if true, does NOT explain why Pliny claimed that painters in Classical Greece used only four colours? There were only four basic words for colours in the ancient Greek language. Using a simplistic colour palette was in keeping with the austere Greek philosophy. The Classical Greeks considered colours such as blue and purple to be shades of black. The Classical Greek painters used an abundance of blue which is not obtained by mixing the four colours. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Option 1 is incorrect. If there were only four words for colour in the ancient Greek language, it would have explained Pliny’s claim that painters in Classical Greece used only four colours. In fact, even if the ancient Greeks actually used more than four colours, they called them by only four names. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author himself speculates that Pliny’s motivation in claiming that Greek painters used only four colours ‘might be metaphysical’, i.e. his views could have been shaped by his culture’s philosophical inclination towards simplicity. So, option 2 explains why Pliny claimed the use of only four colours in Classical Greece. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. If it is true that Classical Greeks considered colours such as blue and purple to be shades of black, it would suggest that the ancient Greeks used the same name to refer to multiple colours. This could explain Pliny’s claim that painters used only four colours. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct because it does not explain Pliny’s claim. Pliny mentioned four colours-- White, Black, Red and Yellow. However, blue cannot be obtained by mixing these. So, there were at least five colours – and four names. Did two colours have the same name? If this option is true, Pliny’s claim becomes confusing. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: The Classical Greek painters used an abundance of blue which is not obtained by mixing the four colours. Time taken by you: 331 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 259 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 76 % 2)Choose a suitable title for this passage. Naming of Colour Colour in Classical Greek Art Colour: In the Past and Present Psychology and Colour Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 2 is incorrect. Classical Greek art is only an example in the passage, not its overall topic. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not indicate how colour differed between past and present. Also, the title fails to cover a vital point of the passage, i.e. the importance of the names of colours. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. ‘Psychology’ is the study or science of the mind and behaviour, i.e. the way a person or a group thinks. The passage does not delve into how colour affects the mind or the science behind it. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. It is the best title, as the passage focuses on how colours are differentiated (or not differentiated) based on how they were named in the past and how they are named in various languages. Retain option 1. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer. Correct Answer: Naming of Colour Time taken by you: 50 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 % 3)Why, according to the author, did people in the classical period refer to red and green using the same term? They saw colours differently than we modern people do. They had only one word to cover both colours, viz. sinople. They named the colours not according to the hue, but according to their brightness. They deliberately did so in order to get around the colour restrictions in art. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is a medium difficulty question.

Option 1 is incorrect. There is no evidence in the passage indicating that the ancient people physically saw colours differently; it only suggests that they thought about them differently. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It merely repeats the question rather than answering it. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. There is no basis in the passage to conclude about the colour restrictions in art or about the deliberate act of using same terms for both red and green. This option is out of the context of the passage. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. Refer to the penultimate paragraph where this supposed paradox is explained. According to the author, the ancient Greeks thought of colour differently—unlike what we modern people do: they categorized colours in terms of brightness, and in their scheme. Red and green were of similar brightness, and therefore considered similar colours. Retain option 3. Hence, the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: They named the colours not according to the hue, but according to their brightness. Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 70 % 4)The author of this passage is most likely to be a/an: Artist. Art historian. Historian. Linguist. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. There is no particular reason as to why the author should be an artist – one does not need to be an artist to write about an art-related subject and there is no intricate knowledge of art reflected in the essay. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. A historian usually records the major events of a time. He need not go into the specific history of art and colours. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author may have some interest in linguistics, but his preoccupation is not language, but colour. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. The author discusses minute aspects of art history knowledgeably – such as the colours used in Classical Greek paintings or the pigments available to the ancient Romans. So, it is likely that the author is an art historian. Retain option 2. Hence, the right answer is option 2. Correct Answer: Art historian. Time taken by you: 77 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. In 2003, Cali Ressler and Jody Thompson were developing new human resources guidelines at Best Buy, an electronics retailer, when they suggested a profound shift in the way the company managed its employees. They wondered what might happen if they granted workers 100 percent autonomy and expected of them 100 percent accountability. What if employees were judged solely on the work they did and not at all on the manner in which they did it? Ressler and Thompson dubbed their plan the Results-Only Work Environment, or ROWE. The scheme involved some radical proposals. People could work from home absolutely anytime they felt like it, without needing a reason or excuse. There would be no such thing as a sick day or a vacation allotment – employees could take off as much time as they wanted, whenever they saw fit. Perhaps most provocative: all meetings would be optional. Even if your boss had invited you. Don’t think you need to be there? Don’t come. In return for this absolute freedom, workers would need to produce. Bosses would set macro expectations (e.g., increase sales by 10 percent) and then assess the results without micromanaging (e.g., keeping tabs on who arrived at the office earliest in the morning or left latest at night). If the goal was met, there were no complaints from your boss about that Tuesday afternoon you spent at your kid’s football game. If the goal wasn’t met, no amount of face time around the office would substitute for the lack of results. Of course, if your job description involved opening up the store at 9 a.m., fulfilment of that goal was a must. But for knowledge workers, measuring output became entirely divorced from hours logged in the office. The key difference under ROWE is that superiors are managing the work instead of managing the people. It forces clear thinking on what the expectations should be for delivering results. Thompson claims the effect on employees is remarkable. ‘When you get to take over your own life and feel responsible for yourself and your work,’ she says, ‘you feel proud and liberated and dignified. It’s the control, but it’s also the clarity on top of it. I now need to know what my results are supposed to be so I can prove that I’m getting there.’ Decades ago, it was useful to be physically present in the office as much as possible. That way, your boss knew how to find you when it was time to get a question answered or to work together on a project. Now, though, we have mobile phones and email and instant messenger and collaboration software. It’s quite easy to get things done from different places and at different times. Chair-warming presenteeism isn’t necessary. But what happens when we give ROWE a taste of its own medicine and judge it solely on its results, instead of its intentions? According to Phyllis Moen, a sociology professor at the University of Minnesota, who has conducted a number of studies on the effects of ROWE on Best Buy employees, ROWE has had some surprisingly positive results, including better employee health, reduced turnover and improved morale. That all sounds great for the employees. But Ressler and Thompson claim the company benefited, as well. According to them, voluntary turnover rates went down as much as 90 percent on ROWE teams, while productivity on those teams increased by 41 percent. Thompson and Ressler have laid out their blueprint for ROWE in a book titled Why Work Sucks and How to Fix It. 1) What is ROWE, as per this passage? A scheme in which workers can work any way and any time they want, as long as they meet their goals A scheme in which the workers have the freedom to work as many or as few hours as they choose, as long as they finish their work A plan which involves allowing employees freedom to be their own bosses, including taking vacations whenever they want, and skipping meetings A plan in which bosses no longer supervise their employees, in return for which the latter are expected to produce results Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer to the first three paragraphs, which describe ROWE, which stands for Results-Only Work Environment. In brief, the first three paragraphs explain ROWE as a new system giving 100 per cent autonomy to the workers in exchange for 100% accountability with their functions. Workers could work from anywhere they want, working on whatever they want to.. They were not allotted any sick leave or vacation, and there was no compulsion to attend any meetings. In return for this absolute freedom, workers would need to produce results in accordance with the macro expectations set by Bosses and assess them without micromanaging. From this description of ROWE, option 1 is correct. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect because it only talks about the number of hours and not the other aspects of ROWE. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, option 3 fails to mention what results the employees were required to produce in return for the freedom that ROWE offered. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Like options 2 and 3, option 4 highlights only one aspect of ROWE – that of supervision. The voluntary aspect of ROWE, which is its real significance, is not highlighted in any of the incorrect options. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: A scheme in which workers can work any way and any time they want, as long as they meet their goals

Time taken by you: 235 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 181 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 % 2)What is the author’s attitude towards ROWE? He is in favour of it, and mentions none of its shortcomings. He admires it, though he does question some aspects of it. He is a bit sceptical about it, as it is applicable in only some types of jobs. He is biased towards it, and only quotes positive views by ROWE’s developers and others. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question The author’s attitude towards ROWE can be judged by his own comments about ROWE at certain places in the passage. For example, his view is expressed in the fourth paragraph: “The key difference under ROWE is that superiors are managing the work instead of managing the people. It forces clear thinking on what the expectations should be for delivering results.” Though the author describes the Ressler-Thompson experience in ROWE at Best Buy, the author is in complete agreement with the experiment and does not find anything negative in the whole experience. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author’s attitude towards ROWE is positive: he doesn’t say anything negative about it. The author does not question any aspects of ROWE. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. While the second half of option [3] is true, the author’s attitude, in general, is not sceptical. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. There is no bias on the part of the author which is reflected in the essay. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: He is in favour of it, and mentions none of its shortcomings. Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 40 % 3)ROWE could be applicable in which of the following types of work environments? Library Law firm

Restaurant Factory Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Paragraph 3 states thus: “Of course, if your job description involved opening up the store at 9 a.m., fulfilment of that goal was a must. But for knowledge workers, measuring output became entirely divorced from hours logged in the office.” So, ROWE is applicable only to knowledge workers. Options 1, 3 and 4 are at best, workplaces where the proportion of knowledge workers is insignificant compared to workers committed to timing and physical presence. Hence, we can eliminate options 1, 3 and 4. Option 2, a law firm is a work environment known significantly for knowledge workers. Retain option 2. Hence, option 2 is the correct answer. Correct Answer: Law firm Time taken by you: 28 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 % 4)Which of the following would most likely be a drawback of ROWE? It is difficult for managers in a ROWE-based office to coordinate work among the employees. People whose jobs involve meeting with clients are allowed the kind of freedom conferred by ROWE. Employees who have become used to a ROWE-based work environment are unable to adjust to an ordinary workplace again. ROWE policies involve minimum face-to-face interaction among employees, and therefore weaken their sense of being a team. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. A manager plays an insignificant role in the task assigned to the employee. Hence, there is no necessity for the manager to coordinate the work among the employees. As long as the employee is 100 per cent autonomous, and 100% result-oriented and accountable, the manager remains redundant in his work. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. As long as the employee, whose job is to meet clients, fulfils the task and produces results, ROWE will be effective – giving them this freedom may even enhance their performance. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 assumes that ROWE is an experiment and the employees under ROWE have to return to normal regimentation and control. This is irrelevant to the question, which asks what might make ROWE ineffective. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Through ROWE, team building is not possible. The passage says that even attending a meeting is not compulsory. Hence, the sense of being a team member suffers in ROWE. Retain option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: ROWE policies involve minimum face-to-face interaction among employees, and therefore weaken their sense of being a team. Time taken by you: 46 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 5) This passage is most likely an extract from which of the following? Best Buy’s annual report A book on management A social magazine A book by Thompson and Ressler. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage is focused on ROWE, not Best Buy or its financial performance. So [1] is unlikely. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. A social magazine is generally concerned with lifestyle, entertainment etc. rather than professional matters. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. In the essay, Thompson and Ressler are referred to in third person. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. ROWE is a management principle. The essay explains what ROWE is and its impact in Best Buy where it was tried out. Retain option 2. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: A book on management

Time taken by you: 50 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 51 % 6)It can be inferred from the passage that all the following are essential to the success of ROWE, EXCEPT: Employees must understand what the measurement for success is. Employees must understand the repercussions of failing to meet the set measurement of success Employees must cultivate excellent relations with other employees and managers. Employees must be confident that the repercussion will be metered equally among other employees. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty EXCEPT question. Option 1 is incorrect. Unless the employee understands what he has to achieve in order to be termed a success, he or she will be directionless. Hence, option 1 is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, the employee’s choice to accept a job under ROWE must be based on his awareness of the repercussions of failing to meet the set measurement of success. This awareness is essential to the success of ROWE. Hence, option 2 is not an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Employees must be confident that there will be no discrimination and that all results will be measured equally among other employees irrespective of whether they are working under ROWE or otherwise. No favoritism should creep into ROWE environment. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct since ‘excellent relations with other employees and the managers’ are not essential to the success of ROWE if practiced purely professionally. In fact a manager should not have favorites among employees working under ROWE. Retain option 3. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Employees must cultivate excellent relations with other employees and managers. Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 66 %

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Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. The sentient supercomputer HAL pleads with the implacable astronaut Dave Bowman to stop what he is doing in a famous and weirdly poignant scene towards the end of Stanley Kubrick’s 2001: A Space Odyssey. Bowman, having nearly been sent to a deepspace death by the malfunctioning computer, is calmly, coldly disconnecting the memory circuits that control its artificial brain. ‘Dave, my mind is going,’ HAL says, forlornly. ‘I can feel it. I can feel it.’ I can feel it too. Over the last few years I’ve had an uncomfortable sense that someone, or something, has been tinkering with my brain, remapping the neural circuitry, reprogramming the memory. My mind isn’t going – so far as I can tell – but it’s changing. I’m not thinking the way I used to think. I feel it most strongly when I’m reading. I used to find it easy to immerse myself in a book or a lengthy article. But that’s rarely the case anymore. Now my concentration starts to drift after a page or two. I feel like I’m always dragging my wayward brain back to the text. The deep reading that used to come naturally has become a struggle. I think I know what’s going on. For well over a decade now, I’ve been spending a lot of time online, searching and surfing and sometimes adding to the great databases of the Internet. The Web’s been a godsend to me as a writer. Research that once required days in libraries can now be done in minutes. A few Google searches, some quick clicks on hyperlinks, and I’ve got the telltale fact or the pithy quote I was after. Even when I’m not working, I’m as likely as not to be foraging in the Web’s data thickets. The Net has become my allpurpose medium, the conduit for most of the information that flows through my eyes and ears and into my mind. The advantages of having immediate access to such an incredibly rich and easily searched store of data are many, and they’ve been widely described and duly applauded. The boons are real. But they come at a price. Media aren’t just channels of information. They supply the stuff of thought, but they also shape the process of thought. And what the Net seems to be doing is chipping away my capacity for concentration and contemplation. Whether I’m online or not, my mind now expects to take in information the way the Net distributes it: in a swiftly moving stream of particles. Once I was a scuba diver in the sea of words; now I zip along the surface like a guy on a Jet Ski. Maybe I’m an aberration, an outlier. But it doesn’t seem that way. When I mention my troubles with reading to friends, many say they’re suffering from similar afflictions. The more they use the Web, the more they have to fight to stay focused on long pieces of writing. Some worry they’re becoming chronic scatterbrains. Scott Karp, who used to work for a magazine and now writes a blog about online media, speculates: ‘What if I do all my reading on the web not so much because the way I read has changed, i.e. I’m just seeking convenience, but because the way I think has changed?’ We seem to have arrived at an important juncture in our intellectual and cultural history, a moment of transition between two very different modes of thinking. What we’re trading away in return for the riches of the Net – and only a curmudgeon would refuse to see the riches – is our old linear thought process. The calm, focused, undistracted linear mind is being pushed aside by a new kind of mind that wants and needs to take in and dole out information in short, disjointed, often overlapping bursts – the faster, the better. 1) The author will agree with which of the following statements? Absorbing disjointed short bursts of information from the web and a linear contemplative reading are incompatible processes. We do all our reading on the web just because it is convenient. The faster churning of short, disjointed bursts of information is better to keep the mind active. The calm, focused, undistracted mind is more productive than a wayward, distracted mind. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 2 is incorrect. In the penultimate paragraph, the author quotes Scott Karp as ‘What if I do all my reading on the web not so much because the way I read has changed, i.e. I’m just seeking convenience, but because the way I think has changed?’ The author quotes Karp only to support what he has stated in the earlier paragraph-- that “media shape the process of thought.” The author would disagree to us reading on the web because of its convenience. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The author does not offer judgement on whether short bursts of information are better to keep the mind active or not. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, the author does not compare the productive output of the two different modes of thinking. Reject option 4. Option 1 is correct. The last paragraph states thus: “What we’re trading away in return for the riches of the Net […] is our old linear thought process. The calm, focused,undistracted linear mind is being pushed aside by a new kind of mind that wants and needs to take in and dole out information in short, disjointed, often overlapping bursts…” The use of the phrases ‘trading away’ and ‘pushed aside’ suggests that the author is of the opinion that a balance is not feasible between the two modes of thinking--that they are incompatible processes. Retain option 1. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Absorbing disjointed short bursts of information from the web and a linear contemplative reading are incompatible processes.

Time taken by you: 338 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 191 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 56 % 2)What is the author’s main argument in this passage? Using the Internet changes the way people think and process information. The Internet is likely to make printed books completely redundant. Prolonged use of the Internet may lead to an inability to concentrate on long texts. People may lose the ability to think on their own due to the effects of the Internet. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The author highlights what prolonged and habitual use of the internet does to the way we think and process information. So, option 1, which tries to make the internet a dangerous thing in itself, is incorrect. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not concern itself about whether printed books will become redundant or not. The main idea in the passage is more about what prolonged use of the internet does to our information processing skills. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The author does not suggest that people will lose the ability to think on their own due to the Internet. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The passage is all about what getting used to the short disjointed bursts of information from the internet does to our mind and to our capability to process information for sustained periods. In the penultimate paragraph the author explicitly states thus: ‘the more they use the web, the more they have to fight to stay focused on long pieces of writing.’ Retain option 3. Hence the right answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Prolonged use of the Internet may lead to an inability to concentrate on long texts. Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 % 3) Why does the author begin the passage with the description of a scene from a movie?

He wants to show that technology can have a negative effect on the human mind. He wants to show that his ‘mind is going’ due to an overdependence on machines, just as in the movie. He wants to show how that he is helpless to keep his mind from going, just like HAL is in the movie. He wants to provide an analogy for how he can feel that his mind is changing. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Options 1 & 2 are incorrect. Refer paragraph 1, it is HAL – i.e. the supercomputer – whose ‘mind is going’ due to the actions of a human astronaut. These options inaccurately reverse the cause-effect direction. Eliminate options 1 & 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states thus: “My mind isn’t going – so far as I can tell – but it’s changing.” Thus, we cannot conclude as given in option 3 that the author’s mind is going. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the author chose this particular scene as an analogy for how he – like HAL – can feel that his mind is changing and has the sense that someone or something is ‘tinkering’ with his brain. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: He wants to provide an analogy for how he can feel that his mind is changing.

Time taken by you: 123 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 72 % 4)The author’s attitude towards the Internet is that of: anxiety and pessimism. appreciation and apprehension. admiration and condemnation. concern and aversion. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The author has positive as well as negative attitude towards the Internet: he acknowledges its advantages in the third and the last paragraphs. Options 1 and 4 are incorrect. These options mention only negative attitudes i.e. ‘anxiety and pessimism’ and ‘concern and aversion’ respectively. Eliminate options 1 & 4. Option 3 is incorrect. ‘Condemnation’, which means ‘severe disapproval or criticism’, is a little too strong to blame the internet for. Eliminate option 3. Option 2 is correct. The author expresses ‘admiration’, which is a positive attitude as well as ‘apprehension’ or uneasiness, which is a negative attitude, towards the Internet and the effect it has on his and other people’s minds. Retain option 2. Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: appreciation and apprehension. Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 46 % 5)‘Once I was a scuba diver in the sea of words; now I zip along the surface like a guy on a Jet Ski.’ What does the author mean by this? Once he used to read deeply, but now he merely skims through text. Once he used to take his time reading, but now he reads much more quickly. Once he used to command a great vocabulary, but now he expresses himself in simpler words. Once he could understand the deeper meanings of the books he read, but now he cannot see beyond the surface.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

This is an easy question.

This sentence – the last one of paragraph 4 – sums up the author’s point and links to the struggles he describes in paragraph 2. According to the author, he used to be able to read deeply and immerse himself in books. Now he finds that his concentration starts drifting after a page or two; his mind has become used to taking in information in the fast-paced way the Internet distributes it. So the analogy in the quoted sentence refers to his past and present experiences with reading. Option 2 is incorrect. The author does not allude to the increase in speed of reading, in the passage. This option is out of context. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage makes no mention of the author’s vocabulary. Again this option is out of context and can be rejected. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author does not have trouble understanding books as stated in this option. There is no reference to ‘deeper meanings’ in the passage. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. It correctly captures the underlying analogy by implying that the author is unable to read deeply with concentration and contemplation. Retain option 1. Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Once he used to read deeply, but now he merely skims through text. Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 6)According to the author, all these are implications of the use of the internet EXCEPT: The internet seems to be reprogramming our memory and changing our mind. It has become the conduit through which vast amounts of productive data are channelled into our minds. It has brought us to a threshold wherein our way of thinking might forever be changed. Google has made research shallow, second hand, and unreliable. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy EXCEPT question. Option 1 is not an exception. After the example of the loss of memory of the sentient computer HAL, The second paragraph states thus:“I can feel it too. Over the last few years I’ve had an uncomfortable sense that someone, or something, has been tinkering with my brain, remapping the neural circuitry, reprogramming the memory. My mind isn’t going – so far as I can tell – but it’s changing.” This makes option 1 correct and not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is not an exception. The third paragraph states this explicitly: “The Net has become my all-purpose medium, the conduit for most of the information that flows through my eyes and ears and into my mind. The advantages of having immediate access to such an incredibly rich and easily searched store of data are many, and they’ve been widely described and duly applauded.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This is the conclusion of the passage as stated in the last paragraph: “We seem to have arrived at an important juncture in our intellectual and cultural history, a moment of transition between two very different modes of thinking. What we’re trading away in return for the riches of the Net … is our old linear thought process. The calm, focused, undistracted linear mind is being pushed aside by a new kind of mind that wants and needs to take in and dole out information in short, disjointed, often overlapping bursts – the faster, the better.” This makes option 4 correct and not an exception. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is an exception. Option 4 is an objection popularly raised against Google by academics. The author does not bring this up in the passage. The reference to Google is made in the 3rd paragraph-- as to how Google has made finding information extremely easy. Option 4 is, thus, not an exception. Retain option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Google has made research shallow, second hand, and unreliable. Time taken by you: 28 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 %

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Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. All path-breakers are seen, first and foremost, in terms of their predecessors. Julius Caesar wept comparing his own deeds in his early thirties with those of Alexander the Great. Jesus, in the Gospels, was explicitly compared with Elijah from the Old Testament. And Newton, in lessening his own role as a discoverer of nature’s laws, claimed to stand on the shoulders of giants. All path-breakers are seen in relation to their predecessors, such as Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton. Path-breakers such as Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton are repeatedly compared to their predecessors. All path-breakers, including Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton, are seen in relation to their predecessors. Path-breakers such as Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton had to accept being compared to their predecessors.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points in the passage can be summarised as follows: All path-breakers are seen in terms of their predecessors. It gives the examples of Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton as the path-breakers.

Option 1 is incorrect. The way this option is framed suggests that Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton were the predecessors, not the pathbreakers. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. ‘Repeatedly compared’ is not suggested in the passage, so option 2 is not an accurate summary and can be eliminated. Option 3 is correct. It correctly summarises the fact that all path-breakers are seen in relation to their predecessors. It also includes the examples from the passage. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not state that the path-breakers ‘had to accept being compared to their predecessors’, just that they were compared. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: All path-breakers, including Julius Caesar, Jesus and Newton, are seen in relation to their predecessors. Time taken by you: 128 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Currently, the English Wikipedia has more than 50 official policies with a word count close to 150,000 (enough for a thick book). But that’s just the tip of the administrative iceberg. In addition to the policies, there are guidelines and essays – more than 450 devoted solely to proper conduct. You will also find more than 1,200 essays containing comments on the policies and guidelines, advisory notes and analyses of the community. The total word count for all guidelines and essays can easily be in the magnitude of millions, so it is safe to assume that no one in the world knows them all. There are so many rules and guidelines in the English Wikipedia that it can be concluded that no one knows them all. The English Wikipedia has a huge number of rules and guidelines, but not enough people who know them all. There are enough rules, guidelines and essays in the English Wikipedia to fill a thick book, so no one can follow them. Given the huge number of rules and guidelines in the English Wikipedia, one can assume that people no longer bother to learn them all. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points in the passage are: The English Wikipedia has more than 50 official policies with close to 150,000 words. The number of guidelines and essays is even more, and the total word count for all guidelines and essays can run into millions. It is safe to assume that no one in the world knows them all.

Option 1 is correct. According to the paragraph, it is safe to assume that no one knows all the rules and guidelines of Wikipedia. Option 1 accurately and succinctly summarizes the paragraph. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is a misrepresentation of the passage. There is no suggestion in the paragraph that there are not ‘enough’ people who know them. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The description ‘enough for a thick book’ is only applicable to the more than 50 policies with a word count of around 150,000 mentioned in the first sentence; the total word count of the rules is said to be in the millions. Also, ‘no one can follow them’ is a misrepresentation. It implies no one can follow any of the rules while the passage states no one can follow all the rules. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, option 4 too is a misrepresentation. There is no suggestion in the passage that ‘people no longer bother to learn them all’. It is an exaggeration. Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: There are so many rules and guidelines in the English Wikipedia that it can be concluded that no one knows them all. Time taken by you: 134 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

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A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Standing upright gives us human beings a unique perspective of the world around us. It encourages us to think of ourselves as being above, superior to and separate from our environment – a necessary precursor to our being able to shape and change it. It also enables us to see far ahead, spatially and temporally – to see danger, or fruit trees, or desirable mates, long before they are right in front of us; and this ability gives us, in turn, the ability to create strategies, to imagine, to invent, create, design and dream. Standing upright is what enables us human beings to become human. Standing upright makes human beings feel superior and enable them to shape and change the world around them. Standing upright encourages a feeling of superiority which is essential to make progress. Standing upright provides us more time to think since we can see the objects much before they are in front of us.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The main points in the passage are: Standing upright gives us humans a unique perspective of the world. It enables us to feel superior to and separate from our environment, which is necessary to our ability to change and shape the world. It also enables us to see far ahead and encourages creativity and abstraction. Option 1 is incorrect. The phrase ‘… enables us human beings to become human.’ is vague and does not convey the author’s position. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. It correctly captures the essence that standing upright gives humans a real sense of being separate from their environment and enables them to shape and change the world. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The ability to shape and change the environment around us cannot be equated to making progress. Thus the second half of this option is a misrepresentation. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 option does not capture the essence of the passage. It misses out on the crucial points about our ability to shape and change the world. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: Standing upright makes human beings feel superior and enable them to shape and change the world around them. Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 65 %

2. There is a corresponding area on the other side of the brain normally employed in reading – the visual word forming area in the fusiform gyrus; if this is abnormally stimulated, it may give rise to hallucinations of letters or pseudowords. 3. Such techniques, coupled with implanted-electrode studies (in patients with intractable epilepsy who need surgery), have allowed us to define which parts of the brain are responsible for different sorts of hallucinations. 4. For instance, an area in the right inferotemporal cortex normally involved in the perception of faces, if abnormally activated, may cause people to hallucinate faces. 5. This new knowledge comes especially from our ability to image the brain and to monitor its electrical and metabolic activities while people are hallucinating.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Statements 2, 3, 4, and 5 are danglers. “Corresponding area on the other side …” in sentence 2, “such techniques” in sentence 3 , “For instance” in sentence 4, and “This new knowledge” in sentence 5 make them danglers and unsuitable for starting the paragraph. Thus we can be sure that Statement 1 is the opening sentence, as it is the only standalone sentence. Sentence 1 introduces the topic of hallucinations. ‘This new knowledge’ in sentence 5 refers to the increase in understanding about hallucinations mentioned in sentence 1. Hence 1-5 is a mandatory pair. So we get 1-5 at the beginning of the sequence. ‘Such techniques’ in sentence 3 refer to the brain monitoring techniques mentioned in sentence 5, so 3 follows 5. Thus we get the sequence 153. Sentences 4 and 2 are examples of the “areas of the brain” stated in sentence 3. Statement 4 begins with, ‘for instance’ and talks about hallucinations caused by abnormal activation of the right inferotemporal cortex. Statement 2 mentions hallucinations caused by abnormal activation “on the other side of the brain.” Thus, 4-2 is a mandatory pair and concludes the paragraph after 153. Thus, the correct answer is 15342. Correct Answer: 15342 Time taken by you: 29 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. It is best to construct this paragraph from the starter up. Sentence 1 is the only standalone in the set. So we can be sure that the paragraph starts with sentence 1. “When you think about it, there is really no limit to ‘safety’. There being no limit for safety is then logically followed by sentence 3 which says whatever you do “you could be a little safer.” So we get 1-3 as a mandatory pair at the beginning of the paragraph. The next sentence can be fixed through elimination – the idea of risk in sentence 2 does not go well after sentence 3 because the idea of risk in sentence 2 cannot be linked to being “a little safer” in 3. Sentence 4 is also misfit – “it is practically our obsession” is better placed after sentence 5 which says we seem to value safety above nearly everything else. Hence 5- 4 is a mandatory pair. So the only sentence that makes sense after the 1-3 pair is sentence 5. So we get the sequence 1-3-5and 4. Sentence 2 then smoothly concludes the paragraph with the contrasting idea that however much we are obsessed with ‘safety’ our happiest moment some when we venture some risk. Hence the correct sequence is 13542. Correct Answer: 13542 Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 21 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. All the sentences except 1 appear to be good for the starter. The theme of the paragraph also is rather difficult to grasp in one reading. Both these make the question really difficult. The best way hence, is to start with the dangler sentence and try to get a mandatory pair. Sentence 1 “As if there is some sort of cultural conspiracy out to get us” must be preceded by a sentence in which a cultural conspiracy is implied. Sentence 5 which talks about “a brainless media that celebrates victims, and we come to believe that we are victims of a Eurocentric musical repertoire” has the insinuation of a conspiracy. None of the other sentences even remotely hints at any conspiracy. Hence 5-1 is mandatory pair. It looks difficult to narrow in on a sentence to precede or follow the 5-1 pair. However, we can see that sentences 4 and 2 are another mandatory pair which explains that what should important to us must be content, and, perhaps hence, “the great works of the operatic repertoire is certainly more relevant than much of the pap that passes for contemporary popular culture.” If you consider 4-3 as a possibility, sentence 2 cannot be placed suitably. Hence we can be sure of the 4-2 pair. Now we can also understand that the theme of the paragraph is definitely about classical music, and that in spite of a sort-of conspiracy by the media that makes believe that we are victims of the European classical music, we realize that classical music (Eurocentric musical repertoire) superior to the pop culture and is quite relevant today. What that also means is that the two mandatory pairs are logical as 5142. Now with only sentence 3 to place we can easily decide that it is logically best placed at the beginning and not at the end, neither can it break the 5142 sequence. Hence the correct answer is 35142 Correct Answer: 35142 Time taken by you: 99 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 2 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Statements 3 and 4 are clear danglers. Sentence 3 has reference to “the first group” and Sentence 4 refers to “the second group” making them dependent on other sentences in which the groups are specified. Between statements 1, 2 and 5, statement 5 introduces the concept of minority “anywhere” against a majority “somewhere” in Western societies. Statement 5 also introduces the author of this concept as David Goodhart. Thus, Statement 5 is clearly the the starter sentence. “The first group” in statement is the minority group of “anywhere” in statement 5. Thus, 5-3 is a mandatory pair. Statement 2 talks about

valuing geographical and social mobility. It can be either about the first group or the second group. If it talks about the first group then we’ll get 3-2 as the mandatory pair. But, if it refers to the second group then we’ll get 4-2 as the mandatory pair. Statement 4 states that the second group is characterised by identities rooted in a place. From this we can conclude that since the second group prefers identities rooted in a place, it would not value geographical mobility. Hence sentence 2 follows the 5-3 pair. So we get the sequence 5-3-2. Statement 4 follows since it now gives details about the second group i.e. the majority “somewhere” mentioned in statement 5. Thus we have the sequence 5324. Statement 1 now explains the contrast and the struggle between the Anywheres and the Somewheres groups and states the conclusion that Anywheres have largely benefited from the global economy while Somehwheres have been left behind. Thus, the correct sequence is 53241. Correct Answer: 53241 Time taken by you: 69 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Find the sentence that does not fit into the context and enter its number in the space given below. 1. I’m still thinking about those weighty questions after finishing Homo Deus, the provocative new book by Yuval Noah Harari. 2. Rather than looking back, as Sapiens does, it looks to the future. 3. I don’t agree with everything the author has to say, but he has written a thoughtful look at what may be in store for humanity. 4. Homo Deus argues that the principles that have organized society will undergo a huge shift in the 21 st century, with major consequences for life as we know it. 5. Harari’s new book is as challenging and readable as Sapiens.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The clue to the theme of the paragraph lies in sentence 5 which reads, Harari’s new book is as challenging and readable as Sapiens. So the paragraph could be about Harari’s new book. Or if we look for a dangler and then for a mandatory pair, sentence 2 provides the clue – “Rather than looking back, as Sapiens does, it looks to the future.” “As Sapiens does…” and “it looks to the future” in sentence 2 tells us that “it refers to the new book mentioned in sentence 5, which also introduces Sapiens. So we can see that 5-2 is a mandatory pair. A mandatory pair is always very useful to identify the specific theme of the paragraph. The 5-2 pair tells us that the paragraph is about Harari’s new book – which is as readable as his earlier work called Sapiens. Also, that Sapiens was about the past, and the new book is about the future. Now when we try to relate sentences 1, 3, and 4 to this theme, we see that sentence 3 which says “he has written a thoughtful look at what may be in store for humanity,” is related to the ‘looks to the future’ mentioned in sentence 2. Sentence 4, which reads: Homo Deus argues that the principles that have organized society will undergo a huge shift in the 21st century, with major consequences for life as we know it. So we can understand that Homo Deus is the name of the new book and “society will undergo a huge shift in the 21st century is …” is related the “looks to the future’ in sentence 2. However, sentence 1, which says “I’m still thinking about those weighty questions…” does not reflect to anything in the other four sentences. Hence the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer:

1 Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 15 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The clue for the theme lies in sentence 1 itself. “The sweet spot where the two intersect is called equilibrium. “the two intersect” – the two should be specified in different sentences. If we can find the description of the two in other sentences we can understand the theme. We can also see that sentence 4 is related to sentence 1 as both discuss some kind of ‘equilibrium.’ Sentences 5 and 2 explain this equilibrium. Sentence 2 says, “As demand for a product goes up, supply increases, and price goes down.” Sentence 5 says, “If the price gets too high, demand falls.” So the equilibrium is when supply, demand and price are ideally matched. In other words, the equilibrium price is the price where the quantity of goods supplied is equal to the quantity of goods demanded. Apart from the technicality, for our purpose we see that sentence 4, 1, 5 and 2 are closely related to explain the equilibrium price. Sentence 3 describes a situation which is unrelated to any other sentence or idea in the set of sentences. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 45 %

1. After Leonardo won a coveted commission to create a large statue of a nobleman perched on a horse, Leonardo procrastinated by going down multiple rabbit roles. 2. For example, he dissected horses to understand their anatomy, created new systems for feeding horses, and designed cleaner stables. 3. He never completed the statue, and he never published the treatise on horses he started. 4. When he wanted to understand something, he would observe it closely, scribble down his thoughts, and then try to figure it all out. 5. Leonardo often switched his focus to new domains right in the middle of a project, leaving works unfinished.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. There is a vocabulary item in this question. It is the idiom “go down a rabbit hole.” The idiom means: to enter into a situation or begin a process that is particularly strange or complex, typically from which one finds it difficult to extricate oneself. (It is an allusion to Alice's Adventures in Wonderland by Lewis Carroll.) In this question, we can begin with the starter. Only sentence 5 is stand alone. It discusses that Leonardo often switched his focus to new domains right in the middle of a project, leaving works unfinished. The other sentences are also on this theme. Sentence 1 is closely related to sentence 5, because sentence 1 begins the example of Leonardo’s habit of switching focus – that after he won a commission to create a large statue of a nobleman perched on a horse, Leonardo procrastinated by going down multiple rabbit roles – in other words, he switched his focus to other areas. One of the rabbit holes he went down this time is explained in sentence 2 – he started studying horses, dissected them to study their anatomy, created new systems for feeding horses, designed cleaner stables etc. . The narration becomes clear. It is about Leonardo’s shifting focus from one thing to another in midst of the things that he was doing and getting lost in them. The specific example is that he switched to studying about horses in the middle of a coveted assignment. The paragraph is then concluded by its consequence given in sentence 3 – that “he never completed the statue, and he never published the treatise on horses he started.” In this context, sentence 4 which says, “when he wanted to understand something, he would observe it closely, scribble down his thoughts, and then try to figure it all out” is a misfit. It is not related to the theme of Leonardo’s habit of frequent shifting of focus. Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 48 %

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Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Find the sentence that does not fit into the context and enter its number in the space given below. 1. After Leonardo won a coveted commission to create a large statue of a nobleman perched on a horse, Leonardo procrastinated by going down multiple rabbit roles. 2. For example, he dissected horses to understand their anatomy, created new systems for feeding horses, and designed cleaner stables. 3. He never completed the statue, and he never published the treatise on horses he started. 4. When he wanted to understand something, he would observe it closely, scribble down his thoughts, and then try to figure it all out. 5. Leonardo often switched his focus to new domains right in the middle of a project, leaving works unfinished.

Section Video Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 80 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. On the evening of 31 st May 2018, a factory receives an order for 400 widgets to be delivered by the evening of June 12th. According to the availability of manpower and other resources, the production is planned in the following way:

If goods are dispatched on the same day as they are produced, no inventory cost will be incurred for them. But if they are not dispatched on the same day, there is an inventory carrying cost of $ 1 per widget per day. Accordingly, the factory manager decides to deliver the order in several instalments as and when they are produced. He has several options for delivery: 1. Small Truck: A small truck can carry up to 60 widgets and costs $ 100 per trip. 2. Large Truck: A large truck can carry up to 110 widgets and costs $ 140 per trip. 3. Partial Load: He can send a partial load of up to 35 widgets using a third-party logistics vendor. The price for this service will have to be negotiated with the vendor. Whichever option he chooses, delivery is always carried out in the evening (after the day’s production is completed). The total cost incurred = inventory cost + transport cost. 1) The factory manager decides to use the Small Truck option. He plans that he will dispatch a Small Truck only when he can send a full load i.e. 60 widgets (except for the final day, when all the remaining stock is dispatched to complete the order using the small truck). What will be the total cost, in $, incurred for the order? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: A Small Truck is sent once thecumulative stock crosses 60 widgets. Cumulative stock for a day = Day’s production + inventory carried-forward from the previous day We can make a table as follows:

Total inventory = 37 + 11 + 39 + 11 + 44 + 13 + 55 + 30 + 5 + 34 + 5 = 284 Therefore, the total inventory cost is $ 284. Total number of dispatches = 7 Therefore, the total transport cost is $ 700 ? The total cost = $ 284 + $ 700 = $ 984 Therefore, the required answer is 984.

Correct Answer: 984

Time taken by you: 284 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 154 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 29 % 2) The factory manager decides to use the Large Truck option. He plans that he will dispatch a Large Truck on every 3rd day (i.e. on 3rd June, 6th June, 9th June and 12th June). What will be the total cost, in $, incurred for the order? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The factory manager decides to use Large Truck option and plans tosend a truck on every third day. A large Truck can carry up to 110 widgets. Cumulative stock for a day = Day’s production + inventory carried-forward from the previous day. We can make a table as follows:

Total inventory = 37 + 71 + 0 + 32 + 65 + 0 + 42 + 77 + 2 + 31 + 62 = 419 Therefore, the total inventory cost is $ 419. Total number of dispatches = 4 Therefore, the total transport cost = 4 × 140 = $ 560 ? The total cost = $ 419 + $ 560 = $ 979 Therefore, the required answer is 979.

Correct Answer: 979

Time taken by you: 176 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 % 3) The factory manager decides to use the Small Truck option. He plans that he will dispatch a Small Truck as soon as he has at least 45 widgets ready to dispatch (except for the final day, when all the remaining stock is dispatched to complete the order). What will be the total cost, in $, incurred for the order? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: In this case the factory manager sends a truck when the cumulative stock reaches 45 widgets. Cumulative stock for a day = Day’s production + inventory carried-forward from the previous day

Total inventory = 37 + 11 + 39 + 11 + 44 + 13 + 0 + 35 + 10 + 39 + 10 = 249 Therefore, the total inventory cost is $ 249. Total number of dispatches = 7 Therefore, the total transport cost = 7 × 100 = $ 700 ? The total cost = $ 249 + $ 700 = $ 949 Therefore, the required answer is 949.

Correct Answer: 949

Time taken by you: 50 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 17 % 4) The factory manager decides to use the Partial Load option. He plans that he will dispatch a Partial Load every single day. What is the maximum amount, in $, that he should be willing to pay per trip if he wants the cost to not exceed that incurred in any of the three cases considered in the earlier questions? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: A Partial Load can carry up to 35 widgets. Cumulative stock for a day = Day’s production + inventory carried-forward from the previous day

The factory manager sends a partial load (up to 35 units) every single day. If ‘x’ is a transport cost per dispatch, total transport cost = $ 12x Total inventory = 2 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 7 + 7 + 7 + 1 + 0 = 25 Therefore, the total inventory cost is $ 25. The total cost = $ (12x + 25) Also the total cost should not exceed $ 949. ? 12x = 949 – 25 = 924 ? x = 77 Therefore, the required answer is 77.

Correct Answer: 77

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 7 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The following table gives the information of the students in Class 7, Class 8, Class 9 and Class 10 in Vidyamandir Senior Secondary School, Jaipur over the given period of 3 years.

Each year a certain number of students either passed the exam, failed the exam, repeated the exam or did not appear for the exam. Also, the Number of students in any class C for any year Y = New admissions for that class + Number of students of class (C-1) who passed in the year (Y-1) + Number of students failing in class C in year (Y-1) + Number of students of class C who did not write the exam in year (Y-1). For instance, Number of students in class 8 in year 2016 = New admissions for class 8 in 2016 + Number of students of class 7 who passed in the year 2015 + Number of students failing in class 8 in year 2015 + Number of students of class 8 who did not write the exam in year 2015. It is known that, no person repeated the exam in the year 2015. Any student can proceed to next class only by passing the exam. No student leaves the school in the year 2015, 2016 and 2017. Pass percentage = Number of pass students / Number of total students.

Further it is known : 1. 2. 3. 4.

Number of students failed in class 7 in 2015 is same as Number of students failed in class 10 in 2016. 85% of the total students passed in class 8 in 2016. Number of students failed in class 9 in 2015 is 25% less than that of class 7 in the same year. In class 7 in 2016, 4% Students did not pass.

1) What is the highest pass percentage in any class (among 7 th, 8th, 9th and 10th) in any year from 2015-2017? 93.33% 94.24% 95.35% 96% Video Explanation:

Explanation: By using information, we can fill the table completely :

By observation we can see, class 9, 2015; class 7, 2016; class 7, 2017; class 9, 2017 and class 10, 2017 pass percentage is more than 90%

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 96%

Time taken by you: 534 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 469 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 2) How many new students got admission in year 2017 in class 9th? 1 2 3 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Total number of students in class 9 in 2017 = new admission in class 9 in 2017 + students failed in previous year + students did not write exam in previous year + students passed in class 8th in previous year Thus, 818 = new admissions + 115 + 6 + 697 So, new admission = 0 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 3) How many total students did not write the exams in class 7th, 8th, 9th and 10th in the year 2016? 64 58 48 44 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The required answer is = 21 + 0 + 6 + 21 = 48 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 48

Time taken by you: 11 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 % 4) What is the approximate pass percentage in 7th, 8th, 9th and 10th class combined in the year 2017 combined? 85% 90% 95% 80% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 90%

Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Albert bought a few coffee mugs from the wholesale market on six consecutive days- from Monday to Saturday and sold them in his shop. The mugs that he was unable to sell on the same day as he bought were sold on the following day, before selling the mugs bought on the following day. That means, if he had any unsold mugs from the ones he bought on Monday, he sold them on Tuesday before selling the mugs he bought on Tuesday. This holds true for all other days as well. The following table gives information on his transactions over the given six days period.

Profit or Loss on a given day was calculated only on the mugs that were sold on that day.

1) How much profit did Albert make on Tuesday (in Rs.)?

160 195 189.5 194.5 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 194.5

Time taken by you: 178 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 458 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 2) On how many mugs did Albert make a profit of more than 10%?

100 176 285 199 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

From the table, it can be seen that the following mugs sold had a profit ofmore than 10% All the 57 mugs sold on Monday. All the 71 mugs sold on Tuesday. All the 68 mugs sold on Thursday. All the 72 mugs sold on Friday. 17 out of 103 mugs sold on Saturday. Therefore the required answer = 57 + 71 + 68 + 72 + 17 = 285 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 285

Time taken by you: 350 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 292 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 3) What was the maximum profit made by Albert in a day?

Rs. 281.50 Rs. 344 Rs. 472 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using the information in the table, we can see that out of 74 mugs bought on Monday, only 57 were sold on Monday. Therefore the remaining 74 – 57 = 17 mugs were sold on Tuesday. Out of the 71 mugs sold on Tuesday, 17 were bought on Monday. Therefore the remaining 71 – 17 = 54 mugs that were sold on Tuesday were bought onTuesday.

Since Profit/Loss on a day is calculated on the mugs sold, we have the following:

Albert made maximum profit of Rs. 344 on Friday. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Rs. 344

Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 199 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 4) Had Albert been able to sell all the mugs he bought on the same day at the selling price per mug as mentioned in the table given, how much additional profit would he have been able to make over the given six days than he did when he was unable to sell all the mugs he bought on the same day, as given in the table? Rs. 113 Rs. 199 Rs. 187 None of these

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using the information in the table, we can see that out of 74 mugs bought on Monday, only 57 were sold on Monday. Therefore the remaining 74 – 57 = 17 mugs were sold on Tuesday. Out of the 71 mugs sold on Tuesday, 17 were bought on Monday. Therefore the remaining 71 – 17 = 54 mugs that were sold on Tuesday were bought on Tuesday.

Since Profit/Loss on a day is calculated on the mugs sold, we have the following:

If Albert was able to sell all the mugs on the same day, we can modify the table developed above as follows:

Thus additional profit made by Albert = 1075 – 962 = 113

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Rs. 113

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 104 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The annual alumni meet of NIM Ahmedabad was attended by 20 persons. The persons who attended the meet have worked in eight different management consulting firms – McKinsey, BCG, KPMG, Accenture, Bain, Deloitte, PwC and EY. The following table provides information about the count of persons who have worked in exactly one, two, three, four, five and six of the given eight firms. At least one person worked in each of the given eight firms.

For example, there are 4 persons who have worked in exactly two firms. The following bar-chart provides information about the number of persons who have worked in a particular firm. The graph provides information about only four of the eight firms but does not specify them.

1) If there is no firm in which less than 5 people have worked, then at most how many persons could have worked in a particular firm? 16 17

18 19 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of persons who have worked in Firm 1, Firm 2, Firm 3, Firm 4, Firm 5, Firm 6, Firm 7 and Firm 8 be A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. A + B + C + D + E + F + G + H = 1 × 1 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 5 + 4 × 2 + 5 × 6 + 6 × 2 = 74 Given that A + B + C + D = 9 + 13 + 8 + 11 = 41 Therefore, E + F + G + H = 74 – 41 = 33 Out of E, F, G, H assume the value of three are equal to 5 . Therefore, at the most 33 – 3 × 5 = 18 persons could have worked in a particular firm. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 18

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 198 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) There are exactly X firms in which exactly Y persons have worked. What could be the maximum possible value of X? 6 5 4 3 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of persons who have worked in Firm 1, Firm 2, Firm 3, Firm 4, Firm 5, Firm 6, Firm 7 and Firm 8 be A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. A + B + C + D + E + F + G + H = 1 × 1 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 5 + 4 × 2 + 5 × 6 + 6 × 2 = 74 Given that A + B + C + D = 9 + 13 + 8 + 11 = 41 Therefore, E + F + G + H = 74 – 41 = 33 33 = 8 + 8 + 8 + 9 or 9 + 9 + 9 + 6 Two cases possible: Case 1: Three values out of E, F, G and H are 8 and one is 9 Case 2: Three values out of E, F, G and H are 9 and one is 6 Maximum value of X = 4 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 53 % 3) For at most how many firms, the number of persons who have worked in it is more than those who have worked for Firm 4 4 5 6 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of persons who have worked in Firm 1, Firm 2, Firm 3, Firm 4, Firm 5, Firm 6, Firm 7 and Firm 8 be A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. A + B + C + D + E + F + G + H = 1 × 1 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 5 + 4 × 2 + 5 × 6 + 6 × 2 = 74 Given that A + B + C + D = 9 + 13 + 8 + 11 = 41 Therefore, E + F + G + H = 74 – 41 = 33 We have to look for the number of firms in which more than 9 persons have worked. A and C are definitely the firms in which more than 9 persons have worked. In out of the remaining four (E, F, G and H), one firm has only one person working in it, then the remaining three will have total 32 persons working for them. If those three firms have say 10, 11 and 11 people working for them, we have additional 3 firms that satisfy the requirement. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 % 4) Which of the following statements cannot be correct? The number of persons who have worked in McKinsey, Bain, BCG and Accenture is 11 each. The number of persons who have worked in Deloitte and EY is 15 each. The number of persons who have worked in PwC is same as those who have worked in BCG. None of these. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of persons who have worked in Firm 1, Firm 2, Firm 3, Firm 4, Firm 5, Firm 6, Firm 7 and Firm 8 be A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. A + B + C + D + E + F + G + H = 1 × 1 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 5 + 4 × 2 + 5 × 6 + 6 × 2 = 74 Given that A + B + C + D = 9 + 13 + 8 + 11 = 41 Therefore, E + F + G + H = 74 – 41 = 33 Option [1]: Firm A can be one of McKinsey, Bain, BCG and Accenture. That means three of the E, F, G, H = 11. That means one is 0. This is not possible. If firm A is not one of the given four firms, E = F = G = H = 11. This is also not possible. Option [2]: This means two of E, F, G and H = 15. In that case, the remaining two can be 1 and 2. This is possible. Option [3]: If one of PwC and BCG is one of A, B, C, D and the other is one of E, F, G and H it is possible for the two to be equal. If both PwC and BCG are among E, F, G and H, it is still possible for the two firms to have equal number of people working. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: The number of persons who have worked in McKinsey, Bain, BCG and Accenture is 11 each.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the tournament PIL 2017, eight teams participated – QXI, DD, RR, KRK, CKS, RBC, MI and HS. In Round I, all the eight teams participated but only four qualified for Round II. The four teams that did not qualify for Round II were declared as Round I losers. In Round II, out of the four teams, only one of the teams was declared as the Champion whereas the remaining three teams were declared as Round II losers. Ten punters – I, II, III,IV, V, VI,VII,VIII,IX and X made their predictions regarding the Champion, two of the three Round II losers and three of the four Round I losers, as shown in the table below.

It is also known that: I. Exactly four punters correctly predicted three of the four Round I losers. II. Only one punter correctly predicted the Champion, two of the three Round II losers as well as three of the four Round I losers. III. Exactly three punters correctly predicted two of the three Round II losers. 1) For how many punters can it be definitely concluded that they are not the punter who correctly predicted the Champion, two of the three Round II losers as well as three of the four Round I losers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Exactly four punters correctly predicted the three of the four Round I losers. The table has 3 Round I Losers as predicted by punters. We need to locate four punters who could have made the right prediction. First try to locate four punters with identical predictions for the three Round I losers. There are no such four punters. Next, look for the punters with two common Round I Losers. Each of the four teams KRK, CKS, QXI and MI appear three times in the Round I losers predictions made by punters II, V, VII and X. The number of ways in which 3 teams can be chosen out of 4 teams is 4 C3 = 4. Therefore, the four teams that are Round I Losers are KRK, CKS, QXI and MI. No other combination is a possibility. Four teams that qualified for Round II are DD, RR, HS and RBC. Given that exactly three punters correctly predicted the Round II losers. Punter II, VI, VIII, IX and X cannot be these three punters as their predictions for Round II losers include one or more Round I losers. Therefore, three punters out of I, III, IV, V and VII may have predicted the Round II Losers correctly. Out of these, Punters V and VII correctly predicted the three round I losers as well. Therefore the punter who correctly predicted the Champion¸ two of the three Round II Losers as well as three of the four Round III Losers could be either V or VII or either RBC or DD is the champion. Possibility 1: RBC is the Champion, DD, RR and HS are Round II losers and punters III, V and VII correctly predicted two of three Round II losers. Possibility 2: DD is the Champion. RR, HS and RBC are Round II losers and punters I, IV and VII correctly predicted two of three Round II losers. Thus, except for V and VII, it can be definitely concluded that the remaining 8 punters are not the punter who correctly predicted the Champion, two of the three Round II losers as well as three of the four Round I losers Therefore, the required answer is 8.

Correct Answer: 8

Time taken by you: 22 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 12 % 2) How many punters correctly predicted exactly one of the four Round I losers? (Write 11 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) Which of the following teams is definitely a Round II Loser? RBC DD HS None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: Exactly four punters correctly predicted the three of the four Round I losers. The table has 3 Round I Losers as predicted by punters. We need to locate four punters who could have made the right prediction. First try to locate four punters with identical predictions for the three Round I losers. There are no such four punters. Next, look for the punters with two common Round I Losers. Each of the four teams KRK, CKS, QXI and MI appear three times in the Round I losers predictions made by punters II, V, VII and X. The number of ways in which 3 teams can be chosen out of 4 teams is 4 C3 = 4. Therefore, the four teams that are Round I Losers are KRK, CKS, QXI and MI. No other combination is a possibility. Four teams that qualified for Round II are DD, RR, HS and RBC. Given that exactly three punters correctly predicted the Round II losers. Punter II, VI, VIII, IX and X cannot be these three punters as their predictions for Round II losers include one or more Round I losers. Therefore, three punters out of I, III, IV, V and VII may have predicted the Round II Losers correctly. Out of these, Punters V and VII correctly predicted the three round I losers as well. Therefore the punter who correctly predicted the Champion¸ two of the three Round II Losers as well as three of the four Round III Losers could be either V or VII or either RBC or DD is the champion. Possibility 1: RBC is the Champion, DD, RR and HS are Round II losers and punters III,V and VII correctly predicted two of three Round II losers. Possibility 2: DD is the Champion. RR, HS and RBC are Round II losers and punters I, IV and VII correctly predicted two of three Round II losers. Therefore, HS and RR are definitely Round II losers. Hence, [3] .

Correct Answer: HS

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 4) Which of the following teams did not qualify for Round II? DD RCB RR MI Video Explanation:

Correct Answer: MI

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a factory, there is a machine on which only two persons can work at any time. The owner of the factory employed seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V to work on the machine for three days – Day 1, Day 2 and Day 3. The owner of the factory made all the possible distinct pairs of persons and all the pairs worked together on the machine exactly once. The owner also observed that when any pair was working on the machine, one person was the ‘planner’ in the pair and the other was the ‘executor’ in the pair. Further it is known that: 1. The number of pairs that worked on each of the three days is the same. 2. Day 1 – R, S, T and V were the planners when they worked with U. 3. Day 1 – Only one person (not R) was the planner in more than one pair. 4. Day 2 – Q was the planner while working with R, S and T. 5. Day 2 – V was the planner in exactly two pairs. 6. Day 2 – T was the executor while working with P and R. 7. Day 3 – V was the executor while working with Q but was the planner while working with both P and R. 8. Day 3 – S was the planner while working with R and T. 9. Day 3 – U was the executor while working with P and Q. 10. Each of the persons was the planner in distinct number of pairs. 1) Who among the given persons was the executor while working with each of the other six persons?

R T U Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Total number of distinct pairs =7 C2 = 21 The number of pairs that worked on the machine on each of the three days = 7 The 21 pairs are PQ, PR, PS, PT, PU, PV, QR, QS, QT, QU, QV, RS, RT, RU, RV, ST, SU, SV, TU, TV, UV Also from statement 10, the number of times the persons were planners in the pairs range from 0 to 6 (both included). The information can be tabulated as below.

We need to fill following pairs in the table: SV, TV, PR, PS and PQ SV and TV work on Day 2. Clearly, S and T were the executors when working with V. From statement 3, R has to be executor while working with P. Thus, R(2, 4), T(1, 5), U(0, 6) and V(5, 1). Note: R(2, 4) means R worked as planner in exactly 2 pairs and as an executor in exactly 4 pairs. If Q was executor in pair with P, then he would be planner in 5 pairs. V was also planner in 5 pairs. So, from statement 10, this is not valid. Therefore, Q was a planner in pair with P. Thus, Q(6, 0). Case (i): P was planner in pairs with S. In this case, P(4, 2) and S(3, 3). This case is valid. Case (ii): P was executor in pairs with S. In this case, P(3, 3) and S(4, 2). This case is valid. Therefore, P(3/4, 3/2), Q(6, 0), R(2, 4), S(4/3, 2/3), T(1, 5), U(0, 6) and V(5, 1). U was executor while working with each of the other six persons . Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: U

Time taken by you: 665 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 528 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 90 % 2) Who among the given persons was the planner in more than one pair on Day 1?

S P Q Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Total number of distinct pairs =7 C2 = 21 The number of pairs that worked on the machine on each of the three days = 7 The 21 pairs are PQ, PR, PS, PT, PU, PV, QR, QS, QT, QU, QV, RS, RT, RU, RV, ST, SU, SV, TU, TV, UV Also from statement 10, the number of times the persons were planners in the pairs range from 0 to 6 (both included). The information can be tabulated as below.

Case (i): P was planner in pairs with S. In this case, P(4, 2) and S(3, 3). This case is valid. Case (ii): P was executor in pairs with S. In this case, P(3, 3) and S(4, 2). This case is valid. Therefore, P(3/4, 3/2), Q(6, 0), R(2, 4), S(4/3, 2/3), T(1, 5), U(0, 6) and V(5, 1). P or S was the planner in more than one pair on Day 1.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 29 % 3) In how many different pairs was S the executor? (Write 7 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Total number of distinct pairs =7 C2 = 21 The number of pairs that worked on the machine on each of the three days = 7 The 21 pairs are PQ, PR, PS, PT, PU, PV, QR, QS, QT, QU, QV, RS, RT, RU, RV, ST, SU, SV, TU, TV, UV Also from statement 10, the number of times the persons were planners in the pairs range from 0 to 6 (both included). The information can be tabulated as below.

Therefore, the required answer is 7.

Correct Answer: 7

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 29 % 4) On which day did P and R work together? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

We need to fill following pairs in the table: SV, TV, PR, PS and PQ SV and TV work on Day 2. Clearly, S and T were the executors when working with V. Therefore, PR, PS and PQ work on day 1. P and R work together on day 1.

Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Data collected on winners of Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon and US Open held over 10 years (each championship held every year) revealed the following: 1. Players from total 8 different countries won at least one championship over the 10 year period. They are Spain, Sweden, USA, Russia, Brazil, Germany, Australia and Netherlands. 2.

Each championship was won by players from exactly five different countries in the 10-year period.

3. Number of Australian open championships won by players from Sweden is equal to number of French open championships won by players from USA, which is also same as number of Wimbledon championships won by players from USA. 4. Total number of championships won by players from Spain was two times the total number of championships won by players from Russia. 5. Players from Spain won equal number of Australian Open, French Open and Wimbledon. So was the case with players from Russia. 6. For players from Germany: Number of Wimbledon championships > Number of French Open championships > Number of US Open championships. Following table shows the partial information on the number of championships won by players from different countries:

1) Which of the following statements can be true?

Number of French Open championships won by players from Sweden is equal to number of Wimbledon championships won by players from USA. Number of French Open championships won by players from Sweden is equal to the number of Wimbledon championships won by players from Sweden. Number of French Open championships won by players from Sweden is equal to number of US Open championships won by players from USA.

None of the above 2) Which of the following can be the number of US Open championships won by players from USA? 2 3 4 5 3) Which of the following statements cannot be true? Out of the five countries that won atleast one Australian open championship, players from three countries won equal number of Australian open championships. Out of the five countries that won atleast one Wimbledon championship, players from three countries won equal number of Wimbledon championships. Sum of number of French open championships won by players from Sweden and number of US open championships won by players from USA is 6. Sum of number of Australian open championships won by players from Sweden and number of French open championships won by players from USA is 4. 4) If number of Australian Open championships won by players from USA was equal to number of US Open championships won by players from Sweden, which of the following is the number of French Open championships won by the players from USA? 2 3 4 Cannot be determined

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Balaji Manpower Solutions (BMS) supplies servants (male or female) to do the household work in different housing societies in Mangalore. BMS charges one month salary of the servant from its clients as its service charges. The salary paid to the servants is Rs. 1,000 per month for one hour daily, Rs. 2,000 per month for two hours daily and so on. Further, the number of hours for which each servant works everyday is a natural number. Five clients of BMS, named Pushpa, Jaya, Gopal, Rajesh and Abhishek employ Reena, Meena, Shyamlal, Ramlal and Pannalal (in no particular order) for their household work.

Following points are known: 1.No female servant works in the house of a female client of BMS.

2.Gopal employs Shyamlal and pays the highest service charges to BMS. 3.Reena gets the least salary among the five servants. 4.Meena works for 6 hours in Abhishek’s house in Jalmandir Housing Society. 5.Pushpa pays more service charges to BMS than Jaya pays. 6.The highest and the lowest paid servants do not work in Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubhchintak Housing Society. 7.Pannalal’s salary is more than that of exactly two other servants . 8.No two servants get equal salary and the minimum number of working hours per day of a servant is 3 and the maximum number of working hours per day of a servant is 8. 9.Star and Raj Vaibhav are two of the five housing societies. 10.Among the clients of BMS, Gopal, Rajesh and Abhishek are males while Pushpa and Jaya are females. Similarly, out of the servants, Reena and Meena are females while Shyamlal, Ramlal and Pannalal are males. 1) In which society does Shyamlal work? Star Raj Vaibhav Either Star or Raj Vaibhav Neither Star or Raj Vaibhav Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6; Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Shyamlal works either in Star or Raj Vaibhav Society. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Either Star or Raj Vaibhav

Time taken by you: 860 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 584 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 97 % 2) What is the name of the employee working in Jaya’s house? Ramlal Pannalal Either Ramlal or Pannalal

Neither Ramlal nor Pannalal Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6; Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Ramlal works in Jaya’s house. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Ramlal

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 3) How much salary does Pannalal get per month (in Rs.)? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6; Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Pannalal gets Rs. 5,000 per month. Therefore, the required answer is 5000.

Correct Answer: 5000

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 4) What is the difference in the salary per month of the employees working in Siddhivinayak and Shubhchintak Housing Societies (in Rs.)? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6;Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Pannalal (Salary Rs. 5,000) and Ramlal (Rs. 4,000) work in Siddhivinayak and Shubhchintak Housing Societies. The difference in their salaries is Rs. 1,000. Therefore, the required answer is 1000.

Correct Answer: 1000

Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Balaji Manpower Solutions (BMS) supplies servants (male or female) to do the household work in different housing societies in Mangalore. BMS charges one month salary of the servant from its clients as its service charges. The salary paid to the servants is Rs. 1,000 per month for one hour daily, Rs. 2,000 per month for two hours daily and so on. Further, the number of hours for which each servant works everyday is a natural number. Five clients of BMS, named Pushpa, Jaya, Gopal, Rajesh and Abhishek employ Reena, Meena, Shyamlal, Ramlal and Pannalal (in no particular order) for their household work.

Following points are known: 1.No female servant works in the house of a female client of BMS. 2.Gopal employs Shyamlal and pays the highest service charges to BMS. 3.Reena gets the least salary among the five servants. 4.Meena works for 6 hours in Abhishek’s house in Jalmandir Housing Society. 5.Pushpa pays more service charges to BMS than Jaya pays. 6.The highest and the lowest paid servants do not work in Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubhchintak Housing Society. 7.Pannalal’s salary is more than that of exactly two other servants . 8.No two servants get equal salary and the minimum number of working hours per day of a servant is 3 and the maximum number of working hours per day of a servant is 8. 9.Star and Raj Vaibhav are two of the five housing societies. 10.Among the clients of BMS, Gopal, Rajesh and Abhishek are males while Pushpa and Jaya are females. Similarly, out of the servants, Reena and Meena are females while Shyamlal, Ramlal and Pannalal are males. 1) In which society does Shyamlal work? Star Raj Vaibhav Either Star or Raj Vaibhav Neither Star or Raj Vaibhav Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6; Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Shyamlal works either in Star or Raj Vaibhav Society. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Either Star or Raj Vaibhav

Time taken by you: 860 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 584 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 97 % 2) What is the name of the employee working in Jaya’s house? Ramlal Pannalal Either Ramlal or Pannalal Neither Ramlal nor Pannalal Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6; Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Ramlal works in Jaya’s house. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Ramlal

Video Explanation:

Pannalal gets Rs. 5,000 per month. Therefore, the required answer is 5000.

Correct Answer: 5000

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement 2, 3, 4 and 6;Reena and Shyamlal do not work in Jalmandir Housing Society, Siddhivinayak Housing Society and Shubchintak Housing Society. Therefore from statement 9, Reena and Shyamlal work in Star and Raj Vaibhav housing societies in some order. From statement 2 and 8, Shyamlal earns Rs. 8,000 per month. Therefore from statement 4, 7 and 8; Pannalal’s salary must be Rs. 5,000 per month. From statement 3 and 8, Reena earns Rs. 3,000 and hence Ramlal earns Rs. 4,000

Pannalal (Salary Rs. 5,000) and Ramlal (Rs. 4,000) work in Siddhivinayak and Shubhchintak Housing Societies. The difference in their salaries is Rs. 1,000. Therefore, the required answer is 1000.

Correct Answer: 1000

Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined A rumour spreads on a social networking site in the following way. Between 12 midnight and 1 am, only one person knows it. In every subsequent hour, the number of people who come to know of the rumour is twice the number of people who came to know it during the previous hour. How many people know the rumour by the end of the first day (in 24 hours)? 224 223 224 – 1 225 – 1 Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The number of new people know the rumour in each hour is 1, 2, 4, 8, 16…. i.e., in nth hour, 2(n–1)new people know the news. Note: 1, 2, 2 2 , 23 , … , 222 and 223 are 24 terms of a GP having a = 1 and r = 2. ? At the end of 24 hours the total number of people knowing the rumour = 1 + 2 + 22 + 23 + … + 223 = 224 – 1 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 224 – 1 Time taken by you: 39 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 48 %

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3.25A 3.5A 3.75A 3A

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3A

Time taken by you: 150 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined If (x + 3)(y – 1) = 64, where x > 0 and y > 1, what is the minimum value of (x + y)? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 14

Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 %

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Between 8 and 12 Between 23 and 27 Between 33 and 37 Between 13 and 17

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Between 13 and 17

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined ABCDEF is a regular hexagon and EFGHI is a regular pentagon such that the pentagon lies outside the hexagon. Side CD and side HI are extended to intersect at point P. Find m∠DPI (in degrees). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 96 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined All the six faces of a cube of side 3 cm are initially painted using white colour. The cube is then cut into 27 identical cubes having side 1 cm each. The faces of all these small cubes that do not have white colour on them are then painted using blue colour. What is the sum of the total surface areas (in cm2 ) of the 27 small cubes that have been painted using blue colour?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Total surface area of the 27 small cubes = 27 × 6 × 1 2 = 162 sq. cm Out of this, the total surface area of the cubes that have painted using white colour = 6 × 32 = 54 sq. cm ? Total surface area of the 27 small cubes that have been painted using blue colour = 162 – 54 = 108 sq. cm Therefore, the required answer is 108. Correct Answer: 108 Time taken by you: 179 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined A job is to be completed by A, B and C. A and B first start working together for 2 days, then A takes a break and B and C work together for 3 days. After this, B takes a breakand A and C work together for 2 days and are able to finish the job. Had A not contributed at all in the efforts, then B and C would have taken 10 days to finish the job (without taking any breaks). Had A, B and C worked together on all days without any breaks, how many days would it have taken for them to finish the job?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 149 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined The sum of two numbers is 528 and their HCF is 33. The number of unordered pairs of such numbers satisfying the above condition is: Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since, the HCF of the two numbers is 33, the numbers can be written as 33a and 33b, where a and b are co-primes. Then, 33a + 33b = 528 Therefore, a + b = 16 a and b can take values as (1, 15), (3, 13), (5, 11) and (7, 9), i.e. 4 pairs of numbers are possible. [Note: (2, 14) or any pair of even numbers does not satisfy the condition as the two numbers would then be 33 × 2 and 33 × 14 and HCF would no longer be 33 but would become 66.]

Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 124 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Two friends tried solving a quadratic equations x2 + bx + c = 0. One started with the wrong value of ‘b’ and got the roots as 4 and 14 while the other started with the wrong value of ‘c’ and got the roots as 17 and –2. Find the actual roots. 7, 8 14, 1 19, –4 13, 2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 7, 8 Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 122 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 %

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13 : 16 13 : 32 9 : 32 9 : 16

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 9 : 16

Time taken by you: 300 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 214 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 84 %

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k–1 k2 – 1 1 – k2 1–k

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1–k

Time taken by you: 222 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined The profit obtained when 60 chairs are sold is equal to the cost price of 45 chairs. What is the percentage profit obtained when 21 chairs are given free with the sale of 77 chairs? 27.5% 32.5% 37.5% 42.5%

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 37.5% Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 182 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined In a group of people, there are 13 who like football, 9 who like cricket, 15 who like hockey and 6 who like basketball. Each person who likes cricket also likes exactly one of football and hockey. Each person who likes hockey also likes exactly one of cricket and basketball. Find the minimum possible number of people in the group. 20 23 28 22

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Everyone who likes hockey likes exactly one of cricket and basketball. However, there are 15 people who like hockey, 9 who like cricket, and 6 who like basketball. Thus, everyone who likes cricket or basketball must also like hockey (because if any of them didn’t, we would end up with less than 15 people who like hockey). Since everyone who likes cricket likes hockey, none of them can like football.

However, the 6 people who like both hockey and basketball can also like football. So, we could have a group where 7 people like football alone, 9 like cricket and hockey, and 6 like football, hockey, and basketball. This gives 22 people in the group, which is optimal. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 22 Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 12 %

undefined Radha walks at a constant speed on a road parallel to the railway track joining Rampur and Laxmanpur stations in the direction towards Laxmanpur. Trains shuttle between the two stations throughout the day. Trains start from either station at the same time with same speed (which remains constant throughout the journey). The time between the consecutive trains starting from either station is also same. She observes that the train from Rampur to Laxmanpur crosses her after every 12 minutes while the train from Laxmanpur to Rampur crosses her after every 8 minutes. What is the time interval between the two consecutive trains travelling in either direction? 9.6 minutes 10.4 minutes 10 minutes 9.8 minutes

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Suppose B is a point at which a train from Rampur to Laxmanpur overtakes Radha. When train overtakes Radha at point B, next train is at A. If Radha is stationary, the next train will overtake Radha again at B after ‘t’ minutes, where ‘t’ is the frequency of the consecutive trains. Because Radha is moving, the train will overtake her at point C. If ‘r’ is Radha’s speed in units/minute, l(BC) = 12r Train is at point B after ‘t’ minutes and is at point C after 12 minutes. So time taken by the train to cover BC = (12 – t) minutes. If ‘s’ is train’s speed in units/minute, l(BC) = s(12 – t)

Suppose A is a point at which a train from Laxmanpur to Rampur crosses Radha. When train crosses Radha at point A, next train is at B. If Radha is stationary, the next train will overtake Radha again at A after ‘t’ minutes, where ‘t’ is the frequency of the consecutive trains.

Because Radha is moving, the train will overtake her at point C. If ‘r’ is Radha’s speed in units/minute, l(AC) = 8r Train is at point C after 8 minutes and is at point A after ‘t’ minutes. So time taken by the train to cover AC = (t – 8) minutes.

Alternatively, Suppose x = speed of the train and y = speed of Radha The relative speed of the train going from Rampur to Laxmanpur w.r.t Radha = x – y The relative speed of the train going from Laxmanpur to Rampur w.r.t Radha = x + y If Radha is stationary at a point, relative speed of the train w.r.t her = x Suppose ‘t’ is the time interval between two consecutive trains. We can see that speeds (x – y), x and (x + y) are in AP. Therefore times 12, t and 8 should be in HP

Correct Answer: 9.6 minutes Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined What is the remainder when 1 + 2(2!) + 3(3!) + 4(4!) + ... + 30(30!) is divided by 4? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: It can be noted that each of the terms 4(4!),5(5!), …, 20(20!) contains the term 4 and is thus divisible by 4. Thus, we only need to check for 1 + 2 (2!) + 3(3!) = 23, which when divided by 4 leaves a remainder 3.

Therefore, the required answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Given that 'x' and 'y' are non-zero real numbers such that x : y = (2x + y) : (y – 2x) =(y – x) : (x + 2y). Find the value of (3x + 4y). 0 1 –1 2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 126 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined Manoj, Joy and Tarun are walking in a park with uniform speeds. The distances covered by 6 steps of Manoj, 2 steps of Tarun and 3 steps of Joy are all equal. Further the time taken by Manoj to cover 8 steps is same as the time taken by Joy to take 15 steps as well as the time taken by Tarun to take 12 steps. Find the ratio of the speeds of Manoj, Joy and Tarun. 2:3:9 1:3:6 4 : 18 : 15 4 : 15 : 18

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 : 15 : 18

Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 %

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60 m

120 m

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let PQ be the lighthouse and A & B be the two positions for the ship. Because the angle of elevation remains the same along the path AB, AB is a part of a circle with centre Q and radius AQ = BQ.

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 672 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 147 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined ABCD is a square as shown below. The area of the trapezium ABED is five times the area of the triangle DEC. What is the ratio of area of trapezium AECD to the area of the square?

3:4 4:5 2:3 5:6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2:3

Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined There are two milk-water solutions A and B. The sum of the volumes of the two solutions is 10 litres. Had the volume of solution A been 2 litres less and the volume of solution B remained unchanged, then the quantity of pure milk in solution A would have been same as that in B. If the ratio of concentration of milk in solutions A and B is 3 : 2, then what was the ratio of the volumes of solutions A and B? 12 : 11 11 : 12 10 : 9 13 : 12

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Therefore, the volume of solution B be(10 – V) litres. Let the concentration of solutions A and B be 3x and 2x respectively. Therefore, (3x)(V – 2) = (2x)(10 – V) 3V – 6 = 20 – 2V Therefore, V = 5.2 litres Required Ratio = V : (10 – V) = 13 : 12 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 13 : 12

Time taken by you: 236 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined The curved surface area of a solid cone is three-fifths of the total surface area of the cone. If the volume of the cone is given by c h3 , where 'h' is the height of the cone and 'c' is a constant, find the value of 'c'.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 186 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined The input to an electronic device is a six-digit number, each digit of which is either 1 or 2. The output to any such input is either 5 or 6 or 7 or 8. How many such distinct input-output combinations are possible? 2 64 256 4 64 None of these

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Total number of possible inputs = 2 6 = 64 Total number of possible outputs = 4 For each of the 64 inputs, 4 outputs are possible. ? Total number of input-output combinations = 4 × 64 = 256 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 256

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined Mungerilaal increased the price of sugar by x% in January and then by 2x% in February. Because of backlash from customers, he reduced it first by x% in March and then by 2x% in April. By what percentage was the price of sugar changed in April with respect to its original price before January? Given x 2 = 20.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 126 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined In the figure given below, PQR is an equilateral triangle. PR and PQ are tangents to the circle and TR = 2 cm.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 53 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 140 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined The probabilities that Rashmi, Sujata and Janki will clear their examinations are 0.2, 0.4 and 0.6 respectively. What is the probability that only two of them cleared their examinations?

0.296 0.288 0.272 0.266

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Required probability =P(Rashmi and Sujata cleared but not Janki) + P(Sujata and Janki cleared but not Rashmi) + P(Rashmi and Janki cleared but not Sujata) = 0.2 × 0.4 × 0.4 + 0.4 × 0.6 × 0.8 + 0.2 × 0.6 × 0.6 = 0.032 + 0.192 + 0.072 = 0.296 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0.296

Time taken by you: 58 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 %

undefined Naana-Naani park is a circular garden of radius 100 m. Four poles A, B, C, D are fixed at four different points in clockwise direction (in that order) on the circumference of the garden. Angle ADC = 45°. Sohan completed 10 round trips along the circumference of the garden taking path ABC (i.e. path A-B-C-B-A in one round trip). Mohan similarly walked along the circumference of the garden and completed ‘n’ round trips taking path ADC (i.e. path A-D-C-D-A in one round trip). If Mohan covered 60% the distance covered by Sohan, then what is the value of ‘n’?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 127 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 23 %

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In how many ways can one arrange 7 identical one rupee coins, 6 identical two rupee coins and 1 five rupee coin in the 14 numbered squares in the figure given above such that each square is occupied by only one coin? 38004 5725 10001 24024

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 24024 Time taken by you: 90 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 %

undefined The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is same as that of an isosceles right angled triangle. If the area of the isosceles right angled triangle is 8 cm 2 , then what is the length (approximate) of side of the equilateral triangle? 4.4 cm 4.6 cm 4.8 cm 5 cm

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4.6 cm

Time taken by you: 72 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 123 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

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b–2 b2 – 1 1 − b3 b2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: b2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined A number ‘N’ when divided by 20 leaves a remainder of 11 while it leaves a remainder of 13 when divided by 21. What will be the remainder when 'N' is divided by 15? (Write 16 if the remainder is not unique.) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: When N is divided by 20 it leaves 11 so when divided by 5 it must leave 1.

i.e., N = 5p + 1 When N is divided by 21 it leaves 13 so when divided by 3 it must leave 1. i.e., N = 3q + 1 If when N is divided by either 5 or 3 it leaves 1, then when divided by LCM (5, 3) i.e., 15 it should also leave 1. Therefore, the required answer is 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 242 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 %

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320 320 – 1 320 + 1 310 – 1 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 320 – 1 Time taken by you: 91 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined An ant named ‘Amy’ and a fly named ‘Famy’ are standing at the center of a right circular cone having diameter of the base equal to 10 cm and height 12 cm. They notice a sugar particle inside the cone at the tip of the cone. Amy first walks to her left in a straight line and reaches a point on the circumference of the base of the cone. She then walks along the circumference of the base of the cone and reaches diametrically opposite point of the base of the cone. Amy then walks up-to the tip of the cone along curved surface of the cone taking shortest possible distance. On the other hand, Famy directly flies vertically upwards to the tip of the cone. If both Amy and Famy start at the same time and reach the tip of the cone at the same time, what is the ratio of Amy’s walking speed toFamy’s flying speed?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined The area of a rhombus is 24 cm 2 . What is the length of side of the square (in cm) whose area is thrice the area of the rectangle having

The area of a rhombus is 24 cm 2 . What is the length of side of the square (in cm) whose area is thrice the area of the rectangle having length equal to the longer diagonal of the rhombus and breadth equal to the shorter diagonal of the rhombus?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that the area of the rhombus is 24 cm 2 . Let‘x’ and ‘y’ be the lengths of the diagonals of the rhombus. Therefore, xy = 2(24) = 48 cm 2 Let the side of the square be ‘a’. Therefore, a2 = 3(48) = 144 Therefore, a = 12 cm Therefore, the required answer is 12 cm. Correct Answer: 12 Time taken by you: 99 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. A library may be very large; but if it is in disorder, it is not as useful as one that is small but well arranged. In the same way, a man may have a great mass of knowledge, but if he has not worked it up by thinking it over for himself, it has much less value than a far smaller amount which he has thoroughly pondered. For it is only when a man looks at his knowledge from all sides, and combines the things he knows by comparing truth with truth, that he obtains a complete hold over it and gets it into his power. A man cannot turn over anything in his mind unless he knows it; he should, therefore, learn something; but it is only when he has turned it over that he can be said to know it. Reading and learning are things that anyone can do of his own free will; but not so thinking. Thinking must be kindled, like a fire by a draught; it must be sustained by some interest in the matter in hand. This interest may be of purely objective kind, or merely subjective. The latter comes into play only in things that concern us personally. Objective interest is confined to heads that think by nature; to whom thinking is as natural as breathing; and they are very rare. This is why most men of learning show so little of it. It is incredible what a different effect is produced upon the mind by thinking for oneself, as compared with reading. It carries on and intensifies that original difference in the nature of two minds which leads the one to think and the other to read. What I mean is that reading forces alien thoughts upon the mind — as the seal is to the wax on which it stamps its imprint. The mind is thus entirely under compulsion from without; it is driven to think this or that, though for the moment it may not have the slightest impulse or inclination to do so. But when a man thinks for himself, he follows the impulse of his own mind, which is determined for him at the time, either by his environment or some particular recollection. The visible world of a man’s surroundings does not, as reading does, impress a single definite thought upon his mind, but merely gives the matter and occasion which lead him to think what is appropriate to his nature and present temper. So it is, that much reading deprives the mind of all elasticity; it is like keeping a spring continually under pressure. The safest way of having no thoughts of one’s own is to take up a book every moment one has nothing else to do. It is this practice which explains why erudition makes most men more stupid and silly than they are by nature, and prevents their writings obtaining any measure of success. Men of learning are those who have done their reading in the pages of a book. Thinkers and men of genius are those who have gone straight to the book of Nature; it is they who have enlightened the world and carried humanity further on its way. If a man’s thoughts are to have truth and life in them, they must, after all, be his own fundamental thoughts; for these are the only ones that he can fully and wholly understand. To read another’s thoughts is like taking the leavings of a meal to which we have not been invited, or putting on the clothes which some unknown visitor has laid aside. The thought we read is related to the thought which springs up in ourselves, as the fossil-impress of some prehistoric plant to a plant as it buds forth in spring-time. Reading is nothing more than a substitute for thought of one’s own. It means putting the mind into leading-strings. The multitude of books serves only to show how many false paths there are, and how widely astray a man may wander if he follows any of them. But he who is guided by his genius, he who thinks for himself, who thinks spontaneously and exactly, possesses the only compass by which he can steer aright. A man should read only when his own thoughts stagnate at their source, which will happen often enough even with the best of minds. On the other hand, to take up a book for the purpose of scaring away one’s own original thoughts is a sin against the Holy Spirit. It is like running away from Nature to look at a museum of dried plants or gaze at a landscape in copperplate. A man may have discovered some portion of truth or wisdom, after spending a great deal of time and trouble in thinking it over for himself and adding thought to thought; and it may sometimes happen that he could have found it all ready to hand in a book and spared himself the trouble. But even so, it is a hundred times more valuable if he has acquired it by thinking it out for himself. For it is only when we gain our knowledge in this way that it enters as an integral part, a living member, into the whole system of our thought; that it stands in complete and firm relation with what we know; that it is understood with all that underlies it and follows from it; that it wears the color, the precise shade, the distinguishing mark, of our own way of thinking; that it comes exactly at the right time, just as we felt the necessity for it; that it stands fast and cannot be forgotten. 1) The writer is attempting to convey which of the following through the library analogy in the first paragraph?

A large library, organized or unorganized, cannot serve the purpose that a small organized library does. A small organized library offers limited knowledge over which a man can have complete control. A large unorganized library is just as useless as vast knowledge that is not pondered over and internalized. A small library or limited knowledge is preferable to large libraries or great mass of knowledge. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is a medium difficulty question. The explanation of the analogy has been provided by the writer and can be found in the first paragraph itself. “A library may be very large; but if it is in disorder, it is not as useful as one that is small but well arranged. In the same way, a man may have a great mass of knowledge, but if he has not worked it up by thinking it over for himself, it has much less value than a far smaller amount which he has thoroughly pondered.” –the organization of the library is compared with the process of “thinking it over for oneself” – irrespective of the size of the library or the extent of knowledge. The comparison is to drive home the point that large unorganized libraries are less useful than small organized one. Similarly, limited knowledge that is thought over, deliberated upon, and assimilated, is more useful than vast knowledge that is merely committed to memory. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer describes the library analogy using the comparison, “not as useful as….” This cannot be translated to mean that one “cannot serve the purpose” as the other, as the option suggests. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Though implicitly it can be justified by saying that it is possible for a man to have complete control over limited knowledge, the author’s emphasis is on assimilating and internalizing knowledge through thinking it over, or ‘turning it over in the mind.”— whether it be vast or limited. The option seems to emphasize ‘limited knowledge” in itself as important. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The analogy is intended for the purpose stated in option 3 – the complete mastery of things by ‘turning it over in the mind’ is far more important than just committing things to memory as ‘knowledge.’ Retain option 3 Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 misses the significance of the comparison as it does not hig hlight the need of thinking or turning knowledge over in the mind.. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer:

A large unorganized library is just as useless as vast knowledge that is not pondered over and internalized.

Time taken by you: 453 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 347 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 95 % 2)The writer believes that thinking, unlike reading: happens under compulsion and not of one’s own free will. can begin involuntarily but can continue only if pursued consciously and deliberately. is not limited to a single thought but must include multiple thoughts. is triggered in the mind by intrinsic impulses which may be outside one’s control. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer believes that reading is the result of one’s free will while thinking is not-- that thinking depends on external factors like a particular recollection or the visible world of a man’s surroundings. He does not state or imply, however, that thinking happens “under compulsion”. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Thinking is said to begin involuntarily. Though, the passage doesn’t say that it requires deliberate efforts to be sustained, but that the process can be kept alive by “an interest in the matter in hand”. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It erroneously combines two distinct ideas. While reading is said to “impress a single definite thought upon the mind”, thinking is said to spring from the facts of a situation. Therefore, the number of thoughts involved is not the right criterion for differentiating thinking from reading, as option 3 incorrectly concludes. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage states: “But when a man thinks for himself, he follows the impulse of his own mind, which is determined for him at the time, either by his environment or some particular recollection. The visible world of a man’s surroundings does not, as reading does, impress a single definite thought upon his mind, but merely gives the matter and occasion which lead him to think what is appropriate to his nature and present temper.” Thus, according to the writer, unlike reading where the mind is said to be “under compulsion from without”, thinking is caused by intrinsic impulses. Retain option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: is triggered in the mind by intrinsic impulses which may be outside one’s control. Time taken by you: 185 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 3)According to the writer, most people of learning display little objective thinking because: they go straight to the book of Nature; thinking is their second nature. they are forced into thinking alien thoughts; their mind is under compulsion from without; it is driven to think this or that without any inclination to do so. their thoughts are kindled by themselves, like fire by a draught; they are interested in what they are thinking about. they read other’s thoughts which they cannot fully understand as it is like putting on the clothes which some unknown visitor has laid aside. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is a medium difficulty question.

At the end of the second paragraph, the writer briefly states the reason for men of learning showing little objective thinking as “Objective interest is confined to heads that think by nature; to whom thinking is as natural as breathing; and they are very rare. This is why most men of learning show so little of it.” Simply put, objective thinkers are natural thinkers; thinking is not forced on them, implying that men of learning are neither natural nor objective in their thinking. The difference is further explained in the third paragraph: “What I mean is that reading forces alien thoughts upon the mind — thoughts which are as foreign to the drift and temper in which it may be for the moment, as the seal is to the wax on which it stamps its imprint. The mind is thus entirely under compulsion from without; it is driven to think this or that, though for the moment it may not have the slightest impulse or inclination to do so.” In short, reading makes thinking artificial or unnatural; as a result, men of learning are less objective in their thinking. Option 1 is incorrect. It describes natural thinkers, and hence, is contrary to what the question calls on. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. It summarizes the description of the thinking of men of learning as given in the third paragraph. And it is unlike that of thinkers or men of genius (whose heads, objective thinking is confined to) to whom thinking is as natural as breathing. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 also describes natural thinkers. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 is a comment on how original the thinking of men of learning is. It is not the reason, advanced in the passage, for them being less objective in their thinking. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: they are forced into thinking alien thoughts; their mind is under compulsion from without; it is driven to think this or that without any inclination to do so. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 % 4)The passage supports the following inferences EXCEPT: A person who is given to only reading tends to be rigid in his attitude. No man can understand the thoughts of another man fully and wholly. A mind that is given to reading and a mind that is given to thinking are fundamentally different. Reading is not a substitute for thoughts of one’s own. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage supports inference 1. The fourth paragraph states that “much reading deprives the mind of all elasticity; it is like keeping a spring continually under pressure.” Hence, reading makes one rigid and inflexible. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In the fifth paragraph the writer says, “if a man’s thoughts are to have truth and life in them, they must, after all, be his own fundamental thoughts; for these are the only ones that he can fully and wholly understand.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The difference is pointed out in the third paragraph. “It is incredible what a different effect is produced upon the mind by thinking for oneself, as compared with reading. It carries on and intensifies that original difference in the nature of two minds which leads the one to think and the other to read.“ Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It is contrary to the passage and is, thus, the exception we are looking for. The sixth paragraph begins thus: “Reading is nothing more than a substitute for thought of one’s own. ” Hence, option 4 is contrary to the passage. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Reading is not a substitute for thoughts of one’s own. Time taken by you: 193 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 44 % 5)On what occasion is reading recommended by the writer of the passage? When thoughts are neither helpful nor useful When we are unable to think for ourselves. When thoughts emerge without being intended. When one becomes free of any thought Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The writer makes various comparisons between reading and thinking in the latter part of the passage and clearly finds reading to be an inferior process to thinking. He sees reading as something lifeless / unanimated, whereas thinking is viewed as lively / dynamic. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer does not comment on the usefulness or helpfulness of thoughts but sees the process of thinking itself as useful. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. Refer the penultimate paragraph: “A man should read only when his own thoughts stagnate at their source, which will happen often enough even with the best of minds.” Option 2 talks about a situation when we are unable to think for ourselves which is the same as stagnation of thoughts at their source. Therefore, retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage states that thinking happens on impulse and in reaction to a situation. So, option 3 is incorrect when it suggests that reading should occur when thoughts emerge without being intended or naturally. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer mentions stagnation of thoughts, and not absence of thoughts, as the ideal condition to read. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: When we are unable to think for ourselves. Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 49 % 6) When the writer describes reading thus, ‘… as the seal is to the wax on which it stamps its imprint,” (Paragraph 3), he means: ideas that originate from our thinking leave their everlasting impact on our minds. reading is like a seal and thoughts are like the wax; reading has an impact on our thinking. ideas which are foreign to the mind get imposed on the mind and leave their effect on the mind. a seal is rigid, so is reading. Wax is malleable, so is thinking. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The third paragraph states, “It is incredible what a different effect is produced upon the mind by thinking for oneself, as compared with reading. … What I mean is that reading forces alien thoughts upon the mind — as the seal is to the wax on which it stamps its imprint. The mind is thus entirely under compulsion from without; it is driven to think this or that, though for the moment it may not have the slightest impulse or inclination to do so.” From this, it can be inferred that the analogy of the seal and the wax has been used in order to emphasize how, in Reading, the mind comes under the influence of external agencies (ideas/thoughts) which leave lasting impact even when the mind is not prepared

for such an imprint of ideas. Option 1 is incorrect. The option speaks about thinking, while the question concerns reading. These are not ideas originating from our thinking as given in the option – the ideas are external and are forced upon the mind. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The analogy is misread in option 2. The fact that alien thoughts are forced upon the unsuspecting mind does not come across in option 2. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Through the analogy, the writer most likely means the unwanted imprint of ideas that reading can leave on our mind when we do not have the slightest impulse or inclination for it. This idea is explained in option 3. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 is unrelated to the example of wax and seal that speaks of the external influence exerted by reading when the mind is unprepared for it. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: ideas which are foreign to the mind get imposed on the mind and leave their effect on the mind.

Time taken by you: 122 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question.

Empathy is an act of imagination and will. It demands that we try to see the world from another person’s point of view. It is not the same thing as merely looking at or consuming another person’s experience when it is posted online. That feeling is more akin to sympathy or pity than empathy. Empathy is also grounded in our physical bodies — observations of others’ movements and facial expressions. “When we see a stroke aimed, and just ready to fall upon the leg or arm of another person, we naturally shrink and draw back our own leg or our own arm; and when it does fall, we feel it in some measure, and are hurt by it as well as the sufferer,” Adam Smith wrote. Today we practice a cunningly efficient form of “click-here” empathy. One-click charity and other fundraising platforms such as Kickstarter have raised a lot of money for many good causes. But we should acknowledge that our use of these different technologies fosters different levels of emotional engagement, just as reading a novel will generate more empathy than reading a single tweet from a stranger. Going to a homeless shelter or other charity organization and spending time, face to face, talking with and helping the people who stay there is a way of practicing empathy that no amount of Facebook Likes or retweets can cover. A study published in 2011 found that “college kids today are about 40 percent lower in empathy than their counterparts 20 or 30 years ago,” and that the steepest decline had occurred over the preceding decade. One of the reasons for this sharp drop, the researchers said, was the rise of technologically mediated relationships. “The ease of having ‘friends’ online might make people more likely to just tune out when they don’t feel like responding to others’ problems, a behaviour that could carry over offline,” one noted. Technology doesn’t just do thingsforus. Our prolonged use of it does thingstous. Acknowledging this isn’t a form of technophobic moral panic. It keeps us honest about whether or not the technologies we love to use are helpful or harmful, and in what ways. As for thoughtfulness, do our heavily mediated lives distance us from the emotional impact of our actions? In caring professions such as nursing, there’s some evidence that this is the case. In 2012, four students in a college nursing program in Kansas thought it would be funny to post pictures on Facebook of themselves holding a human placenta. All four students were expelled but later reinstated. In California, two nurses were disciplined for posting images on Facebook of a dying man in their care. These nurses and nursing students obviously violated their patients’ privacy, and most nurses are not posting highlights of their patients’ emergency room visits online, but it is worth examining the environment and culture in which nurses have been trained for clues to the behavior of these outliers. The nursing literature includes an increasing number of articles admonishing nurses to be cautious in their use of social media. In recent years, nursing schools have begun substituting simulations for the real-life clinical experiences nurses used to receive during their training. Rather than tend to real patients, nursing students use video games, screen-based simulations, and in some cases sophisticated medical manikins, to hone their skills. Massachusetts General Hospital in Boston has a “Sim Man,” as well as simulated birthing and simulated infant training centers, for example. As more and more nursing students spend more time with simulators and less with real human patients, however, we need to assess the impact such training has on their ability to empathize. The real-life sick and wounded are people who squirm and smell and yell and are rarely entirely hairless. 1) The central idea of the passage is that: new technologies have reduced empathy and thoughtfulness in children and adults and it is better that we reduce the time we spend engaging with the same. we will be better served if we become aware of the way in which new technology is affecting our ability to be empathetic and thoughtful. new technologies are as much doing things to us as they are doing things for us and it is only a matter of time before the former trumps the latter. new technologies, especially those used for training in the caring professions, have eroded our ability to be empathetic and thoughtful towards others. 2) The author cites the example of the change in nursing schools’ training methods in order to… show how ceasing to deal with flesh and blood people during training can make nurses less sensitive towards their patients’ condition and rights. advocate the need to revert to older forms of training since the current ones are causing a decrease in nurses’ empathy. demonstrate how changes in technology, such as the Sim Man, while seemingly advanced, can have retrograde effects. highlight the decreasing empathy levels of current nursing school graduates. 3) In the third paragraph, the phrase “a behavior that could carry over offline,” suggests that college kids might find offline meetings more cumbersome in comparison to online meetings college kids might be rude and insolent to their friends during face-to-face meetings college kids might not be interested in meeting people face-to-face anymore. college kids might not actively listen to their friends during face-to-face meetings 4) According to the passage, why is “empathy an act of imagination and will”? Empathy demands that we try to understand another person’s point of view. Empathy demands that we disregard our position and assume another person’s point of view.

Empathy demands that physically and mentally we become another person. Empathy arises when we look at or consume the experience of another person. 5)The passage cites the behavior of four nursing students in Kansas as evidence of which of the following? How students in general are much lower in empathy than their counterparts in the past. How substitution of simulations for real-life clinical experiences have impacted nurses’ online behavior. How patients’ privacy is being frequently violated by nurses owing to the prevalence of social media. How our online or virtual lives have made us indifferent to the emotional impact of our actions. 6) Though the writer disapproves of online lives and mediated relationships, he is likely to approve of which of the following? An apparently ‘cunningly efficient form of “one-click” charity.’ Not responding to an online friend, who appears to be in trouble. Screen based simulations and sophisticated manikins to help a doctor understand complex illnesses. Being a part of several online communities, and developing close friendships or intimate relationships with a lot of individuals.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Empathy is an act of imagination and will. It demands that we try to see the world from another person’s point of view. It is not the same thing as merely looking at or consuming another person’s experience when it is posted online. That feeling is more akin to sympathy or pity than empathy. Empathy is also grounded in our physical bodies — observations of others’ movements and facial expressions. “When we see a stroke aimed, and just ready to fall upon the leg or arm of another person, we naturally shrink and draw back our own leg or our own arm; and when it does fall, we feel it in some measure, and are hurt by it as well as the sufferer,” Adam Smith wrote. Today we practice a cunningly efficient form of “click-here” empathy. One-click charity and other fundraising platforms such as Kickstarter have raised a lot of money for many good causes. But we should acknowledge that our use of these different technologies fosters different levels of emotional engagement, just as reading a novel will generate more empathy than reading a single tweet from a stranger. Going to a homeless shelter or other charity organization and spending time, face to face, talking with and helping the people who stay there is a way of practicing empathy that no amount of Facebook Likes or retweets can cover. A study published in 2011 found that “college kids today are about 40 percent lower in empathy than their counterparts 20 or 30 years ago,” and that the steepest decline had occurred over the preceding decade. One of the reasons for this sharp drop, the researchers said, was the rise of technologically mediated relationships. “The ease of having ‘friends’ online might make people more likely to just tune out when they don’t feel like responding to others’ problems, a behaviour that could carry over offline,” one noted. Technology doesn’t just do thingsforus. Our prolonged use of it does thingstous. Acknowledging this isn’t a form of technophobic moral panic. It keeps us honest about whether or not the technologies we love to use are helpful or harmful, and in what ways. As for thoughtfulness, do our heavily mediated lives distance us from the emotional impact of our actions? In caring professions such as nursing, there’s some evidence that this is the case. In 2012, four students in a college nursing program in Kansas thought it would be funny to post pictures on Facebook of themselves holding a human placenta. All four students were expelled but later reinstated. In California, two nurses were disciplined for posting images on Facebook of a dying man in their care. These nurses and nursing students obviously violated their patients’ privacy, and most nurses are not posting highlights of their patients’ emergency room visits online, but it is worth examining the environment and culture in which nurses have been trained for clues to the behavior of these outliers. The nursing literature includes an increasing number of articles admonishing nurses to be cautious in their use of social media. In recent years, nursing schools have begun substituting simulations for the real-life clinical experiences nurses used to receive during their training. Rather than tend to real patients, nursing students use video games, screen-based simulations, and in some

cases sophisticated medical manikins, to hone their skills. Massachusetts General Hospital in Boston has a “Sim Man,” as well as simulated birthing and simulated infant training centers, for example. As more and more nursing students spend more time with simulators and less with real human patients, however, we need to assess the impact such training has on their ability to empathize. The real-life sick and wounded are people who squirm and smell and yell and are rarely entirely hairless. 1) The central idea of the passage is that: new technologies have reduced empathy and thoughtfulness in children and adults and it is better that we reduce the time we spend engaging with the same. we will be better served if we become aware of the way in which new technology is affecting our ability to be empathetic and thoughtful. new technologies are as much doing things to us as they are doing things for us and it is only a matter of time before the former trumps the latter. new technologies, especially those used for training in the caring professions, have eroded our ability to be empathetic and thoughtful towards others. 2) The author cites the example of the change in nursing schools’ training methods in order to… show how ceasing to deal with flesh and blood people during training can make nurses less sensitive towards their patients’ condition and rights. advocate the need to revert to older forms of training since the current ones are causing a decrease in nurses’ empathy. demonstrate how changes in technology, such as the Sim Man, while seemingly advanced, can have retrograde effects. highlight the decreasing empathy levels of current nursing school graduates. 3) In the third paragraph, the phrase “a behavior that could carry over offline,” suggests that college kids might find offline meetings more cumbersome in comparison to online meetings college kids might be rude and insolent to their friends during face-to-face meetings college kids might not be interested in meeting people face-to-face anymore. college kids might not actively listen to their friends during face-to-face meetings 4) According to the passage, why is “empathy an act of imagination and will”? Empathy demands that we try to understand another person’s point of view. Empathy demands that we disregard our position and assume another person’s point of view. Empathy demands that physically and mentally we become another person. Empathy arises when we look at or consume the experience of another person. 5)The passage cites the behavior of four nursing students in Kansas as evidence of which of the following? How students in general are much lower in empathy than their counterparts in the past. How substitution of simulations for real-life clinical experiences have impacted nurses’ online behavior. How patients’ privacy is being frequently violated by nurses owing to the prevalence of social media. How our online or virtual lives have made us indifferent to the emotional impact of our actions. 6) Though the writer disapproves of online lives and mediated relationships, he is likely to approve of which of the following? An apparently ‘cunningly efficient form of “one-click” charity.’ Not responding to an online friend, who appears to be in trouble. Screen based simulations and sophisticated manikins to help a doctor understand complex illnesses. Being a part of several online communities, and developing close friendships or intimate relationships with a lot of individuals.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Why has “relevance” become so prominent as a goal and a de facto accomplishment? The uncertainty and instability that pervade contemporary economic and cultural life must play a role. A static environment in which one’s role and identity are firmly established creates little need to seek recurring reassurance of one’s relevance. But today, clearly delineated paths toward security and accomplishment are rare. Most of us don’t know exactly what the future will require of us. All we can do is hope that we are somehow relevant to whatever is happening. The rise of relevance also speaks to our contemporary need for flexibility. In an age of relevance, to insist on pursuing a passion or a calling irrespective of the vicissitudes of the marketplace smacks of arrogance and naiveté. If you want to stay relevant, you must be willing and able to follow the crowd. Consider the consequences of this perspective for liberal arts education. A STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Math) degree, it is said, does far more than an English or art history degree to offer one “relevance” in an uncertain job market. Even those who would defend the humanities use the language of relevance to do so. In Tamara Pace Thomson’s “The Relevance of the Humanities in a Digital World,” for instance, she concludes by stating that the study of the humanities has brought her “the thrill that comes from heightened focus and the self-discovery that comes from intellectual and aesthetic attention. And I can’t think of anything that is more relevant than that.” The pursuit of relevance blurs the boundaries between two forms of success. The first is the sort pursued by someone like the famous movie star, John Travolta. A sixty-two-year-old actor chases relevance in the form of continued visibility and celebrity. Can he still command top billing on a box-office smash? For a student of the humanities at a non-elite college, the relevance being pursued is, at first blush, far more humble: keeping up with the vagaries of the economy and the job market while making a living and acquiring and exercising an appreciation of literature and art. But in all such cases, the seeker is chasing a center—of the entertainment industry, of the political scene, of the job market—one that moves quickly, changes rapidly, and constantly threatens to leave the frantic pursuer behind. 1)Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to convey? It’s a comparison between the consistency of bygone days and the uncertainty of the present. The pursuit of relevance and flexibility is supplemented by a STEM degree. Current scenario, where relevance and flexibility have become central to any accomplishment. The need to seek recurring reassurance of one’s relevance in liberal arts education. 2)The examples of John Travolta and the student of humanities in the fourth paragraph highlight which of the following? The two forms of success are similar in that both involve chasing after the ever-changing center. ‘Relevance’ matters in all types of accomplishment—from ordinary to grand. In their pursuit of relevance, the two forms of success converge to become one and the same. ‘Relevance’ has always been an indispensable factor in cases where success mattered. 3)The author is likely to consider which of the following as undesirable in the age of ‘relevance’? Following one’s passion without heeding the ever-changing environment. Expecting a situation in which one’s role and identity are firmly established. Assuming that the different kinds of success are similar in their goals. Extending the need for relevance to the domain of liberal arts education.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Why has “relevance” become so prominent as a goal and a de facto accomplishment? The uncertainty and instability that pervade contemporary economic and cultural life must play a role. A static environment in which one’s role and identity are firmly established creates little need to seek recurring reassurance of one’s relevance. But today, clearly delineated paths toward security and accomplishment are rare. Most of us don’t know exactly what the future will require of us. All we can do is hope that we are somehow relevant to whatever is happening. The rise of relevance also speaks to our contemporary need for flexibility. In an age of relevance, to insist on pursuing a passion or a calling irrespective of the vicissitudes of the marketplace smacks of arrogance and naiveté. If you want to stay relevant, you must be willing and able to follow the crowd. Consider the consequences of this perspective for liberal arts education. A STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Math) degree, it is said, does far more than an English or art history degree to offer one “relevance” in an uncertain job market. Even those who would defend the humanities use the language of relevance to do so. In Tamara Pace Thomson’s “The Relevance of the Humanities in a Digital World,” for instance, she concludes by stating that the study of the humanities has brought her “the thrill that comes from heightened focus and the self-discovery that comes from intellectual and aesthetic attention. And I can’t think of anything that is more relevant than that.” The pursuit of relevance blurs the boundaries between two forms of success. The first is the sort pursued by someone like the famous movie star, John Travolta. A sixty-two-year-old actor chases relevance in the form of continued visibility and celebrity. Can he still command top billing on a box-office smash? For a student of the humanities at a non-elite college, the relevance being pursued is, at first blush, far more humble: keeping up with the vagaries of the economy and the job market while making a living and acquiring and exercising an appreciation of literature and art. But in all such cases, the seeker is chasing a center—of the entertainment industry, of the political scene, of the job market—one that moves quickly, changes rapidly, and constantly threatens to leave the frantic pursuer behind. 1)Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to convey? It’s a comparison between the consistency of bygone days and the uncertainty of the present. The pursuit of relevance and flexibility is supplemented by a STEM degree. Current scenario, where relevance and flexibility have become central to any accomplishment. The need to seek recurring reassurance of one’s relevance in liberal arts education. 2)The examples of John Travolta and the student of humanities in the fourth paragraph highlight which of the following? The two forms of success are similar in that both involve chasing after the ever-changing center. ‘Relevance’ matters in all types of accomplishment—from ordinary to grand. In their pursuit of relevance, the two forms of success converge to become one and the same. ‘Relevance’ has always been an indispensable factor in cases where success mattered. 3)The author is likely to consider which of the following as undesirable in the age of ‘relevance’? Following one’s passion without heeding the ever-changing environment. Expecting a situation in which one’s role and identity are firmly established. Assuming that the different kinds of success are similar in their goals. Extending the need for relevance to the domain of liberal arts education.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question.

Roughly a century ago, the eminent thinker and social critic Lewis Mumford argued that the United States had, to that point, endured three major migrations. The first extended the nation westward, across the Appalachians and eventually to the Pacific. The second relocated a pastoral and agrarian population to small factory towns. The third migration, which began around of the turn of the twentieth century, fuelled the growth of great urban metropolises, places defined by enormous manufacturing plants and tenements teeming with immigrants. At that time, much of well-to-do America was worried that cities would prove the nation’s undoing. “Chicago School” sociologists, then part of what was only a nascent academic discipline, feared the spread of what many termed “anomie.” They feared that those raised in urban squalor would emerge a different breed from those reared in the purportedly wholesome rural and small-town environments of nineteenth-century America. Reacting to such concerns, contemporary reformers rushed to establish a range of institutions designed to pull society from the brink of dissolution. Settlement houses proved one of the more benign examples. More malign was Prohibition, a law that, by some measures, was aimed less at proscribing alcohol consumption than forcing recently arrived Irish, German, Italian, and Jewish immigrants—many of them living in cities—to accommodate to the moral pretenses of a more culturally conservative society than the ones these new arrivals had left behind. Beneath the rush to weave them into the fabric of traditional society was a fear that those who failed to find a niche might revolt in support of anarchy. Fortunately, urban America did not devolve into the den of iniquity and decay many had originally feared. What haughty outsiders perceived as tracts of endless blight was actually understood by their occupants to be a collection of coherent neighbourhoods. Residents felt connected to the people living nearby. City dwellers in each collection of blocks tended to send their children to the same schools, shop in the same marketplaces, worship in the same churches or synagogues, and work in the same sweatshops and on the same factory floors. In other words, urban America was organized in much the same way as pastoral America—just in tighter quarters. 1)Which of the following proved to be a flawed preconception regarding urbanisation? That it would lead to ‘urban anonymity’—a crisis where every household is disconnected from its neighbours. That urbanisation would ruin the nation by leading it to anarchy and immorality. That it would create spaces defined by big manufacturing plants and overcrowded tenements. That it would divide the society between natives and city dwellers, gradually giving rise to a new nation itself. 2)What differentiated the organization of urban America from that of rural and small-town environments of nineteenth-century America? City dwellers from each block depended on a common set of establishments— from markets to places of worship. The urban neighbourhood occupied a more compact space in comparison to that of the rural American population. Urban society lacked the usual social and ethical standards that had characterized the American rural population. Due to the efforts of contemporary reformers, the newborn society turned out exactly like the existent American society. 3)What was the root cause behind the rush to merge the new arrivals with the existent population of America? The fear that the migrants would rise in revolt and lead to anarchy if they were not brought to the mainstream. The fear that the arrival of the immigrants would divide America between natives and city dwellers, gradually creating a new nation itself. The fear that the new arrivals would create a new America defined by enormous manufacturing plants and overcrowded tenements. The resolution to accommodate them to the moral pretenses of a more culturally conservative society than the ones they had left behind.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. The separation of fame and merit is one of the central dilemmas that Cowen considers in his account of the modern market economy. He shows how fame is produced, outlines the principles that govern who becomes famous and why, and discusses whether fame-seeking behaviour harmonizes individual and social interests or corrupts social discourse and degrades culture. He identifies the benefits of a fame-intensive society and makes a persuasive case that however bad fame may turn out to be for the famous, it is generally good for

society and culture. In his account of the modern market economy, Cowen, while trying to separate fame and merit, outlines how fame is produced and argues that fame-seeking behaviour, though bad for the famous themselves, is generally good for society and culture. A fame-seeking society has been explored in Cowen’s account of the modern market economy, which looks at fame and merit as sometimes oppositional. Fame is said to be bad for the famous but good for society and culture. One of the central dilemmas in the modern market economies is the separation of fame and merit. Fame-seeking behaviour and fame intensive societies may be bad for the famous, but they are generally good for society and culture. Cowen’s account of the modern market economy looks at whether fame is beneficial or harmful to society. He effectively persuades readers to believe that fame is beneficial to the individual in the over-all analysis. Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. What is the action of insulin on your fat cells? To store that fat. It takes sugar and it stores it as fat. So until your fat cells become resistant you get fat. As people become more and more insulin resistant, their weight goes up and up. But eventually they plateau. They might plateau at 300 pounds, 220 pounds, 150 pounds, but they will eventually plateau as the fat cells protect themselves and become insulin resistant. As all the major tissues, your liver, muscles and fat, become resistant, your pancreas is putting out more insulin to compensate, so you are hyperinsulinemic and you‘ve got insulin floating around all the time. Insulin acts on sugar to store it as fat but fat deposits plateau after the body reaches a certain weight and lose their ability to absorb insulin which causes the body to have excess insulin and become hyperinsulinemic. People’s weight generally keeps increasing till their fat cells become resistant to insulin. After this, the body secretes excess insulin and becomes hyperinsulinemic. The impact of insulin on weight is that weight increases till insulin acts efficiently on sugar to store it as fat and then, when fat cells get resistant to insulin, the body becomes hyperinsulinemic with excess insulin. Insulin’s effects on the body can be seen as a sequence of events where insulin’s ability to create fat is hampered when the fat cells become resistant after a certain point. The other tissues become similarly resistant and the body becomes hyperinsulinemic. Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Popular reactions say that relative to Hindustani music, Carnatic privileges vocal over instrumental music; it foregrounds the composition, and so musicians seemingly devote more energy on accurate reproduction than on improvisation; it encourages the arithmetic aspects of rhythm to overshadow melody; and finally, it has a narrow social base of performers and listeners, which makes it exclusive and excluding. It is said that the organisation of Carnatic music reflected the caste structure of society at large with its segregated occupations and monopolised hereditary transmission in families, clans and castes.

Popularly, Carnatic music is seen to be inferior to Hindustani music because it prioritises on composition, voice and rhythm; it has fewer performers and listeners, and is hereditarily practiced by families, clans and castes, thus reflecting the caste structure of society at large. Unlike Hindustani music, Carnatic music prioritises vocal over instrumental music, rigidly follows compositions and favours rhythm over melody; it is hereditarily passed on in certain families and castes, and has fewer performers and listeners. Following are possible reasons behind the limited popularity of Carnatic music-- compared with Hindustani music, it favours vocal music more; compositions are rigidly followed; prefers rhythmic precision over melody, and advocates the segmentation of caste system. Popular reactions say that relative to Hindustani music, Carnatic music prioritises vocal music and favours rhythm over melody and rigidly follows the composition. It has fewer listeners and its performers are limited to families, clans and castes, similar to caste structure in general. Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Find the sentence that does not fit into the context and enter its number in the space given below. 1. It’s important to realize that learning to play a musical instrument and its specific language is like learning the intricate symbology of math. 2. The foundational patterns must be ingrained before you can begin to be creative. 3. Guitar teachers know intuitively that the path to success and creativity at the guitar is to practice until the foundational patterns are deeply ingrained. 4. The word “rote” has a bad rap in modern-day learning; but the reality is that rote practice or routine practice that keeps the focus on what comes harder for you, plays an important role. 5. When we learn to play an instrument, say, the guitar, it’s obvious that simplyunderstanding how a chord is constructed isn’t the equivalent of being able toplay the chord.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Note that there are two broad ideas that are discussed in these sentences – one is about learning to play a musical instrument; the other is about the importance of practice. Sentence 5 introduces the theme of learning to play an instrument – it says that possessing technical knowledge about how a chord is constructed, though may be necessary initially, does not enable one to play the particular chord. This understanding of “how a chord is constructed” is referred to as mastering the “foundational patterns”, as is mentioned in sentences 2 and 3. Sentences 2 and 3 are, thus, related to sentence 5. Sentences 5 and 3 make a logical pair-- both assert that ‘to learn to play an instrument, simply understanding the foundational patterns is

not enough’. According to them, for success and creativity, these foundational patterns must be internalised through practice. Now, consider the remaining sentences. We can see that sentences 4 and 2 merely repeat the same information; that rote learning or practice is necessary for the foundational patterns to get ingrained in the practitioner and that only after this can there be creativity. Sentence 1 compares the process of learning to play an instrument to that of learning the symbology of mathematics– this comparison is unclear as the similarity is not spelt out in the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 1. Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 12 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Find the sentence that does not fit into the context and enter its number in the space given below. 1. In Melville’s case, this is a curiously circular development as he had been first captivated by Old Hollywood while watching Citizen Kane at a London cinema when stationed there with the Free French Army during the Second World War. 2. Melville was part of a cinematic New Wave that emerged in the 1950s and that eventually came to dominate French and indeed European cinema for decades after. 3. It is no exaggeration to say that this cinematic experience changed the course of Melville’s life. 4. Despite his love of films, it is said that Melville hated the process of making them; and, perhaps inevitably, he fell out with most of those with whom he worked. 5. From the next decade onwards, New Hollywood’s aesthetic space—as seen in such films as Bonnie and Clyde—was to be derived largely from this same movement.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. While looking for the starter sentence of the paragraph, you will note that sentence 2 stands out. Sentence 4 also appears to be a standalone. However, we cannot link any other sentence to sentence 4. But sentence 2 effortlessly flows into sentence 5. Together, they talk about how Melville was a part of the new wave cinema that emerged in the 1950s … and how a decade later the movement came to dominate the new Hollywood’s aesthetic space as well, and eventually, decades later, European cinema as a whole. So, 5-2 is a mandatory pair – the theme, so far, is New Wave cinema and how Melville was a part of it. When we try to relate the remaining three sentences to this theme, we discover another mandatory pair - sentences 1 and 3. “This cinematic experience” is sentence 3 refers to his “watching Citizen Kane at a London cinema when (he was) stationed there with the Free French Army during the Second World War” in sentence 1. Thus, we have two mandatory pairs. 2-5 and 1-3. Sentence 4, however, cannot be related to either of these pairs.

Also, when sentence 1 says, “In Melville’s case, this is a curiously circular development…”, it refers to the development of New Wave cinema in New Hollywood in the 1960s and its domination of European cinema decades later. Hence, the sequence 2-5-1-3 forms a coherent narrative. Sentence 4 talks about certain personal traits of Melville, and is unrelated to the theme. Hence the correct answer is 4. Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 32 %

1. But in the midst of this mentality, is there also a deep longing to be a nurturing caregiver? 2. It’s no secret that millennials are delaying child-bearing and family-rearing more all the time. 3. And if so, do we need to make it a priority to not discourage young people from pursuing marriage? 4. Despite the cultural rejection of children, is there an ingrained desire in young people to love, care for, and nurture something? 5. The cost of college, the pressure of a career, and the supposed desire to maintain a comfortable lifestyle all drive this trend.

Section Video Explanation:

Hence the correct answer is 4. Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 32 %

undefined The five sentences (abeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is abeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Since the humanities do not seem to do anything, why should students bother with it? 2. The question also seems to betray a deficiency in the “soft” skill of thinking to the bottom of things. 3. The standard response to this worry is to stress the practical benefits of studying philosophy, literature, history, and the classics. 4. Young people studying the humanities are under constant pressure to turn their attention to useful pursuits, the pursuits that do something. 5. Students develop “soft” skills like critical thinking, clear and persuasive communication which helps them get jobs, keep jobs, and earn raises and promotions.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. A comparison of the sentences tells us that sentence 2 can be the beginning of the paragraph as it is a general statement about how “millennials are delaying child-bearing and family-rearing more all the time.” If that clue is missed, a more concrete clue is present in sentence 5, which says that “The cost of college, the pressure of a career… all drive this trend.” Since, the only other sentence that mentions the word, “trend” is sentence 2, we can safely conclude that 2-5 is a mandatory pair. When put together, these sentences talk about how the current trend, where millennials are delaying child-bearing and family-rearing, is advanced by factors like ‘the cost of college, the pressure of a career, and the supposed desire to maintain a comfortable lifestyle’. When we try to relate sentences 1, 3, and 4 to this theme, we see that sentences 1 and 4 are about the psychology of millennials that has resulted from their decision to delay child-bearing and family-rearing. Sentence 4 refers to the cultural rejection of children (by millennials) leads to a desire to care for and nurture something. Sentence 1 is also about the persistence of a need to be a caregiver. Thus both these sentences examine the psychological disposition of millennials, in spite of their decision to delay child-bearing and family-rearing. Sentence 3 cannot be related to this narrative. It talks about what “we” or the society, in general, is supposed to do. It mentions “marriage”, which is not the focus of the passage – the passage does not state or imply that the millennials delay marriage. It’s specific about child-bearing and family-rearing. Hence the odd sentence in this set is sentence 3. Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 53 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 26 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. At first glance, either sentence 3 or 4 appears to be the starter. ‘A problem between both groups’ in sentence 1, “in that respect’ in sentence 2, and “they exclude” in sentence 5 make them unfit to be the starter. Comparing sentences 3 and 4, the word “actually”, used for emphasis in sentence 3, signals that ‘modernity’ has been commented upon earlier. So we can be sure that Sentence 4 is the starter of the paragraph. It introduces the topic-- that “intellectuals of very different persuasions relate many of society’s present troubles to “modernity.”’ The next sentence has to be chosen with some deliberation and comparison; sentences 3, 2 and 5 seem to fit. However, in comparison, ‘intellectuals of very different persuasions” is spelt out in sentence 2 as ‘traditionalists and postmodernists’-- the two ends of the spectrum of intellectuals. So 4- 2 is a mandatory pair. So, we get the idea that intellectuals agree that “modernity” is the cause of many of society’s present troubles. This pair would begin the paragraph as well. ‘Both the groups’ mentioned in sentence 1 refers to “traditionalists and postmodernists” of sentence 2. Hence, sentence 2 comes after the 4-2 pair. So, we get the sequence 4-2-1. Sentence 1 points out the approach of these intellectuals; they think that modernity can be reduced to very simple terms ‘as if the modern world were moving in a single general direction’. “Reductionist” means – reducing complex phenomena into simple terms. “They” in sentence 5 again refers to these intellectuals and explains how their reductionist approach works by excluding from the definition whatever is appealing to them and highlighting only the negative aspects. So, 4-2-1-5 is a logical sequence. The paragraph is then concluded by sentence 3 which emphasizes the complexity of the modern world, by stating that “Modernity actually contains opposing potentialities, encompassing, among other things, lingering and evolving ancient beliefs and practices.” So the correct answer is 42153. Correct Answer: 42153 Time taken by you: 60 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined The five sentences (abeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is abeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. It wasn’t until later when I started teaching in New York, that I realized many of the negative impacts that our schools have on students, and the need to expand beyond my classroom. 2. However, once that foundation is built, we must open our doors and inform policies at the local, state, and federal level. 3. As a new teacher, I worried over what I would teach each day, whether they would learn something in my class which would impact them enough to propel them toward success. 4. This is how we make a more lasting impact on our profession, our school systems, and the students we serve. 5. Those early years in my career, when I only focused on my classroom, were a luxury, one we should afford all new teachers.

Section Video Explanation:

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Sentences 2 and 5 can be considered for the starter. However, we cannot be too certain about whether sentence 5 or sentence 2 should start the paragraph. Hence, we can try to discover a mandatory pair. Sentence 4 explains how firms are communist because it owns all the assets and organizes production through central planning – just like in a communist system. Sentence 1 explains how companies are dictatorships because employers fire workers for any or no reason. So, sentence 2 which says “most companies operate like communist dictatorships,” ought to be placed before sentences 4 and 1 (in that order). The term ‘communist leadership’ is more coherent if ‘communist’ is explained first and then dictatorship. So, we can be sure that 241 is the correct sequence for these three sentences. The remaining two sentences 5 and 3 need to be placed after careful deliberation. We can consider sentence 3 at the start and sentence 5 at the end. Alternatively, we can consider sentence 5 at the start and sentence 3 at the end. In other words the scoring sequence could be either 32415 or 52413, since 241 is an unbreakable sequence. If you compare well, it is not difficult to see that 241 is an explanation of the remark “that modern work place is a place of coercion” as stated in sentence 5 – because most companies are like communist dictatorships; in other words 5-2-4-1 is a better order than the 3-2-4-1. And, “the infringements and invasions that are daily parts of modern work…” in sentence 3 is best placed after 241-- after the ‘infringements’ are spelt out, in 241. Hence the scoring option is 52413.

Correct Answer: 52413 Time taken by you: 34 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Four athletes A, B, C and D are evaluated on four different parameters – Strength, Agility, Intelligence and Temperament. Further it is known that: I. Each athlete was given a score, which was an integer between 4 and 10 (both inclusive) on every parameter. II.

The sequence of the athletes, when arranged in descending order of the scores received in Strength was A, B, C and D.

III.

The sequence of the athletes, when arranged in descending order of the scores received in Agility was B, D, C and A.

IV.

The sequence of the athletes, when arranged in descending order of the scores received in Intelligence was C, A, D and B.

The sequence of the athletes, when arranged in descending order of the scores received in Temperament was D, B, A and C.

VI.

A did not get 9 in any of the parameters while C got 9 in exactly one parameter.

VII. The average scoresof the four athletes in the parameters Strength, Agility, Intelligence and Temperament were 7, 8, 6 and 8 respectively. VIII. No athlete scored equal on any two of the four parameters. Similarly no two athletes scored equal on any of the four parameters. 1) Which of the following athletes did not score 10 on 10 in any of the given parameters? Only C Only D Both D and C Neither D nor C Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement VI, C got 9 in exactly one parameter, this has to be intelligence. Total score in Intelligence = 6 × 4 = 24. So A, D and B together scored 15 in Intelligence. There is only one possibility of distribution of score 15 among three people without the repetition; i.e. (6, 5 and 4). So in Intelligence, C got 9, A got 6, D got 5 and B got 4. Total score in Agility = 8 × 4 = 32. Total score in Temperament was also 32. Score 32 can be distributed in 2 ways; i.e. (10, 9, 8, 5) or (10, 9, 7, 6). In Agility A’s score was the lowest. As A’s score in Intelligence was 6, he must have scored 5 in Agility. So in Agility, B got 10, D got 9, C got 8 and A got 5. Therefore, in Temperament, D got 10, B got 9, A got either 7 or 8 and C got 6 or 5. Total score in Strength = 7 × 4 = 28. D has scored least. His score cannot be 5. Therefore, score 28 can be distributed in following ways (9, 8, 7, 4), (10, 9, 5, 4), (10, 8, 6, 4) From statement VI, (9, 8, 7, 4) is not valid distribution. As B scored 9 points (10, 9, 5, 4) is also not a valid combination. Therefore, in Strength, A got 10, B got 8, C got 6, D got 4. Thus, in Temperament, D got 10, B got 9, A got 8 and C got 5.

Only C did not score 10 on 10 in any of the given parameters. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Only C

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 591 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 88 % 2) Score of A in all four parameters put together is: (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Total score of A = 10 + 5 + 6 + 8 = 29. Therefore, the required answer is 29.

Correct Answer: 29

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 % 3) How many athletes received a score of 7 on 10 in any of the given parameters? (Write 5 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

It can be seen that no athlete scored 7 in any parameter. Therefore, the required answer is 0.

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 34 % 4) Score of D in all four parameters put together is: (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Total score of D = 4 + 9 + 5 + 10 = 28. Therefore, the required answer is 28.

Correct Answer: 28

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the Vasant Kunj locality of Delhi, there are five multiplexes – P, Q, R, S and T. The following bar – chart provides information about the number of seats in the given five multiplexes.

The price (in Rs) per head of each multiplex (not necessarily in the same order as above) is given below:

Assume that for any movie show, each multiplex is fully occupied. Total revenue per movie show for a multiplex of any type = Number of seats x Price per head. Further, it is known that for a single movie show: I. The total revenue collected from multiplex Q is more than that from multiplex S. The total revenue collected from multiplex P is more than that from multiplex T. II. The absolute difference between the price per head of multiplex Q and that of multiplex T is Rs. 200. III. The total revenue collected from each multiplex is distinct and more than Rs. 10,000. IV. The total capacity of multiplex R is not 25 and the total revenue collected from multiplex S is not the least. V. The price per head of multiplex R is Rs. 700 and the total revenue collected from multiplex S is not Rs. 15,000. 1) Which multiplex gives the second highest revenue per movie show? P Q R S Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘Number of Seats’ by ‘N’ and ‘Price per Head’ by ‘P’. From statement III, N × P > 10000 ? (N, P) cannot be (25, 250), (25, 300), (30, 250), (30, 300) and (40, 250). Also from statement IV and V, (25, 700) is not a possibility. Therefore, it can be concluded that the either (25, 500) or (25, 600). So, the revenue of the multiplex with capacity of 25 seats is either Rs. 12,500 or Rs. 15,000. From statement II, price per head of multiplex Q and T is Rs. 300 and Rs. 500 in some order, as price per head of multiplex R is Rs. 700. Therefore, the price of S and P is Rs. 250 and Rs. 600 not necessarily in the same order. From statement IV and V, minimum revenue of multiplex R is Rs. 21,000. Now, from statements I and IV, it can be concluded that the revenue collected from multiplex T is the least. If the price per head in multiplex S is Rs. 600; then minimum revenue from the multiplex S must be Rs. 18,000 (from statement V). Therefore, the price per head in multiplex Q has to be Rs. 500 and minimum revenue Rs. 20,000. In this case no multiplex will have the capacity of 25. Thus, this case is not possible. The price per head in multiplex S has to be Rs. 250 and the capacity has to be 50, since its revenue is not Rs. 15,000. So following can be concluded: Revenue collected from multiplex S = Rs. 12,500 (Price per head = Rs. 250 and capacity = 50). Revenue collected from multiplex T = Rs. 12,000 (Price per head = Rs. 300 and capacity = 40). Revenue collected from multiplex P = Rs. 15,000 (Price per head = Rs. 600 and capacity = 25). Revenue collected from multiplex Q = Rs. 30,000 (Price per head = Rs. 500 and capacity = 60). Revenue collected from multiplex R = Rs. 21,000 (Price per head = Rs. 700 and capacity = 30).

Multiplex R gives the second highest revenue. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: R

Time taken by you: 515 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 471 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 % 2) What is the capacity of multiplex Q? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘cannot be determined’.) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘Number of Seats’ by ‘N’ and ‘Price per Head’ by ‘P’. From statement III, N × P > 10000? (N, P) cannot be (25, 250), (25, 300), (30, 250), (30, 300) and (40, 250). Also from statement IV and V, (25, 700) is not a possibility. Therefore, it can be concluded that the either (25, 500) or (25, 600). So, the revenue of the multiplex with capacity of 25 seats is either Rs. 12,500 or Rs. 15,000. From statement II, price per head of multiplex Q and T is Rs. 300 and Rs. 500 in some order, as price per head of multiplex R is Rs. 700. Therefore, the price of S and P is Rs. 250 and Rs. 600 not necessarily in the same order. From statement IV and V, minimum revenue of multiplex R is Rs. 21,000. Now, from statements I and IV, it can be concluded that the revenue collected from multiplex T is the least. If the price per head in multiplex S is Rs. 600; then minimum revenue from the multiplex S must be Rs. 18,000 (from statement V). Therefore, the price per head in multiplex Q has to be Rs. 500 and minimum revenue Rs. 20,000. In this case no multiplex will have the capacity of 25. Thus, this case is not possible. The price per head in multiplex S has to be Rs. 250 and the capacity has to be 50, since its revenue is not Rs. 15,000. So following can be concluded: Revenue collected from multiplex S = Rs. 12,500 (Price per head = Rs. 250 and capacity = 50). Revenue collected from multiplex T = Rs. 12,000 (Price per head = Rs. 300 and capacity = 40). Revenue collected from multiplex P = Rs. 15,000 (Price per head = Rs. 600 and capacity = 25). Revenue collected from multiplex Q = Rs. 30,000 (Price per head = Rs. 500 and capacity = 60). Revenue collected from multiplex R = Rs. 21,000 (Price per head = Rs. 700 and capacity = 30).

Capacity of multiplex Q is 60 seats. Therefore, the required answer is 60.

Correct Answer: 60

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 3) What is the difference (in Rs.) between the total revenue collected per movie show from multiplex S and T? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘cannot be determined’.) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘Number of Seats’ by ‘N’ and ‘Price per Head’ by ‘P’. From statement III, N × P > 10000? (N, P) cannot be (25, 250), (25, 300), (30, 250), (30, 300) and (40, 250). Also from statement IV and V, (25, 700) is not a possibility. Therefore, it can be concluded that the either (25, 500) or (25, 600). So, the revenue of the multiplex with capacity of 25 seats is either Rs. 12,500 or Rs. 15,000. From statement II, price per head of multiplex Q and T is Rs. 300 and Rs. 500 in some order, as price per head of multiplex R is Rs. 700. Therefore, the price of S and P is Rs. 250 and Rs. 600 not necessarily in the same order. From statement IV and V, minimum revenue of multiplex R is Rs. 21,000. Now, from statements I and IV, it can be concluded that the revenue collected from multiplex T is the least. If the price per head in multiplex S is Rs. 600; then minimum revenue from the multiplex S must be Rs. 18,000 (from statement V). Therefore, the price per head in multiplex Q has to be Rs. 500 and minimum revenue Rs. 20,000. In this case no multiplex will have the capacity of 25. Thus, this case is not possible. The price per head in multiplex S has to be Rs. 250 and the capacity has to be 50, since its revenue is not Rs. 15,000. So following can be concluded: Revenue collected from multiplex S = Rs. 12,500 (Price per head = Rs. 250 and capacity = 50). Revenue collected from multiplex T = Rs. 12,000 (Price per head = Rs. 300 and capacity = 40). Revenue collected from multiplex P = Rs. 15,000 (Price per head = Rs. 600 and capacity = 25). Revenue collected from multiplex Q = Rs. 30,000 (Price per head = Rs. 500 and capacity = 60). Revenue collected from multiplex R = Rs. 21,000 (Price per head = Rs. 700 and capacity = 30).

Total revenue collected per movie show from multiplex S is Rs. 12,500 and that from multiplex T is Rs. 12,000. The difference between the revenues = Rs. 500 Therefore, the required answer is 500.

Correct Answer: 500

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 16 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 45 % 4) What is the total revenue (in Rs.) collected per movie show from multiplex P? Rs. 24,000 Rs. 18,000 Rs. 25,000 Rs. 15,000 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘Number of Seats’ by ‘N’ and ‘Price per Head’ by ‘P’. From statement III, N × P > 10000? (N, P) cannot be (25, 250), (25, 300), (30, 250), (30, 300) and (40, 250). Also from statement IV and V, (25, 700) is not a possibility. Therefore, it can be concluded that the either (25, 500) or (25, 600). So, the revenue of the multiplex with capacity of 25 seats is either Rs. 12,500 or Rs. 15,000. From statement II, price per head of multiplex Q and T is Rs. 300 and Rs. 500 in some order, as price per head of multiplex R is Rs. 700. Therefore, the price of S and P is Rs. 250 and Rs. 600 not necessarily in the same order. From statement IV and V, minimum revenue of multiplex R is Rs. 21,000. Now, from statements I and IV, it can be concluded that the revenue collected from multiplex T is the least. If the price per head in multiplex S is Rs. 600; then minimum revenue from the multiplex S must be Rs. 18,000 (from statement V). Therefore, the price per head in multiplex Q has to be Rs. 500 and minimum revenue Rs. 20,000. In this case no multiplex will have the capacity of 25. Thus, this case is not possible. The price per head in multiplex S has to be Rs. 250 and the capacity has to be 50, since its revenue is not Rs. 15,000. So following can be concluded: Revenue collected from multiplex S = Rs. 12,500 (Price per head = Rs. 250 and capacity = 50). Revenue collected from multiplex T = Rs. 12,000 (Price per head = Rs. 300 and capacity = 40). Revenue collected from multiplex P = Rs. 15,000 (Price per head = Rs. 600 and capacity = 25). Revenue collected from multiplex Q = Rs. 30,000 (Price per head = Rs. 500 and capacity = 60). Revenue collected from multiplex R = Rs. 21,000 (Price per head = Rs. 700 and capacity = 30).

Total revenue collected per movie show from multiplex P is Rs. 15,000. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Rs. 15,000

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The Champions Trophy is a Cricket tournament played among the top 6 teams – India, Australia, Pakistan, New Zealand, Sri Lanka and South Africa. The tournament has two rounds. Each team plays with every other team exactly once in each round. The second round begins only after each team has played every other team exactly once in the first round. A team gets 3 points for every win, 1 point for every no result and 0 points for every loss. The teams are arranged in the descending order of points at the end of the two rounds. In case of tie for deciding the ranks between two

or among more than two teams, the ranks are decided by taking out a lucky draw. In the semifinals, the team ranked first plays the team ranked fourth, while the team ranked second plays the team ranked third. The two teams that win the semifinals play each other in the finals. The points table at an intermediate stage after round-1 of the tournament is as given below:

Additional information regarding the tournament is as follows, 1. India won against all the other teams exactly once up to this point. 2. In the semifinals and the finals, it is called an ‘Upset’ if a team defeats another team which is placed higher than them in the points table at the end of the two rounds. 3. All the matches after this point in the tournament produced a result. 1) In the seven matches played so far, Australia won against all the other teams except: South Africa New Zealand Sri Lanka None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Round-1 is over so everyone has played against each other at least once. Since India has played 3 extra matches, they must be against Australia, South Africa and Sri Lanka. South Africa and Australia must play against each other twice. South Africa has three matches which did not produce a result, they must be against India, Sri Lanka and New Zealand. South Africa loses only one match, against India, therefore it must have won both matches played against Australia. Based on the following information, we can prepare the win-loss chart as follows:

Note: Consider the cell in row India and column Pakistan. ‘W/-’ means India won one match against Pakistan. The second match was not played at this stage. Australia could not win against South Africa as seen in the table. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: South Africa Time taken by you: 53 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 367 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2)If New Zealand wins all their remaining matches, which team definitely cannot qualify for the semi-finals? Sri Lanka Pakistan Australia No such team Video Explanation:

Explanation:

If New Zealand wins all their remaining matches, the points table will look like this.

At this point, New Zealand and India would definitely quality for the semi-finals. At this point, Pakistan has zero points. If there is one team with highest probability of not qualifying for semi-finals, it is Pakistan. Let us check if Pakistan can still qualify for the semifinals. For that to happen, Pakistan must win all the remaining matches. If Pakistan wins all the remaining for matches, at that stage, the table will look as follows:

The two matches are remaining. They are Sri Lanka Vs. South Africa and Sri Lanka Vs. Australia. If Sri Lanka wins both matches, Sri Lanka will have 16 points and will definitely qualify for the semi-finals. Pakistan, South Africa and Australia will have 12 points each. They all can possibly qualify for the semi-finals through a lucky draw. Therefore there is no team that definitely can’t qualify for the semi-finals. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer:

No such team

Time taken by you: 244 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 24 % 3) If Pakistan wins all their remaining matches and South Africa wins all their remaining matches, except the one against Pakistan, consider the following statements. 1. If Australia wins against Sri Lanka, in the second round we will have sufficient information to determine all the four semi-finalists. 2. If Sri Lanka wins both their remaining matches in the second round, we will have sufficient information to determine all the four semifinalists. 3. New Zealand definitely cannot qualify for the semi-finals. Which statement(s) definitely is/are true? Statements 1 and 2 only Statement 1 only Statement 2 only Statements 1 and 3 only 4) In addition to the data provided in the previous question, if it is known that India finishes the two rounds stage in the third position, how many of the following statements are definitely true? 1. India wins the Champions Trophy only if there is only one upset in the tournament. 2. If Australia wins the Champions Trophy, they must have won at least four consecutive matches. 3. Sri Lanka can win the Champions Trophy only if there are two upsets in the tournament. 4. Pakistan can win the Champions Trophy only if there are at least two upsets in the tournament. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Boston, Dallas, Denver, Seattle, Juneau, Chicago and Hilo are the seven most important cities in a country. The following table shows the distance between the pairs of the cities in km.

When it is 6:00 pm in India, following are the times in six of the seven cities:

The following points are known: I. Planes fly between all the pairs of the seven cities in both directions at a constant speed of 400 kmph. The planes fly in a straight line. II. At some locations, there is a steady flow of wind at 100 kmph. The direction of the wind flow can vary from a place to place. III. If city A is to the east of city B, the time at city A is ahead of the time at city B. IV. Unless otherwise stated, the times mentioned in the questions are local times. 1) Three planes A, B and C take off at the same time. Plane A starts from Denver for Boston. Plane B starts from Boston for Denver. Plane C starts from city X to city Y. Exactly 15 minutes after planes A and B cross each other, plane C is less than 100 km away from its destination, city Y. Which of the following can be city Y, if it is known that planes A and C fly in the same direction as wind while plane B flies in the direction opposite to that of the wind? Dallas Seattle Hilo Boston

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Therefore the cities from West to East in that order are Denver, Juneau, Dallas, Seattle, Hilo and Boston.

? The distance between cities X and Y is between 1750 km and (1750 + 100 =) 1850 km ? The only pair of cities that are separated by a distance of 1750 – 1850 km is Juneau and Dallas. Since Dallas is located to the east of Juneau, the city Y is Dallas. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Dallas

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 297 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 % 2)If there is a steady wind flow from Dallas to Seattle, how much time (in minutes) will a plane from Seattle to Dallas take to reach Dallas after crossing the plane in the reverse direction (i.e. from Dallas to Seattle) if the planes flying in either direction start at the same time? 300 350 400 250 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Therefore the cities from West to East in that order are Denver, Juneau, Dallas, Seattle, Hilo and Boston.

Correct Answer: 350 Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 178 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 79 % 3)A plane takes off from Juneau at 7 am and flies to Seattle. The plane halts at Seattle for one hour and returns to Juneau. What time will it land at Juneau in its return journey if it is known that there is a steady flow of wind from Juneau to Seattle throughout? 10.20 am 11.20 am 12.20 pm 1.20 pm Video Explanation: Explanation:

Therefore the cities from West to East in that order are Denver, Juneau, Dallas, Seattle, Hilo and Boston. In the journey from Juneau to Seattle, the plane flies in the direction of wind and in its return journey, it flies against the direction of wind. The distance between Juneau and Seattle = 1000 km. The speed of the plane in the direction of wind = 400 + 100 = 500 kmph The speed of the plane against the direction of wind = 400 – 100 = 300 kmph.

The plane halts at Seattle for 60 minutes or it will return to Juneau after 320 + 60 = 380 minutes. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 1.20 pm Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 % 4) A plane flies from city X for city Y and immediately returns from city Y to city X. There is a steady flow of wind from city X to city Y throughout the flight time of the plane. If the plane takes at least 200 minutes more for its return journey from city Y to city X than it did for its journey from city X to city Y, how many pairs of cities X and Y exist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Four MBA students named A, B, C and D from National Institute of Management Indore and four Engineering students named P, Q, R and S from National Institute of Technology Indore have been chosen to represent the city of Indore in a state-level quiz competition. They form four teams such that each team consists of one MBA student and one Engineering student. The following points are known: 1. The specializations of the MBA students are in Finance, Operations, Marketing and Systems. 2. The specializations of Engineering students are in Mechanical, Computer Science, Civil and Electrical. 3. Among the four MBA students,there are three boys and one girl while among the four Engineering students, there are three girls and one boy. 4. Each team has one boy and one girl. 5. D has specialized in Systems and is not in the same team with R. 6. One boy MBA student is in the same team with Q while one other boy MBA student is in the same team with an Engineering student with specialization in Computer Science. 7. One girl Engineering student is in the same team with A while the other girl Engineering student is in the same team with an MBA student with specialization in Systems. 8.

The MBA student with specializing in Finance is in the same team as the Engineering student specializing in Civil.

C is in the same team as the Engineering student specializing in Civil.

10. The MBA student specializing in Marketing is in the same team with Q. 11. The MBA student specializing in Systems is in the same team with the Engineering student specializing in Mechanical. 1) Which of the following statements about the members of a team can be correct? The team consists of the MBA student specializing in Marketing and the Engineering student specializing in Computer Science. The team consists of the MBA student specializing in Operations and the Engineering student specializing in Electrical. C and R are the members of the same team. D and Q are the members of the same team. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using conditions 3, 4, 6 & 10 we get the following:

Using conditions 8 & 11, we get the following:

Combining the two tables, statement 5, 11 and the second part of the point 7 (one girl Engineering student is in the same team as the MBA student specializing in Systems), we get the following:

Now using the first part of the statement 7 and statement 9, the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that C and R can be in the same team. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: C and R are the members of the same team.

Time taken by you: 530 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 551 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) Out of the 8 students (4 MBA students and 4 Engineering students), the specializations of how many students can be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using conditions 3, 4, 6 & 10 we get the following:

Using conditions 8 & 11, we get the following:

Combining the two tables, statement 5, 11 and the second part of the point 7 (one girl Engineering student is in the same team as the MBA student specializing in Systems), we get the following:

Now using the first part of the statement 7 and statement 9, the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that we can uniquely determine the specializations of only D, Q andC. Therefore the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 32 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 % 3) Additional Information: 1. B is a boy and he is in the same team as the Engineering student specializing in Computer Science. 2. P is a boy. Which of the following is correct?

D (the boy specializing in Systems) is in the same team with S (the girl specializing in Mechanical Engineering) A (the girl specializing in Marketing) is in the same team with Q (the boy specializing in Civil Engineering) B (the girl specializing in Operations) is in the same team with P (the boy specializing in Civil Engineering) None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Using conditions 3, 4, 6 & 10 we get the following:

Using conditions 8 & 11, we get the following:

Combining the two tables, statement 5, 11 and the second part of the point 7 (one girl Engineering student is in the same team as the MBA student specializing in Systems), we get the following:

Now using the first part of the statement 7 and statement 9, the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that B is specializing in Operations. Therefore A is specializing in Marketing and C is specializing in Finance. Also, P is specializing in Civil Engineering. The table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that only statement [1] is correct. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: D (the boy specializing in Systems) is in the same team with S (the girl specializing in Mechanical Engineering)

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 % 4) Additional Information: 1. B is a boy and he is in the same team as the Engineering student specializing in Computer Science. 2. P is a boy. The genders as well as specializations of how many of the given 8 students can be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using conditions 3, 4, 6 & 10 we get the following:

Using conditions 8 & 11, we get the following:

Combining the two tables, statement 5, 11 and the second part of the point 7 (one girl Engineering student is in the same team as the MBA student specializing in Systems), we get the following:

Now using the first part of the statement 7 and statement 9, the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that the genders as well as specializations of all the 8 students can be uniquely determined. Therefore the required answer is 8.

Correct Answer: 8

Time taken by you: 143 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 58 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a painting competition, five children Bablu, Chintu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku participated. There were three judges for the competition, named Mr. Prasad, Mr. Mishra and Mr. Srinivasan. Mr. Prasad awarded distinct number of chocolates to each of the five children based on the quality of the paintings of these five children. Mr. Mishra agreed with Mr. Prasad only on the number of chocolates to be awarded to Bablu. Further, Mr. Mishra advised to take Mr. Prasad’s awards as base and exchange the number of chocolates to be given to Chintu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku among themselves such that none of the four had the same number of chocolates, as given by Mr. Prasad. If Mr. Mishra’s advice is followed, then after the exchange: 1. Chintu will have the highest number of chocolates among the five children. 2. Patlu will have the lowest number of chocolates among the five children which is 40 less than what Bablu will have. 3. Tinku and Montu will have 100 and 140 chocolates respectively.

Mr. Srinivasan agreed with Mr. Prasad only on the number of chocolates to be awarded to Chintu. Further, Mr. Srinivasan advised to take Mr. Prasad’s awards as base and exchange the number of chocolates to be given to Bablu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku among themselves such that none of the four had the same number of chocolates, as given by Mr. Prasad. If Mr. Srinivasan’s advice is followed, then after the exchange: 1. Bablu will have the highest number of chocolates among the five children, which is 80 more than what Chintu will have. 2. Montu will have 60 chocolates less than what Bablu will have. 3. Tinku will have 20 chocolates less than what Patlu will have. 1) Total number of chocolates given by Mr. Prasad was_______ 600 580 620 640 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of chocolates with Bablu, Chintu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku be B, C, M, P and T respectively, according to Mr. Prasad’s distribution. As per Mr. Srinivasan’s advise (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), the number of chocolates with Chintu, Bablu and Montu has to be C, (C + 80) and (C + 20) respectively. Also, (C + 80) is the highest number of chocolates with any of the five children. Let the number of chocolates with Patlu and Tinku be X and (X – 20) respectively.

It is clear that highest number of chocolates with any of the five children = (C + 80) As per Mr. Mishra’s advice (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), let the number of chocolates with Bablu and Patlu be B and (B – 40) respectively. Chintu got highest number of chocolates, therefore he would have got (C + 80) Chocolates. Now the following table can be concluded:

As per Mr. Mishra’s advice, (B - 40) is minimum. Consider the distribution as per Mr. Srinivasan’s advice. Either C or (X – 20) is minimum. Therefore, either (B – 40) = (X – 20) i.e., B = (X + 20) or (B – 40) = C

Case (i) B = (X + 20) Now we need to compare B, 140 and 100 (according to Mr. Mishra’s advice) with C, (C + 20) and X (according to Mr. Srinivasan). X can be 140 or 100. If X = 140, B = 160. The minimum value (B – 40) = 120 which is not possible. If X = 100, B = 120, and hence, C = 120 and C + 20 = 140. But, B ? C. This case is also invalid. Case (ii): (B – 40) = C Now we need to compare B, 140 and 100 (according to Mr. Mishra’s advice) with (C + 20), X and (X – 20) (according to Mr. Srinivasan). As (C + 20) cannot be B, C + 20 = 140 or 100 For C + 20 = 140, C = 120 ? B = 160. But then the minimum value (B – 40) = 120 which is not possible. So value of (C + 20) cannot be 140. For C + 20 = 100, C = 80 ? B = 120. Therefore, X – 20 = 120 and X = 140 Therefore, accordingly distribution advised by Mr. Mishra: (120, 160, 140, 80, 100) Distribution advised by Mr. Srinivasan: (160, 80, 100, 140, 120) This is a valid case. Thus, we have

Total number of chocolates given by Mr. Prasad = 120 + 80 + 160 + 100 + 140 = 600 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 600

Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 259 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 % 2) How many fewer chocolates would Tinku get as per Mr. Srinivasan’s distribution than as per Mr. Prasad’s distribution?

40 20 60 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of chocolates with Bablu, Chintu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku be B, C, M, P and T respectively, according to Mr. Prasad’s distribution. As per Mr. Srinivasan’s advise (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), the number of chocolates with Chintu, Bablu and Montu has to be C, (C + 80) and (C + 20) respectively. Also, (C + 80) is the highest number of chocolates with any of the five children. Let the number of chocolates with Patlu and Tinku be X and (X – 20) respectively. It is clear that highest number of chocolates with any of the five children = (C + 80) As per Mr. Mishra’s advice (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), let the number of chocolates with Bablu and Patlu be B and (B – 40) respectively. Chintu got highest number of chocolates, therefore he would have got (C + 80) Chocolates. Now the following table can be concluded:

Case (ii): (B – 40) = C Now we need to compare B, 140 and 100 (according to Mr. Mishra’s advice) with (C + 20), X and (X – 20) (according to Mr. Srinivasan). As (C + 20) cannot be B, C + 20 = 140 or 100 For C + 20 = 140, C = 120 ? B = 160. But then the minimum value (B – 40) = 120 which is not possible. So value of (C + 20) cannot be 140.

For C + 20 = 100, C = 80 ? B = 120. Therefore, X – 20 = 120 and X = 140 Therefore, accordingly distribution advised by Mr. Mishra: (120, 160, 140, 80, 100) Distribution advised by Mr. Srinivasan: (160, 80, 100, 140, 120) This is a valid case. Thus, we have

Tinku would get 120 and 140 chocolates as per Mr. Srinivasan’s distribution and Mr. Prasad’s distribution respectively. The required answer = 140 – 120 = 20 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 20

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 % 3) Consider the following two statements. Statement 1: Tinku would get fewer chocolates as per the distributions of both Mr. Mishra and Mr. Srinivasan than he would get as per Mr. Prasad’s distribution. Statement 2: Montu would get fewer chocolates as per the distributions of both Mr. Mishra and Mr. Srinivasan than he would get as per Mr. Prasad’s distribution.

Which of these statements is/are definitely correct? Only statement 1 Only statement 2 Both statements 1 and 2 Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of chocolates with Bablu, Chintu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku be B, C, M, P and T respectively, according to Mr. Prasad’s distribution. As per Mr. Srinivasan’s advise (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), the number of chocolates with Chintu, Bablu and Montu has to be C, (C + 80) and (C + 20) respectively. Also, (C + 80) is the highest number of chocolates with any of the five children. Let the number of chocolates with Patlu and Tinku be X and (X – 20) respectively. It is clear that highest number of chocolates with any of the five children = (C + 80) As per Mr. Mishra’s advice (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), let the number of chocolates with Bablu and Patlu be B and (B – 40) respectively. Chintu got highest number of chocolates, therefore he would have got (C + 80) Chocolates. Now the following table can be concluded:

Thus, both the statements are correct. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both statements 1 and 2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 % 4) How many chocolates would Patlu get as per Mr. Prasad’s distribution?

120 100 140 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of chocolates with Bablu, Chintu, Montu, Patlu and Tinku be B, C, M, P and T respectively, according to Mr. Prasad’s distribution. As per Mr. Srinivasan’s advise (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), the number of chocolates with Chintu, Bablu and Montu has to be C, (C + 80) and (C + 20) respectively. Also, (C + 80) is the highest number of chocolates with any of the five children. Let the number of chocolates with Patlu and Tinku be X and (X – 20) respectively. It is clear that highest number of chocolates with any of the five children = (C + 80) As per Mr. Mishra’s advice (taking Prasad’s distribution as base), let the number of chocolates with Bablu and Patlu be B and (B – 40) respectively. Chintu got highest number of chocolates, therefore he would have got (C + 80) Chocolates. Now the following table can be concluded:

As per Mr. Prasad’s distribution, Patlu would get 100 chocolates. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 100

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Five persons, named P, Q, R, S and T, out of which three are men and the remaining two are women serve on the board of directors of a company. They are seated around a round table in that order to elect the Managing Director (MD) of the company. The method decided to elect the MD was by voting. None of the five persons voted for himself/herself or for either of the neighbours. The first ballot was a tie i.e. all the five persons received one vote each in their favour. In the second ballot, R voted for T, while all others stuck to their vote in the first ballot, which resulted in a victory for T. In the second ballot, one of the three men did not receive any vote. 1) For how many of the given five persons can we uniquely determine the person they voted for in the first ballot?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us draw a diagram to understand the seating arrangement before solving this question.

We already know that no person voted for himself or either of his/her neighbours.It implies that

Therefore, in the 1 st ballot, R must have voted for P. As all the candidates received 1 vote each, S voted for Q, T voted for R and so on. In the 2nd ballot, all except R stuck to their old choices. We have the following table:

For all the five persons, the person they voted for can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 5.

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 636 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 262 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 2) Who among the given persons is definitely a male? R Q P None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us draw a diagram to understand the seating arrangement before solving this question.

We already know that no person voted for himself or either of his/her neighbours.It implies that

Therefore, T got 2 votes and became the MD. P got 0 votes and is a male. P is definitely a male. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: P

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 3) If the chosen MD was one of the three men and he did not receive any vote from either of the other two men, then consider the following statements: I. The two women are seated next to each other. II. In both ballots, T voted for a man and not for a woman. III. In both ballots, S voted for a woman and not for a man. How many of these statements is/are definitely correct?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us draw a diagram to understand the seating arrangement before solving this question.

We already know that no person voted for himself or either of his/her neighbours.It implies that

Therefore, T got 2 votes and became the MD. P got 0 votes and is a male.

According to the conditions given, T is a male. He received votes from Q and R who are females. Also , T voted for R (i.e., for a female). S voted for Q (i.e., for a female). Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct but 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 25 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 % 4) It is known that the person elected as MD was one of the two women. It is also known that all the three men voted in favour of one of the two women in the second ballot. Who voted for the woman who was not elected as MD?

R S P Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us draw a diagram to understand the seating arrangement before solving this question.

We already know that no person voted for himself or either of his/her neighbours.It implies that

Therefore, T got 2 votes and became the MD. P got 0 votes and is a male.

It is given that T is a female and was voted by Q & R who are males. Therefore, the males are P, Q & R. The females are S & T. P(male) voted for S(female) in the 2 nd ballot. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: P

Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. John, Matthew, Krishnan, Charlie and Rosy are the representatives from five different countries namely Germany, England, Spain, Italy and France, not necessarily in that order. Each of the five mentioned persons speaks exactly of the 3 languages – Chinese, Sinhalese and Japanese. The ages (in years) of the mentioned five persons is 24, 26, 31, 32 and 40, not necessarily in any particular order. Further, it is known that: I. The person who speaks Sinhalese is the oldest among all. II. Matthew is not from Spain and does not speak Chinese. III. The person who speaks Chinese is 31 years old. IV. The absolute difference between the ages of Matthew and Rosy is half the absolute difference between the ages of the persons from Italy and from France. V. There are exactly two persons who speak Chinese and the person from Italy is older than the person from France. 1) If Rosy is the oldest of all these five persons, then which of the following is true? A. Matthew is 32 years old. B. Rosy is from Italy. Only A Only B Both (A) and (B) Neither (A) nor (B) Video Explanation: Explanation: The difference between the ages of Matthew and Rosy is twice the difference between the ages of the persons from Italy and France and the person who is from Italy is older to the person from France. It is also known that Matthew does not speak Chinese, so he cannot be 31 years old. So the following table can be formed:

Given that Rosy is 40 years old. This implies that Rosy is from Italy. This is only possible when Matthew is 32 years old. …. [Refer case (vi)]. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both (A) and (B)

Time taken by you: 583 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 355 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 2) If the persons from Italy and Germany speak Chinese, then what is the sum of the ages of the persons who speak Chinese? 55 years 71 years 63 years 57 years Video Explanation: Explanation: The difference between the ages of Matthew and Rosy is twice the difference between the ages of the persons from Italy and France and the person who is from Italy is older to the person from France. It is also known that Matthew does not speak Chinese, so he cannot be 31 years old. So the following table can be formed:

Given that the one person who speaks Chinese is 31 years old and no person who speaks Chinese is 40 years old. From the table we can see that the person from Italy was either 26 years or 40 years old. So the only possible case is case (iv) when persons who speak Chinese are 26 years and 31 years old. So the sum of the ages of the persons who speak Chinese = (31 + 26) = 57 years. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 57 years

Time taken by you: 31 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 45 % 3) If neither Matthew nor Rosy is from Italy or France, and if the person from France is 26 years old, then what is the age of Matthew? 40 years 24 years 32 years None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: The difference between the ages of Matthew and Rosy is twice the difference between the ages of the persons from Italy and France and the person who is from Italy is older to the person from France. It is also known that Matthew does not speak Chinese, so he cannot be 31 years old. So the following table can be formed:

Case (i) is valid case. In this case, Matthew is 24 years old. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 24 years

Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 % 4) What is the age of the person from France? 24 years 26 years Either 24 or 26 years Neither 24 nor 26 years Video Explanation: Explanation: The difference between the ages of Matthew and Rosy is twice the difference between the ages of the persons from Italy and France and the person who is from Italy is older to the person from France. It is also known that Matthew does not speak Chinese, so he cannot be 31 years old. So the following table can be formed:

The person from France is either 24 or 26 years old. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Either 24 or 26 years

Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

Given that Rosy is 40 years old. This implies that Rosy is from Italy. This is only possible when Matthew is 32 years old. …. [Refer case (vi)]. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both (A) and (B)

Correct Answer: 57 years

Case (i) is valid case. In this case, Matthew is 24 years old. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 24 years

The person from France is either 24 or 26 years old. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Either 24 or 26 years Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined Two circles having radii ‘r’ cm (r > 2) and 2 cm intersect each other such that the center of the larger circle lies on the circumference of the smaller circle. If the common chord of the two circles is the diameter of the smaller circle, what is the area common between the two circles?

Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined A five letter word is formed using the letters P, Q, R, S and T without repetition. No two consecutive letters in the word are in alphabetical order. P is neither the first nor the third letter of the word. T comes after R but before Q. S is the last letter of the word. How many such five letter words are possible?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: S is the last letter of the word. T comes after R but before Q and P is neither the first nor the third letter of the word. Thus, th e possible words could be RPTQS or RTQPS. i.e. two such possible words Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Two ants named A & B started walking simultaneously from a point Q in the same direction along a straight line. The ratio of the speeds of A & B was 3 : 8. Three hours later, B turned back and started walking backwards at one-fourth of its original speed. It met A at a distance of 8 km from the point Q. What was ant A’s original walking speed?

None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 227 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined If the radius of a sphere is increased by 1 mm, its surface area would increase by value (in mm 2 ) as much as its volume would increase by value (in mm3 ). What is the radius of the sphere before increase (in mm)? 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 242 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 172 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined A shopkeeper bought 300 Christmas trees from a wholesaler and sold 100 trees a year for the next three years. In the first year, he marks the price of each tree up by x% over the cost price. But with no business in the first two days, he sold it at a discount of y% on the marked price. He was able to sell 100 trees and earned a revenue of Rs. 36,000 in the first year. In the second year, he marked the price of each tree up by x% over the selling price in the first year, but then again had to sell the 100 trees at a discount of y% over this marked price. He earned a revenue of Rs. 40,000 by selling 100 trees in the second year. If the same story is repeated in the third year, approximately how much revenue will he earn in the third year (in Rs.)? 44,000 44,444 44,400 44,500

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 44,444 Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined In a test with maximum marks 225, Pinki scored 40% more than the pass marks. Teena scored 25% less than Pinki and got 120 marks less than the maximum marks. Babloo scored 80 marks more than the pass marks. How much did Babloo score? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 44,444 Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Given that two of the four roots of the equation 3x 4 + px + q = 0 are 4 and – 3. What is the value of 6p – q? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the maximum andpass marks be ‘m’ and ‘p’ respectively. \ Pinki scored 1.4p. \ Teena scored = 0.75 × 1.4p = 1.05p As Teena scored 120 marks less the maximum marks, Maximum marks = 1.05p + 120 = 225 \ p = 100 Therefore, Babloo scored 100 + 80 = 180 marks Therefore, the required answer is 180. Correct Answer: 180

Time taken by you: 90 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined A solution Alpha contains ethyl, methyl and propyl alcohol in the ratio 7 : 4 : 9 respectively. Another solution Beta contains propyl, methyl and ethyl alcohol in the ratio 5 : 2 : 3 respectively. Solutions Alpha and Beta are mixed in the ratio a : b to obtain another solution Gamma. Delta is formed by mixing Alpha, Beta and Gamma in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2. If the percentage volume of methyl alcohol in solution Delta is 20%, then which of the following can be a value of ‘a’ and ‘b’ in that order? 5 and 2 3 and 1 9 and 4 All of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: All of these Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 155 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined ABCD is a rectangle with AB = 6 units and BC = 2 units. E is the midpoint of BC and F is a point on AB such that DE ⟂ CF. DE and CF meet at G. Find the area of quadrilateral BEGF (in sq. units).

None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

All of these Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 155 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined What is the ratio of area of a regular dodecagon (a polygon with 12 sides) to the area of a regular hexagon if both the polygons are inscribed in the same circle?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined

10 11 12 9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 324 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Five years ago, the ratio of ages of A and B was 1 : 2. Five years hence the same ratio will become 2 : 3. What is the value of the ratio at present? 3:5 5:3 4:3 3:4

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 223 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Find the number of integral values of ‘x’ such that (x2 – 14x + 22) ≤ (x – 4). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3:5

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 %

undefined A right angled triangle ABC has inradius r. Hypotenuse AC is tangent to the incircle at a point Q. If AQ = 5 and CQ = 3 then find r. 4

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 12

Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined The lengths of sides of an obtuse angled triangle are x cm, 2x cm and 5 cm, where x is an integer. How many integer values of x are possible? 1 2 3 4

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Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 53 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 146 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined If a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h + i + j = 100 and a > 1, b > 2, c > 3,…, j > 10, then find the possible number of integer solutions for this equation. 54C

35C

45 C

44 C

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 44 C

Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined If 5a = 6, 6b = 7, 7c = 8 … 24t = 25, then what is the value of a × b × c × d… × s × t? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined The sum of a two-digit number and the number formed by reversing the digits of the number is 45 more than twice the original number. If the sum of the digits of the number is 9, then find the number. 72 36 63 27

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the two digit numberbe (10x + y). ? 10x + y + 10y + x = 45 + 2(10x + y) ? 11x + 11y = 45 + 20x + 2y ? 9y – 9x = 45 ?y–x=5 Given that y + x = 9 On solving, we get that y = 7 and x = 2 Therefore, the number is 27 . Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 27 Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 %

undefined A sum of Rs. Y deposited at a rate of 2Y% per annum which is compounded half-yearly. In two year, the sum triples. What is the value of the sum at the end of six months? 30.5Y 3Y 3 0.25Y 3 0.75Y

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 0.25Y

Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined There is a sequence of terms defined as follows:

There is a sequence of terms defined as follows: T1 = 1, T 2 = 3 + 32 + 3 3 , T 3 = 34 + 35 + 36 + 37 + 38 , T4 = 39 + 310 + 311 + 312 + 313 + 314 + 315 and so on. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of this sequence.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 213 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined

M is a 4-digit number in base 4. If twice of M is a 5-digit number in base 4, how many different value of M are possible? 120 127 128 256

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The smallest 5-digit number in base 4 is (10000) 4 = (256)10 Half of (256)10 = (128)10 = (2000)4 , which is a 4-digit number in base 4. The largest 4-digit number in base 4 is (3333) 4 = (255)10 Twice of (255)10 = (510)10 = (13332)4 , which is a 5-digit number in base 4. ? There are 255 – 128 + 1 = 128 different possible values of M. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 128 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Two persons Virat and Anushka start running simultaneously from a point O on a circular track in the same direction. If the ratio of their speeds is 9 : 1 respectively, then how many times are they diametrically opposite each other before they meet at O for the next time? 7 8 9 Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: By the time Anushka completes one round of the track, Virat completes nine rounds as the ratio of their speeds is 9 : 1. So, Virat meets Anushka 8 times by the time Anushka completes 1 round (the ninth meeting point is O). So, before each meeting they will be diametrically opposite to each other exactly once. Hence, before they meet each other for the first time (at point O) they are diametrically opposite to each other on eight occasions. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 8 Time taken by you: 274 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined A coin of diameter ‘d’ is tossed which lands on a floor covered with square tiles of side ‘a’. What is the probability that the coin will fall completely within a single tile? Assume that the probability of coin falling on any tile is the same and a > d.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined A three digit number has exactly 6 divisors out of which one is 2. The number is less than 1000. Find the sum of all the divisors of the largest possible number?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The number has 6 divisors. 25 = 32 has 6 divisors but it is not a three digit number. So it is either in the form 2 1 × m 2 or 2 2 × m 1 , where m is a prime

number. 2 and m are co-prime. The largest number of the form 2 1 × m 2 and under 1000 = 2 1 × 192 = 722 The largest number of the form 2 2 × m 1 and under 1000 = 2 2 × 241 1 = 964

So our required number is 964 and its divisors are 1, 2, 4, 241, 482 and 964. The sum of the divisors = 1 + 2 + 4 + 241 + 482 + 964 = 1694 Therefore, the required answer is 1694.

Correct Answer: 1694 Time taken by you: 327 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 9 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 3 %

undefined Suppose a function f(x) is defined as f(x) = x2 + px + q and f(11) × f(9) < 0. The minimum value of f(x) is −16. α and β are the two roots of the equation f(x) = 0 such that α > 5 > β. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

None of the above

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Raman, Boman, and Daman run a race along a rectangular plot ABCD such that Raman runs along A-C-D-B-A, Boman runs along A-DB-C-A and Daman runs along A-D-C-B-A. They all begin the race together and finish at the same time. If the ratio of their speeds is 18 : 25 : 17, find the ratio of the perimeter of the rectangle ABCD to its shortest side.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:  Time taken by you: 89 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 203 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Babloo has four identical one rupee coins. He has a square-shaped board which is divided into 49 different squares of equal areas by drawing lines parallel to the sides of the square such that there are seven squares along each row and each column. In how many ways can he place these four coins on the board such that no two coins are in the same row or same column?

29400 58800 705600 14700

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 29400 Time taken by you: 123 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 17 %

undefined What is the unit’s digit of 1789496 × 234211 ? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Remainder when 496 is divided by 2 (the cyclicity of 9) is 0. Therefore, unit’s digit of 1789496 is same as unit’s digit of 92 , i.e. 1.

Remainder when 211 is divided by 2 (the cyclicity is 4) is 1. Therefore, unit’s digit of 234211 is same as unit’s digit of 41 , i.e. 4. Therefore, the required unit’s digit is 1 × 4 = 4 Therefore, the required answer is 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined

1 2100 +1 3

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

3 Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Which of the following equations best describes the graph given below?

y = 4 – |x| |x + 2y| = 8 |2y – x| = 8 y = 4 – 0.5|x|

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: y = 4 – 0.5|x| Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined The average age of a group of 4 boys – P, Q, R and S is 26 years. Two boys – P and Q, leave the group and three boys – A, B and C having average age 28 years join the group. If the new average of the group is 30 years, then what is the average age of boys P and Q? 17 years 18 years

19 years None of the above

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 19 years Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined Ganesh takes 24 days and Priyakant takes X days to complete a job working alone. Ganesh and Priyakant work on the job on alternate days. If they take exactly the same time irrespective of who starts the job, how many positive integer values are possible for X? 12 11 10 9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Therefore, 576 should be divisible by (24 + X). Therefore all the factors of 576 that are greater than 24 are the possible values of (24 + X). Therefore the possible values of X are 552, 264, 168, 120, 72, 48, 40, 24, 12 and 8 .

Therefore, there are 10 possible values of X. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 15 %

undefined In the state of Brahmapur there were 5.5 × 106 literate people and 8.5 × 105 illiterate people. To celebrate the victory over enemy state, the King of Brahmapur distributed sweets among all the people, such that each literate person received twice the number of sweets received by each illiterate person. The difference between the total number of sweets received by the literate and the illiterate persons was 40.6 × 106 . How many sweets did each literate person receive? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of sweets received by each illiterate person is x.

Therefore, number of sweets received by each literate person is2x. ? 5.5 × 106 × 2x – 8.5 × 10 5 × x = 40.6 × 106 ? 110x × 105 – 8.5x × 10 5 = 406 × 10 5 ? 101.5x = 406 ?x=4 ? 2x = 8 Therefore, the required answer is 8.

Correct Answer: 8

Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined F(n) denotes the sum of the factors of a natural number n. If F(6p) = 2F(8q) for prime numbers p and q greater than 3, then what is the value of 2p – 5q? 3 4 5 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 226 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. When a “solution” to a problem causes more damage than the problem, policymaking has gone awry. That’s where we often find ourselves with global warming today. Activist organizations like Worldwatch argue that higher temperatures will make more people hungry, so drastic carbon cuts are needed. But a comprehensive new study led by researchers from the International Institute for Applied Systems Analysis has found that strong global climate action would cause far more hunger and food insecurity than climate change itself. The scientists used eight global-agricultural models to analyze various scenarios between now and 2050. These models suggest, on average, that climate change could put an extra 24 million people at risk of hunger. But a global carbon tax would increase food prices and push 78 million more people into risk of hunger. The areas expected to be most vulnerable are sub-Saharan Africa and India. Trying to help 24 million people by imperiling 78 million people’s lives is a very poor policy. If we want to eradicate hunger, there are more effective ways. Around 800 million people are undernourished today, mostly because of poverty. The single most significant initiative that could be undertaken is not a policy that slows the global economy, but one that cuts poverty: a global trade deal. The Doha free-trade deal was allowed to collapse with just a fraction of the attention given to global climate-change negotiations. Reviving Doha would lift an extra 145 million people out of poverty by 2030, according to research commissioned by Copenhagen Consensus. Meanwhile, the flawed Paris agreement, which is the closest we have to a global scheme, will achieve at best merely 1 percent of what would be needed to keep temperature rises under 2°C, according to the UN. It’ll cost $1 trillion to $2 trillion annually. This is money that can’t be spent improving nutrition, health or education. When comparing the massive cost with the slight delay in climate damage, each dollar spent delivers just three cents of climate benefits — i.e., lower hurricane damage, fewer heat waves, less agricultural stress. Forcing poor countries to reduce emissions does even more harm, because cheap, abundant energy brings prosperity. Aside from the immorality of obliging poor nations to avoid policies that would reduce poverty, the big problem with forcing carbon cuts is that green energy is not yet the savior that it is portrayed as. Even after decades of heavy investment in subsidies to support green-energy production — costing more than $150 billion just this year — the International Energy Agency finds that wind provides just 0.6 percent of energy needs, and solar 0.2 percent. By 2040, even if all of the grand promises in the Paris agreement on climate change were to be fulfilled, the IEA finds these figures will inch up to just 2.1 percent and 1.5 percent. We need to get smarter about climate change. A survey of 27 top climate economists concluded that the best long-term investment is in green energy R&D. For every dollar spent, $11 of climate damages would be avoided. That makes much more sense than today’s climate approach, which mostly does more harm than good. 1) The primary purpose of the passage is to prove that the Paris climate deal won’t have any positive effect on global warming, but Doha free-trade deal will. question the authenticity of climate-change claims. criticize the existing methods to handle climate-change and suggest alternatives. highlight the inaccuracy of the claim that global warming is the most pressing environmental issue of our time. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The Paris agreement and Doha deal are examples of the larger point made by the author. The larger point being the inefficiency of the current policies and “solutions” towards fighting climate change, along with theadverse economic consequences caused while they try to do so. Hence, “smarter” approaches are needed to tackle the problem, according to the author. The Doha deal is invoked to point out that a trade deal will address the hunger issue better than the Paris climate deal. Thus, option 1 does not reflect the primary purpose of the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author never disputes the reliability of the climate-change claims. The author’s point is that the current solutions to the climate-change problem are only stalling prosperity and thereby worsening the climate-change problem. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Paragraph 1 states thus: “When a ‘solution’ to a problem causes more damage than the problem, policymaking has gone awry. That’s where we often find ourselves with global warming today.” Then the author lists the drawbacks of the current approach to global warming and provides more effective alternatives to tackle it. Finally, the author ends the essay thus: “we need to get smarter about climate change. A survey of 27 top climate economists concluded that the best long-term investment is in green energy R&D. For every dollar spent, $11 of climate damages would be avoided. That makes much more sense than today’s climate approach, which mostly does more harm than good.” Thus, we can conclude that the primary purpose of the author is to criticize the current methods and suggest alternatives to fight climate change more efficiently. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author does not challenge the claim that global warming is the most pressing environmental issue we are facing. This option is out of context and thus we can eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: criticize the existing methods to handle climate-change and suggest alternatives.

Time taken by you: 404 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 272 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 83 % 2) All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT: Green technologies aren’t competitive yet. Governments should focus on driving down prices of renewable energy through innovation. Global warming is not the main environmental threat. Activist organizations like Worldwatch use short-term trends to predict disastrous consequences, in cases where long-term trends would not support the same conclusions. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an EXCEPT question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 3: “… green energy is not yet the savior that it is portrayed as. Even after decades of heavy investment in subsidies to support green-energy production — costing more than $150 billion just this year — the International Energy Agency finds that wind provides just 0.6 percent of energy needs, and solar 0.2 percent.” Thus, option 1is inferable from the passage and NOT an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph. It states that “we need to get smarter about climate change. A survey of 27 top climate economists concluded that the best long-term investment is in green energy R&D.” Thus, driving down prices of renewable energy through innovation is a suggestion stated in the passage and NOT an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is NOT true and, thus, an exception. The author makes no suggestion regarding the priority of global warming as an environmental threat; neither is it compared to other issues. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Paragraph 1 states thus: “Activist organizations like Worldwatch argue that higher temperatures will make more people hungry, so drastic carbon cuts are needed. But a comprehensive new study led by researchers from the International Institute for Applied Systems Analysis has found that strong global climate action would cause far more hunger and food insecurity than climate change itself.” Thus, we can conclude that the predictions made by organizations like Worldwatch do not look at the holistic picture. Option 4 is, thus, not an exception and can be eliminated. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Global warming is not the main environmental threat.

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 3) According to the passage, which one of the following situations/ statements would the author approve of? Food crops are replaced to produce Ethanol, which is a cleaner source of energy than fossil fuels. Bangladesh should cut coal expansion as this would deliver global climate benefits worth nearly $100 million. Developing economies should continue to use fossil fuel notwithstanding emissions. Immediate reduction in greenhouse gas emissions can substantially reduce the risks associated with human-induced global warming. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the last line of paragraph 1: “Trying to help 24 million people by imperiling 78 million people’s lives is a very poor policy.” The author clearly is of the view that the current climate policy would create more damage than the benefits it attempts to deliver. Thus, the author would not approve if land for food crops is used to produce Ethanol evenif it is a cleaner source of energy than fossil fuel. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states, “Forcing poor countries to reduce emissions does even more harm, because cheap, abundant energy brings prosperity.” Thus, the author would not agree with demanding a poor country like Bangladesh to cut their coal expansion in order to achieve global climate benefits. We can eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Paragraph 3 states thus: “Forcing poor countries to reduce emissions does even more harm, because cheap, abundant energy brings prosperity. Aside from the immorality of obliging poor nations to avoid policies that would reduce poverty, the big problem with forcing carbon cuts is that green energy is not yet the savior that it is portrayed as.” Thus, we can be sure that the author would agree with demanding developing economies to continue using fossil fuel notwithstanding emissions. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 2: “… the flawed Paris agreement, which is the closest we have to a global scheme, will achieve at best merely 1 percent of what would be needed to keep temperature rises under 2°C, according to the UN.” Also, the next paragraph states, “When comparing the massive cost with the slight delay in climate damage, each dollar spent delivers just three cents of climate benefits ... Forcing poor countries to reduce emissions does even more harm, because cheap, abundant energy brings prosperity …” Thus, it is clear that the author considers the effects of ‘emission cuts’ to be insignificant and insubstantial. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Developing economies should continue to use fossil fuel notwithstanding emissions.

Time taken by you: 95 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 60 % 4) The author discusses the findings of the International Energy Agency to demonstrate that … wind and solar are expensive energy sources and, thus, make inefficient global-warming policies. solar panels and wind turbines cannot bring millions of people out of poverty. it is immoral to burden poor nations by requiring them to heavily subsidize green-energy technologies like solar and wind. the amount (> $150 billion), spent every year on supporting solar and wind energy production, could be utilized to save and improve more lives per dollar of expenditure. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. In paragraph 3, the author statesthus: “Even after decades of heavy investment in subsidies to support green-energy production — costing more than $150 billion just this year — the International Energy Agency finds that wind provides just 0.6 percent of energy needs, and solar 0.2 percent. By 2040… the IEA finds these figures will inch up to just 2.1 percent and 1.5 percent.” Thus, by stating the findings of IEA, the author points out that green energies like solar and wind are expensive (> $150 billion/year) and, thus, inefficient in satisfying energy needs (provide 0.6 and 0.2 % of energy needs even after decades of research) . Option 1 justifies this analysis and, therefore, is the correct answer. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The purpose of discussing the IEA finding is to point out the economic and usage inefficiencies of solar and wind power, and not to demonstrate that these technologies cannot bring millions of people out of poverty. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Again, like in option 2, the purpose of the author is not to demonstrate the immorality of requiring poor nations to subsidize green technologies like solar and wind. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option does not state solar and wind energy in terms of global warming policies, which makes it ambiguous. The money spent on solar and wind energy production to counter ‘global warming’ could be used to bring prosperity, which in turn would help reduce global warming. The omission of “global warming” dilutes the purpose of the author in mentioning the IEA findings. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: wind and solar are expensive energy sources and, thus, make inefficient global-warming policies.

Time taken by you: 199 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 29 % 5) According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a consequence of the current climate policy? Climate taxes could lead to more food insecurity than climate change itself. Poor countries need to trade off economic development for reduced carbon emissions. Only a meager part of the expense, spent for climate benefits, is turned to good account. The global temperature increase would be capped at below 2°C. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The question asks us to identify a statement that is not a consequence of the current climate policy. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that “… a comprehensive new study by researchers from the International Institute for Applied Systems Analysis has found that strong global climate action would cause far more hunger and food insecurity than climate change itself.” Thus, option 1 can easily be identified as a consequence of the current climate policy. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states thus: “Forcing poor countries to reduce emissions does even more harm, because cheap, abundant energy brings prosperity.” Option 2 is a consequence and can be eliminated. Option 3 is incorrect. The author does state ‘the inefficient expenditure of the money disbursed to deliver climate benefits’ as a consequence of the current climate policy. Refer paragraph 3, “When comparing the massive cost with the slight delay in climate damage, each dollar spent delivers just three cents of climate benefits — i.e., lower hurricane damage, fewer heat waves, less agricultural stress.” Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The author states in paragraph 2 that “… the Paris agreement will achieve at best merely 1 percent of what would be needed to keep temperature rises under 2°C…” Thus, capping global temperature increase at below 2°C is not a consequence that the author expects from the current climate policy. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: The global temperature increase would be capped at below 2°C.

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 6) According to the author, all of the following are better ways to fight the effects of climate change EXCEPT: To lower trade barriers around the world. To invest resources in research to innovate the next generations of green energy. To keep global temperature rises under 2°C. To mobilize people’s attention around the world to improve the environment. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty EXCEPT question. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states “The single most significant initiative that could be undertaken is not a policy that slows the global economy, but one that cuts poverty: a global trade deal.” Thus, lowering trade barriers would be a more effective way to fight poverty and thereby climate change, according to the author. It is not an exception and can be rejected. Option 2 is not an exception and is stated in the passage as a more effective way to fight climate change. Refer the last paragraph, “A survey of 27 top climate economists concluded that the best long-term investment is in green energy R&D.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states, “Meanwhile, the flawed Paris agreement, which is the closest we have to a global scheme, will achieve at best merely 1 percent of what would be needed to keep temperature rises under 2°C, according to the UN.” Hence, actually being able to keep the global temperature rises under 2°C would be an effective way to combat climate change. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The suggestion to mobilize people’s attention to improve the environment is not stated in the passage as a tool to fight climate change. Thus, it is an exception. Retain option 4 Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: To mobilize people’s attention around the world to improve the environment.

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question.

Welcome to India’s extraordinary media environment, in which the Fourth Estate serves as witness, prosecutor, judge, jury, and executioner. With far too many channels competing 24/7 for the same sets of eyeballs and target rating points (TRPs), television news has long since abandoned any pretense of providing a public service, and instead blatantly privileges sensation over substance. Indian TV epitomizes the old crack about why television is called a medium: because it is neither rare nor well done. When it comes to print media, the situation is not much better. Newspapers are now competing in a fast-changing and overcrowded media landscape where it is not they, but TV, that sets the pace: every morning, they must reach readers who have watched TV the previous day. So, instead of providing context, depth, and analysis, newspapers are blasting out headlines that stimulate prurience or outrage. The result has been disturbing, to put it mildly. The airing of opinions is the cheapest way to fill a broadcast hour; ranting anchors score the highest TRPs. This reinforces the motivation to engage in sensational speculation, however baseless. More fundamentally, the rush to beat TV by breaking stories has weakened journalists’ incentive to perform due diligence, in terms of researching stories and verifying claims. This erosion of professional standards has too often made newspapers willing accomplices of purveyors of manipulated “leaks” and malicious allegations. The distinctions among fact, opinion, and speculation, between reportage and rumor, and between sourced information and unfounded claims – which are drummed into journalism students’ heads the world over – have faded into irrelevance in today’s Indian media. The cavalier attitude toward facts is compounded by extreme reluctance to issue corrections. So a blaze of lurid and unverified headlines does untold damage. When corrections are offered, they are too feeble and come too late to restore innocent people’s reputations. Unsurprisingly, trust in Indian media is eroding. The free press is both the mortar that holds in place the bricks of our country’s freedom, and the open window embedded in those bricks. The news media are supposed to enable a free citizenry to make informed choices about who governs them and how. And, by looking critically at elected officials’ actions (or inaction), they are supposed to ensure that those who govern remain accountable to those who put them there. Instead, Indian media today report recklessly on ephemera that have no impact on public welfare, and focus constantly on the superficial and the sensational. In doing so, they trivialize public discourse and abdicate their responsibilities as facilitators and protectors of democracy. Far from a call for controls on the free press – no Indian democrat would issue such a call – this is a demand for better journalism. Government needs a free and professional media to keep it honest and efficient, to serve as both mirror and scalpel. A blunt axe serves no society well. If India wishes to be taken seriously as a responsible global player and a model twenty-first-century democracy, we must take ourselves seriously and behave responsibly. Our journalism, a face of India that others see and by which – fairly or not – we are judged, would be a good place to start. 1) The function of the media as “both mirror and scalpel”, suggests that: The media should serve the interests of the government. The media should criticize and destabilize the government if the need arises. The media should hold the government accountable for its actions. The media should ignore the government and serve the interests of the society. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The last paragraph recommends the kind of media that would serve the interests of the country. It states that a “free and professional” media is what is required to serve as both mirror and scalpel. The mirror refers to the ability to show reality as it is (free media) and‘scalpel’ refers to a precise and effective expression (professional). ‘Scalpel’ is a surgeon’s knife. Option 1 is incorrect. The phrase is used to explain that media should hold the government accountable. That the media should serve the interests of the government is subject to whether the government is serving the interests of the society or not. Hence, option 1 is rather ambiguous. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The phrase does not imply that the media has the right to destabilize the government, as the option suggests. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The phrase does not imply that the media should ignore the government for the interests of the society. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. ‘To show the mirror to someone’ means to hold them accountable for their specific actions and to use a scalpel is a figurative expression that corresponds to criticizing the government for its shortcomings. By urging the media to serve as ‘both mirror and scalpel’, the writer is pointing at its capability to hold the government accountable for its actions. Retain option 3. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The media should hold the government accountable for its actions.

Time taken by you: 216 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 207 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2) According to the writer, what is the function of the news media? To enable governments to take decisions without bias or favor. To inform the citizens and help them to evaluate the government’s performance. To criticize or support government policy without compromising on journalistic integrity. To report news that is factually correct and to avoid sensational opinion-making stories. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not imply anywhere that the news media should advise or, in any other manner, “enable governments to take decisions”. The writer only states that he expects the media to report without fear orfavour. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. Refer the penultimate paragraph. “The news media are supposed to enable a free citizenry to make informed choices about who governs them and how.” It goes on to state the following: “And, by looking critically at elected officials’ actions (or inaction), they are supposed to ensure that those who govern remain accountable to those who put them there.” Thus, the media is said to be the means by which the public can assess the government. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The news media’s primary duty is to inform the voters. This is different from criticizing or supporting the government. The writer also states that the news media should focus on issues affecting public welfare and this cannot be restricted to government policies alone. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer does not expect the media to refrain from opinions as long as the articles are based on facts. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: To inform the citizens and help them to evaluate the government’s performance.

Time taken by you: 57 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 % 3) According to the passage, ‘due diligence’ for a journalist includes all of the following EXCEPT: Having a patient and unhurried approach that is unaffected by competition. Thoroughly researching a story before it is published or aired. Confirming the truth of any assertions or statements made, before publishing them. Ensuring that the report is backed by evidence and is not simply a popular story. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy EXCEPT question. Option 1 is correct. Refer the fourth paragraph: “More fundamentally, the rush to beat TV by breaking stories has weakened journalists’ incentive to perform due diligence, in terms of researching stories and verifying claims. …” Thus, the reference to‘due diligence’ includes researching and verifying. However, the passage does not imply that the solution for the “rush to beat TV” is to adopt an unhurried and patient approach – rather, the implication is that “the rush” should not force them to compromise on research and verification of claims. In fact, news cannot be approached with a patient and unhurried manner; they have to be handled with the urgency that they duly deserve. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The same paragraph [Paragraph 4] refers to ‘due diligence, in terms of researching stories’. So option 2 is not an exception. Option 3 is incorrect. ‘Verifying of claims’ or stories is also mentioned as part of due diligence in paragraph 4. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The fourth paragraph recommends journalists to avoid the publishing of malicious allegations and to not forget the distinction among fact, opinion and speculation. In other words, journalists are entreated to ensure that their report is backed by evidence and that it’s not simply a popular story. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Having a patient and unhurried approach that is unaffected by competition.

Time taken by you: 40 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 4) Why does the author say in Paragraph 1, “Indian TV epitomizes the old crack about why television is called a medium: because it is neither rare nor well done.” To point out the sensationalism that has taken over India’s television as a medium. To highlight that TV has become unable to cope with the demands of 24/7 news coverage. To indicate the lack of context, depth and analysis in the television coverage of news. To show that the news presentations that are well done are rare on television. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. In the first paragraph the author refers to the extraordinary media environment in India and says “With far too many channels competing 24/7 for the same sets of eyeballs and target rating points (TRPs), television news has long since abandoned any pretense of providing a public service, and instead blatantly privileges sensation over substance.” Hence, the writer sarcastically quotes the old crack about television as a medium. Option 1 correctly expresses the aspect of Indian television today as the author describes. Option 2 is incorrect. The paragraph highlights how competition has affected the TV channels and not how they have become incapable of coping with the demands of 24/7 coverage.. The latter account is neither stated nor implied. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The lack of context, depth and analysis is mentioned with reference to newspapers and not television. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 does not remove the figurative use of the terms from the quote to make them clearer. Instead it resorts to pun again. In a convoluted way option 4 can be justified to be the reason for the quote. But the plain meaning of what is well-done will still need clarification. So reject option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: To point out the sensationalism that has taken over India’s television as a medium.

Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 40 % 5) The author believes the corrections issued after publication to be: one of the reasons why trust in journalism has been restored. a by-product of the casual and indifferent attitude towards news. too infrequent to make up for the damage caused by thoughtless publishing. so ineffective as to worsen an existing culture of carelessness in publishing. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The third paragraph states the extreme reluctance of Indian media to issue corrections on the one hand, and on the other, the ineffectiveness of the corrections to restore reputations. The option, on the contrary, states that thetrust in media has been restored on account of these corrections. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that: “The cavalier attitude toward facts is compounded by extreme reluctance to issue corrections.” Thus, corrections cannot be said to be a “by-product” of a cavalier attitude. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 4 – “… So a blaze of lurid and unverified headlines does untold damage. When corrections are offered, they are too feeble and come too late to restore innocent people’s reputations.” The passage mentions reluctance and delay, but not infrequency. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The reluctance and delay with which corrections are issued are said to compound or worsen the cavalier or careless attitude. Thus, option 4 is correct when it says that the corrections are so ineffective as to worsen an existing culture of carelessness in publishing. Retain option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: so ineffective as to worsen an existing culture of carelessness in publishing.

Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 16 % 6) According to the author, all these are true about Indian media of today EXCEPT: TV channels air baseless speculations in order to increase their viewer base. Indian media are becoming institutions without ethics and social responsibility. Indian Media are potentially jeopardizing India’s reputation as a democracy. Indian journalists are not trained to distinguish among fact, opinion and speculation or between reportage and rumor. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy EXCEPT question. Option 1 is not an exception. In the first paragraph the author states that “television news has long since abandoned any pretense of providing a public service, and instead blatantly privileges sensation over substance…” In the second paragraph he writes, “The airing of opinions is the cheapest way to fill a broadcast hour; ranting anchors score the highest TRPs. This reinforces the motivation to engage in sensational speculation, however baseless.” Hence, option 1 is true. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect because the passage supports the idea that Indian media are businesses without ethics and social responsibility. The first part of the passage explains how TV channels are chasing after TRPs and how the print media indulge in ‘manipulated leaks’ and malicious allegations to compete with TV. The 5th paragraph states, “Indian media today report recklessly on ephemera that have no impact on public welfare, and focus constantly on the superficial and the sensational. In doing so, they trivialize public discourse and abdicate their responsibilities as facilitators and protectors of democracy.” Hence, option 2 can be inferred from the passage. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. In the last paragraph, by referring to Indian media that has deviated from its core functions as ‘blunt axe’, the writer cautions that “A blunt axe serves no society well. If India wishes to be taken seriously as a responsible global player and a model twenty-first-century democracy, we must take ourselves seriously and behave responsibly. Our journalism, a face of India that others see and by which – fairly or not – we are judged, would be a good place to start.” Thus, the risk to India’s reputation is implied in the passage. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It is an exception. In paragraph 3, the writer mentions the training that journalists all over the world receive. “The distinctions among fact, opinion, and speculation, between reportage and rumor, and between sourced information and unfounded claims – which are drummed into journalism students’ heads the world over – have faded into irrelevance in today’s Indian media.” This does not mean that they haven’t received the training. Retain option 4. So, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Indian journalists are not trained to distinguish among fact, opinion and speculation or between reportage and rumor.

Time taken by you: 34 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. He is the most unusual member of the liberal pantheon. Liberalism has usually been at its most vigorous among the Anglo-American middle classes. By contrast, Alexis de Tocqueville was a proud member of the French aristocracy. Liberalism tends to be marinated in optimism to such an extent that it sometimes shades into naivety. Tocqueville believed that liberal optimism needs to be served with a side-order of pessimism. Far from being automatic, progress depends on wise government and sensible policy. He also ranks among the greats. He wrote classic studies of two engines of the emerging liberal order: “Democracy in America” and “The Old Regime and the French Revolution”. He also helped shape French liberalism, both as a political activist and as a thinker. He was a leading participant in the “Great Debate” of the 1820s between liberals and ultra-Royalists about the future direction of France. In 1849 he served briefly as foreign minister. He broadened the liberal tradition by subjecting the bland pieties of the Anglo-American middle class to a certain aristocratic disdain; and he deepened it by pointing to the growing dangers of bureaucratic centralisation. Better than any other liberal, Tocqueville understood the importance of ensuring that the collective business of society is done as much as possible by the people themselves, through voluntary effort, rather than by the government. Tocqueville’s liberalism was driven by two forces. The first was his fierce commitment to the sanctity of the individual. The purpose of politics was to protect people’s rights (particularly the right to free discussion) and to give them scope to develop their abilities to the full. The second was his unshakable belief that the future lay with “democracy”. By that he meant more than just parliamentary democracy with its principle of elections and wide suffrage. He meant a society based on equality. 1) According to the passage, De Tocqueville is ‘the most unusual member of the liberal pantheon’ because: He combined liberalism and optimism with an acceptable degree of pessimism and identified himself with the class he belonged. His concept of liberalism was deeply rooted in optimism that bordered on naivety. De Tocqueville’s concept of liberalism and progress depended on a reasonable amount of regulation by the government. He was one of the most illustrious advocates of liberalism who did not belong to the Anglo-American middle classes. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The passage begins thus: “He is the most unusual member of the liberal pantheon. Liberalism has usually been at its most vigorous among the Anglo-American middle classes. By contrast, Alexis de Tocqueville was a proud member of the French aristocracy.” Thus, the answer as to why the author considers De Tocqueville as the “most unusual liberal” is explicitly stated. Option 1 is incorrect. His approach to liberalism which combined liberal optimism with pessimism did not make him unusual – nor did his identifying himself with the class to which he belonged. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is factually incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that, ‘liberalism tends to be marinated in optimism to such an extent that it sometimes shades into naivety.’ Thus, option 2 is not a reference to De Tocqueville’s idea of liberalism. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The statement is factually correct, but it does not answer the question. That ‘De Tocqueville’s concept of liberalism and progress depended on a reasonable amount of regulation by the government’ did not make him the most unusual member of the liberal pantheon. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The word pantheon means, ‘a group of illustrious or notable persons’. The passage explicitly mentions what made De Tocqueville ‘most unusual’ – it is the fact that he did not belong to the Anglo-American middle classes, which comprised the most vigorous advocates of liberalism. De Tocqueville was unusual because he belonged to the ‘pantheon’ – the second paragraph states that he ranks among the greats – yet, was a member of the French aristocracy. Probably, he was the only one of that background, and, therefore, the most unusual among them. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: He was one of the most illustrious advocates of liberalism who did not belong to the Anglo-American middle classes.

Time taken by you: 240 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 30 % 2) According to the passage, De Tocqueville’s liberalism differed from the conventional in all the following ways EXCEPT: De Tocqueville entertained a degree of pessimism unlike the conventional liberal optimists. De Tocqueville believed that progress under liberalism required governmental interventions. De Tocqueville did not fully subscribe to the middle class concept of liberalism. De Tocqueville believed that democracy was the best form of government for liberalism. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that “Tocqueville believed that liberal optimism needs to be served with a side-order of pessimism.” Option 1, which states that Tocqueville entertained a degree of pessimism and, thus, differed from the conventional optimists is correct and is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Tocqueville believed that sensible government policy was a necessary factor for progress. It is stated in paragraph 1 as “far from being automatic, progress depends on wise government and sensible policy.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The second paragraph mentions that “he broadened the liberal tradition by subjecting the bland pieties of the Anglo-American middle class to a certain aristocratic disdain…” thus option 3, which he states that he did not fully subscribe to the middle class concept of liberalism is true and not an exception. Option 4 is correct. Option 4 states that “De Tocqueville believed that democracy was the best form of government for liberalism’. It is incorrect to say that De Tocqueville differed from others in this belief. Belief in democracy is what marks a liberal. He was, thus, a true liberal in this belief. Retain option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: De Tocqueville believed that democracy was the best form of government for liberalism.

Time taken by you: 129 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 17 % 3) According to the passage, Tocqueville’s liberalism was propelled by which of the following? Right to free discussion and equal opportunity Parliamentary democracy and wide suffrage. Individual liberty and equality. Collective voluntary effort and sensible government policy. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question Refer the last paragraph: “Tocqueville’s liberalism was driven by two forces. The first was his fierce commitment to the sanctity of the individual …. The second was his unshakable belief that the future lay with “democracy”. By that he meant … a society based on equality.” Option 3 –‘Individual liberty and equality’, thus captures the thrust of Tocqueville’s liberalism. Retain option 3. Right to free discussion and equal opportunity, as mentioned in option 1 are aspects that are already covered by ‘individual liberty and equality’ and are not, specifically, the driving forces behind Tocqueville’s liberalism. Reject option 1. Similarly, Options 2 and 4 are true, but portrays the different aspects of the broad principles, i.e. liberty and equality, which were the driving forces behind Tocqueville’s liberalism. Reject options 2 and 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Individual liberty and equality.

Time taken by you: 96 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. The Earth’s magnetic field is a mysterious thing. What is magnetism? As a child, I used to push together the north poles of two toy magnets, and remember even now how frustratingly difficult it was to make them touch – or how tricky it was to prevent the north and south poles from locking together when I tried to keep them just a tiny bit apart. A few years later, I looked on, impressed but with incomprehension, as a physics teacher sprinkled iron filings around a magnet, to show how they lined up along the invisible lines of force. But what were these lines? – and why in that particular shape? It’s still something I don’t have any visceral understanding of, any more than I can explain how the innards of this computer produce letters on the screen when I press the keys. It is something that just is. The ancients were equally puzzled (though with more reason to be). The magnetic properties of lodestone (the iron mineral magnetite) had been discovered by the Chinese over 2000 years ago, and they went on to invent the compass, by placing a spoon made of lodestone on a smooth board. It took a thousand more years for knowledge of this phenomenon to be appreciated in Europe, when it was observed that a lodestone needle pointed towards the pole star, the only fixed star in the sky, and that was naturally taken as the source of the magnetism (although there was an appealing counter-idea that there were mountains made of lodestone at the North Pole). Then came the discovery of magnetic declination: that the compass needle did not point to true north, but a little way away, to magnetic north; and of magnetic inclination, that the needle also pointed downwards towards the pole (not at all at the equator, but vertically downwards at the pole – where compasses are useless for that reason). William Gilbert in 1600 first understood what this meant, by experimenting with how a sphere of lodestone (representing the Earth) affected a lodestone needle moved across its surface. He realized that it was not a star, nor magnetic mountains, but the whole Earth that acted as a magnet. And now it is known (though this is something that I cannot truly fathom either) that the magnetic field is the product of the Earth’s molten core (which has, though, a solid centre). It is the electric eddy currents in the slowly swirling molten iron-nickel outer core, allied to the Earth’s spin around its axis, which produces the Earth’s magnetic field. Looked at more closely, the Earth’s magnetic field is a mobile, dynamic thing: the Earth’s spin keeps it aligned roughly north–south but in detail the magnetic north and south poles are never stable but move across the Earth’s surface by ten kilometres a year or more, to produce the constantly varying declination. The field also flips every so often, north becoming south and south becoming north – lately it has been doing so every few hundred thousand years, though at some times it has remained locked into a single mode for tens of millions of years. Without a magnetic field, there would be no shield to protect the Earth from the cosmic radiation of the solar wind, that would otherwise have shattered any proto life-forms that emerged on this planet, and for good measure stripped away most of the atmosphere and oceans – as probably happened with Venus and Mars, both of which lack a magnetic field. 1) Why does the author begin the passage by describing his lack of understanding of magnetism? To explain why the ancients were puzzled by the phenomenon of magnetism. To suggest that human beings are inherently incapable of understanding what magnetism is. To underline the mysteriousness of magnetism and the Earth’s magnetic field. To point out that the same kind of force that powers ordinary magnets also powers the Earth’s magnetic field. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option [1] is incorrect. The author’s own puzzlement regarding magnetism does not necessarily explain why the ancients were puzzled as well, especially given that they did not know even the basic facts (such as why the compass pointed northwards) that the author himselfis aware of. So, option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is too negative. The author merely describes his own lack of understanding; he does not suggest that it applies to all human beings, or that it is permanent. So, option [2] is rejected. Option [4] is irrelevant, as it does not explain why the author points out his own confusion regarding magnetism. Option [4] can thus be rejected. Option [3] is correct. The passage begins with the following sentence: ‘The Earth’s magnetic field is a mysterious thing.’ The passage goes on to describe magnetism in general and, then, the Earth’s magnetic field in particular. By describing his own confusion regarding the same, the author aspires to highlight the mysteriousness of these phenomena. Retain option [3]. Hence, the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: To underline the mysteriousness of magnetism and the Earth’s magnetic field.

Time taken by you: 253 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 263 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 % 2) Which of the following statements regarding the Earth’s magnetic field is true, as per the passage? It is generated within the solid portion at the centre of the Earth’s molten core. While it is currently aligned north–south, it can move to point in any other direction. It is weaker than the corresponding magnetic fields on nearby planets. It is indirectly responsible for the emergence of life on Earth. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. Option [1] is incorrect. As described in the fourth paragraph, the Earth’s magnetic field is generated by the ‘electric eddy currents in the slowly swirling molten iron-nickel outer core’; the fact that this liquid core has a solid centre is mentioned only in passing, and seems to have no role inthe generation of the magnetic field. So, option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is also incorrect. Though it is mentioned in the fourth paragraph that the Earth’s magnetic field keeps moving around, it is also stated that ‘the Earth’s spin keeps it aligned roughly north–south’, and not ‘in any other direction’. So, option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect as well. According to the last paragraph, two nearby planets – Mars and Venus – lack magnetic fields altogether ; other planets are not mentioned at all. So, the Earth’s magnetic field cannot be said to be weaker than that of others. Option [3] is, thus, negated. Option [4] is correct. Refer to the last paragraph: ‘Without a magnetic field, there would be no shield to protect the Earth from the cosmic radiation of the solar wind that would otherwise have shattered any proto life-forms that emerged on this planet’. We can infer that without this protection offered by the magnetic field, life would never have successfully emerged on Earth. Retain option 4. Therefore, the right answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: It is indirectly responsible for the emergence of life on Earth.

Time taken by you: 76 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 % 3) Based on the information in this passage, we can infer that the Earth’s magnetic field will most likely flip: within the next hundred thousand years. within the next ten million years. not for tens of millions of years or more. cannot be determined. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is an easy one. Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to the penultimate paragraph. It is stated that the Earth’s magnetic field flips every so often, but that the timeline varies. So, a specific time frame such as given in option [1] cannot be inferred. Reject option 1. Option [2] and option [3] can be ruled out on the same grounds as option [1]. Option [4] is correct. Since there is not enough information in the passage to predict when the Earth’s magnetic field will most likely flip, we can only say that theanswer indeterminable. Retain option 4. Therefore, option [4] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: cannot be determined.

Time taken by you: 42 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 4) The phenomenon of magnetic inclination shows that: compass needles point north towards the pole. compasses are useless at the poles because of their proximity to the molten core. the whole of the Earth acts as a giant magnet. compass needles do not point to true north but to magnetic north. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer to paragraph 3, where the phenomenon of magnetic inclination is discussed. Option [1] is incorrect, as the passage states that magnetic inclination has the needle pointing downwards and not to the north. Reject option 1. Option [2] is incorrect as well; it is not inferable from the passage. Thus, option [2] is ruled out. Option [3] is correct. Refer to paragraph 3, after magnetic declination and inclination are explained: ‘William Gilbert in 1600 first understood what this meant ... He realized that it was not a star, nor magnetic mountains, but the whole Earth that acted as a magnet.’ Retain option [3]. Option [4] can be dismissed instantly, as it refers to a different phenomenon, magnetic declination,and not magnetic inclination. So, option [4] is also rejected. Hence, the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: the whole of the Earth acts as a giant magnet.

Time taken by you: 128 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 % 5) All of the following statements are true according to the passage, EXCEPT: The Chinese discovered the magnetic properties of lodestone 2000 years before the Europeans. It was William Gilbert who first demonstrated that the Earth was a magnet using a sphere of lodestone. The magnetic north/south poles are not the same as the geographic north/south poles. Iron filings tend to line up around a magnet in a pattern. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is an easy one. Option [1] is the correct answer, as it is not true. According to paragraph 2, the Chinese discovered the magnetic properties of lodestone over 2000 years ago, while ‘it took a thousand more years for knowledge of this phenomenon to be appreciated in Europe’.Retain option 1. Option [2] is true, and, so, not the answer. Refer to the last two sentences of paragraph 3: ‘William Gilbert in 1600 first understood what this meant, by experimenting with how a sphere of lodestone (representing the Earth) affected a lodestone needle moved across its surface. He realized that ... the whole Earth that acted as a magnet.’ So option [2] must be ruled out. Option [3] is also true, as can be inferred from the description of the phenomenon of magnetic declination in paragraph 3, and also from the fact that the magnetic poles keep moving and can even flip, as stated in paragraphs 4 and 5. Thus, option [3] is not the answer either. Option [4] is true as well, as can be inferred from the description of the physics teacher’s demonstration in paragraph 1. So, option [4] is also not the answer. Reject option 4. Therefore, the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: The Chinese discovered the magnetic properties of lodestone 2000 years before the Europeans.

Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 % 6) It can be inferred from the passage that compass needles point towards the pole star because: it is the source of magnetism. it is the only fixed star in the sky. it is close to the Earth’s North Pole. none of the above. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option [1] is incorrect. It iswhat the ancients believed, as per paragraph 2; this was later proved to be a wrong assumption. So, option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is completely irrelevant. The passage does not imply that fixed stars attract compass needles. It states that compasses respond to the earth’s molten core. So, option [2] is rejected. Option [3] is incorrect. The pole star presumably appears fixed , above the Earth’s North Pole. But, it cannot be inferred to be actually close to the Earth. So, option [3] is ruled out as well. Option [4] is correct. It is stated in the passage that compass needles point northwards because of the Earth’s magnetic field: ‘it was not a star, nor magnetic mountains, but the whole Earth that acted as a magnet.’ The fact that the pole star appears fixed, and that too, in the same direction to which a compass needle points, is most likely only coincidence. Retain option 4. Hence, option [4] is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: none of the above.

Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 %

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undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Modern utilitarianism is instantiated in the famous trolley thought experiment: You are standing next to a fork in a trolley track and a switch to divert a trolley car that is about to kill five workers unless you throw the switch and divert the trolley down a side track where it will kill one worker. Most people say that they would throw the switch—kill one to save five. The problem with utilitarianism is evidenced in another thought experiment: You are a physician with five dying patients and one healthy person in the waiting room. Would you harvest the organs of the one to save the five? If you answered yes, you might be a psychopathic murderer. In a paper titled “Beyond Sacrificial Harm,” University of Oxford scholars Guy Kahane, Jim A. C. Everett and their colleagues aim to rehabilitate the dark side of utilitarianism by separating its two dimensions: (1) “instrumental harm,” in which it is permissible to sacrifice the few to benefit the many, and (2) “impartial beneficence,” in which one would agree that “it is morally wrong to keep money that one doesn't really need if one can donate it to causes that provide effective help to those who will benefit a great deal.” If we can decouple the sacrificial side of utilitarianism from its more beneficent prescriptions, then better clarity will be attained about the nature of moral psychology and its relation to moral philosophy and fruitful avenues for further research will be generated. Immanuel Kant offers a counter to utilitarianism in the form of “categorical imperative,” in which we can determine right and wrong by asking if we would want to universalize an act. For example, lying in even limited cases is wrong because we would not want to universalize it into lying in all instances, which would destroy all personal relations and social contracts. In the physician scenario, we would not want to live in a world in which you could be plucked off the street at any moment and sacrificed in the name of someone's idea of a collective good. Yet if you live in Syria and a band of ISIS thugs knocks on your door demanding to know if you are hiding any homosexuals they can murder in the mistaken belief that this fulfills the word of God—and you are—few moralists would object to your lying to save them. In this case, both utilitarianism and Kantian ethics are trumped by natural-rights theory, which dictates that you are born with the right to life and liberty of both body and mind, rights that must not be violated, not even to serve the greater good or to fulfill a universal rule. This is why, in particular, we have a Bill of Rights to protect us from the tyranny of the majority and why, in general, moral progress has been the result of the idea that individual sentient beings have natural rights that override the moral claims of groups, tribes, races, nations and religions. Better still, moral progress may gain some momentum if we can be good for goodness' sake. 1) What is the passage trying to do? Assess the implications of utilitarianism, Kantian ethics and natural rights. Explain the significance of natural rights over both utilitarianism and Kantian ethics in the pursuit of moral progress. Posit that further improvement in moral values can be achieved by separating the positive aspects of utilitarianism from its negative aspects. Argue in favour of impartial beneficence over instrumental harm. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The passage begins with the ‘trolley though experiment’ to highlight the moral dilemmathat characterizes utilitarianism. Certain Oxford scholars have tried to rehabilitate the dark side of utilitarianism by separating it into two dimensions – instrumental harm and impartial beneficence. Then, the passage mentions Kantian ethics in which we can determine right or wrong by asking if we would want to universalize an act – for example, lying. It concludes by stating that both utilitarianism and Kantian ethics are trumped by the natural rights theory. Option 2 is incorrect. Though the author mentions it in the last line, the purpose of the passage is not just to explain the significance of natural rights over the other two modes but to present an overview of all three modes. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The suggestion that moral progress can be achieved by separating the positive aspects of utilitarianism from its negative aspects is far-fetched and not implied in the passage. The only suggestion that paragraph 2 makes is that separating the two dimensions will help to provide better clarity and that it will be of help in further research. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Again, similar to option 3, the author does not argue for or favour the impartial beneficence aspect over instrumental harm; it is not the purpose behind writing the passage. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 correctly summarizes the purpose of the passage, i.e. to discuss the implications of the three kinds of ethical theory and is, thus, the right answer choice. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Assess the implications of utilitarianism, Kantian ethics and natural rights.

Time taken by you: 224 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 % 2) Which of the following best sums up the study conducted by the University of Oxford scholars in their paper “Beyond Sacrificial Harm”? The positive core of utilitarianism, which is characterized by impartial concern for the well-being of everyone, is often ignored by its critics. Sacrificial moral dilemmas like the trolley thought experiment, give undue importance to instrumental harm while ignoring impartial beneficence. Utilitarianism can be dissociated into two independent dimensions –the unbiased concern for the greater good, and the permissiveness towards the damage inflicted on an unintended victim. It is permissible to sacrifice the few in order to benefit the many. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The suggestion that the positive aspect, i.e. impartial beneficence of utilitarianism, is ignored by its critics is unwarranted. There is no such suggestion or implication in the study mentioned in paragraph 2 of the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Again, similar to option 1, the suggestion that trolley thought experiment gives undue importance to instrumental harm, while ignoring impartial beneficence is not implied in the passage. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. It correctly captures the crux of the study, which is to separate and break down utilitarianism into two dimensions: “instrumental harm” (the dark or sacrificial side) and “impartial beneficence” (the positive or beneficial side of the same).Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The study does not imply that it is permissible to sacrifice the few to benefit the many. It only separates this negative aspect of utilitarianism from its positive aspect. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Utilitarianism can be dissociated into two independent dimensions –the unbiased concern for the greater good, and the permissiveness towards the damage inflicted on an unintended victim.

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 3) Which of the following is NOT an example of “instrumental harm” as explained in the passage? If the only way to ensure the overall well-being and happiness of the people is through the use of political oppression for a short, limited period, then political oppression should be used. It is permissible to torture an innocent person if this would be necessary to provide information to prevent a bomb going off that would kill hundreds of people. Sometimes it is morally necessary for innocent people to die as collateral damage—if more people are saved overall. A corporate pays for the rehabilitation of drug addicts among the family members of its employees. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer paragraph 2. It states, “In a paper titled “Beyond Sacrificial Harm,” University of Oxford scholars GuyKahane, Jim A. C. Everett and their colleagues aim to rehabilitate the dark side of utilitarianism by separating its two dimensions: one, “instrumental harm,” in which it is permissible to sacrifice the few to benefit the many” and the other is “impartial beneficence”. In this question, we need to eliminate examples of ‘instrumental harm” in which it accommodates the idea that harm can be done for the greater good. Option 1 is incorrect. Use of political oppression for a short period to ensure overall well-being implies sacrificing the few to benefit the many. Thus, this option is an example of “instrumental harm.” So, eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. To torture an innocent person to save hundreds of people is again an example of instrumental harm. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, death of innocent people to save more people is an example of instrumental harm. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The action of the corporate, which is “to pay for rehabilitation of drug addicts” does not, by itself, cause any harm. In this case, no one is getting sacrificed for the greater good or the benefit of many. Thus, option 4 is NOT an example of instrumental harm. Retain option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: A corporate pays for the rehabilitation of drug addicts among the family members of its employees.

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

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undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Psychologist Barry Schwartz has stated in his book, The Paradox of Choice: Why More is Less, that it is necessary for a person’s mental health to accept the average, the ‘good enough.’ This is necessary because it may be impossible to know if ‘the best’ is ever reached, and often, perfection is unattainable. It may be impossible to know if one had the best score, but it is easily understood if the score was good enough. It is impossible to quantify if one is the best musician, but good enough is well within reach. Schwartz has pressed that, psychologically speaking, this continued push to rise above average has negative consequences on mental health. Psychologist Barry Schwartz reasons that the struggle to rise above average is damaging to one’s mental health and that one should accept being good enough instead of trying to be the best. In his book The Paradox of Choice: Why More is Less, Barry Schwartz advises that it is necessary to accept the average because the continued push to be the best undermines one’s mental health.

In order to be mentally healthy one must avoid the need to try and be the best, and instead accept one’s position – thus advises the book by Barry Schwartz, The Paradox of Choice: Why More is less. In his book The Paradox of Choice: Why More is Less, Barry Schwartz advises that the attitude which most undermines mental health is the continued push to be the best and that it can be reversed by focusing on being good enough.

Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. What makes plastic useful for people—its durability and light weight—increases the threat to animals. Plastic hangs around a long time, and a lot of it floats. Single-use plastics are the worst. Period. Bar none. They refer to straws, water bottles, and plastic bags. Some 700 species of marine animals have been reported—so far—to have eaten or become entangled in plastic. We don’t fully understand plastic’s long-term impact on wildlife, or its impact on us. We haven’t been using the stuff for very long. The first documented cases of seabirds ingesting plastic were 74 Laysan albatross chicks found on a Pacific atoll in 1966, when plastic production was roughly a twentieth of what it is today. In hindsight, those birds seem like the proverbial canaries in a coal mine. The 74 albatross chicks that were found to have ingested plastic in 1966 were the forewarning of the threat of plastic to animals, which people use because of its durability and light-weight. Plastic is useful to people but dangerous for animals. It has been a threat to a large number of marine animals from as early as 1966 when its production was just a twentieth of what it is now. The existence of a majority of marine animals is threatened by plastic which they ingest or get entangled in it. The first instance was documented in 1966 when plastic use was much low. The threat that plastic causes to marine animals was first documented in 1966 when plastic production was a twentieth of what it is today, though plastic is useful to people. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The main points to be included in an ideal précis which would capture the author’s position are: Plastic is useful to people but dangerous to animals.

Single use plastics are the worst.

Around 700 species of marine animals have eaten or become entangled in plastic.

The first instance of seabirds ingesting plastic came to light in 1966. In 1966 plastic production was a twentieth of what it is today.

The author’s position is an attempt to show how plastic is dangerous to animals, especially marine animals. He does this by citing examples of 700 marine animals that had either ingested or got entangled in plastic. The danger came to light in 1966, when 74 albatross chicks were found to have ingested plastic. Option 1 does not fully capture the author’s position. The option has unnecessary emphasis on the examples and on why people use plastic – the danger seems to have been underplayed. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is the best option that captures the author’s message. It highlights the dangerous history of plastic by doing away with the examples and the reasons as to why it’s useful to people. Option 2 captures just the author’s position. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It is limited to marine animals and appears to miss the broader picture. Also, ‘a majority of marine animals’ may be an overstatement, considering that the passage mentions only 700. Such exaggerations distort the author’s position. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 concentrates on the first documentation of the danger that plastic posed to marine life. So, it does not amply capture the gist of the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer to this question is option 2. Correct Answer: Plastic is useful to people but dangerous for animals. It has been a threat to a large number of marine animals from as early as 1966 when its production was just a twentieth of what it is now. Time taken by you: 142 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. It is important to note that for Descartes “real distinction” is a technical term denoting the distinction between two or more substances. Accordingly, a mode requires a substance to exist and not just the concurrence of God. Being sphere shaped is a mode of an extended substance. For example, a sphere requires an object extended in three dimensions in order to exist: an unextended sphere cannot be conceived without contradiction. But a substance can be understood to exist alone without requiring any other creature to exist, and requires only the concurrence of God. For example, a stone can exist all by itself. That is, its existence is not dependent upon the existence of minds or other bodies; and, a stone can exist without being of any particular size or shape. This indicates for Descartes that God, if he chose, could create a world constituted by this stone all by itself, showing further that it is a substance “really distinct” from everything else except God. “Real distinction” denotes the distinction between substances. Substances exist by themselves by the concurrence of God, and the quality of that substance is called mode. For Descartes “real distinction” meant the distinction between substances. Substances exist by themselves by the creation of God, and the form in which they exist is called mode. What Descartes called “real distinction” is the distinction between substances and mode – just like how the stone itself is a substance, but the many shapes in which it can existence are called its mode. In “real distinction”, while substances exist by themselves by the concurrence of God, mode cannot exist without the substance; so, the world cannot exist without a God. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is amedium difficulty question. Simplified, the ideas in the paragraph can be explained this way: It is important for us to note that, for Descartes “Real distinction” was a technical term. It meant that something called a substance could exist on its own – for example the stone is a substance. It exists because god made it so. So, “real distinction” meant the difference between the stone and another substance – e.g. the mind. The form in which a substance existed is called mode. The gist of the paragraph about Descartes concept of ‘real distinction’ has these three points: For Descartes, “real distinction” denoted the distinction between two or more substances.

Substances exist by themselves by the concurrence of God, for example the stone.

Mode is the form in which the substance exists.

Option 1 is incorrect. It does not mention Descartes. Any summary of this paragraph without the mention of Descartes is imperfect. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is the correct précis. It briefly captures the main idea that the writer wants to communicate about Descartes’ idea of ‘real distinction’. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “Real distinction” is the not the distinction between substances and mode, the distinction is between two or more substances themselves. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is a distractor. It doesn’t mention Descartes and also brings in new ideas. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: For Descartes “real distinction” meant the distinction between substances. Substances exist by themselves by the creation of God, and the form in which they exist is called mode. Time taken by you: 103 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 53 %

1. He did far more than just create and build an e-commerce juggernaut into the most valuable company in Asia. 2. Jack Ma was once just an English teacher trying to persuade his friends that they would one day buy things over the internet. 3. To a remarkable degree, his path-breaking success created a model that gave rise to a technology propelling Chinese economy on track to eclipse that of the U.S. 4. He showed that an innovative private enterprise could thrive under a Communist Party regime once hostile to ambitious capitalists. 5. His vision changed China.

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Explanation: This is an easy question Sentence 2 introduces the paragraph. It is the only sentence in which the name Jack Ma occurs. Hence, the pronoun ‘he’ in all the other sentences must refer back to Jack Ma. There is no other antecedent for “he” in any of the sentences. We can be sure that sentence 2 starts the paragraph which talks about the humble beginnings of Jack Ma as an English teacher who talked to his friends about buying things over the internet. “That they would one day buy things over the internet” in sentence 2 is the only potential idea that can correspond to “his vision” that is mentioned in sentence 5. Thus, 2-5 is a mandatory pair. The choice between sentences 1 3, and 4 after the 2-5 pair is easy because “his path breaking success” in sentence 3 and “innovative private enterprise” in sentence 4 do not relate to the 2-5 pair. Hence, we can be sure that the correct sequence is 2-5-1-- that Jack Ma did far more than realize his vision by creating an ecommerce giant and then building it into the most valuable company in Asia. The placement of sentences 3 and 4 is easy as sentence 3 brings the paragraph to a smoother closure than sentence 4. Hence, 2-5-1 is followed by sentence 4, which refers to how his “innovative private enterprise could thrive under a communist regime.” So, we get the sequence 2514. Sentence 3 brings the paragraph to a logical closure by providing the climax, which is that “his path-breaking success (propelled) Chinese economy on track to eclipse that of the U.S.” Hence the correct sequence is 25143. Correct Answer: 25143 Time taken by you: 84 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

1. It figures prominently in clashes over diversity, multiculturalism, political correctness, offensive speech, “deplorable” voters, gender, and arrogant elites. 2. Those so accused—cisgender white males being prime suspects—in turn accuse their critics of playing identity politics to curtail free speech. 3. Identity is too much with us late and soon. 4. This is aimed at silencing the opinions of those whose obliviousness to their entitlement is itself a giveaway of their advantaged status. 5. In our overheated politics of recognition, “Check your privilege!” has become the rebuke of choice.

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Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Sentences 5 and 3 are stand-alone. Both these can be considered for the starter. However, sentence 5 presumes that there is already an “overheated politics of recognition”. So, we can be sure that sentence 3 starts the paragraph and not 5. Sentence 3 says that identity is too much with us late and soon. Sentence 1 follows sentence 3 because “it” in sentence 1 refers to “identity” as mentioned in sentence 3. So, we get 3-1 at beginning of our answer. The “clashes over diversity, multiculturalism, political correctness, offensive speech, “deplorable” voters, gender, and arrogant elites” in sentence 1 are referred to again as “our overheated politics of recognition” in sentence 5. Hence, 3-1-5 is logical. The expression “Check Your Privilege”, in the same sentence (sentence 5), is used against privileged people as a reminder about how their position allows them certain privileges. The phrase is sometimes used to shut down intelligent conversations. “This is aimed at silencing the opinions of those whose obliviousness to their entitlement…” in sentence 4 refers to the rebuke “Check your privilege,” mentioned in sentence 5. Hence, we get the sequence 3-1-5-4. The paragraph is then smoothly concluded by sentence 2. Hence, the correct answer is 31542. Correct Answer: 31542 Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 17 %

1. And the number of young people in Africa is expected to grow in the decades ahead. 2. The other thing that strikes me during my trips to Africa is the unbridled optimism of the young generation. 3. Africa is the world’s youngest continent. 4. Even in the face of some tough health and development challenges, most of the youth I meet have a positive outlook about the future. 5. Sixty percent of Africans are under the age of 25; the median age is 19.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The starter sentencecan be easily identified as sentence 3, which states that Africa is the world’s you ngest continent. Sentences 1, 2, and 4 depend on other sentences for their complete meaning and, hence, unsuitable for being the starter sentence. Sentence 5 explains why Africa is called the youngest continent-- sixty percent of Africans are under the age of 25 and the median age is 19. So, sentences 3 and 5 are logically connected. So, the 3-5 pair introduces the passage. The next sentence is also not difficult to identify. Sentence 1 continues the idea of Africa being the youngest continent by adding that it’s going to remain so for decades – or that the number of young people in Africa is expected to grow in the decades ahead. So we get the sequence 3- 5- 1. Placing sentences 2 and 4 after this sequence is also very easy. Sentence 2, which refers to the optimism of the youth in Africa that the narrator has observed, comes next, and then sentence 4 closes the paragraph. Sentence 4 says that, in spite of the adverse conditions they face, the youth in Africa maintain their positive attitude. Hence the correct sequence is 35124. Correct Answer: 35124 Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

1. It was understood to have both positive emotional and behavioral elements. 2. The idea is that consumers become attached to particular companies/brands, form a relationship with them, and seek to preserve the relationship. 3. “Loyalty,” as in customer or brand loyalty, is an old idea in business and marketing, dating back to at least the 1940s. 4. Marketers expend a great deal of energy trying to cultivate such “loyalty.” 5. There is also an attitudinal and affective attachment that keeps the customer coming back regardless of convenience or changes in features or price relative to the competition.

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Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. ‘It…’ in sentence 1, ‘the idea is that…’ in sentence 2, ‘…such loyalty’ in sentence 4 and ‘there is also…’ in sentence 5 make these sentences unsuitable for the starter. So, we can be sure that sentence 3 starts the paragraph - it introduces the idea of ‘brand loyalty’. On examining the remaining sentences, we find that there is more than one sentence that can follow sentence 3. Sentences 1, 2 and 4 appear to be logical after sentence 3. Sentence 4 that talks about ‘such loyalty’ is the least likely because ‘such loyalty’ is rather vague after sentence 3. Between sentences 2 and 1, sentence 1 talks about how the ‘it’ or the ‘concept of loyalty’ “was understood,”; originally, this past tense relates to sentence 3— specifically, to that part which terms loyalty as “…an old idea in business and marketing, dating back to at least the 1940s.” Thus, we get the mandatory pair 3-1. When we consider sentences 2 and 5, we see that both run along similar lines in that they speak about the distinctive ‘relationship’ or ‘attachment’ that exists between companies/ brands and their customers. Together, both of them will form a consecutive pair; and sentence 2 would be followed by sentence 5, forming the 2-5 pair, because sentence 5 starts with “There is also…” Thus we have two mandatory pairs. 3-1 and 2-5. Sentence 4 can be placed after either 3-1 as 31425, or 2-5 as 31254. The sequence 3-1-4 is unsuitable. “Such loyalty” mentioned in sentence 4 refers to the description of loyalty in sentence 5 as “an attitudinal and affective attachment that keeps the customer coming back regardless of convenience or changes…” Hence, the sequence 2-5-4 is the most logical: it says that marketers expend a great deal of energy to cultivate the kind of loyalty [in their customers] that keeps them ‘coming back regardless of convenience or changes in features or price relative to the competition.’ Hence the correct answer is 31254. Correct Answer: 31254 Time taken by you: 27 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 16 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and enter its number as your answer. 1. Today, they live in the imagination of poets, archaeologists, and historians. 2. For those who seek examples of civilization's perdurability, the historical record is not reassuring. 3. Sumeria today is but eroding ziggurats on the plain of Shinar. 4. Remains of the Egyptian Empire, are but the massive ruins and museum relics of Thebes. 5. Through the ages the death of civilizations, like the death of human beings, has fascinated unnumbered observers of the human condition.

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Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. On first glance itself we can see that both, sentences 3 and 4 run along similar lines. Sentence 3 says that Sumeria (the ancient civilization) does not exist anymore, except in the relics - as eroding ziggurats, or temples of the ancient Mesopotamia. Similarly, sentence 4 is about the massive ruins of the Egyptian Empire. Neither of these sentences can be the odd sentence. When we try to relate other sentences to these two sentences, we see that sentence 2 is an explanation of sentences 3 and 4, that, someone who seeks examples of the long duration or perdurability of civilizations is not quite reassured by these relics. In short civilizations are temporary and leave no lasting impact other than the relics. So the theme of the paragraph becomes clear through these three sentences. Of the remaining two sentences, sentence 5 is again on the death of civilizations and our fascination with the ancient civilization as we are fascinated by our own human condition. Sentence 1 on the contrary talks about how civilizations live on in the imagination of poets, archeologists and historians – and, hence, is not related to the train of thought pursued in the other four sentences. Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 116 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and enter its number as your answer. 1. Technology is imagined as the ‘other.’ 2. It is sufficiently in our own image to allow identification but having enough points of departure to cause paranoia. 3. The western imagination of technology is anthropomorphic. 4. It is a lot like us and there are some differences which we don’t understand and may hold untold power. 5. It is a ‘thing’ that is done too; agency continues to be with the human.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. In this question it is easy to identify the starter sentence. Sentences 2, 4, and 5 begin with the pronoun “it” and require a clear antecedent. We can see that the pronoun “it” refers to “technology” mentioned in sentences 1 and 3. Between sentences 1 and 3 – we can be certain that sentence 3 is the beginning of the paragraph. Besides, we can understand that sentence 3 is an explicit statement of the theme of the paragraph as well – which is that “the western imagination of technology is anthropomorphic.” Anthropomorphic: Described or thought of as having human form or human attributes. With this understanding of what anthropomorphism is, it becomes clear that sentence 2, which begins, ‘it is sufficiently in our own image…” and sentence 4 which states, “it is a lot like us…” are consistent with the anthropomorphic view of technology. We need to choose the odd sentence between sentences 1 and 5. Sentence 1 can be related to the anthropomorphic view of technology because if ‘technology is imagined as the other’ it still attributes human qualities to technology. The ‘other’ refers to another human being. Sentence 5 refers to technology as a ‘thing that is done’ or manufactured of which the agency or operation or control is still with humans – hence, it is contrary to the anthropomorphic view of technology. The key to accuracy in this question is in knowing what (the vocabulary item) ‘anthropomorphism’ means. Hence the correct answer is 5. Correct Answer: 5 Time taken by you: 86 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 %

1. He praises peasant dances as an example of nonfrivolous recreation. 2. Yet much of his enthusiasm for leisure rests on the artistic and scientific endeavors that idle time enables. 3. When Russell surveys the cultural contributions made by the hereditary leisure class, he finds cause for skepticism. 4. He echoes the language of the economist Thorstein Veblen when he asserts, that without the leisure class, mankind would never have emerged from barbarism. 5. Russell claims that an intelligent use of leisure does not encompass only “highbrow” activities.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. As we read the five sentences, we understand that the antecedent of ‘he’ in these sentences is Russell, mentioned in sentences 5 and 3. We can now relate sentences 5 and 1. They form the mandatory pair 5-1. In case, you worked with sentence 3 as the starter, you would come to a dead-end, unable to connect any other sentence to it. Besides, 5-1 is logical in that “highbrow” activities are contrasted with the peasant dances in the 5-1 pair. The theme of the paragraph can now be deduced, which is intelligent use of leisure. We can now see that sentence 4 is related to this theme. Sentence 4 explains that Russell echoed Veblen’s view that leisure and leisure class in society were important, as without them “mankind would never have emerged from barbarism.” Between the two remaining sentences – sentences 2 and 3, sentence 2 talks about how Russell believed leisure played an important role in artistic and scientific endeavors. The sentence begins with ‘yet’ only to contrast the different ways in which Russell and Veblen felt as to how leisure was important. It is not possible to relate sentence 3 to this them as it talks about Russell’s skepticism about the contributions made by leisure. This contradicts the rest of the passage. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 58 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. K, L, M and N wrote the Class XII Board Mathematics exam. The answer sheet of each person was evaluated by four professors – P, Q, R and S. Each professor gave one or the other of three grades A, B and C to each of the four students. Final marks in the exam is the weighted average of the grades given by the four professors. The weightage given to grade A is twice that of grade B and thrice that of grade C. The four students are given ranks in the descending order of their final marks in the exam i.e., the student with the highest total marks is given rank 1, the student with second highest total marks is given rank 2 and so on. The following table provides information about the count of number of grades given by the four professors.

The following points are known: I. P and S gave grades A and C respectively to K. II. Q and R gave grades C and B respectively to L. III. P and R gave grades C and A respectively to M. IV. Both Q and S gave grade B to N. V. Each student got grade A as well as grade B from at least one of the four professors. VI.No two students got the same rank in the exam. 1) Who got the first rank?

K L N Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From the table given, we can see that A grade was given 6 times, B grade was given 6 times and C grade was given 4 times. From statement V, each of the student got A and B grade at least once. We have yet to account for two more A grades, two more B grades and four more C grades. Two remaining A grades can be distributed either to only one student or one A grade to two students each. Note that exactly two students cannot be given grades C, as it would violate condition VI. Case 1: Each student was given grade C. In this case two remaining A grades are given to two different students and two remaining B grades are given to two remaining students. Thus, two students were given grades (A, B, A, C) and two students were given grades (A, B, B, C). This violates condition VI. So, this case is not valid. Case 2: Exactly three students were given grades C. Therefore one of the students must have got 2 C grades. i.e., (A, B, C, C) If the student who was not given grade C was given two remaining A grades i.e., (A, B, A, A), then the grade of the remaining students would be (A, B, B, C). This is not valid as it violates condition VI. Therefore, the only possible case is as given below.

Now from the statement I, II, III and IV following table can be concluded:

Now we know exactly one student got grades A, A, B, B. Since K ,L and M got at least one C grade. Definitely N got the grades A, B, A, B from Professor P, Q, R and S respectively. It is known that Professor P gave two A grades, one B grade and one C grade, Thus L got B grade from Professor P. L got grades A, B, B and C and he/she got A grade from Professor S. M got C grade from Professor S and B grade from Professor Q. And K got A grade from Professor Q and B grade from Professor R. The ratio of weightages to grades A, B and C is 6 : 3 : 2. Suppose A = 6, B = 3 and C = 2

N got the first rank. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: N

Time taken by you: 496 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 512 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 2) Who got the third rank?

K L M Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From the table given, we can see that A grade was given 6 times, B grade was given 6 times and C grade was given 4 times. From statement V, each of the student got A and B grade at least once. We have yet to account for two more A grades, two more B grades and four more C grades. Two remaining A grades can be distributed either to only one student or one A grade to two students each. Note that exactly two students cannot be given grades C, as it would violate condition VI. Case 1: Each student was given grade C. In this case two remaining A grades are given to two different students and two remaining B grades are given to two remaining students. Thus, two students were given grades (A, B, A, C) and two students were given grades (A, B, B, C). This violates condition VI. So, this case is not valid. Case 2: Exactly three students were given grades C. Therefore one of the students must have got 2 C grades. i.e., (A, B, C, C) If the student who was not given grade C was given two remaining A grades i.e., (A, B, A, A), then the grade of the remaining students would be (A, B, B, C). This is not valid as it violates condition VI. Therefore, the only possible case is as given below.

Now from the statement I, II, III and IV following table can be concluded:

L got the third rank. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: L

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 3) Professor S gave which of the following grades to M?

C A B Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From the table given, we can see that A grade was given 6 times, B grade was given 6 times and C grade was given 4 times. From statement V, each of the student got A and B grade at least once. We have yet to account for two more A grades, two more B grades and four more C grades. Two remaining A grades can be distributed either to only one student or one A grade to two students each. Note that exactly two students cannot be given grades C, as it would violate condition VI. Case 1: Each student was given grade C. In this case two remaining A grades are given to two different students and two remaining B grades are given to two remaining students. Thus, two students were given grades (A, B, A, C) and two students were given grades (A, B, B, C). This violates condition VI. So, this case is not valid. Case 2: Exactly three students were given grades C. Therefore one of the students must have got 2 C grades. i.e., (A, B, C, C) If the student who was not given grade C was given two remaining A grades i.e., (A, B, A, A), then the grade of the remaining students would be (A, B, B, C). This is not valid as it violates condition VI. Therefore, the only possible case is as given below.

Now from the statement I, II, III and IV following table can be concluded:

Professor S gave grade C to M. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: C

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 4) What was the rank of K in the exam? Rank 2 Rank 1 Either rank 1 or rank 2 Neither rank 1 or rank 2 Video Explanation: Explanation: From the table given, we can see that A grade was given 6 times, B grade was given 6 times and C grade was given 4 times. From statement V, each of the student got A and B grade at least once. We have yet to account for two more A grades, two more B grades and four more C grades. Two remaining A grades can be distributed either to only one student or one A grade to two students each. Note that exactly two students cannot be given grades C, as it would violate condition VI. Case 1: Each student was given grade C. In this case two remaining A grades are given to two different students and two remaining B grades are given to two remaining students. Thus, two students were given grades (A, B, A, C) and two students were given grades (A, B, B, C). This violates condition VI. So, this case is not valid. Case 2: Exactly three students were given grades C. Therefore one of the students must have got 2 C grades. i.e., (A, B, C, C) If the student who was not given grade C was given two remaining A grades i.e., (A, B, A, A), then the grade of the remaining students would be (A, B, B, C). This is not valid as it violates condition VI. Therefore, the only possible case is as given below.

Now from the statement I, II, III and IV following table can be concluded:

K got the second rank. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Rank 2

Time taken by you: 216 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Roger and his friend Mark decided to bet on a football match between Manchester United and Real Madrid. The different outcomes and their respective odds to total match goals are listed below: Outcome 1: Less than one goal, Odds: 9/1 Outcome 2: Less than two goals, Odds: 4/1 Outcome 3: More than one goal, Odds: 1/3 Outcome 4: More than two goals, Odds: 1/1 Outcome 5: More than three goals, Odds: 5/1 Roger placed bets of Rs. 10,000, Rs. 5,000, Rs. 24,000, Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 2,000 on outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. Mark placed bets of Rs. 5,000, Rs. 15,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 5,000 on outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. Both Roger and Mark deposited the total amount for the bets on the five outcomes before the match began. This amount is not returned to them. Odds of 9/1 means that if the outcome is realized, then every one rupee placed as a bet on that outcome will result into a profit of Rs. 9 i.e., a person who bets will get a total of Rs. 10 (1 + 9 = 10) back on every single rupee placed as a bet. Similarly, odds of 4/1 means that every rupee placed as a bet fetches Rs. 5 (1 + 4 = 5). Similar logic applies for the other values of the odds. Total profit of both Roger and Mark is calculated as the difference between the total amount they had at the end of the match and the total amount for the bets they deposited before the match began.

1) If both Roger and Mark made total profit greater than zero (i.e. both had more amount with them at the end of the match than they initially placed as bet), then which of the following can be the number of goals scored in the match? 1 2 3 None of these

Video Explanation: Explanation: Total amount pledged by Roger = 10000 + 5000 + 24000 + 15000 + 2000= Rs. 56,000 Total amount pledged by Mark = 5000 + 15000 + 12000 + 30000 + 5000 = Rs. 67,000 If no goal is scored in the match, outcome 1 and 2 are realized while others are not. Total profit of Roger if no goal is scored = 10 × 10000 + 5 × 5000 – 56000 = 69000 Total profit of Mark if no goal is scored = 10 × 5000 + 5 × 15000 - 67000 = 58000 If one goal is scored in the match, outcome 2 is realized while others are not. Total profit of Roger if one goal is scored = 5000 × 5 – 56000 = –31000 Total profit of Mark if one goal is scored = 15000 × 5 – 67000 = 8000

Thus, we have

As both made total profit greater than zero, the number of goals scored in the match can be 0, 3 or more than 3. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 239 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 % 2) Both Roger and Mark are perfectly rational individuals and both of them want to maximize their profit. In that case, how many total goals they

would want to see scored in the match? (Write 4 if your answer is ‘More than 3’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Total amount pledged by Roger = 10000 + 5000 + 24000 + 15000 + 2000= Rs. 56,000 Total amount pledged by Mark = 5000 + 15000 + 12000 + 30000 + 5000 = Rs. 67,000

If no goal is scored in the match, outcome 1 and 2 are realized while others are not. Total profit of Roger if no goal is scored = 10 × 10000 + 5 × 5000 – 56000 69000 Total profit of Mark if no goal is scored = 10 × 5000 + 5 × 15000 - 67000 = 58000 If one goal is scored in the match, outcome 2 is realized while others are not. Total profit of Roger if one goal is scored = 5000 × 5 – 56000 = –31000 Total profit of Mark if one goal is scored = 15000 × 5 – 67000 = 8000

Thus, we have

It can be seen that they would earn maximum profit it no goal was scored. Therefore the required answer is 0.

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 %

3) What is the profit made by Mark if Roger made a loss of Rs. 31,000? (Write 0 if Mark also made a loss when Roger made a loss of Rs. 31,000).

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

4) If total 4 goals are scored in the match, what is the sum of the total profit made by Roger and Mark? Rs. 57,000 Rs. 55,000 Rs. 54,000 Rs. 15,000 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Total amount pledged by Roger = 10000 + 5000 + 24000 + 15000 + 2000= Rs. 56,000 Total amount pledged by Mark = 5000 + 15000 + 12000 + 30000 + 5000 = Rs. 67,000 If no goal is scored in the match, outcome 1 and 2 are realized while others are not. Total profit of Roger if no goal is scored = 10 × 10000 + 5 × 5000 – 56000 69000 Total profit of Mark if no goal is scored = 10 × 5000 + 5 × 15000 - 67000 = 58000 If one goal is scored in the match, outcome 2 is realized while others are not. Total profit of Roger if one goal is scored = 5000 × 5 – 56000 = –31000 Total profit of Mark if one goal is scored = 15000 × 5 – 67000 = 8000

Thus, we have

The required answer = 18000 + 39000 = Rs. 57,000 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Rs. 57,000

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Kittu has to plan for a party for her mother’s birthday. She visits 4 local caterers, named Fun Food Caterings, Seema Caterings, Mayo Caterings and Kapoor Caterings. The four caterers offer different types of starters, desserts, salads and cold drinks under different menu heads. In all, Kittu gets 10 menu heads – Chatpata, Lajawab, Yummy-Tummy, Teekhi Mirchi, Meetha Khaan, Kids’ Favourites, Paramparik, Dil Khush, Delightful and Birthday Special. She made a table of all menu heads but forgot to mention which menu head belongs to which company. However, she remembers the total number of items of starters, desserts, salads and cold drinks of each catering company, as given below. Menu head details :

Caterer-wise break-up of the food item types is as follows:

It is known that Yummy-Tummy and Meetha Khaan are not offered by Fun Food Caterings. 1) Menu head ‘Paramparik’ belongs to which caterer? Mayo Caterings Fun Food Caterings Seema Caterings Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: TeekhiMirchi has 3 starters. Therefore it can be from either Seema Caterings or Mayo Caterings. If Teekhi Mirchi is from Mayo Caterings, we would have accounted for all starters of Mayo. So only Dil Khush or Birthday Special (but not both) can be from Mayo, apart from Teekhi Mirchi, as they have 0 starters. But in that case, we will not be able to account for all 4 cold drinks. Therefore Teekhi Mirchi is from Seema Caterings. We have yet to account for 2 starters, 2 desserts, 1 salad and 1 cold drink of Seema Caterings. Meetha Khaan has 3 desserts. Therefore, it cannot be from Seema Caterings and Mayo Caterings. It is also given that Meetha Khaan is not from Fun Food Caterings. Thus, Meetha Khaan is from Kapoor Caterings. We have yet to account for 1 starter, 1 salad and 1 cold drink of Kapoor Caterings. Therefore, Kapoor Caterings can offer Yummy-Tummy or Kids’ Favourite. But Kids’ favourite has 2 cold drinks. So Kapoor Caterings cannot offer Kids’ Favourite. Hence, Kapoor Caterings offers Yummy-Tummy. Thus, Kapoor Caterings: Meetha Khaan and Yummy-Tummy Mayo Caterings offers 3 starters, 1 dessert, 0 salad and 4 cold drinks. Menu Paramparik has two desserts. Therefore it cannot be offered by Mayo Caterings. Now, all possible menu heads for Mayo Caterings; i.e. menu heads which do not offer salads are: Chatpata, Lajawab, Kid’s Favourite and Dil Khush. Now to have 3 starters ‘Kids’ Favourite’ is definitely one of the menu heads of Mayo Caterings. Now we have yet to account for 2 cold drinks, so definitely ‘Lajawab’ has to be the other menu head of Mayo Caterings. Thus, Mayo Caterings: Kids’ Favourite and Lajawab Of the remaining menu options, Seema Caterings cannot offer Delightful as it has 2 salads. Therefore, it can be concluded that Fun Food Caterings offers ‘Delightful’. As ‘Chatpata’ has 2 starters, Fun Food Caterings cannot offer this menu. So, Seema Caterings offers ‘Chatpata’ We have yet to account for 1 dessert, 1 salad and 1 cold drink of Seema Caterings. It can be concluded that Seema Caterings offers ‘Birthday Special’. Therefore, Paramparik and Dil Khush are offered by Fun Food Caterers. Thus, Fun Food Caterings: Paramparik, Dil Khush and Delightful Seema Caterings: Chatpata, Teekhi Mirchi and Birthday Special Mayo Caterings: Kids’ Favourite and Lajawab Kapoor Caterings: Meetha Khaan and Yummy-Tummy ‘Paramparik’ belongs to Fun Food Caterings. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Fun Food Caterings

Time taken by you: 572 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 470 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 2) Which of the following caterers offers exactly two menu heads? Kapoor Caterings Fun Food Caterings Seema Caterings None of these Video Explanation:

Thus, Fun Food Caterings: Paramparik, Dil Khush and Delightful Seema Caterings: Chatpata, Teekhi Mirchi and Birthday Special Mayo Caterings: Kids’ Favourite and Lajawab Kapoor Caterings: Meetha Khaan and Yummy-Tummy Among the given options, Kapoor Caterings offers exactly 2 menu heads. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Kapoor Caterings

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 80 % 3) Which of the following option does not contain even a single menu head offered by Seema Caterings? Chatpata & Birthday Special Teekhi Mirchi & Meetha Khaan Chatpata & Teekhi Mirchi Yummy -Tummy & Meetha Khaan Video Explanation:

‘Yummy-Tummy’ & ‘Meetha Khaan’ are not the menu heads offerd by Seema Caterings. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Yummy -Tummy & Meetha Khaan

Time taken by you: 195 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 4) All the menu heads offered by how many of the four caterers can be uniquely determined. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

All the menu heads offered by all the 4 caterers can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In the city of Pagapur, there is a Hospital (H), Temple (T), Mosque (M), Church (C), Gurudwara (G), School (S) and a Park (P). The following pairs of places are interconnected by roads: C & S, C & M, M & G, S & P, S & T, P & G, T & G, G & H and H & T. Buses originate from each of these places and travel only to the places directly connected by roads. For example, buses starting from Gurudwara travel to only Park, Temple, Mosque or Hospital. Passengers have to take connecting buses from intermediate locations, if no direct bus connecting the origin with the destination is available. All the buses that originate from H, T, M, C, G, S and P charge Rs. 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 and 16 (in no particular order) from each passenger. 1) What is the minimum possible amount (in Rs.) that a person has to pay if he wants to go from the Church to the Hospital? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using the information given below about the pairs of connected places, we can draw the network diagram as shown below:

He can take the route C – S – T – H or C – M – G – H We don’t know the exact fare of the buses that originate from different places. But the minimum possible fare = 10 + 11 + 12 = Rs. 33 Therefore the required answer is 33.

Correct Answer: 33

Time taken by you: 852 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 258 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 62 % 2) How many different routes can a person take if he wants to go from the School to the Gurudwara without visiting any of the given places twice? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using the information given below about the pairs of connected places, we can draw the network diagram as shown below:

Route 1: S – P – G Route 2: S – T – G Route 3: S – T – H – G Route 4: S – C – M – G Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 97 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 3) Both Ramesh and Suresh started from the Temple and reached the Mosque via at least two of the given places. Ramesh paid Rs. 45 whereas Suresh paid Rs. 39 for the journey. If the amounts one has to pay if one travels from the School and the Gurudwara are Rs. 12 and Rs. 15 respectively, then what is the minimum possible amount Ramesh has to pay if he travels to the Temple from the Park? Rs. 21 Rs. 23 Rs. 22 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using the information given below about the pairs of connected places, we can draw the network diagram as shown below:

Ramesh paid Rs. 45 from Temple to the Mosque whereas Suresh paid Rs. 39. This means they took different routes. If they visited at least two places on their way, they could have taken the following routes: a. T-S-C-M b. T-S-P-G-M c. T-H-G-M It is given that the fare of the buses originating from Gurudwara and School are Rs. 15 and Rs. 12 respectively. Therefore, the minimum fare on the route T-S-P-G-M is 15 + 12 + 10 + 11 = 48. Therefore, neither of them took the route T-S-P-G-M. Therefore, they took routes T-S-C-M and T-H-G-M. One of the two routes had a fare of Rs. 39 and the other had a fare of Rs. 45. Fare on the route T-S-C-M: T + 12 + C Fare on the route T-H-G-M: T + H + 15 If the fare on the route T-S-C-M were to be Rs. 45, T + C = 33. It is not possible as no two numbers out of the remaining numbers add to 33. Therefore, the fare on the route T-S-C-M is Rs. 39. Therefore T + C = 27. Therefore, the fare on the route T-H-G-M is Rs. 45 or T + H = 30.

From (T + C = 27) and (T + H = 30) we get case (i): T = 16, H = 14 and C = 11 OR case (ii) T = 14, H = 16 and C = 13 In both the cases (i) and (ii), the buses originating from the park can charge a minimum amount of Rs. 10. We already know that S = 12 and G = 15. From the Park, one can take route P – S – T or P – G – T to the Temple. In order to minimize the total fare, P = 10. Therefore, the minimum fare = 10 + 12 = Rs. 22. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Rs. 22

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 148 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 % 4) On each of the six days of the week – Monday to Saturday, Rajan starts from the Park and visits the remaining six places (one place everyday). He starts from the Park in the morning and returns to the Park in the evening after visiting the place, taking the same route that he took in the morning. What could be the minimum possible total fare paid by Rajan over the six days? Rs. 220 Rs. 214 Rs. 210 Rs. 230

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Visit toS : P – S – P Visit to G : P – G – P Visit to T : P – G – T – G – P or P – S – T – S – P Visit to H : P – G – H – G – P Visit to M : P – G – M – G – P Visit to C : P – S – C – S – P Rajan has to take buses originating from P(6 times) and the buses originating from T, H, M and C one time. If he takes path P – G – T – G – P to visit Temple, he would take buses originating from G 7 times and the buses originating from S 3 times. If he takes path P – S – T – S – P to visit Temple, he would take buses originating from G 5 times and the buses originating from S 5 times. In case 1, for minimizing the total fare, the fare of the buses originating from G, P and S should be Rs. 10, 11 and 12 respectively. In case 2, for minimizing the total fare, the fare of the buses originating from P, S and G should be Rs. 10, 11 and 12 respectively. In case 1, total fare = (7 × 10 + 6 × 11 + 3 × 12 + 1 × 13 + 1 × 14 + 1 × 15 + 1 × 16 = 230) In case 2, total fare = (6 × 10 + 5 × 11 + 5 × 12 + 1 × 13 + 1 × 14 + 1 × 15 + 1 × 16 = 233) Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Rs. 230

Time taken by you: 299 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 174 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a game, Razzmatazz, a circle was divided into 16 identical slots as shown in the figure given below.

Two children Pintu and Chintu are playing the game in turns. Bot is used to play this game. The slot on which the bot is placed becomes the current slot of the bot. Initially, the bots used by Pintu and Chintu are placed on slot 10, and their scores are 10 each. The scores are modified with the movements from one slot to another as per the rules and regulations given below:

After 3 moves each by Chintu and Pintu it was observed that the difference, D, between their scores was maximum possible. 1) What is the value of D? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum possible scoreis obtained when all three moves are in clockwise direction (i.e., from 10- 11-12-13) Maximum possible score after three moves = 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 = 46 Minimum possible score is obtained when 1 st move is diagonally opposite to 2, 2 nd move is anti-clockwise to 1 and 3rd move is clockwise to 2 (i.e., 10-2-1-2). Minimum possible score after 3 moves = 10 + (2 + 4) + (1 - 3) + 2 = 16 Value of D = 46 – 16 = 30.

Therefore, the required answer is 30.

Correct Answer: 30

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 % 2) After the fifth move, both Chintu and Pintu are on the same slot. What could be the difference between their cumulative scores then?

32 21 23 33 Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum possible scoreis obtained when all three moves are in clockwise direction (i.e., from 10- 11-12-13) Maximum possible score after three moves = 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 = 46 Minimum possible score is obtained when 1 st move is diagonally opposite to 2, 2 nd move is anti-clockwise to 1 and 3rd move is clockwise to 2 (i.e., 10-2-1-2). Minimum possible score after 3 moves = 10 + (2 + 4) + (1 - 3) + 2 = 16 As D is maximum after three moves, one child has placed bot on slot 13 and the other child has placed it on slot 2. They are on the same slot after 5 moves. Case 1: Child 1 moves bot from 13-5-4 and Child 2 moves bot from 2-3-4. Score of child 1: 46 + (5 + 4) + (4 - 3) = 56; Score of child 2: 16 + 3 + 4 = 23. The difference = 56 – 23 = 33 Case 2: Child 1 moves bot from 13-12-11 and Child 2 moves bot from 2-10-11. Score of child 1: 46 + (12 - 3) + (11 - 3) = 63; Score of child 2: 16 + (10 + 4) + 11 = 41. The difference = 63 – 41 = 22 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 33

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 % 3) If Chintu’s score after first 3 moves was higher than that of Pintu, then what is the minimum number of moves (starting from the beginning) Chintu could be at slot 8? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Maximum possible scoreis obtained when all three moves are in clockwise direction (i.e., from 10- 11-12-13) Maximum possible score after three moves = 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 = 46 Minimum possible score is obtained when 1 st move is diagonally opposite to 2, 2 nd move is anti-clockwise to 1 and 3rd move is clockwise to 2 (i.e., 10-2-1-2). Minimum possible score after 3 moves = 10 + (2 + 4) + (1 - 3) + 2 = 16 As D is maximum after three moves, one child has placed bot on slot 13 and the other child has placed it on slot 2. As Chintu’s score was higher than Pintu, bot used by Chintu and Pintu must be on slot 13 and slot 2 respectively. Case 1: 4th move- from 13 to 12, 5th move – from 12 to 11, 6th move – from 11 to 10, 7th move- from 10 to 9 and 8th move from 9 to 8. Case 2: 4th move- from 13 to 5, 5th move- from 5 to 6, 6th move- from 6 to 7, 7th move- from 7 to 8. Case 3: 4th move- from 13 to 14, 5th move- from 14 to 6, 6th move- from 6 to 7, 7th move- from 7 to 8. Case 4: 4th move- from 13 to 14, 5th move- from 14 to 15, 6th move- from 15 to 7, 7th move- from 7 to 8. Case 5: 4th move- from 13 to 14, 5th move- from 14 to 15, 6th move- from 15 to 16, 7th move- from 16 to 8. Therefore, the required answer is 7.

Correct Answer: 7

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 20 % 4) Which of the following cannot be the cumulative score of Chintu after 4 moves? 14 55 60 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: Maximum possible score is obtained when all three moves are in clockwise direction (i.e., from 10- 11-12-13) Maximum possible score after three moves = 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 = 46 Minimum possible score is obtained when 1 st move is diagonally opposite to 2, 2 nd move is anti-clockwise to 1 and 3rd move is clockwise to 2 (i.e., 10-2-1-2). Minimum possible score after 3 moves = 10 + (2 + 4) + (1 - 3) + 2 = 16 As D is maximum after three moves, one child has placed bot on slot 13 and the other child has placed it on slot 2. Therefore, bot placed by Chintu can be at slot 13 or slot 2 after 3 moves. So his score could be 46 or 16 after 3 moves Chintu can get cumulative score of 14 if bot placed by him is at slot 2 (score = 16) and he move it to slot 1 (score = 16 + 1 – 3 = 14). Chintu can get cumulative score of 55 if bot placed by him is at slot 13 (score = 46) and he move it to slot 12 (score = 46 + 12 – 3 = 55) or slot 5 (score = 46 + 5 + 4 = 55). Chintu can get cumulative score of 60 if bot placed by him is at slot 13 (score = 46) and he move it to slot 14 (score = 46 + 14 = 60). Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Four persons Amitabh, Biswajit, Celina and Daisy are asked to choose exactly one different and unique fruit of out of the following four fruits – Apple, Mango, Guava and Orange. Further it is known that: A. If Amitabh chooses apple, then Biswajit must not choose guava. B. If Biswajit does not choose apple, then Daisy must choose orange. C. If Celina does not choose Mango, then Daisy must choose Mango. D. If Celina does not choose Guava, then Daisy must not choose Mango. E. If Daisy chooses Guava, then Amitabh must not choose orange. 1) In how many different ways the four persons can choose the four different fruits?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: From the statement C it can be deduced that either Celina or Daisy chooses mango Case 1: Celina chooses mango. From statement B, Biswajit can choose guava or apple If Biswajit chooses guava, then from statement B, Daisy must choose orange. This leaves Amitabh choosing an apple. However, this violates condition A. If Biswajit chooses apple, then Daisy and Amitabh choose guava and orange not necessarily in the given order. Now, from statement E, it can be concluded that Daisy chooses orange and Amitabh chooses guava. This satisfies all the conditions. Case 2: Daisy chooses mango. From statement B, Biswajit must have chosen apple. From statement D, Celina must have chosen guava So Amitabh must have chosen orange. This satisfies all the conditions This satisfies all the conditions. Therefore we have the following:

Four persons can choose the four different fruits in two different ways. Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 631 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 149 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 31 % 2) Which of the following persons chose apple? Daisy Celina Biswajit Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From the statement C it can be deduced that either Celina or Daisy chooses mango Case 1: Celina chooses mango. From statement B,Biswajit can choose guava or apple If Biswajit chooses guava, then from statement B, Daisy must choose orange. This leaves Amitabh choosing an apple. However, this violates condition A. If Biswajit chooses apple, then Daisy and Amitabh choose guava and orange not necessarily in the given order. Now, from statement E, it can be concluded that Daisy chooses orange and Amitabh chooses guava. This satisfies all the conditions. Case 2: Daisy chooses mango. From statement B, Biswajit must have chosen apple. From statement D, Celina must have chosen guava So Amitabh must have chosen orange. This satisfies all the conditions This satisfies all the conditions. Therefore we have the following:

In both the cases, Biswajit chose apple. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Biswajit

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 138 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 70 % 3) Which of the following persons chose orange? Daisy Celina Amitabh Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Either Amitabh or Daisy chose orange. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 4) For how many persons, the fruit chosen by them can be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

From the statement C it can be deduced that either Celina or Daisy chooses mango

Case 1: Celina chooses mango. From statement B, Biswajit can choose guava or apple If Biswajit chooses guava, then from statement B, Daisy must choose orange. This leaves Amitabh choosing an apple. However, this violates condition A. If Biswajit chooses apple, then Daisy and Amitabh choose guava and orange not necessarily in the given order. Now, from statement E, it can be concluded that Daisy chooses orange and Amitabh chooses guava. This satisfies all the conditions. Case 2: Daisy chooses mango. From statement B, Biswajit must have chosen apple. From statement D, Celina must have chosen guava So Amitabh must have chosen orange. This satisfies all the conditions This satisfies all the conditions. Therefore we have the following:

The fruit chosen only by Biswajit can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In all 12 employees work in a call center in three shifts viz, 7 am to 3 pm, 3 pm to 11 pm and 11 pm to 7 am. There are only four working cabins, each of which is occupied by only one person at a time. Some more information is available as follows: 1. The employees whose names start with the same letter do not work in the same shift or in the same cabin. 2. Vicky, Roze and Tapan work in the same cabin. 3. Amy, Tapan and Nancy work in the same shift. 4. Laurie works in the same cabin as Amy and she works in the same shift as Amin does. 5. Ana, Vicky and Maria work in the same shift. 6. Keshav works in the same cabin as Romy and comes at 7 am when Romy leaves after completing her shift. 7. Roze chooses to work in the shifts 7 am to 3 pm or 3 pm to 11 pm. Roze and Kesar do not work in the same shift. 1) Which of the following two do not work in the same shift? Ana – Kesar Amy – Romy Laurie– Romy Keshav – Amin Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement 1, Ana, Amin and Amy work in different shifts and work in different cabins. From statement 2, Vicky, Roze and Tapan work in a different cabin than Ana, Amin and Amy. From statements 3 and 5, Tapan works in the same shift as Amy and Vicky works in the same shift as Ana. Roze works in the same shift as Amin. Now using statement 4, we can tabulate the derived data as follows:

From statement 6 and the table above, Keshav and Romy work in the same cabin as Ana. Then Nancy must be working in the same cabin as Amin. Now since Keshav works from 7 am - 3 pm, Romy works from 11 pm - 7 am and Roze works from 7 am - 3 pm or 3 pm - 11 pm, Keshav works in the same shift as Roze. Thus, we get the table as:

Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Laurie– Romy

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 668 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 2) Who works in the same cabin as Amin and comes to the call center when Amin leaves? Maria Nancy Romy Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Either Kesar or Maria works in the same cabin as Amin and comes when Amin leaves. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 47 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) _______ does not work in the 11 pm - 7 am shift. Vicky Romy Nancy Tapan Video Explanation:

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Vicky

Time taken by you: 11 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 % 4) The shifts of working of how many of the 12 people mentioned can be uniquely determined? 12 10 9 8 Video Explanation:

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 12

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Eight mobile handsets – Galaxy Note 8, Galaxy S8+, Galaxy S8, iPhone X, iPhone 8 Plus, Pixel 2 Plus, Redmi A1, and Redmi Note 5 were nominated for the Gadget of the Year in the mobile handset category. Rajeev, the judge for the event, was given a three week period (Week 1 to 3), in which he has to use one or the other of these handsets in order to decide the winner handset. The following table provides information regarding to the company and the category (Flagship, Premium and Budget) of the eight mobile handsets.

Rajeev uses all of the given eight handsets in such a way that in each week, he has to use at least two mobile handsets. If he uses exactly three handsets in Week 1, then he must use exactly three mobile handsets in Week 2. If he uses exactly two mobile handsets in Week 2, then he must use exactly two mobile handsets in Week 3. He will not use any mobile handset more than once in the given period. Further, it is known that: 1. If Rajeev uses two or more mobile handsets of SAMSUNG in a week, he must also use the mobile handset from GOOGLE in that week. 2. If Rajeev uses a mobile handset from APPLE in a week, he must also use the mobile handset from XIAOMI in that week. 3. If Rajeev uses both the mobile handsets from APPLE in the same week, then that week has to be Week 3. 4. Rajeev uses at least one SAMSUNG handset in Week 1. 1) Which of the following can be a complete and accurate list of the mobile handsets used by Rajeev in Week 3? Pixel 2 Plus and Galaxy S8+ Galaxy Note 8 and iPhone X Galaxy S8 and Redmi A1 Pixel 2 Plus, iPhone 8 and Redmi Note 5 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that there are 3 weeks and Rajeev cannot use less than 2 mobile handsets in any of these weeks. The different possibilities are:

But it is given that 3 mobile handsets used in Week 1implies 3 mobile handsets used in Week 2. And 2 mobile handsets used in Week 2 imply 2 mobile handsets used in Week 3. Hence, two of the six possibilities are not valid:

Option 1: GOOGLE and SAMSUNG Option 2: SAMSUNG and APPLE Option 3: SAMSUNG and XIAOMI Option 4: GOOGLE, APPLE and XIAOMI Using condition 2, option [2] is eliminated. If GOOGLE, APPLE and XIAOMI are used in Week 3, either Week 1 or Week 2 will have at least 2 SAMSUNG handsets, without a GOOGLE handset (as it is used in Week 3). Using condition 1, option [4] is eliminated. From condition 2, XIAOMI must be used only with APPLE as there are 2 handsets of XIAOMI and APPLE each. So SAMSUNG and XIAOMI cannot be used in Week 3. Therefore option [3] is eliminated. Option [1] satisfies all the conditions. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Pixel 2 Plus and Galaxy S8+

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 272 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 % 2) If Rajeev uses Galaxy Note 8 and Pixel 2 Plus in Week 2, then which of the following could be true? Rajeev uses Galaxy S8 and Galaxy S8+ in Week 1 Rajeev uses iPhone 8 in Week 1 Rajeev uses Redmi A1 and Redmi Note 5 in Week 3 None of the above Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that there are 3 weeks and Rajeev cannot use less than 2 mobile handsets in any of these weeks. The different possibilities are:

Week 1: SAMSUNG, ___________ Week 2: SAMSUNG, GOOGLE, _________ Week 3: __________

Option [1]: If Rajeev uses two handsets from SAMSUNG in Week 1, he will need to use GOOGLE handset in Week 1. This is not possible. Option [1] is ruled out.

Option [3]: If Rajeev uses XIAOMI + XIAOMI in Week 3, he will have to use both APPLE handsets in Week 3 to satisfy condition 2 and condition 3 This is not possible as no possibility shows 4 handsets used by Rajeev in Week 3. Option [3] is ruled out.

Option [2]: If Rajeev uses APPLE handset in Week 1, using condition2, he will have to use XIAOMI handset in Week 1. Another APPLE and XIAOMI pair will be used in Week 3 to satisfy condition 2. The remaining SAMSUNG handset will be used in Week 2 so that possibility 3 is satisfied. Thus, option [2] is possible. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Rajeev uses iPhone 8 in Week 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) If Rajeev uses a mobile handset from Apple in Week 1, then how many mobile handsets did he use in Week 2?

2 3 4 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given that there are 3 weeks and Rajeev cannot use less than 2 mobile handsets in any of these weeks. The different possibilities are:

Rajeev uses a mobile handset of APPLE in Week 1. Therefore from conditions 2 and 4, we have: Week 1: SAMSUNG, APPLE, XIAOMI, _____ Week 2: ______ Week 3: _______ He uses either 3 or 4 handsets in Week 1. Case (i): 4 handsets in Week 1. By condition 1, he cannot use one more SAMSUMG handset in Week 1. By condition 3, the fourth handset cannot be APPLE. It cannot be XIAOMI as he has to use it with APPLE in Week 2 or Week 4. If the 4th handset in Week 1 is from GOOGLE, either Week 2 or Week 3 will have another pair of APPLE and XIAOMI to satisfy condition 2 and the remaining week will have both remaining handsets from SAMSUNG, without accompanying GOOGLE handset. This would violate condition 1. Thus, this case is ruled out. Thus, Rajeev uses 3 handsets in Week 1. That means he uses 3 handsets in Week 2 and 2 handsets in Week 3. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 71 % 4)

If Rajeev uses a mobile handset from Apple in Week 1, then in which week did he use Pixel 2 Plus? Week 3 Week 2 Week 1 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given that there are 3 weeks and Rajeev cannot use less than 2 mobile handsets in any of these weeks. The different possibilities are:

Rajeev uses a mobile handset of APPLE in Week 1. Therefore from conditions 2 and 4, we have: Week 1: SAMSUNG, APPLE, XIAOMI, _____ Week 2: ______ Week 3: _______

He uses either 3 or 4 handsets in Week 1. Case (i): 4 handsets in Week 1. By condition 1, he cannot use one more SAMSUMG handset in Week 1. By condition 3, the fourth handset cannot be APPLE. It cannot be XIAOMI as he has to use it with APPLE in Week 2 or Week 4. If the 4th handset in Week 1 is from GOOGLE, either Week 2 or Week 3 will have another pair of APPLE and XIAOMI to satisfy condition 2 and the remaining week will have both remaining handsets from SAMSUNG, without accompanying GOOGLE handset. This would violate condition 1. Thus, this case is ruled out. Thus, Rajeev uses 3 handsets in Week 1. That means he uses 3 handsets in Week 2 and 2 handsets in Week 3.

Two possibilities could be for Week 2 and Week 3 are as: Week 2 - SAMSUNG, APPLE AND XIAOMI; Week 3 - SAMSUNG AND GOOGLE Week 2 - SAMSUNG, SAMSUNG, GOGGLE; Week 3 - APPLE AND XIAOMI Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined undefined

35 63 6 × 34 34 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 35

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 184 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined Santosh and Yudhir started running simultaneously from diametrically opposite points on a circular track. They ran in opposite directions and met after 20 minutes for the first time. If the distance between them (along the circular track) exactly ‘t’ minutes after they start is equal to two-fifths of the length of the track, which of the following is not a possible value of ‘t’?

36 44 60 76

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

So, the cycle of 80% and 20% distance will continue and cumulative time will be as follows: 4 minutes: 4 + 32 = 36 minutes 36 + 8 = 44 minutes 44 + 32 = 76 minutes 76 + 8 = 84 minutes 84 + 32 = 116 minutes 116 + 8 = 124 minutes

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 60 Time taken by you: 280 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Consider the series (1, 3); (5, 7, 9, 11); (13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23)…100 brackets. What is the 23

term in the 61st bracket?

7361 7363 7365 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: In the nth bracket, there are ‘2n’ terms.

The first term in the first bracket = 1 The first term in the second bracket = 5 The first term in the third bracket = 13 The first term in the fourth bracket = 25 and so on. The first difference of the series 1, 5, 13, 25, … is 4, 8, 12, … and the second difference is 4. Therefore, 1, 5, 13, 25, … is a quadratic series. If the series 1, 5, 13, 25, … is of the form An2 + Bn + C, we get For n = 1, A + B + C = 1 For n = 2, 4A + 2B + C = 5 For n = 3, 9A + 3B + C = 13. Solving for A, B and C we get, A = 2, B = –2 and C = 1. Therefore the series is of the form 2n 2 – 2n + 1. \ First term in 61 st bracket = 2(61)2 – 2(61) + 1 = 7321. \ 23rd term = 7321 + 2(23 – 1) = 7365. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 7365 Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 170 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined There are five boxes of fruits. Each box contains mangoes and oranges only. The ratio of number of fruits in the boxes is 1 : 2 : 2 : 3 : 3. Which of the following cannot be the ratio of the total number of mangoes to the total number of oranges in these five boxes, if there are fewer than 200 fruits in the five boxes together?

43 : 1 105 : 16 37 : 29 21 : 13

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of fruits in the boxes be x, 2x, 2x, 3x and 3x respectively. Total number of fruits = 11x If the total number of fruits < 200, it is not possible to divide the fruits into mangoes and oranges in the ratio 21 : 13 and yet divide the fruits in the five boxes in the ratio 1 : 2 : 2 : 3 : 3. In order to be able to do that, the minimum number of fruits required = LCM of 34 and 1 1 = 374. Other options are possible. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 21 : 13 Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of fruits in the boxes be x, 2x, 2x, 3x and 3x respectively. Total number of fruits = 11x

If the total number of fruits < 200, it is not possible to divide the fruits into mangoes and oranges in the ratio 21 : 13 and yet divide the fruits in the five boxes in the ratio 1 : 2 : 2 : 3 : 3. In order to be able to do that, the minimum number of fruits required = LCM of 34 and 1 1 = 374. Other options are possible. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 21 : 13 Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Milk of two different types – A and B are mixed and sold at Rs. y per/litre giving 20% profit. If type A milk is sold at Rs. y per/litre, then there will be a loss of 12%. If in the mixture the ratio of type A to type B milk is 3 : 13, then what is the approximate percentage profit when type B milk is sold at Rs. y per/litre? 43% 37% 27.4% 31%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 31% Time taken by you: 191 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Janta Express left Ahmedabad for Mumbai at 5 a.m. After 4 hours, Duranto Express left Ahmedabad for Mumbai and the speed of Duranto Express was 50 km/hr more than that of Janta Express.At 12 noon on the same day, the trains were 100 km apart. If the trains had travelled continuously without stopping anywhere, then what was the speed of the Janta Express? 62.5 km/hr 12.5 km/hr Either 62.5 km/hr or 12.5 km/hr Neither 62.5 km/hr nor 12.5 km/hr

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let speed of Janta Express bej km/hr Therefore, speed of Duranto Express will be (j + 50) km/hr Either Duranto Express was 100 km ahead of Janta Express or 100 km behind When Janta Express was 100 km ahead : 7j - 3(j + 50) = 100 or 4j = 250 or j = 62.5 When Duranto Express was 100 km ahead : 3(j + 50) – 7j = 100 or 4j = 50 or j = 12.5 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Either 62.5 km/hr or 12.5 km/hr Time taken by you: 246 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined There are 12 identical-looking apples that are randomly arranged in a line. It is known that three of them are spoiled. What is the probability that the second, fifth and ninth apples are spoiled?

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 163 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined If f(x – y) = f(x) – f(y), then find the value of f(6n ) given that x, y and n are natural numbers. 6n+1f(6) 6n f(1) 2f(1) 6f(6)

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Put x = 2y

f(2y – y) = f(2y) – f(y) ? f(y) = f(2y) – f(y) ? f(2y) = 2f(y) …. (i)

Put x = 3y, we get f(3y) = 3f(y) and so on. Thus, f(6n y) = 6n f(y) When y = 1

f(6n ) = 6 n f(1)

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 6n f(1) Time taken by you: 98 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined The sum of the series 2 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 4 + 6 + 5 + 8 + 6 + 10 + … + up to 100 terms is: Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3875

Time taken by you: 132 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined The line passing through (3, 4) intersects the line ax + by + 1 = 0 at (0, 1), at right angles. What is the value of (a – b)? 1 2 0 None of these

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 86 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined The product of five consecutive natural numbers will always be divisible by: (A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 60 (A) and (B) only (A) and (C) only All of these None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 86 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined Consider the function:f(x) = |x|, for |x| < 3 = 6 – |x|, for 3 < |x| < 6 = 0, for |x| > 6 Find the area enclosed by the curve of the above function and the x-axis. 6 sq. units 9 sq. units 15 sq. units 18 sq. units

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

18 sq. units Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined Two Vintage clocks in the castle of Bastille have started showing incorrect times because of the problem with the old springs used in the clocks. One clock gains one minute everyday while the other clock loses 40 seconds everyday. If the two clocks were set to correct time today at noon, after how many days will both the clocks together show the correct time again? (Note: Both the clocks have 12 hours on their dial so the clocks make no distinction between AM and PM.)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2160 Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 11 %

undefined undefined

a2 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 57 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined If x2 – 10x + 24 < 0 and x3 – 7x2 + 7x + 15 > 0, which of the following values can 'x' take? –1 < x < 3 3 0 then 5 < x < 6 Correct Answer: 5 0. When k = 4, the number of sweaters accepted on day 2 = 280 – 9b < 0, which is not possible. Thus, three different values of X are possible. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 421 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 202 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 % 2) If the number of sweatshirts accepted by the customers on each of the given eight days is same, then at least how many sweaters were accepted by the customers on Day 2? 5 10 15 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation:

Given that number of sweatshirts accepted by the customer on each of the eight days is same, and let it be X. ? 4a = 8b = 16c = 5d = 10e = 2f = 5g = 4h = X LCM of 4, 8, 16, 5, 10 and 2 = 80 Therefore, X = 80 or its multiple. ? a = 20k, b = 10k, c = 5k, d = 6k, e = 8k, f = 40k, g = 16k and h = 20k, where k is a natural number. When k = 1, 2 and 3, the number of sweaters accepted on days 1 to 8 > 0. When k = 4, the number of sweaters accepted on day 2 = 280 – 9b < 0, which is not possible. Thus, the maximum value of k = 3. When k = 3, the number of sweaters accepted on day 2 = 280 – 9b = 280 – 9 × 10 × 3 = 10. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 66 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 51 % 3) On how many of the given eight days, the number of sweaters accepted by the customer can be 0? 4 3 2 1 Video Explanation: Explanation:

If we equate the values in the column ‘Number of sweaters accepted’ to 0, only on day 1, we get a = 100, an integer value. For all other days, we do not get integer values. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 161 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 4) Which of the following can be the ratio of number of sweaters and sweatshirts accepted by the customers on Day 1? 3:1 4:1 5:1

6:1 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5:1

Time taken by you: 190 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Ten boys played a game, 'Spin the Wheel' in a street fair. Numbers from 0 to 6 (both inclusive) were written on the wheel. Every player had to spin the wheel thrice and the total score of a player was equal to the sum of the numbers appearing on the wheel in three spins of the wheel. The players with even total score were awarded prize money equal to five times their total score, while the players with odd total score were not awarded any prize money. The table below shows the score of each player in 1st and 2nd spin.

Further information: 1. No two boys had the same total score in the game. 2. Exactly one boy got same score in all three spins while all the others got different score in each spin. 3. Vivek’s total score was 5, which was not the least among all the total scores. 4. Highest total score was 14. 5. In third spin, no one was able to score more than 4. 6. No one had a total score of 13. 7. No two boys, whose name starts with A scored the same number in the 3rd spin. The lowest total score was achieved by a boy whose name starts with A. 8. Ravi and Pawan did not score same points in 3rd spin. 1) How many points did Pawan get in the 3 rd spin? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement 2, Vinod scored same points in all 3 spins. Vinod’s total score = 9 From statement 3. Vivek’s total score = 5, hence Vivek scored 1 point in 3rd spin. From statement 4 and 5, Aayush must be the one to score 14 with 3rd spin = 3. Now from 2, 3 and 7; Ashish’s 3rd spin cannot be 0, 1, 4, and 3. Therefore, it must be 2. Aadit’s 1st spin is 3 and Vinod’s total score is 9 hence from 2, Aadit could not have scored 3 and 0. Also his score in the third spin could not be 4(from 6), 2(Ashish’s 3rd spin = 2). Therefore, his score in the 3 rd spin = 1 and total score = 10 Ashish’s total score = 3 ? Abhishek’s 3rd spin must be other than 0. Also, from statement 2, his 3 rd spin must be other than 1, 2 and 3. So it must be 4. Abhishek’s total score = 7 Third spin of Ashish(2) Abhishek(4), Aadit(1) and Aayush(3) implies third spin of Amit = 0 From statement 2, Hridhaan’s 3rd spin must be other than 0. As Vinod’s total score = 9, Amit’s total score = 8 and Abhishek’s total score = 7, Hridhaan’s 3rd spin could not be 4, 3, and 2. Therefore, Hridhaan’s 3rd spin = 1 and total score =6 Now the remaining people, Pawan and Ravi can have a total score of,11 and 12 in any order. If Pawan’s total score is 11, then ravi’s total score will be 12 and their score in 3rd spin will be 3 each, which is not possible (statement 8) So Pawan’s total score is 12 and Ravi’s total score is 11.

Pawan got 4 points in the 3rd spin. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 450 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 448 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 2) What was the difference between the prize money awarded to Amit and Aayush? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

From statement 2, Vinod scored same points in all 3 spins. Vinod’s total score = 9

From statement 3. Vivek’s total score = 5, hence Vivek scored 1 point in 3rd spin.

From statement 4 and 5, Aayush must be the one to score 14 with 3rd spin = 3.

Now from 2, 3 and 7; Ashish’s 3rd spin cannot be 0, 1, 4, and 3. Therefore, it must be 2.

Aadit’s 1st spin is 3 and Vinod’s total score is 9 hence from 2, Aadit could not have scored 3 and 0. Also his score in the third spin could not be 4(from 6), 2(Ashish’s 3rd spin = 2). Therefore, his score in the 3 rd spin = 1 and total score = 10

Ashish’s total score = 3 ? Abhishek’s 3rd spin must be other than 0. Also, from statement 2, his 3 rd spin must be other than 1, 2 and 3. So it must be 4. Abhishek’s total score = 7

Third spin of Ashish(2) Abhishek(4), Aadit(1) and Aayush(3) implies third spin of Amit = 0

From statement 2, Hridhaan’s 3rd spin must be other than 0. As Vinod’s total score = 9, Amit’s total score = 8 and Abhishek’s total score = 7, Hridhaan’s 3rd spin could not be 4, 3, and 2.

Therefore, Hridhaan’s 3rd spin = 1 and total score =6

Now the remaining people, Pawan and Ravi can have a total score of,11 and 12 in any order.

If Pawan’s total score is 11, then ravi’s total score will be 12 and their score in 3rd spin will be 3 each, which is not possible (statement 8)

So Pawan’s total score is 12 and Ravi’s total score is 11.

(14 – 8) × 5 = Rs. 30 Therefore, the required answer is 30. Correct Answer: 30

Time taken by you: 26 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 % 3) Who had the total score of 7? Ashish Amit Abhishek None of these Video Explanation:

Abhishek had the total score of 7. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Abhishek

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 4) What was the total score of Hridhaan? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Total score of Hridhaan = 6 Therefore, the required answer is 6.

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Seven schools, named A, B, C, D, E, F and G participated in Mathematics Olympiad-2018. In the Olympiad, a number of quizzes were arranged and in each quiz the first three ranked schools were awarded 5, 3 and 1 points respectively. The following bar graphs show the school wise distribution of the quizzes in which the schools received 5 points, 3 points or 1 point.

1)Which of the following could be the sum of the number of quizzes in which school F was awarded 3 points and 1 point? 207 363 374 538 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 374

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 263 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 % 2)Total points received by school D was at least what percentage of total points received by school A? 93.125% 67.25% 59.6% None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Let there be a total of X quizzes. In each of these X quizzes one or the other of the schools were awarded 5 points, 3 points or 1 point. Points received by school D = 0.15X x 5 + 0.18X x 3 + 0.2X x 1 = 0.75X + 0.54X + 0.2X = 1.49X If school A accounts for entire 30% in Others Category of quizzes, points received by school A = 0.30X x 5 + 0.30X x 3 + 0.10X x 1 = 1.5X + 0.9X + 0.1X = 2.5X

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 59.6% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 3) In all 500 quizzes were offered in the Olympiad. Given that in each graph, the 'others' category belonged to exactly one school. What could be maximum possible difference between points scored by schools A and G? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: It is given that 500 quizzes were offered. School A received 5 points in 30% quizzes and 1 point in 10% quizzes. Among the schools receiving 3 points, school A might be a part of ‘others’ category. The maximum possible points scored by A (i.e., if A accounts for this entire 30% in ‘others’) = 0.30X x 5 + 0.30X x 3 + 0.10X x 1 = 1.5X + 0.9X + 0.1X = 2.5X = 1250 The minimum possible points scored by A (i.e., if B accounts for this entire 30% in ‘others’) = 0.30X x 5 + 0.10X x 1 = 1.5X + 0.1X = 1.6X = 800 School G might be a part of 10% schools counted in ‘others’ those received 5 points. Also, school G received 3 points in 10% quizzes and 1 point in 18% quizzes. The maximum possible points scored by G (i.e., if G accounts for this entire 10% in ‘others’) = 0.10X × 5 + 0.1X × 3 + 0.18X × 1 = 0.5X + 0.3X + 0.18X = 0.98X = 490 The minimum possible points scored by A (i.e., if F accounts for this entire 10% in ‘others’) = 0.1X × 3 + 0.18X × 1 = 0.3X + 0.18X = 0.48X = 240 ? The required maximum possible difference = 1250 – 240 = 1010 Therefore, the required answer is 1010.

Correct Answer: 1010

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 45 % 4)In all 500 quizzes were offered in the Olympiad. Which of the following cannot be the points received by school E? 800 1000 925 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: It is given that 500 quizzes were offered. School E might be a part of 25% schools counted in ‘others’ those received 1 point. Also, school E received 5 points in 20% quizzes and 3 points in 20% quizzes. The maximum possible points scored by E (i.e., if G accounts for this entire 25% in ‘others’) = 0.20X × 5 + 0.20X × 3 + 0.25X × 1 = X + 0.6X + 0.25X = 1.85X = 925 The minimum possible points scored by E (i.e., if C accounts for this entire 25% in ‘others’) = 0.20X × 5 + 0.20X × 3 = X + 0.6X = 1.6X = 800 Points received by school E has to be between 800 and 925 (both inclusive). Option [2] does not lie in this range. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 1000 Time taken by you: 22 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Twelve employees were nominated for the Quarterly Business Rewards (QBR), three from each of the four departments – Trade Marketing, Finance, Product Marketing and Consumer Sales. The QBR were divided into two categories – Star and Super Star. The Star and Super Star categories had five and seven members respectively. Abhinav, Danish and Lakhan were from Product Marketing. Biplov, Imran and Keshave were from Consumer Sales. Chandan, Gaurav and Jayanta were from Finance. Eiti, Firoz and Harvinder were from Trade Marketing It is also known that: I.

Each category had at least one employee from each of the four given departments.

II.

Two employees from the Consumer Sales were nominated in the Star category.

III. Abhinav and Gaurav were nominated in different categories. IV. Keshave and Imran were nominated in the same category whereas Chandan and Harvinder were nominated in different categories. V. If Eiti was nominated in the Star category, then both Jayanta and Gaurav were nominated in the Super Star category. VI. If Eiti was nominated in the Super Star category, then Lakhan and Danish were nominated in different categories. 1) For how many employees, it can be uniquely determined which category they were nominated for? 7 6 4 5 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement I and II, the number of employees from the Product Marketing, Trade Marketing, Finance and Consumer Sales in the Star and Super Star categories were (1, 1, 1 and 2) and (2, 2, 2 and 1) respectively. From statement IV, Keshave and Imran were nominated in the Star category whereas Biplov was in the Super Star category. Case I: Eiti was nominated in the Super Star category. As Lakhan and Danish were nominated in different categories, Abhinav was nominated in the Super Star category and hence from statement III, Gaurav was nominated in the Star category. Subsequently, Chandan and Jayanta were nominated in the Super Star category and so from statement IV, Harvinder was nominated in the Star category. Hence, Firoz was nominated in the Super Star category. The conclusions made thus far can be tabulated as given below.

Case II: Eiti was nominated in the Star category. Firoz and Harvinder were nominated in the Super Star category. Therefore from statement IV, Chandan was nominated in the Star category and hence Jayanta and Gaurav were nominated in the Super Star category. Thus from statement III, Abhinav was nominated in the Star category. So, Danish and Lakhan were nominated in the Super Star category. The conclusions made thus far can be tabulated as given below.

Keshave and Imran were definitely nominated in the Star category. Biplov, Firoz and Jayanta were definitely nominated in the Super Star category. Required Answer = 2 + 3 = 5 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 263 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 384 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) Which of the following statements is sufficient to determine the exact category in which Chandan was nominated? 1) Lakhan was nominated in the Super Star category. 2) Jayanta was nominated in the Super Star category. 3) Gaurav was nominated in the Super Star category. 4) Both (1) and (2) together but neither (1) nor (2) individually. Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statements I and II, the number of employees from the Product Marketing, Trade Marketing, Finance and Consumer Sales in the Star and Super Star categories were (1, 1, 1 and 2) and (2, 2, 2 and 1) respectively. From statement IV, Keshave and Imran were nominated in the Star category whereas Biplov was in the Super Star category. Case I: Eiti was nominated in the Super Star category. As Lakhan and Danish were nominated in different categories, Abhinav was nominated in the Super Star category and hence from statement III, Gaurav was nominated in the Star category. Subsequently, Chandan and Jayanta were nominated in the Super Star category and so from statement IV, Harvinder was nominated in the Star category. Hence, Firoz was nominated in the Super Star category. The conclusions made thus far can be tabulated as given below.

(1): Considering case I, Chandan was nominated in Super Star category while in case II, he was nominated in Star category. (1) is not sufficient to answer the question uniquely. (2): This statement does not provide extra information. Hence, (2) also is not sufficient to answer the question uniquely. (3): Only case II is valid. Therefore, we can determine that Chandan was nominated in Star category. (4): Using (1) and (2) together, it can be seen that both the cases are valid. Hence, the question cannot be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 3) Gaurav was nominated in the Super Star category.

Time taken by you: 149 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 % 3)If Danish and Lakhan were nominated in the same category, then which of the following statements is correct? Eiti and Abhinav were nominated in different categories. Biplov and Eiti were nominated in same category. Firoz and Harvinder were nominated in the same category. Gaurav and Jayanta were nominated in different categories. Video Explanation:

Case II is valid. Firoz and Harvinder were nominated in the same category. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Firoz and Harvinder were nominated in the same category. Time taken by you: 41 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 % 4) If Gaurav and Danish were nominated in the same category, then exact nominated category for how many employees can be uniquely determined? 6 7 5 8 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statementI and II, the number of employees from the Product Marketing, Trade Marketing, Finance and Consumer Sales in the Star and Super Star categories were (1, 1, 1 and 2) and (2, 2, 2 and 1) respectively. From statement IV, Keshave and Imran were nominated in the Star category whereas Biplov was in the Super Star category. Case I: Eiti was nominated in the Super Star category. As Lakhan and Danish were nominated in different categories, Abhinav was nominated in the Super Star category and hence from statement III, Gaurav was nominated in the Star category. Subsequently, Chandan and Jayanta were nominated in the Super Star category and so from statement IV, Harvinder was nominated in the Star category. Hence, Firoz was nominated in the Super Star category. The conclusions made thus far can be tabulated as given below.

For Keshave, Imran, Biplov, Firoz, Jayanta and Lakhan their exact nominated category can be uniquely determined (total 6). Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Amitoj, Biraj, Cheema, Dagar and Elayaraja played a game of dice. The die used for the game was special and had only two numbers – 1 or 6 written on the six faces of the die. Each player rolled the die six times. If a player got the same number (either 1 or 6) on three consecutive rolls of the die, he got two points. Otherwise no points were awarded to the players. It was observed that each of the five players got two points each in the game, while one person each got points on the 4 th, 5th and 6th roll of the die. It was also observed that no player got the same number on four or more consecutive rolls of the die. The table given below provides partial information about the numbers rolled by the five players on different throws:

1) Elayaraja got the points on the die roll number _________ (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: All the players got 2 points and one player each got points on the 4 th, 5 th and 6 th roll. Therefore two players got 2 points in the 3 rd roll.

Consider numbers thrown byDagar: Had Dagar got a 6 on the 4th roll, Dagar would have either got 4 points or 0 points as the sequence of the number thrown can be 6, 6, 6, 6, 1, 1 (4 points) or 6, 6, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 6, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) Therefore Dagar got 1 on the 4th roll and he got 2 points on the 6th roll of the die. Dagar must have got 6 on the 3rd roll else he would get 1 on four consecutive rolls of the die. Dagar must have got 1 on the 2nd roll else he would get 2 more points on the third roll, which is not possible. Thus, the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Dagar must be (6, 1, 6, 1, 1, 1). As exactly one player (i.e., Dagar) got 2 points on 6th throw, Cheema must have got 6 on the 5th roll; Biraj must have got 6 on the 6th roll and Amitoj must have got 6 on throw 4. Consider numbers thrown by Biraj: The only possibility for him to get two points is in 5th roll and the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Biraj must be (1, 6, 1, 1, 1, 6). Consider numbers thrown by Amitoj and Cheema: Amitoj must have got 6 on the 3rd roll and he got the two points on the 4th roll. This also means that Cheema got the points on the 3rd roll and must have got 6 on 2nd and 3rd roll. This means that Elayaraja also got the points on the 3rd roll.

Elayaraja got the points on the die roll number 3. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 554 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 259 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 50 % 2) What is the sum of the numbers on the 3 rd die roll by all the players together? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: All the players got 2 points and one player each got points on the 4th, 5th and 6th roll. Therefore two players got 2 points in the 3rd roll. Consider numbers thrown byDagar: Had Dagar got a 6 on the 4th roll, Dagar would have either got 4 points or 0 points as the sequence of the number thrown can be 6, 6, 6, 6, 1, 1 (4 points) or 6, 6, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 6, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) Therefore Dagar got 1 on the 4th roll and he got 2 points on the 6th roll of the die. Dagar must have got 6 on the 3rd roll else he would get 1 on four consecutive rolls of the die. Dagar must have got 1 on the 2nd roll else he would get 2 more points on the third roll, which is not possible. Thus, the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Dagar must be (6, 1, 6, 1, 1, 1). As exactly one player (i.e., Dagar) got 2 points on 6th throw, Cheema must have got 6 on the 5th roll; Biraj must have got 6 on the 6th roll and Amitoj must have got 6 on throw 4. Consider numbers thrown by Biraj: The only possibility for him to get two points is in 5th roll and the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Biraj must be (1, 6, 1, 1, 1, 6). Consider numbers thrown by Amitoj and Cheema: Amitoj must have got 6 on the 3rd roll and he got the two points on the 4th roll. This also means that Cheema got the points on the 3rd roll and must have got 6 on 2nd and 3rd roll. This means that Elayaraja also got the points on the 3rd roll.

The required answer is 6 + 1 + 6 + 6 + 1 = 20. Therefore, the required answer is 20.

Correct Answer: 20

Time taken by you: 47 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 54 % 3) Cheema got the points on the same die roll number as:

Amitoj Biraj Elayaraja None of the four other persons Video Explanation: Explanation: All the players got 2 points and one player each got points on the 4th, 5th and 6th roll. Therefore two players got 2 points in the 3rd roll. Consider numbers thrown by Dagar: Had Dagar got a 6 on the 4th roll, Dagar would have either got 4 points or 0 points as the sequence of the number thrown can be 6, 6, 6, 6, 1, 1 (4 points) or 6, 6, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 6, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) Therefore Dagar got 1 on the 4th roll and he got 2 points on the 6th roll of the die. Dagar must have got 6 on the 3rd roll else he would get 1 on four consecutive rolls of the die. Dagar must have got 1 on the 2nd roll else he would get 2 more points on the third roll, which is not possible. Thus, the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Dagar must be (6, 1, 6, 1, 1, 1). As exactly one player (i.e., Dagar) got 2 points on 6th throw, Cheema must have got 6 on the 5th roll; Biraj must have got 6 on the 6th roll and Amitoj must have got 6 on throw 4. Consider numbers thrown by Biraj: The only possibility for him to get two points is in 5th roll and the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Biraj must be (1, 6, 1, 1, 1, 6). Consider numbers thrown by Amitoj and Cheema: Amitoj must have got 6 on the 3rd roll and he got the two points on the 4th roll. This also means that Cheema got the points on the 3rd roll and must have got 6 on 2nd and 3rd roll. This means that Elayaraja also got the points on the 3rd roll.

Cheema got the points on the same die roll number as Elayaraja. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Elayaraja Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 71 % 4) Which of the following persons got the points on the 4 th die roll? Biraj Elayaraja Dagar Amitoj Video Explanation:

Explanation: All the players got 2 points and one player each got points on the 4th, 5th and 6th roll. Therefore two players got 2 points in the 3rd roll. Consider numbers thrown byDagar: Had Dagar got a 6 on the 4th roll, Dagar would have either got 4 points or 0 points as the sequence of the number thrown can be 6, 6, 6, 6, 1, 1 (4 points) or 6, 6, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 1, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) or 6, 1, 6, 6, 1, 1 (0 points) Therefore Dagar got 1 on the 4th roll and he got 2 points on the 6th roll of the die. Dagar must have got 6 on the 3rd roll else he would get 1 on four consecutive rolls of the die. Dagar must have got 1 on the 2nd roll else he would get 2 more points on the third roll, which is not possible. Thus, the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Dagar must be (6, 1, 6, 1, 1, 1). As exactly one player (i.e., Dagar) got 2 points on 6th throw, Cheema must have got 6 on the 5th roll; Biraj must have got 6 on the 6th roll and Amitoj must have got 6 on throw 4. Consider numbers thrown by Biraj: The only possibility for him to get two points is in 5th roll and the sequence of the numbers on die thrown by Biraj must be (1, 6, 1, 1, 1, 6). Consider numbers thrown by Amitoj and Cheema: Amitoj must have got 6 on the 3rd roll and he got the two points on the 4th roll. This also means that Cheema got the points on the 3rd roll and must have got 6 on 2nd and 3rd roll. This means that Elayaraja also got the points on the 3rd roll.

Amitoj got the points on the 4th die roll. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Amitoj

Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the question that follows.

Kittu loves the cartoon character ‘Doraemon’ so much that he watches the show the entire day. To divert his mind, his mother bought a letter game which consists of big wooden letters D, O, R, A, E, M, O and N. She asked Kittu to rearrange all these letters and make a new word subject to the following instructions: 1. No letter other than the two ‘O’s in the original word can occupy adjacent position (immediately to the right or immediately to the left of its position in the original word) in the new word. 2. Exactly two letters in the word ‘DORAEMON’ retain their original position in the new word. 3. The letter E must precede the letter M and there are exactly three letters between them. 4. The letters D, E and R must be together with D and R being adjacent to each other. 5. The two ‘O’s occupy the extreme left and the extreme right positions in the new word. 1) How many new words can be formed that satisfy all the conditions?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 427 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 266 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2)

Which two letters retain their original positions in the new word? Both R and E Both R and M Both M and E Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Both R and M retain their original position in the new word. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Both R and M

Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 90 % 3) Letter ‘D’ in the new word is the only letter between which of the following two letters? R and N R and M M and N Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

In the new word, D is the only letter between R and N. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: R and N

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 4) Which letter is third to the right of ‘D’ in the new word? R O A Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

‘A’ is the third to the right of ‘D’ in the new word. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: A

Time taken by you: 24 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a factory there are five supervisors – Kalicharan, Mahendra, Devilal, Ravinder and Bhushan. The factory runs in three shifts: Morning (6 AM to 2 PM), Afternoon (2 PM to 10 PM) and Night (10 PM to 6 AM). There are 15 workers – A to O employed in the factory. Each of these five mentioned supervisors selected one worker for every shift. The following table provides information about the workers selected for each of the three shifts.

Further, it is given that: I. The only workers that are above 45 years of age are B, G, K and F. Further none of Kalicharan, Mahendra and Devilal selected workers above 45 years of age. II. Mahendra selected C for the morning shift. III. Devilal selected one pair of workers out of (A, F); (J, N); (G, L) and (G, K). This holds true for the supervisors Ravinder and Bhushan as well. IV. Bhushan selected exactly two workers above 45 years of age but did not select K. V. One supervisor selected both H and O. VI. The supervisor who selected E also selected I. 1) Who selected H? Kalicharan Mahendra Devilal Ravinder Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement I,Ravinder and Bhushan are the persons who selected B, G, K and F. Therefore, from statement III the pair (J, N) has to be selected by Devilal as that is the only pair that does not have workers above 45 years of age. From statement IV, it can be concluded that both Ravinder and Bhushan chose exactly two workers out of B, G, K and F. If pair (G, K) is selected by one of Ravinder and Bhushan, Then the other would have chosen B and F i.e., A, B and F. But both A and B are morning shift workers. So, no one selected both G and K. Thus, one chose (A, F) and the other chose (G, L). As Bhushan did not select K, K should have been selected by Ravinder. Therefore, Bhushan chose B, G and L while B and Ravinder chose A, F and K. E works in morning shift. From II and VI, Mahendra did not choose E and I. I works in the afternoon shift. As Devilal selected J, he did not choose E and I. So, E and I are selected by Kalicharan and now H and O have to be selected by Mahendra only. Thus it can be concluded that M was chosen by Kalicharan and D was selected by Devilal. Thus, we have

Mahendra selected H. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Mahendra

Time taken by you: 284 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 569 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 93 % 2) Who was also selected by the supervisor who selected I? J N A M Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement I,Ravinder and Bhushan are the persons who selected B, G, K and F. Therefore, from statement III the pair (J, N) has to be selected by Devilal as that is the only pair that does not have workers above 45 years of age. From statement IV, it can be concluded that both Ravinder and Bhushan chose exactly two workers out of B, G, K and F. If pair (G, K) is selected by one of Ravinder and Bhushan, Then the other would have chosen B and F i.e., A, B and F. But both A and B are morning shift workers. So, no one selected both G and K. Thus, one chose (A, F) and the other chose (G, L). As Bhushan did not select K, K should have been selected by Ravinder. Therefore, Bhushan chose B, G and L while B and Ravinder chose A, F and K. E works in morning shift. From II and VI, Mahendra did not choose E and I. I works in the afternoon shift. As Devilal selected J, he did not choose E and I. So, E and I are selected by Kalicharan and now H and O have to be selected by Mahendra only. Thus it can be concluded that M was chosen by Kalicharan and D was selected by Devilal. Thus, we have

The supervisor who selected I also selected E and M. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: M

Time taken by you: 20 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 97 % 3)Who among the following selected D? Bhushan Ravinder Mahendra None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement I, Ravinder and Bhushan are the persons who selected B, G, K and F. Therefore, from statement III the pair (J, N) has to be selected by Devilal as that is the only pair that does not have workers above 45 years of age. From statement IV, it can be concluded that both Ravinder and Bhushan chose exactly two workers out of B, G, K and F. If pair (G, K) is selected by one of Ravinder and Bhushan, Then the other would have chosen B and F i.e., A, B and F. But both A and B are morning shift workers. So, no one selected both G and K. Thus, one chose (A, F) and the other chose (G, L). As Bhushan did not select K, K should have been selected by Ravinder. Therefore, Bhushan chose B, G and L while B and Ravinder chose A, F and K. E works in morning shift. From II and VI, Mahendra did not choose E and I. I works in the afternoon shift. As Devilal selected J, he did not choose E and I. So, E and I are selected by Kalicharan and now H and O have to be selected by Mahendra only. Thus it can be concluded that M was chosen by Kalicharan and D was selected by Devilal. Thus, we have

Devilal selected M. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 4) Which of the following statement/s is/are true? I : D was selected by the supervisor who selected N. II : J was selected by the supervisor who selected N. Only I Only II Both I and II None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: From statement I, Ravinder and Bhushan are the persons who selected B, G, K and F. Therefore, from statement III the pair (J, N) has to be selected by Devilal as that is the only pair that does not have workers above 45 years of age. From statement IV, it can be concluded that both Ravinder and Bhushan chose exactly two workers out of B, G, K and F. If pair (G, K) is selected by one of Ravinder and Bhushan, Then the other would have chosen B and F i.e., A, B and F. But both A and B are morning shift workers. So, no one selected both G and K. Thus, one chose (A, F) and the other chose (G, L). As Bhushan did not select K, K should have been selected by Ravinder. Therefore, Bhushan chose B, G and L while B and Ravinder chose A, F and K. E works in morning shift. From II and VI, Mahendra did not choose E and I. I works in the afternoon shift. As Devilal selected J, he did not choose E and I. So, E and I are selected by Kalicharan and now H and O have to be selected by Mahendra only. Thus it can be concluded that M was chosen by Kalicharan and D was selected by Devilal. Thus, we have

The supervisor who selected N also selected D and J. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both I and II

Time taken by you: 12 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Certain quantities of various food items are taken and the Calories and the Proteins in them are calculated using a ‘Nutritional scale’. The values obtained are given in the table below.

1)Which one of the following has the largest number of calories per ounce? Milk Butter Chocolate Skimmed milk Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Skimmed milk Time taken by you: 52 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 254 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 % 2)The item containing the largest quantity of proteins per ounce is: Sugar Cake Egg Milk Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Milk Time taken by you: 40 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 97 % 3)How many ounces of cheese is equivalent to 1 cup of skimmed milk in terms of calories? 16 21.33 16.3 24 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 21.33 Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 % 4) Which of the following combinations has the highest protein content? 1 cup skimmed milk, 8 ounces chocolate. 1 cup milk, 2 cups butter milk. 32 ounces cake, 16 ounces cheese. 16 ounces butter, 16 ounces sugar. Video Explanation: Explanation: Protein content of the combination: 1 cup skimmed milk, 8 ounces chocolate = 10 × 2 + 6 = 26 1 cup milk, 2 cups butter milk = 28 + 24 = 52 32 ounces cake, 16 ounces cheese = 10 × 2 + 12 = 32 16 ounces butter 16 ounces sugar = 15 × 2 + 2 × 2 = 30 + 4 = 34 Thus, among the given options, '1 cup milk, 2 cups butter milk' has the highest protein content. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 1 cup milk, 2 cups butter milk.

Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 106 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 95 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined undefined What may be true about the roots of the equation ax 3 + bx – 1 = 0? (a and b are rational numbers.)

It has two irrational and one rational root. It has one irrational and two rational roots. All its roots are complex. None of the above.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If ax3 + bx – 1 = 0 has a complex root, then its conjugate will also be a root. Therefore, a cubic equation cannot have odd number of complex roots. [3] is false. Now, for the sum of the roots to be zero, the sum of the rational and the sum of the irrational part of the roots should be 0. It is only possible when there are at least two irrational roots and both are conjugates. Hence, [1] can be true and not [2]. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: It has two irrational and one rational root. Time taken by you: 117 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined A mason employed a certain number of workers to finish constructing a wall in a certain number of days. But soon he realized that the

A mason employed a certain number of workers to finish constructing a wall in a certain number of days. But soon he realized that the work would get delayed by ¼ of the time. He then increased the number of workers by a third and they managed to finish the work on schedule. What percentage of the work had been finished by the time the new labour joined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20 Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 25 %

undefined If the roots of a cubic equation a3 – 9 a2 + ma – k = 0 are in a n arithmetic progression with common difference 2, then what is the value of |m – k|?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the roots of the cubic equation be (ß – 2), ß and (ß + 2) Therefore, 3ß = 9 or ß = 3 or 1, 3 and 5 are the roots of the equation. Therefore, k = 1 × 3 × 5 = 15 Therefore, m = 1 × 3 + 1 × 5 + 3 × 5 = 23 Therefore, the value of m – k = 8 Therefore, the required answer is 8.

Correct Answer: 8 Time taken by you: 34 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined What is the area (in sq. units) enclosed by the curve x 2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 3 = 0?

6 This is not a closed area

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 3 = 0 \ (x2 – 4x) + (y2 – 6y) = 3 \ (x2 – 4x + 4) + (y2 – 6y + 9) = 16 \ (x – 2)2 + (y – 3)2 = (4)2 Therefore, this is the equation of the circle with radius 4 units and center at (2, 3). \ Required area =p(4)2 = 16p sq. units.

Hence, [1]. Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 %

undefined

3:5 2:5 1:5 4:5

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3:5

Time taken by you: 24 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 125 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined A pine tree is taller than a coconut tree by 6 meters. A lumberjack starts cutting the pine tree from 12 m above the ground such that after

A pine tree is taller than a coconut tree by 6 meters. A lumberjack starts cutting the pine tree from 12 m above the ground such that after the pine tree falls, its top just touches the bottom of the coconut tree. Had he cut the coconut tree from 8 m above the ground, the top of the coconut tree would have fallen such that its top would just have touched the bottom of the pine tree. What is the height of the pine tree? 29 meters 27 meters 21 meters 33 meters

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose ‘y’ is the length of the part of the pine tree beyond the point of cutting. Therefore, height of the pine tree = y + 12 meters.

Therefore, height of coconut tree = y + 12 – 6 = y + 6 meters. Out of this, 8 meters length of the coconut tree is still on the ground. Therefore, length of the part of the coconut tree beyond the point of cutting = y + 6 – 8 = y – 2 meters.

Suppose the distance between the two trees is ‘x’. Therefore, we have (Using Pythagoras theorem) x2 + 122 = y2 x2 + 82 = (y – 2)2

... (I) ... (II)

Subtracting equation (II) from equation (I) 122 – 82 = y2 – (y – 2)2 80 = 4y – 4 y = 21

Therefore, length of the pine tree = y + 12 = 33 meters.

Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 33 meters Time taken by you: 107 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 195 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined I write a WhatsApp message that has exactly 160 characters (when I include the space between the words) and 117 otherwise. The message text only contains words that have less than five letters and no other punctuations are included in the same. There is only one space between two words and none at the beginning or end of the message. If the number of four letter and one letter words are interchanged and the number of two letter and three letter words are interchanged, then what is the length of the new text message (in characters including space between the words)? 117 146 103 Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of words be n. Therefore, the number of charcters used for the space between the words = n – 1 Therefore, 117 + n – 1 = 160 ? n = 44 Let the number of 1, 2, 3 and 4 letter words used in the message be x, y, z and w. x + y + z + w = 44 ... (1) x + 2y + 3z + 4w = 117 ... (2)

If the number of four letter and one letter words are interchanged and the number of two letter and three letter words are interchanged, Then the total number of characters used by the words will be: 4x + 3y + 2z + w By observation, 5 × (1) – (2) 5 (x + y + z + w) – (x + 2y + 3z + 4w) = 5 × 44 – 117 4x + 3y + 2z + w = 103 Therefore, the total number of characters used along with the space in between the words = 103 + 44 – 1 = 146. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 146

146 Time taken by you: 307 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 23 %

undefined Mayank and Ashwin both opened fixed deposits in a bank on the same day of Rs. 2 lakhs and Rs. 2.5 lakhs respectively for a tenure of 2 years. The rate of interest offered by the bank is 10% per annum compounded annually. At the end of the first year, Mayank opened another fixed deposit of Rs. 1 lakh for one year at the same rate of interest. How much less interest (in Rs.) did Mayank earn on his two fixed deposits together than Ashwin did on his one fixed deposit at the end of two years? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20 kg Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Therefore the required answer is 500. Correct Answer: 500 Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 133 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined In the figure given below, ABCD and EFGH are identical rectangles. If AI = 4 cm, CG = 3 cm and EF = 5 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the figure?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that ABCD and EFGH are identical rectangles. Therefore, Length of the rectangles = AB = CD = EH = FG Breadth of the rectangles = AD = BC = EF = HG = 5 cm

Now, AB = AI + IB = 4 + 5 = 9

? A(?ABCD) = A(?EFGH) = 9 × 5 = 45 sq. cm In ?IBCJ, IB = BC = CJ = JI = 5 cm A(?IBCJ) = 5 × 5 = 25 sq. cm

? Required area = A(?ABCD) + A(?EFGH) - A(?IBCJ) = 45 + 45 – 25 = 65 sq. cm

Therefore, the required answer is 65. Correct Answer: 65 Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 79 %

undefined Marks scored by Shyamla, Kamla, Vimla and Amla are in arithmetic progression, in the given order. Amla’s score was the least and the maximum marks scored by anyone can be 100. When averages of marks of all possible pairs are considered, exactly two of values are 95. Find the average of marks scored by Shyamla and Kamla, assuming the marks scored by each one of them is a natural number. 95 96 97 Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let scores of Shyamla, Kamla, Vimla and Amla are (a + 3d), (a + d), (a – d) and (a – 3d) respectively. Average marks of possible pairs are: (a + 2d), (a + d), a, a, (a – d), (a – 2d) Average marks of Shyamla and Kamla = (a + 2d) Average marks of Shyamla and Vimla = (a + d) Average marks of (Shyamla and Amla) and (Kamla and Vimla) = a = 95 Average marks of Amla and Kamla = (a – d) Average marks of Amla and Vimla = (a – 2d)

The value of d has to be 1. (Note that for d = 2, a + 3d = 101. Therefore d < 2. Also, d ? 0 as Amla scored least marks.)

? a + 2d = 97 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 97 Time taken by you: 169 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined What is the sum of all odd numbers denoted by n such that 400 < n < 477 and n has exactly six divisors? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: A number having six divisors is of the form a 1 b2 , where 'a' and 'b' are co-prime numbers or of the form a5 , where a is a prime number. Numbers of the form a1 b2 : Numbers 32 × 47 = 423, 52 × 17 = 425 and 52 × 19 = 475 are between 400 and 477. Numbers of the form a5 : No fifth power of any prime number is between 400 and 477. Sum of these three numbers is 1323.

Therefore the required answer is 1323. Correct Answer: 1323 Time taken by you: 201 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 8 %

undefined The selling price of an article is 75% less than the marked price and is five times the cost price of the article. The percentage discount offered is what percentage of the percentage profit obtained on the sale of the article? 20% 18.75% 12% 12.5%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18.75%

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 154 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 90 %

undefined Find the remainder when 123123123…. up to 104 digits is divided by 3125. 12 312 937 2937

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 3125 = 55 So, remainder is obtained when the last 5 digits (12312) is divided by 3125. Therefore, dividing 12312 by 3125 the remainder so obtained is 2937. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 2937 Time taken by you: 333 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined AB and DC are both perpendicular to BC. AD is perpendicular to BD.

If BC = 8 cm and DC = 6 cm, then find the length (in cm) of AD.

12 15

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 281 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 143 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined At a certain instant between 7 PM and 8 PM, the angle between the hands of the clock is 5 degrees with the minute hand ahead of the hour hand. After how many minutes will the clock show 8 PM?

None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 101 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Three athletes A, B and C are running a 1000 m race. A can complete the race in 10 min 20 sec, B in 11 min 20 sec and C in 12 min 40 sec. What is the ratio of the distance between A and B and to the distance between B and C when A finishes the race, if it is known that all of them start running at the same time? 51 : 62 57 : 62 55 : 62 27 : 31

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 57 : 62

Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 215 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined The first term of an arithmetic progression is one-sixth of the nth term of the same arithmetic progression. If the sum of first ‘n’ terms of the progression is seventy times the first term, then what is the value of ‘n’?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20 Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

undefined When 'n' avocados were distributed among 11 children such that each child gets an equal number of avocados, there were 5 avocados left. When 4n avocados were distributed among 88 children in this way, the n how many avocados could have been left? 54 64 44 74

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: As per the given conditions: n = 11k + 5

As per the given conditions: n = 11k + 5 4n = 44k + 20 We need to find the remainder when (44k + 20) is divided by 88.

If k is even, 44k is completely divisible by 88 and hence, (44k + 20) will leave remainder 20 when divided by 88. If k is odd, 44k will leave remainder 44 when divided by 88 and hence, (44k + 20) will leave remainder 44 + 20 = 64 when divided by 88.

Therefore, if 4n avocados were distributed among 88 children, then either 20 or 64 avocados could have been left over. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 64

Time taken by you: 99 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 137 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined There are three sugar solutions – P, Q and R having different concentrations. The concentration of P in percentage points is an integer, that of Q is 8 percentage points lower than that of P, while that of R lies between 30% and 40% (both inclusive). If P and Q are mixed, the concentration would be 50%, whereas if P and R are mixed, the concentration would be equal to that of Q. If the total volume of P and Q is 6 litres and that of R is 2 litres, find the volume of Q which is an integer. 2 litres 3 litres 4 litres Cannot be determined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Volume x Concentration = Constant PX + (P – 8) (6 – X) = 6× 50 = 300 or 6P + 8X = 348 or 3P + 4X = 174 PX + 2R = (2 + X) (P – 8) or P – 4X = R + 8 4P = 182 + R For integer value of P; R can be 30, 34 and 38. Possible values of P are 53, 54 and 55.

4X = 174 – 3P X is an integer at P = 54 and value of X = 3. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 3 litres Time taken by you: 417 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 98 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined If f(x + y) = f(x + 1) × f(y – 1) and f(8) = 4, find the value of |f(1) × f(2) × f(3) × … × f(8)|. 512 256 128 64

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: f(x + y) = f(x + 1) × f(y – 1)

f(8) = f(6 + 2) = f(7) × f(1) = 4 f(8) = f(5 + 3) = f(6) × f(2) = 4 f(8) = f(4 + 4) = f(5) × f(3) = 4 f(8) = f(3 + 5) = f(4) × f(4) = 4? f(4) = ±2 |f(1) × f(2) × f(3) × … × f(8)| = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 2 = 512 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 512 Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 %

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Set A is the set of all the possible four digit numbers formed using digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 with repetition. Similarly, set B is the set of all the possible four digit numbers formed using digits 5, 6, 7 and 8 with repetition. Elements of set A are arranged in increasing order while the elements of set B are arranged in decreasing order. What would be the difference between 100 th element of set A and 100th element of set B? 5375 5368 5374 5371

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: When elements of A are arranged in increasing order. There are 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 elements that start with ‘1’. Similarly there are 4 × 4 = 16 elements that start with ‘21’ and additional 4 × 4 = 16 elements that start with ‘22’. 96th element in A : 2244 97th element in A : 2311; 98th element in A : 2312; 99th element in A : 2313; 100th element in A : 2314 When elements of B are arranged in decreasing order There are 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 elements that start with ‘8’. Similarly there are 4 × 4 = 16 elements that start with ‘78’ Additional 4 × 4 = 16 elements that start with ‘77’ 96th element in B: 7755 97th element in B: 7688; 98th element in B: 7687; 99th element in B: 7686; 100th element in B: 7685 Therefore required difference is: 7685 – 2314 = 5371. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 5371 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 165 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined What is the maximum possible value of 3a(1 – 2a) , where a is any real number?

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 27 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined

3 4 6 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined How many five-digit odd numbers having distinct digits can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 6, 7, 8 and 9 such that there are two odd digits in the number? 108 144 120 72

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The unit’s digit of the number has to be odd. The unit’s digit can be chosen in three ways. The remaining odd digit can be chosen in two ways and can be placed at any of the four available places. The three even digits can be arranged in 3! Ways. Total number of ways = 3 × 2 × 4 × 3! = 144 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 144 Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined The rate (per month) of increase in income is twice that of the expenditure. If there is no saving in the first month and the total savings in two months is one-fifth of the initial income, then the rate at which the expenditure increased is: 10% 20% 25% 15%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20% Time taken by you: 164 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 143 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined Anish draws a regular octagon ABCDEFGH on a piece of paper, such that the length of each side is 1 unit. Then his sister Anu draws a regular hexagon GHIJKL. AB and IJ are extended to meet each other. What will be the measure of the acute angle between them? 15° 30° 45° Cannot be Determined

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: There are two possible cases, depending on whether the hexagon is inside or outside the octagon:

In both cases, JK will be parallel to GH while AB will be perpendicular to GH and hence also to JK. As both the polygons are given to be regular polygons, the angle of each interior angle of the hexagon will be 120o and the exterior angle would thus measure 60 o . In both cases, we can construct 30-60 -90 triangles and thus we can determine the acute angle between IJ and AB as 30o . Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 30° Time taken by you: 94 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined A solid cone is inscribed inside a hollow sphere of radius 10 cm. The height of the cone is twice its radius. Find the ratio of the volume of the cone to the volume of the sphere. 32 : 81 64 : 125 16 : 125 32 : 125

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 32 : 125 Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 128 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined The roots of the equation x2 – 2x + A = 0 are p and q and the roots of the equation x2 – 18x + B = 0 are r and s. If p < q < r < s and all the roots are in A.P., then: A = 3, B = 77 A = –3, B = 77 A = 3, B = –77 A = –3, B = –77

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let p, q, r and s be a – 3d, a – d, a + d and a + 3d respectively. Now, p + q = 2, r + s = 18 pq = A,rs = B \ p + q + r + s = 4a = 20 Þ a = 5 Also p + q = 2 Þ 10 – 4d = 2 \ d = 2 Thus, p, q, r and s are –1, 3, 7 and 11 respectively. Hence, A = pq = –3; B = rs = 77. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: A = –3, B = 77 Time taken by you: 268 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 162 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 15 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined ‘GoPoke’ Ferry Services operates ferry boats between Staryu and Starmie islands. Each boat can carry 25 passengers at a time. While travelling downstream to reach Starmie island, each boat covers a distance of 18 km in 2 hours. 150 passengers from Staryu island want

to travel to Starmie island. If only four boats are available and there has to be a gap of one hour between any two boats leaving any island, how much time will be required to finish this job, assuming that the boats immediately start their return journey from Starmie island on reaching the Starmie island without any time lag? (The speed of the water current = 3 km/hr) 7 hours 9 hours 11 hours 13 hours

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Speed of the boat while travelling downstream = 9 km/hr Speed of the current = 3 km/hr Speed of the boat while travelling upstream =9 – (2 × 3) = 3 km/hr

Four available boats carry 100 passengers. Two more trips are required to carry remaining 50 passengers. The first two boats complete this task. The last group of 25 passengers reaches Starmie island in the second boat. The second boat operates for 8 + 2 = 10 hours in all. So, if the task is started at 00:00 hours, second boat starts at 01:00 hours and finishes the task at 11:00 hours. Thus, total time required = 11 hours. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 11 hours Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined A factory produces bolts. In order to design the jig to produce bolts, a certain sum was spent. Once the jig is designed, it can be used to produce all the bolts required. The manufacturing cost of producing the bolts varies directly as the number of bolts manufactured. The total cost incurred by the factory to produce 100 bolts is Rs. 1,000 less than that to produce 125 bolts. What is the difference between the cost incurred by the company to produce 150 bolts compared to that incurred to produce 120 bolts? Rs. 1,200 Rs. 1,250 Rs. 1,225 Rs. 1,275

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the fixed sum spent on designing a jig be F and the cost incurred to manufacture 1 bolt be C. Tn is the total amount required to manufacture n bolts. Thus, T100 = F + 100C T125 = F + 125C ? T125 – T100 = 25C = 1000 ? C = 40 ? T150 – T120 = 30C = 30 × 40 = 1200 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Rs. 1,200 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 95 %

undefined Ajay, Bharat, Chandan and Dinesh are four students in a class of seven students. What is the probability that Ajay is ranked higher than Bharat, Chandan and Dinesh if all the seven students secure different ranks?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Early this year, I found myself aboard a Russian research vessel - the Akademik Shokalskiy - heading towards the coldest, driest, windiest continent in the world: Antarctica. My journey began in Madras, and involved crossing nine time zones, six checkpoints, three water bodies, and at least as many ecospheres. By the time I actually set foot on the Antarctic continent I had been travelling over 100 hours; so, my first emotion on facing Antarctica's expansive white landscape and uninterrupted blue horizon was relief, followed up with a profound wonder. Wonder at its immensity, its isolation, but mainly at how there could ever have been a time when India and Antarctica were part of the same landmass. 650 million years ago, a giant amalgamated southern supercontinent - Gondwana - did exist, centred roughly around present-day Antarctica. Things were quite different then: the climate was much warmer, hosting a wider variety of flora and fauna. For 500 million years Gondwana thrived, but around the time when the dinosaurs were wiped out and the age of the mammals got under way, the landmass was forced to separate into countries, shaping the globe much as we know it today. To visit Antarctica now is to be a part of that history. For a sun-worshipping Indian like me, two weeks in a place where 90 per cent of the Earth's total ice volumes are stored is a chilling prospect (not just for circulatory and metabolic functions, but also for the imagination). It's like walking into a giant ping-pong ball devoid of any human markers - no trees, billboards, buildings. You lose all earthly sense of perspective and time here. The visual scale ranges from the microscopic to the mighty: midges and mites to icebergs as big as countries. Days go on and on and a ubiquitous silence, interrupted only by the occasional avalanche or calving ice sheet, consecrates the place. Climate change is one of the most hotly contested environmental debates of our time. Will the Antarctic ice sheet melt entirely? Will it be the end of the world? May be; maybe not. Either way, Antarctica is a crucial element in this debate – not just because it's the only place in the world, which has never sustained a human population and therefore remains relatively "pristine" in this respect; but more importantly, because it holds in its ice-cores half-million-year-old carbon records trapped in its layers of ice. If we want to study and examine the Earth's past, present and future, Antarctica is the place to go. 1) Which of the following induced the feeling of relief (Paragraph 1) in the author? The long journey that involved the passage of numerous frontiers in both spatial and temporal terms. The fact that a sun-worshipping Indian like the author could spend two weeks in ice-covered environs. Antarctica’s expansive white landscape and uninterrupted blue horizon that concluded her long journey. Realization of the fact that Antarctica has been able to preserve its pristine nature against all the odds. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is easy. Refer to the 1st paragraph: “My journey began in Madras, and involved crossing nine time zones, six checkpoints, three water bodies, and at least as many ecospheres. By the time I actually set foot on the Antarctic continent I had been travelling over 100 hours; so, my first emotion on facing Antarctica's expansive white landscape and uninterrupted blue horizon was relief…” Option 1 is incorrect. The writer’s journey was long. But, the ‘long journey’ did not evoke the feeling of relief in the author, rather its conclusion did. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author remarks that she was a sun worshipper, so Antarctica was a ‘chilling prospect’ for her, rather than induce a feeling of relief. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Antarctica has been able to preserve its pristine nature is unrelated to the feeling of relief that the author experienced. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. The author states that “By the time I actually set foot on the Antarctic continent I had been travelling over 100 hours; so, my first emotion on facing Antarctica's expansive white landscape and uninterrupted blue horizon was relief…” Thus, her long journey was concluded by ‘Antarctica's expansive white landscape and uninterrupted blue horizon’. Both of these factors contributed to the feeling of relief that the author experienced. Retain option 3. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Antarctica’s expansive white landscape and uninterrupted blue horizon that concluded her long journey.

Time taken by you: 267 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 176 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 % 2)The present-day Antarctica is different from the supercontinent of Gondwana in all the followings ways EXCEPT:

Gondwana was an undivided larger landmass. The climate of Gondwana was much warmer than present-day Antarctica. Gondwana was home to a richer degree of biodiversity. Gondwana was not a natural habitat for the human species. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer to the 2nd paragraph: “Things were quite different then: the climate was much warmer, hosting a huge variety of flora and fauna... but around the time when the dinosaurs were wiped out and the age of the mammals got under way, the landmass was forced to separate into countries, shaping the globe much as we know it today. ” Option 1 is incorrect. The option rightly portrays one of the features of Gondwana that is different from present-day Antarctica. The supercontinent had started to disintegrate into countries as we know today. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. This is explicitly stated in the 2nd paragraph therefore, is not an exception. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The second paragraph states that Gondwana hosted “a wider variety of flora and fauna.” Option 3 is not an exception. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. Gondwana ‘was not a natural habitat for the human species.’ Mammalian evolution including humans had just got under way when Gondwana disintegrated into smaller parts. Besides, paragraph 4 states that Antarctica is “the only place in the world, which has never sustained a human population.” Thus, this option states a similarity that between Gondwana and present-day Antarctica. Both are not natural habitats for the human species. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Gondwana was not a natural habitat for the human species. Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 3)All of the following signify the relevance of the phrase ‘giant ping-pong ball’ [paragraph 3] in the context of the passage, EXCEPT Antarctica’s expansive white landscape. Antarctica gives out an unearthly ambience. Earth’s sphericity is most evident in Antarctica. Antarctica is devoid of all human markers. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer to the 3rd paragraph: “…two weeks in a place where 90 per cent of the Earth's total ice volumes are stored is a chilling prospect… It's like walking into a giant ping-pong ball devoid of any human markers… You lose all earthly sense of perspective and time here.” Hence, the whiteness of the landscape, the absence of human markers – no trees, billboards, buildings – and her loss of earthly sense of perspective and time led to the comparison. Option 1 is incorrect. This is not an exception. The whiteness of the landscape is one of the reasons as to why the author felt ‘like walking into a giant ping-pong ball’. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, the ‘unearthly ambience’ of the region is another factor that made the author feel like she was walking into a giant ping-pong ball. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. This is not an exception as it corresponds to the phrase ‘giant ping-pong ball’. The author mentions this as a supplement to her description of what she feels like in Antarctica, through the ‘giant ping-pong ball’ comparison. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. This is an exception. The passage does not state that the ‘Earth’s sphericity is most evident in Antarctica.’ Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Earth’s sphericity is most evident in Antarctica. Time taken by you: 110 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 78 % 4) Which of the following is NOT asserted in the passage? In Antarctica one loses all earthly sense of perspective and time. Antarctica exemplifies the potential hazards of climate change. Antarctica can have a detrimental effect on a person’s physical and mental state. Antarctica is fundamental to the climate change discourse. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. We need to find an option that is not asserted in the passage. Refer the third paragraph: “For a sun-worshipping Indian like me, two weeks in a place where 90 per cent of the Earth's total ice volumes are stored is a chilling prospect (not just for circulatory and metabolic functions, but also for the imagination). It's like walking into a giant ping-pong ball devoid of any human markers - no trees, billboards, buildings. You lose all earthly sense of perspective and time here.” Option 1 and 3 are thus directly stated in the third paragraph. Eliminate options 1 and 3. Option 4 is stated in the fourth paragraph: Climate change is one of the most hotly contested environmental debates of our time. Will the Antarctic ice sheet melt entirely? Will it be the end of the world? May be; maybe not. Either way, Antarctica is a crucial element in this debate.” Eliminate option 4. However, option 2, which states ‘Antarctica exemplifies the potential hazards of climate change,’ is not asserted in the passage. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Antarctica exemplifies the potential hazards of climate change.

Time taken by you: 164 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 34 % 5)What is the thematic highlight of this passage? The present-day Antarctica best reflects the effects of global warming. Antarctica holds clues to the Earth’s past, present and future. Antarctica has remained relatively pristine since it has never sustained a human population. Earth’s continuance depends on the conservation of Antarctica. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Though the passage implicitly conveys the consequences of global warming through its impact on Antarctica, it still remains “pristine” owing to the absence of human population. To say that ‘Antarctica best reflects the effects of global warming is the central idea of the passage’ is misleading. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. It is a brief, but comprehensive portrayal of what the passage is about. In fact, paragraph 4 captures the thematic highlight in, “If we want to study and examine the Earth's past, present and future, Antarctica is the place to go.” ‘Clues to the Earth’s past’ can be a reference to Gondwana and its evolution; and ‘future’ can be a reference to global warming and the significance of Antarctica as a herald to what awaits the Earth. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage clearly states that “Antarctica is a crucial element in [climate change] debate – not just because it's the only place in the world, which has never sustained a human population and therefore remains relatively ‘pristine’ in this respect; but more importantly, because it holds in its ice-cores half-million-year-old carbon records trapped in its layers of ice.” Thus, just the fact that Antarctica has remained “pristine” is not the theme of the passage. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The option is a wrong interpretation of what the passage says. Although paragraph 4 says that ‘Antarctica is a crucial element in this debate’ where ‘this debate’ refers to Climate change, the passage doesn’t suggest that the continuance of the Earth is dependent on the conservation of Antarctica. Reject option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: Antarctica holds clues to the Earth’s past, present and future. Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 % 6)Which of the following does not support the claim that “If we want to study and examine the Earth's past, present and future, Antarctica is the place to go”? Antarctica holds half-million-year-old carbon records in its ice-cores. Antarctica has remained relatively pristine — it holds traces of the primordial Earth. Antarctica provides key information about the effects of the current climate change on the planet. Antarctica is the only place in the world that has never sustained a human population. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. We need to find the option that does not support the claim made in the passage. Paragraph 4 explains why Antarctica is important in the study of Earth’s past, present and future. “Climate change is one of the most hotly contested environmental debates of our time. Will the Antarctic ice sheet melt entirely? Will it be the end of the world? May be; maybe not. Either way, Antarctica is a crucial element in this debate - not just because it's the only place in the world, which has never sustained a human population and therefore remains relatively "pristine" in this respect; but more importantly, because it holds in its ice-cores half-million-year-old carbon records trapped in its layers of ice. If we want to study and examine the Earth's past, present and future, Antarctica is the place to go.” Options 1, 2 and 4 are thus explicitly stated in this paragraph justifying why Antarctica provides the setting to study geological past, present and future. Option 3 is not true. Paragraph 4 states that Antarctica is crucial in the debate related to climate change and it explains why. The reasons are listed by options 1, and 4. The passage does not provide sufficient information to conclude option 3. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Antarctica provides key information about the effects of the current climate change on the planet. Time taken by you: 24 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 38 %

1. All things being equal, the next time around, you’re actually not likely to do as well, relative to the other runners. 2. For instance, say you’re in a race at school. 3. Regression to the mean is the tendency for the values of any distributed variable to move towards the mean over repeated independent trials. 4. You do surprisingly well and beat most of your classmates. 5. Put simply, it means that the more the number of trials, the less random the measure is.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Clearly, sentence 3, which introduces and explains the concept of ‘regression to the mean’, starts the paragraph-- it is the tendency for the values of any distributed variable to move towards the mean over repeated independent trials. The ‘it’ in sentence 5 refers to the concept ‘regression to the mean’, which has been defined in sentence 3. The fact that sentence 5 is a rephrasing of sentence 3 further proves their connection. Therefore, 3 – 5 is a logical pair that will aptly fit at the beginning of the paragraph. The remaining three sentences are easy to sequence.

Sentence 2 brings up an example of a practical situation where the concept of ‘regression to the mean’ is applicable—explicitly beginning with ‘for instance…’, the sentence asks to imagine that we are in ‘a race at school’. So, we get the sequence 3-5-2. Sentences 4 and 1, in that order, follow sentence 2, thus giving us a clearer idea of the example. The mandatory pair 4-1 explains the improbability of getting the same result in two identical situations, thus supporting the concept of ‘regression to the mean’. Hence the correct answer is 35241. Correct Answer: 35241 Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

2. The ancient Egyptian board game senet represented the passage of the ka (or vital spark) to the afterlife; its name is commonly translated as ‘the game of passing’. 3. The application of games to serious matters has probably been with us almost as long. 4. Mistaking games for reality is ultimately mistaking map for territory. 5. Games are probably as old as the human species itself.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. All the sentences are related to games. Sentence 5 explicitly states the theme of the sentences – that games are probably as old as the human species itself. The evidence for this is presented in sentence 1 that archaeologists have unearthed game-boards made of stone in Jordan that existed 6000 years before Christ. Sentences 4 and 1 are thus closely related. These two sentences also tell us that the theme is the history of games. The presence of “as long” in sentence 3 relates to sentence 1. “As long” is a comparison of “application of games to serious matters…” in sentence 3, with the archaeological evidence of game traced back to 6000 BCE. Between sentence 2 and 4, sentence 2 is an example of the “application of games to serious matters.” That the “ancient Egyptian board

game senet represented the passage of the ka (or vital spark) to the afterlife…” Sentence 4 is unrelated to this theme and is out of context. Hence the correct answer is 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 160 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 62 %

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The question is difficult because the starter sentence is not very easy to identify. And, though a mandatory pair, namely 1-3, can be identified easily – it doesn’t seem to help. Sentence 2 is the starter of the paragraph because it introduces the idea of “passive aggression” – that, in whatever form it manifests, passive aggression is the fine art of being angry without appearing to be angry. Sentence 5, which defines the concept of ‘avoidance’, too seems capable to be the starter; but, sentence 4 that clearly begins the discussion on this concept will prove it otherwise. Therefore, we can conclude that sentence 2 starts the paragraph. Sentence 2 is followed by sentence 4 because it specifies the two ingredients of passive aggression or ‘such indirect expression of hostility’—they are anger and avoidance. So, 2-4 begins the paragraph. After this, it becomes easy to construct the paragraph. Sentence 1 comes after 2-4 because it explains the first aspect (of passive aggression) between the two that are stated in sentence 4: ‘The first, anger… - always bubbles beneath the surface in passive aggression’. So, we get the sequence 2-4-1.

Sentence 3 has to be placed next. Beginning with a ‘but’, it describes how ‘trying to suppress anger is like trying to keep a lid on a pot of boiling water.’ The 2-4-1-3 sequence is then followed by sentence 5, which explains the second aspect of passive aggression (or avoidance) mentioned in sentence 4. Hence the correct sequence is 24135. Correct Answer: 24135 Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 13 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. While studying brain scans for patterns that correlated with psychopathic behaviour, James Fallon found that his own brain fit the profile. Compared to a control brain, neuroscientist James Fallon’s brain shows significantly decreased activity in areas of the frontal lobe linked to empathy and morality—anatomical patterns that have been linked with psychopathic behaviour. Many of us would hide this discovery out of fear of being labelled a psychopath. Perhaps because boldness and disinhibition are noted psychopathic tendencies, Fallon has gone all in towards the opposite direction, telling the world about his finding. Fallon seeks to reconcile how he—a family man—could demonstrate the same anatomical patterns that marked the minds of serial killers. “The first thing I thought was that maybe my hypothesis was wrong, and that these brain areas are not reflective of psychopathy or murderous behaviour,” he says. But when he underwent a series of genetic tests, he got more bad news. “I had all these high-risk alleles for aggression, violence and low empathy, such as a variant of the MAO-A gene that has been linked with aggressive behaviour.” Eventually, based on further neurological and behavioural research into psychopathy, he decided he was indeed a psychopath—just a relatively good kind, what he and others call a “pro-social psychopath,” someone who has difficulty feeling true empathy for others but still keeps his behaviour roughly within socially-acceptable bounds. It wasn’t entirely a shock to Fallon, as he’d always been aware that he was someone especially motivated by power and manipulating others. Additionally, his family line included seven alleged murderers. But the fact that a person with the genes and brain of a psychopath could end up a non-violent, stable and successful scientist made Fallon reconsider the ambiguity of the term. Not all psychopaths kill; some, like Fallon, exhibit other sorts of psychopathic behaviour. “I’m obnoxiously competitive. I won’t let my grandchildren win games. I’m mean, and I do insensitive things that irk people,” but while I’m aggressive, my aggression is sublimated. I’d rather beat someone in an argument than beat them up.” Why has Fallon been able to temper his behaviour, while other people with similar genetics and brain turn violent and end up in prison? Fallon was once a selfproclaimed genetic determinist, but his views on the influence of genes on behaviour have evolved. He now believes that his childhood prevented him from heading down a scarier path. “I was loved, and that protected me,” he says. He was given an especially heavy amount of attention from his parents, and he thinks that played a key role. This corresponds to recent research: His particular allele for a serotonin transporter protein present in the brain, for example, is believed to put him at higher risk for psychopathic tendencies. But further analysis has shown that it can affect the development of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex (the area with characteristically low activity in psychopaths) in complex ways: It can open up the region to be more significantly affected by environmental influences, and so a positive (or negative) childhood is especially pivotal in determining behavioural outcomes. 1) According to the passage, James Fallon revealed the discovery of his own psychological profile to the public for which of the following reasons? He sought fame by presenting his own case as one that was intriguing especially because of his success. He expected to be congratulated for his honesty and lack of inhibition in presenting the truth about himself. He knew enough about human psychology to be able to predict the likely reaction to his admission.

His particular profile encouraged socially uninhibited behaviour and diluted his emotional reaction to public exposure. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. There is no suggestion in the passage that Fallon sought fame by making his special genetic make-up and tendencies public. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, the passage does not indicate that Fallon had any ulterior motive in revealing the truth abouthimself. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The fact that Fallon is a neuroscientist who knew enough about human psychology is irrelevant to the question. Neither is it the reason for his decision to go public about his discovery about himself. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. Refer paragraph 2. “Many of us would hide this discovery and never tell a soul, out of fear or embarrassment of being labelled a psychopath. Perhaps because boldness and disinhibition are noted psychopathic tendencies, Fallon has gone all in towards the opposite direction.” Thus Fallon’s behaviour was a result of the inherent psychopathic tendencies that he possessed. Thus the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: His particular profile encouraged socially uninhibited behaviour and diluted his emotional reaction to public exposure.

Time taken by you: 228 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 267 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 % 2)The central idea of the passage is that: Anatomical patterns in the human brain have no relation to psychopathic behaviour. Environmental factors, rather than genetics, play a pivotal role in determining violent behaviour. Environmental factors neutralise the influence of genes on behaviour. Genetic determinism is an unreliable theory to explain aggressive and murderous behaviour. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The passage begins with the example of James Fallon, a neuroscientist whose brain exhibits anatomical patterns associated with psychopathy. Following the discovery, Fallon boldly shared the fact openly with others. He explained that the diagnosis of psychopathy (in himself) was not surprising because of his own temperament and family history. Fallon was thus forced to review his own faith in genetic determinism. He then asserts that his positive childhood helped him overcome the genetic tendencies for violent behaviour. (Genetic determinism refers to the idea that all human behaviour is innate and determined by genes) Option 1 is incorrect. To say that the anatomical patterns have no relation to psychopathic behaviour is contrary to the passage. The first paragraph states that “Compared to a control brain, neuroscientist James Fallon’s brain shows significantly decreased activity in areas of the frontal lobe linked to empathy and morality—anatomical patterns that have been linked with psychopathic behaviour.” Option 1, thus, contradicts the passage. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage explains that environmental factors can influence behaviour; hence to say that they neutralise the genetic influence on behaviour is incorrect. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not refute genetic determinism but says that environmental factors help subdue the genetic tendencies for aggression and violence. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. The traits of psychopathy are strengthened or weakened by childhood experiences. The last paragraph states, “… [a] particular allele for a serotonin transporter protein present in the brain, for example, is believed to put him at higher risk for psychopathic tendencies. But it … can open up the region to be more significantly affected by environmental influences, and so a positive (or negative) childhood is especially pivotal in determining behavioural outcomes.” Thus, environmental factors play a pivotal role in the manifestation of psychopathic behaviour. Thus the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: Environmental factors, rather than genetics, play a pivotal role in determining violent behaviour. Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 % 3)It can be inferred from the passage that Fallon’s childhood experience … made him uninhibited to declare the results of his psychopathic tendencies to the public. warranted an examination of the childhood of all those whose brain scans matched Fallon’s.

had a greater influence on his behaviour than his genetic predisposition for violence. made him free of any anxiety about the biological markers of psychopathy in himself. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that Fallon’s boldness was attributable to his psychopathic tendencies. Hence attributing his boldness to his childhood experience is incorrect. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. One cannot infer from the passage that the childhood environments of people like Fallon should be examined. The passage notes that it is Fallon’s own understanding that his childhood environment diluted the effects of his biological tendencies. Beyond this, the passage does not support the idea that people who are similar to Fallon should have their childhoods investigated. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, Fallon’s lack of anxiety on the discovery of his own psychopathic genes cannot be linked to his childhood. It could be more related to his psychopathic tendencies themselves. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. Refer the fifth paragraph. ‘He now believes that his childhood prevented him from heading down a scarier path. “I was loved, and that protected me,” he says. He was given an especially heavy amount of attention from his parents, and he thinks that played a key role.’ This makes option 3 valid inference. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: had a greater influence on his behaviour than his genetic predisposition for violence. Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 97 % 4)According to the passage, why was Fallon “indeed a psychopath”, in his own opinion? He was unwilling to help other human beings if it meant inconvenience to himself. He was particularly inspired by a desire to control others. He had a tendency towards violent behaviour and an inability to feel remorse for his own actions. He preferred to isolate himself from society for fear of being unaccepted. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Fallon’s unwillingness to help others is not stated or implied in the passage. Option 1 is, thus, beyond the scope of the passage. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Fallon was not violent. He is said to a pro-social psychopath. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. In fact, disinhibition is said to be a psychopathic trait exhibited by Fallon. Disinhibition is the opposite of the tendency to isolate oneself. So, reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. Refer paragraph 3 – ‘Eventually, based on further neurological and behavioural research into psychopathy, he decided he was indeed a psychopath—just a relatively good kind, what he and others call a “pro-social psychopath,” someone who has difficulty feeling true empathy for others but still keeps his behaviour roughly within socially-acceptable bounds.’ The next paragraph explains, ‘“It wasn’t entirely a shock to Fallon, as he’d always been aware that he was someone especially motivated by power and manipulating others,” Thus, his own assessment is that his special motivation to control others made him a psychopath. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: He was particularly inspired by a desire to control others. Time taken by you: 159 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 5)Which of the following would be the most suitable title for the passage? The danger of psychological profiling. The ambiguity in psychological profiling. Decoding the psychological profile. When labels cease to make sense. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1, “The danger of psychological profiling “ is incorrect. The passage discusses the case of James Fallon; and through his experience, seeks to understand the implications of the genetic profiling of an individual. It finds a discrepancy between the image of the individual arising from profiling, and his actual behaviour. The passage is an effort to understand the discrepancy, so as to better reflect behaviour. It does not sound an. Thus, it would be incorrect to label gentic/psychological profiling as ‘dangerous.’ Reject option 1. Option 3, “Decoding the psychological profile” is incorrect. Through the example of James Fallon, the passage shows how genetic profiling fails to give a clear and unambiguous picture of the person. It does not decode or break down the mystery of profiling – it only points out the ambiguity. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4, “When labels cease to make sense” is too general, vague and unspecific. Option 2 “The ambiguity in psychological profiling “is correct. The title captures the central issue of ambiguity presented in the passage through the case of James Fallon. While he fulfils the genetic criteria of a psychopath, he is, in reality a ‘non-violent, stable and successful scientist.’ Psychopaths are associated with criminal, anti-social behaviour. Para 5 states: “But the fact that a person with the genes and brain of a psychopath could end up a non-violent, stable and successful scientist made Fallon reconsider the ambiguity of the term.” This is why it is not accepted as a formal diagnosis, and thus extends to the ambiguity of all psychological profiling. Thus the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: The ambiguity in psychological profiling. Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 % 6)Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? Psychopathy can encompass a wide range of behaviours. Psychopaths are unable to sense other people’s emotions. Psychopaths are incapable of empathetic and morally right behaviour. Genetic determinism is a reliable indicator of violent behaviour, while the James Fallon case is an exception. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 2 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 1, “… significantly decreased activity in areas of the frontal lobe linked to empathy and morality—anatomical patterns that have been linked with psychopathic behaviour.” ‘Empathy’ means “the ability to share someone else's feelings or experiences by imagining what it would be like to be in that person's situation.” Thus, the author does not sate that psychopaths cannot sense or detect other people’s emotions. He merely says that psychopaths cannot share or feel those emotions themselves. We can eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 3. ‘… what he and others call a “pro-social psychopath,” someone who has difficulty feeling true empathy for others but still keeps his behaviour roughly within socially-acceptable bounds.’ Thus, a categorical negation of empathy and morality in psychopaths, especially in social psychopaths is incorrect. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 5. “Fallon was once a self-proclaimed genetic determinist, but his views on the influence of genes on behaviour have evolved. He now believes that his childhood helped prevent him from heading down a scarier path. “I was loved, and that protected me,” He was given an especially heavy amount of attention from his parents, and he thinks that played a key role.” Thus, according to the passage, genetic determinism by itself cannot be a reliable or unreliable indicator of psychopathic behaviour. This option is not inferable and can be rejected. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 4 states, “… the fact that a person with the genes and brain of a psychopath could end up a non-violent, stable and successful scientist made Fallon reconsider the ambiguity of the term. Not all psychopaths kill; some, like Fallon, exhibit other sorts of psychopathic behaviour.” Thus, the conclusion that Psychopathy encompasses a wide range of behaviours is true. Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Psychopathy can encompass a wide range of behaviours. Time taken by you: 154 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 %

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Video Explanation:

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. ‘Animal spirits’ is the colourful name that Keynes gave to one of the essential ingredients of economic prosperity: confidence. According to Keynes, animal spirits are a particular sort of confidence, “naïve optimism". He meant this in the sense that, for entrepreneurs in particular, "the thought of ultimate loss which often overtakes pioneers, as experience undoubtedly tells us and them, is put aside as a healthy man puts aside the expectation of death". “Animal spirits” is the name that Keynes gave to “naïve optimism", a spirit that is essential to economic prosperity-- one that characterises entrepreneurs and pioneers. “Animal spirits” is the name that Keynes gave to the particular type of confidence shown by entrepreneurs and pioneers even in the face of potential loss. According to Keynes, “Animal spirits”, a vital ingredient of economic prosperity, is a sort of confidence that entrepreneurs and pioneers show even at the prospect of ultimate loss. “Animal spirits”, according to Keynes, is a type of confidence shown by entrepreneurs and pioneers even in the face of ultimate loss; this is essential for economic prosperity.

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Explanation: This is a difficult question. The main points in the passage are: · Confidence is an essential ingredient of economic prosperity. · “Animal Spirits”, a term coined by Keynes, stands for a type of confidence. · This is what pushes forward entrepreneurs and pioneers even at the prospect of ultimate loss. Option 1 is incorrect. The idea of being unaffected by a potential loss is integral to the definition of the term “animal spirits”, as coined by Keynes. Option 1 does not include this crucial point. Besides, “naïve optimism” in option 1, requires further clarification. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It fails to mention an important point—the importance of ‘confidence’ in economic prosperity. It is in relation to this concept that the Keynesian term, “animal spirits” emerges. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. It captures the essence of the paragraph and thus the author’s position accurately. Retain Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It misrepresents the passage when it states that animal spirits are shown by “entrepreneurs and pioneers (show animal spirits) even in the face of ultimate loss.” What the passage mentions as “the thought of ultimate loss” is misrepresented in the précis as ‘actual loss’. Reject option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: According to Keynes, “Animal spirits”, a vital ingredient of economic prosperity, is a sort of confidence that entrepreneurs and pioneers show even at the prospect of ultimate loss. Time taken by you: 172 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 %

2. Whenever I travel to rural parts of the world, the farmers I meet talk about one thing that holds them back: they can’t save their money.

3. Farmers make most of their money during harvest time, and they spend the most during the planting season when they buy seeds.

4. Storing it at home is risky, as your house could catch on fire or be swept away in a flood—or someone could break in and steal all of your savings.

5. For many poor smallholder farmers, the solution is simple: you don’t save at all.

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Explanation: This is an easy question. Sentence 2 introduces the theme of the paragraph presented as the writer’s observation in the first person – that world over, farmers can’t save their money. Sentence 1 states the major reason for the farmers not being able to save. Majority of the farmers lack access to banks. Sentences 4 and 5 are related to the same theme. Sentence 4 explains why they cannot save money at home, and sentence 5 the simple solution that farmers have found to not being able to save money – that they don’t save at all. Sentence 3 however, talks about when they make most of their money and when they spend it. This is not related to the theme of the farmers not why farmers don’t save their money. Hence the correct answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Gamers often perform repetitive tasks to improve their character’s skill set, gain rewards, and advance to new levels. The process is known as grinding: Now, an underground movement has taken up that expression, calling themselves grinders, and they’re trying to gain some of those same superskills—only in real life, by hacking their bodies. To cynics, the upgraded-self movement—aka body hacking—can seem a reckless and narcissistic pursuit. After all, treating your body like a home science-kit can have serious consequences. Yet tinkering with human hardware is a centuries-old pursuit. Bolting titanium plates onto problem spines has become downright common. Today’s trans-humanists take it further. They seek to extend the senses and co-mingle them, allowing themselves to do things like hear colours, sense magnetic north, and see in the dark. Technology is driving the trend. But so are a few renegade surgeons—operating in an ethical gray area—and a growing number of innovative grinders, all of them hoping to one day push the cyborg off the Comic-Con floor and out onto Main Street. In 1998, U.K. professor Kevin Warwick became the first person to have a transponder chip implanted under his skin, but only after receiving ethical approval to experiment on himself and enlisting a doctor to assist him. It wasn’t until Seattle-based IT consultant Amal Graafstra had a chip implanted in each hand, in 2005, without seeking approval, that the grinder world found a spark. Graafstra uses the chips to open his home and car doors and to log on to his computer. He also sells them to grinders on his website ‘Dangerous Things’. 1)According to the passage, all the following factors set grinders apart from gamers, EXCEPT: They represent the narcissistic pursuit towards an upgraded self. They are associated with the upgrading of the existing functionality of a system. They function within an ethical grey area despite the long history of the practice. They represent the upgraded-self movement that is slowly gaining popularity. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is an (EXCEPT) question of medium difficulty

Though the term Grinding is attributed to both Gamers as well as Grinders, the difference between them is pointed out in the first paragraph itself-- while Gamers deal with their characters, Grinders work on their own bodies. Option 1 is incorrect. The option is true for grinders but not for gamers. Gamers are not involved in the pursuit of an upgraded-self. Hence option 1 correctly states the difference between gamers and grinders. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. This statement is true about grinders. In the first paragraph it is called “an underground movement.” The second paragraph cautions that treating the body like home-science kit can have serious consequences and a few renegade surgeons aided by technology operate in this grey area. Hence grinders function in an ethical grey area. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 is also true about grinders. The second paragraph begins with ‘the upgraded-self movement’ with reference to grinders or body hackers. The paragraph also mentions that “a growing number of innovative grinders, all of them hoping to one day push the cyborg off the Comic-Con floor and out onto Main Street.” This makes option 4 true. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. This is a general statement that talks about the ‘upgrading of the existing functionality of a system’. The statement correctly describes gamers as well as grinders. In both cases, there happens an upgrading of the existing functionality. Though, the term ‘system’ would correspond to different entities in each case— for gamers, it’d be the characters they create and for grinders, it is their own bodies. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer:

They are associated with the upgrading of the existing functionality of a system.

Time taken by you: 184 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 % 2) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? Warn the public of a time when cyborgs would take over the world. Attempt to enlighten the public on the hazards of body hacking. Give an account of how grinding developed into a booming commercial industry. Introduce the contemporary trend of the upgraded- self movement or body-hacking. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The author does not portray grinding as a threat to the world. He says that ‘…body hacking can seem a reckless and narcissistic pursuit. After all, treating your body like a home science kit can have serious consequences.’ There aren’t sufficient details to support the claim in the option. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, option 2 misrepresents the purpose. The author makes no attempt to enlighten the public on the dangers of body hacking. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage doesn’t assert that ‘body hacking’ has grown into a booming commercial industry. In fact, the idea has still not gained wide acceptance. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The option correctly describes what the passage is trying to do. It introduces the underground movement of grinding, the upgraded self-movement or body hacking. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Introduce the contemporary trend of the upgraded- self movement or body-hacking. Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 83 % 3)The passage asserts all the following EXCEPT: Grinders treat their bodies as gamers treat their characters in a game. Grinders acquire super skills by hacking their bodies. Hacking the body can improve its functionality and health. Grinding or body-hacking is currently illegal. Video Explanation:

Explanation:

This is an easy EXCEPT question.

Option 1 is true and not an exception. The first paragraph supports option 1. “Gamers often perform repetitive tasks to improve their character’s skill set, gain rewards, and advance to new levels. … Now, an underground movement (called) grinders are trying to gain some of those same super skills—only in real life, by hacking their bodies.” Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In the last paragraph the passage provides evidence for the super skills achieved by Graafstra by implanting a microchip in each hand. He uses the chips to open his home and car doors and to log on to his computer. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. In paragraph 2 the author states that “Bolting titanium plates onto problem spines has become downright common.” The practice is undertaken only to improve the functionality of the body. Hence option 3 is true and not an exception. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is an exception. The passage does not assert that the practice of grinding or body hacking is currently illegal. The example of Amal Graafstra who implanted a chip in his hands did it without approval. But it is said to have given the spark to the grinder world– implying encouragement. He also sells the chip to grinders on his website ‘Dangerous Things’. So option 4 is not asserted in the passage. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer:

Grinding or body-hacking is currently illegal.

Time taken by you: 32 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Sentence 2 introduces the theme of the paragraph presented as the writer’s observation in the first person – that world over, farmers can’t save their money. Sentence 1 states the major reason for the farmers not being able to save. Majority of the farmers lack access to banks. Sentences 4 and 5 are related to the same theme. Sentence 4 explains why they cannot save money at home, and sentence 5 the simple solution that farmers have found to not being able to save money – that they don’t save at all. Sentence 3 however, talks about when they make most of their money and when they spend it. This is not related to the theme of the farmers not why farmers don’t save their money. Hence the correct answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Emoticons are punctuation marks, letters, and numbers used to create pictorial icons that generally display an emotion or sentiment. 2. The most prominent change to our online style has been the addition of two new-age hieroglyphic languages: emoticons and emoji. 3. Since body language and verbal tone do not translate in our text messages or e-mails, we’ve developed alternate ways to convey nuanced meaning. 4. Not to be confused with their predecessor, emoji are pictographs of faces, objects, and symbols. 5. The Internet has greatly changed the way we communicate.

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Explanation: This is an easy question. Sentences 5 and 3 can be considered for the start of the paragraph. Sentence 5 appears a better start; it introduces the topic of how the Internet has changed the way we communicate. Sentence 3 explains why the “change” mentioned in sentence 5 became necessary. We had to “develop alternate ways to convey nuanced meaning,” since our body language and verbal tone did not translate in our text or email. So 5-3 pair begins the paragraph. Sentence 3 continues the narrative by describing the “most prominent change to our online style...” as the addition of emoticons and emoji. So we get 532. Sentence 1 and 4 explain emoticons and emoji in the order they are mentioned in sentence 2. This gives us 53214. However, if you had considered sentence 3 as the beginning, you would still get the sequence 3214 and be left with option to place sentence 5 either at the beginning or at the end. Sentence 5 is better at the beginning than at the end. Hence the correct answer is 53214. Correct Answer: 53214 Time taken by you: 153 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

4. The terms speed and velocity that physicists use to describe the motion of objects in terms of distance, time, and direction have distinct meanings. 5. Speed is the time rate at which an object is moving along a path, while velocity is the rate and direction of an object’s movement.

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Explanation: This is an easy question. The starter of the paragraph is easy to identify. Sentences 1, 2 and 3 are unsuitable as they contain phrases that relate them to other sentences. We can consider sentences 4 and 5 for the starter. Sentence 5 is an explanation of what is stated in sentence 4, and hence must come later-on in the paragraph. So, we can be sure that sentence 4 starts the paragraph. Both sentences 5 and 2 can be considered after sentence 4. However, “these terms” in sentence 2 is related to “the terms” in sentence 4. Besides, sentences 2 and 4 together present a contradiction-- “yet not uncommonly these terms are used interchangeably” contrasts with “speed and velocity have two distinct meanings”, as stated in sentence 4 So, the answer sequence starts with 4-2. Comparing sentences 5, 3 and 1, you can see that sentence 5 follows the pair 4-2 because it explains the difference between the two terms. So, we get the sequence, 4-2-5. Sentence 3, which begins with “put another way…” continues from sentence 5; it explains the difference between the two terms in a more technical way. Thus, we get the sequence, 4-2-5-3. Sentence 1 then closes the paragraph with an example which explains the difference between speed and velocity. Hence the correct answer is 42531. Correct Answer: 42531 Time taken by you: 57 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 15 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. US President Donald Trump believes that China has artificially weakened its currency in order to dump goods in the United States. Now that he is taking action to reduce America’s bilateral trade deficit with China, there could be grave consequences for the world economy. Trump is making a mistake. Countries occasionally buy and sell on foreign-exchange markets in order to boost the value of their own currency. In most cases, this is done by commercial banks acting at central banks’ behest. Through the 1980s and 1990s, China kept its currency artificially undervalued so that it could sell more goods internationally. From the mid-1990s to 2005, the renminbi was pegged to the US dollar in nominal terms, and the dollar experienced real appreciation. The logic was simple: by buying dollars, China could cause the relative value of the dollar to rise and the value of the renminbi would fall. Accordingly, the People’s Bank of China accumulated enormous dollar reserves. In China’s case, it allowed domestically based firms to

export more, because they were selling at below-cost prices, thus incurring losses. This approach makes sense if one is selling habitforming goods, because you can raise prices and make up for earlier losses once the customer has become dependent on the product. Like products, buying from a country can also be habit-forming. Once you have mastered all of the rules and regulations, as well as the culture and politics, of a trading partner, you have an interest in continuing to do business with that country. With the US and many other nations now hooked on buying from China, Chinese policymakers no longer need to maintain an undervalued currency. And, indeed, China has been spending down its foreign-exchange reserves since mid-2014. Though the renminbi was once kept artificially weak, there are now many economists who believe that it is actually overvalued. That, after all, is what one would expect for the seller of an addictive good. In this context, Trump’s tariff war comes far too late, and will prove utterly selfdefeating. But let’s assume that Trump is right – that China is still selling its products to US consumers at a loss. In that case, my advice to him is simple. He should send a thank-you note to Chinese President Xi Jinping. 1)The Central idea of the passage is that: Donald Trump is mistaken in his belief that China is still holding down the renminbi to boost its exports. The ongoing tariff war between the US and China can result in grave consequences for the world economy. China is selling its goods at below-cost prices to the US in order to boost its dollar-denominated foreign-exchange reserves. China has artificially weakened its currency in order to dump goods in the United States. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The passage begins by mentioning Donald trump’s belated realization that China had been deliberately holding down the value of renminbi in order to boost its exports-- this is no longer true though; China had done this from the 1980s to 2005. Consequently, his intention to initiate a tariff war between the US and China is also very ill-timed because China has already established firm trade relations with its western markets; they have been made comfortable with the Chinese culture and politics. China has thus amassed huge dollar reserves, and since 2014 the nation has been spending down its foreign-exchange reserves. The passage is then concluded by reemphasizing on the fact that Trump’s tariff war comes as a very late response, and that it will prove to be utterly self-defeating. Option 1 highlights Trump’s mistaken belief and captures the bare essence of the passage. Option 2 is incorrect. The author does not elaborate on the economic consequences after mentioning it briefly in paragraph 1. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. That China was selling its goods at below-cost prices to the US was true only during the 1980s and ‘90s, not any more. Option 4 is incorrect for the same reason. According to the passage, China has succeeded in its scheme to establish secure markets for its goods in the West through the 1990s to 2005. According to the passage, “China has artificially weakened its currency in order to dump goods in the United States” is the mistaken belief of Trump, hence incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Donald Trump is mistaken in his belief that China is still holding down the renminbi to boost its exports. Time taken by you: 245 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 % 2)The main conclusion of the passage is that … The US President Trump should send a thank-you note to Chinese President Xi Jinping. Though the renminbi was kept artificially weak initially, it is currently overvalued. With the US hooked on buying from China, Chinese policymakers need not worry about Trump’s tariff war with China. Trump’s tariff war with China is rooted in false assumptions and may prove to be self-defeating for the US. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. Though option 1 is the last sentence of the paragraph, it is in fact a sarcastic remark aimed at Trump’s way of dealing with the financial manipulations by China, rather than the logical conclusion of the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The last paragraph mentions that many economists (now) believe that renminbi is actually overvalued. However, the economists view has not been advanced as the main conclusion of the passage. Eliminate option 3. Option 3 is incorrect. Though the US is implicitly hooked on imports from China, the conclusion of the passage does not suggest that the Chinese policy makers need not worry about Trump’s tariff war. It will be too simple a conclusion in the context of the trade war between the US and China. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The last paragraph almost explicitly states option 4. “In this context, Trump’s tariff war comes far too late, and will prove utterly self-defeating.” Why the tariff war will prove self-defeating for the US is explained briefly by outlining China’s bilateral trade with the US from the 1980s onwards. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Trump’s tariff war with China is rooted in false assumptions and may prove to be self-defeating for the US. Time taken by you: 23 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 3)Why does the author say in the last paragraph, “He (Donald Trump) should send a thank-you note to Chinese President Xi Jinping”? The author is acknowledging the contribution of the Chinese to the US economy. The author is sarcastically commenting on Trump’s tariff war with China. The author is admitting that the US ought to appreciate China’s trade policies. The author is acknowledging the advantage that China has in its bilateral trade with the US. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question

The last paragraph states: “In this context, Trump’s tariff war comes far too late, and will prove utterly self-defeating. But let’s assume that Trump is right – that China is still selling its products to US consumers at a loss. In that case, my advice to him is simple. He should send a thank-you note to Chinese President Xi Jinping.”

After explaining why Trump’s tariff war with China is self-defeating for the US, the author rules out the possibility that china may be selling its products to the US at a loss. Hence, his suggestion of a thank-you note is a sarcastic comment on the futility of Trump’s intention to initiate a tariff war with China.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: The author is sarcastically commenting on Trump’s tariff war with China. Time taken by you: 20 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question.

This is an easy question. The starter of the paragraph is easy to identify. Sentences 1, 2 and 3 are unsuitable as they contain phrases that relate them to other sentences. We can consider sentences 4 and 5 for the starter. Sentence 5 is an explanation of what is stated in sentence 4, and hence must come later-on in the paragraph. So, we can be sure that sentence 4 starts the paragraph. Both sentences 5 and 2 can be considered after sentence 4. However, “these terms” in sentence 2 is related to “the terms” in sentence 4. Besides, sentences 2 and 4 together present a contradiction-- “yet not uncommonly these terms are used interchangeably” contrasts with “speed and velocity have two distinct meanings”, as stated in sentence 4 So, the answer sequence starts with 4-2. Comparing sentences 5, 3 and 1, you can see that sentence 5 follows the pair 4-2 because it explains the difference between the two terms. So, we get the sequence, 4-2-5. Sentence 3, which begins with “put another way…” continues from sentence 5; it explains the difference between the two terms in a more technical way. Thus, we get the sequence, 4-2-5-3. Sentence 1 then closes the paragraph with an example which explains the difference between speed and velocity. Hence the correct answer is 42531. Correct Answer: 42531 Time taken by you: 57 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 15 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the sentences does not fit into the context. Find the sentence that does not fit into the context and enter its number in the space given below. 1. In four countries women cannot register a business and in 18 a husband can stop his wife working.

2. Workload and stress-related risks to women in the workplace are often underestimated. 3. Even as rich countries seek to rid workplaces of subtle gender bias, in many developing ones discrimination remains overt. 4. Some countries publish lists of jobs deemed too dangerous for women while others stop women from working in entire sectors, at night or in “morally inappropriate” jobs. 5. According to the World Bank, women are barred from certain jobs in 104 countries through labor laws.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Sentence 3 introduces the theme of the paragraph. Gender bias in workplaces – whereas in developed countries discrimination is subtle, developing countries it is overt. The over discrimination is explained in sentence 1 – that in four countries women cannot register a

business and in 18 countries husband can prevent his wife from working. Sentence 4 and 5 are related to the same theme with details of statistics and details about the same discrimination. Sentence 2 relates to the workload and stress women go through at workplace. This is not related to the theme of gender bias in the workplace. Hence the correct answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. There’s a theory that REM sleep plays a role in language development, through the dreaming that happens during this part of the sleep cycle. Research conducted on undergraduates taking a 6-week French language immersion program, has found that the brains of those students who were dreaming in French were essentially able to make new connections with the language. Dreams are more than simply a replay of what happens during the day. Research has suggested that the regions of the brain that manage logic and emotion interact differently during dreams, allowing for these imaginative new connections in the language learner. Research shows that dreaming during REM sleep plays a role in language development. Regions of the brain that manage logic and emotion interact differently during dreaming in that language leading to imaginative new connections. Dreaming during REM sleep is advantageous to a language learner as it establishes new connections in that part of the brain associated with language learning. REM sleep involves dreaming that facilitates language development. Research shows that students who were dreaming in French were essentially able to make new connections with the language. Research shows that REM sleep which leads to dreaming plays a role in language development in the students by facilitating new imaginative connections with the language. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points of the précis are: Dreams that occur during REM sleeps play a role in language development. Research shows that the regions of the brain that manage logic and emotion interact differently during dreams, making imaginative new connections in the learner. Option 1 is correct. This option correctly conveys all the major points of the précis. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It does not convey the importance of the role of dreaming in language learning. Not only does it say how dreams aid language learners, but also contain only a passing comment on the link between dreaming and the functioning of our brain, in connection with REM sleeps. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The mention of ‘students dreaming in French’ makes the summary incorrect. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It fails to mention how new connections with the language develop during dreams. Eliminate option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: Research shows that dreaming during REM sleep plays a role in language development. Regions of the brain that manage logic and emotion interact differently during dreaming in that language leading to imaginative new connections. Time taken by you: 89 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. A gene is a unit of hereditary information. Alleles are also genetic sequences, and they too code for the transmission of traits. So, what it is the difference between a gene and an allele? Each gene resides at a specific locus in two copies, one copy of the gene inherited from each parent. The copies, however, are not necessarily the same. When the copies of a gene differ from each other, they are known as alleles. A given gene may have multiple different alleles, though only two alleles are present at the gene’s locus in any individual. A gene is unit of hereditary information present at a specific locus while alleles are copies of genes that differ from each other; only two alleles can make up a gene in any individual. Genes can be made up of multiple different alleles while alleles code for contrasting gene pairs. Genes may be made up of alleles if the two copies of the gene are not the same. Genes and Alleles both codify genetic information; a gene resides at a locus in two copies – inherited from each parent, while alleles are different copies of the same gene. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points of the précis are: Both, genes and alleles code hereditary information. Gene resides at a specific locus in two copies – one copy inherited from each parent. If the copies of a gene differ from each other, they are known as alleles. A gene may be of multiple different alleles. Option 1 is incorrect. This option misrepresents an important point i.e. alleles are different copies of the same gene, not copies of genes that differ from each other. “Two alleles can make up a gene in any individual” is also incorrect. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It misses the important point that genes reside at specific loci in two copies – inherited from each parent. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It misses the important points of the passage. It fails to mention that genes and alleles carry genetic information. Also, it does not mention that genes reside at specific locus in two copies – inherited from each parent. Further, it doesn’t mention that alleles maybe of different types, but one gene contains only two alleles. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It correctly summarizes all the main points. It may seem that the point “Alleles may be of multiple different types, but a gene contains only two alleles in any individual,” is missing. But it is covered in the option when it states that “genes are located at a fixed position in two copies … while alleles are different copies of the same gene.”

Thus, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Genes and Alleles both codify genetic information; a gene resides at a locus in two copies – inherited from each parent, while alleles are different copies of the same gene. Time taken by you: 126 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer for each question. Rising powers from the so-called global south are putting their former Western colonizers on notice: They want their looted treasures — and their historical dignity — back. In China, it is estimated that up to 10 million antiquities have disappeared since 1840. Alex Palmer writes, “The modern Communist Party has declared its intent to bring China back from that period of prolonged decline, and the return of looted objects serves as undeniable proof—tangible, visible, and beautiful proof—of the country’s revival.” Chinese billionaires have been using their wealth to acquire Chinese art from European firms. More stunningly, highly skilled thieves have targeted Europe’s museums, brazenly stealing Chinese antiquities that were looted during the 19th century. Perhaps we can’t blame a formerly oppressed nation for wanting to get back their heritage by any means necessary, even if that means pulling off Killmonger-style heists — the way in the Marvel movie “Black Panther,” the character Killmonger stole back African artifacts from a British museum. Many countries have requested formally the return of their looted heritage, only to find that their former colonizers and invaders aren’t budging. The Indian government has long demanded that the British return the famous 105.6-carat Kohinoor diamond. Britain has claimed that the diamond was a “gift.” Former Prime Minister David Cameron once said that the Kohinoor would “stay put”. What is undeniable is that as more and more countries gain wealth and geopolitical influence, museums and galleries in Western countries will feel only more pressure and scrutiny for their decisions to hold onto stolen heritage. Asia is now becoming home to the world’s highest number of billionaires — China is in first place, while India ranks third. Wealth and influence combined with increasing nationalism will bring about a demand for art — and justice. History belongs to geography. Heritage belongs to the community that it was meant for. If it is taken anywhere else, it’s not just wrong, it’s almost a sin. Social media makes it easier for people around the world to spread awareness about efforts to restore heritage objects to their original country. A group called the India Pride Project is a collective of online volunteers who scour the world’s museums, exhibitions and private collections for looted artifacts from India. They use social media to pressure for the return of artifacts. The project started with a bunch of people saying, ‘Hey, can we use heritage as a way to leverage pride in our own civilization?’ India Pride Project is about five years old and largely decentralized, with a core of about a dozen volunteers who scan catalogs and websites around the world for Indian heritage items. In 2014, the group helped to recover a stolen statue of Shiva from an Australian museum worth more than $5 million. Still, when it comes to looted heritage, is it morally wrong to steal back treasures that were forcibly taken from your culture? The members of India Pride Project don’t believe that stealing — or buying-back treasures is the way to go. Instead, they argue that the only “sustainable way is to make the moral case” that countries should return stolen heritage. 1)The primary purpose of the passage is: to highlight the extent of the loot that was committed by former Western colonizers. to question the appropriateness of stealing back looted colonial-era treasures and to support their voluntary return. to highlight how Indians are making a moral case while the Chinese are engaging in any means necessary to bring back the looted heritage. to reveal the defiance of former western colonizers in their refusal to return the looted heritage artifacts. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The passage starts with the assertion that rising powers are demanding the return of stolen heritage objects from their former colonizers. It gives examples of China and India and states that “as more and more countries gain wealth and geopolitical influence, museums and galleries in Western countries will feel only more pressure and scrutiny for their decisions to hold onto stolen heritage.” The passage enumerates the different ways that are being employed to bring back the looted artifacts, and heritage belongs to the original community. The author questions the wisdom of stealing back the treasures and seems to suggest that countries should voluntarily return stolen heritage. Option 2 is correct since it expresses the purpose of the passage briefly. Option 1 is incorrect. It is out of context. The passage does not discuss the extent or degree to which the colonial powers looted the heritage artifacts of their colonies. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The specific cases of India and China highlight how emerging economies in the global south are demanding the looted artifacts back from their former colonial masters, in an effort to regain their historical dignity. The author does not compare the methods used by these countries to bring back the stolen artifacts. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Though the author mentions the case of Britain rejecting India’s Kohinoor diamond in paragraph 3, it is not cited as the main purpose of the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: to question the appropriateness of stealing back looted colonial-era treasures and to support their voluntary return. Time taken by you: 245 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 197 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2)The modern Communist Party in China wants the return of looted objects for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: To affirm its significance as a rising power. To show its commitment to restoring its lost glory. To prove its billionaires’ ability to finance high-tech stealth operations. To signal the end of a prolonged period of decline. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 can be inferred and is thus not an exception. The second paragraph states that, “the modern Communist Party has declared its intent to bring China back from that period of prolonged decline, and the return of looted objects serves as undeniable proof—tangible, visible, and beautiful proof—of the country’s revival.” Thus, we can say that the party wants to validate its claim of China’s rising power by bringing back the nation’s looted treasures. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be validated from the passage and is thus, not an exception. Refer to the same sentence in the second paragraph. The phrase “…declared its intent to bring China back from that period of prolonged decline…” implies that China has had a period of glory before it fell into decline. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. It is just a rephrasing of the previously stated sentence from the passage. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The passage does not suggest that the modern Communist Party is encouraging the nation’s billionaires to acquire or its highly skilled thieves to steal the Chinese artifacts. Hence, this option is an exception. Hence, the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: To prove its billionaires’ ability to finance high-tech stealth operations. Time taken by you: 67 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 % 3)Based on this extract, the author would NOT support which of the following statements? It would be unfair if nations have to beg their former colonizers to return the looted artifacts. Countries like China and India regained their pride in their history and heritage in view of their growing economic and political clout. Western countries should expect greater pressure from their ex-colonies for the return of the stolen goods. Museums around the world must loan pieces of looted heritage to the countries of their origin. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. We have to find a statement that the author would NOT support. Option 1 is incorrect as it is supported by the passage. Refer the 4 th paragraph: “Wealth and influence combined with increasing nationalism will bring about a demand for art — and justice … Heritage belongs to the community that it was meant for. If it is taken anywhere else, it’s not just wrong, it’s almost a sin.” Thus, the author would agree that it is unfair if the former colonies have to beg for the possession of those stolen artifacts. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author would agree with option 2. Refer paragraph 1. “Rising powers from the so-called global south are putting their former Western colonizers on notice: They want their looted treasures — and their historical dignity — back.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 4. “…. as more and more countries gain wealth and geopolitical influence, museums and galleries in Western countries will feel only more pressure and scrutiny for their decisions to hold onto stolen heritage.” Option 3 is supported by the passage and thus, can be eliminated. Option 4 is correct. Throughout the passage, the author insists that the artifacts must be returned. The passage does not suggest that “museums around the world must loan pieces of looted heritage”, as stated in the option. Rather, the author would find it irrelevant. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Museums around the world must loan pieces of looted heritage to the countries of their origin. Time taken by you: 107 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 77 % 4)All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT: Western countries must let go of their colonial past by returning the looted heritage artifacts. Looted heritage objects maybe found in museums, exhibitions and among private collections. Social media is being used to gather support for the attempts to bring back the looted heritage. Britain received the famous Kohinoor diamond as a gift from India. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy EXCEPT question. Option 1 is true and not an exception. Refer the 4th paragraph. Here, the demand for the return of looted art is equated with justice. It asserts that ‘heritage belongs to the community it was meant for’. Thus, the author is in favour of the rising demand from the formerly oppressed nations for the return of the looted artifacts – the western countries or the colonizers must let go of the treasures. Eliminate option 1 Option 2 is true and not an exception. Refer paragraph 5: “A group called the India Pride Project is a collective of online volunteers who scour the world’s museums, exhibitions and private collections for looted artifacts from India.” Thus, it is fairly obvious that the probability of finding looted artifacts is very high in museums, exhibitions and among private collections. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 states that “social media makes it easier for people around the world to spread awareness about efforts to restore heritage objects to their original country.” Option 3 is true and can be eliminated. Option 4 is correct. The third paragraph states that ‘The Indian government has long demanded that the British to return the famous 105.6-carat Kohinoor diamond. Britain has claimed that the diamond was a “gift.”’ The above sentence shows that the govt. of India does not consider it a gift. The option at best is data inadequate. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Britain received the famous Kohinoor diamond as a gift from India. Time taken by you: 72 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 % 5)Which of the following would India Pride Project NOT approve of? An interactive media campaign is launched by activists in Nigeria to press for the return of an artifact housed in a British museum. An Indian businessman comes into possession of Tipu Sultan’s sword through a private auction. The Indian government makes a formal request to UK regarding the return of the stolen artifacts. Cultural activists in Greece are using the famous Elgin Marbles to leverage the historical dignity of the Greek civilization. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. We have to find the statement that India Project would NOT approve of. Option 1 is incorrect. The fifth paragraph states that “they (i.e. India Pride Project) use social media to pressure for the return of artifacts.” Thus, the people at India Pride Project would approve of this scenario. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph: “Instead, they argue that the only “sustainable way is to make the moral case” that countries should return stolen heritage.” Option 3 describes a situation that the people at India Pride Project would approve of. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 5. “The project started with a bunch of people saying, ‘Hey, can we use heritage as a way to leverage pride in our own civilization?’” Thus, the people at India Pride Project would approve of Greek activists using historical artifacts to leverage the dignity of their civilization. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. The last paragraph states that, “the members of India Pride Project don’t believe that stealing — or buying-back treasures is the way to go.” Thus, they would NOT approve of a businessman buying a heritage object in a private auction. Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: An Indian businessman comes into possession of Tipu Sultan’s sword through a private auction. Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 % 6)Based on the passage, which of the following would NOT be a factor affecting the demand for the return of stolen artifacts? Economic development in the formerly oppressed nations. The growing geopolitical influence of the former colonies. Public scrutiny of the need to hold on to the national heritage. Propagandist techniques employed in connection with political campaigns. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Refer paragraph 4. “Wealth and influence combined with increasing nationalism will bring about a demand for art — and justice.” Option 1 is incorrect. We can relate wealth with economic activities, thus making ‘economic development’ a factor affecting the demand for the return of stolen artifacts. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. This is quite straight forward. The 4 th paragraph explicitly states ‘the growing geopolitical influence’ as one of the factors affecting the demand for the return of stolen artifacts. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 5: “The project started with a bunch of people saying, ‘Hey, can we use heritage as a way to leverage pride in our own civilization?’” The paragraph talks of how social media has been instrumental in the ‘efforts to restore heritage objects to one’s own original country’. This is a clear implication of the extent to which the public is involved in the movement. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The only reference to a political party or campaign is in paragraph 2 where it refers to the intent of modern China’s Communist Party to bring back stolen treasures. It is, however, not cited as a political campaign but as a government policy. Option 4 is, thus, not true. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Propagandist techniques employed in connection with political campaigns. Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points of the précis are: Both, genes and alleles code hereditary information.

Gene resides at a specific locus in two copies – one copy inherited from each parent. If the copies of a gene differ from each other, they are known as alleles. A gene may be of multiple different alleles. Option 1 is incorrect. This option misrepresents an important point i.e. alleles are different copies of the same gene, not copies of genes that differ from each other. “Two alleles can make up a gene in any individual” is also incorrect. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It misses the important point that genes reside at specific loci in two copies – inherited from each parent. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It misses the important points of the passage. It fails to mention that genes and alleles carry genetic information. Also, it does not mention that genes reside at specific locus in two copies – inherited from each parent. Further, it doesn’t mention that alleles maybe of different types, but one gene contains only two alleles. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It correctly summarizes all the main points. It may seem that the point “Alleles may be of multiple different types, but a gene contains only two alleles in any individual,” is missing. But it is covered in the option when it states that “genes are located at a fixed position in two copies … while alleles are different copies of the same gene.” Thus, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Genes and Alleles both codify genetic information; a gene resides at a locus in two copies – inherited from each parent, while alleles are different copies of the same gene. Time taken by you: 126 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined undefined undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Six children – Pran, Qadir, Ram, Suman, Teena and Uday went to a stationery shop and bought two items each out of a pack of Google eyes, a box of acrylic paint, a terra cotta pot and a pack of glue dots. No child bought the same pair of items. The prices of apack of Google eyes, a box of acrylic paint, a terra cotta pot and a pack of glue dots were Rs. 7, Rs. 12, Rs. 9 and Rs. 4 respectively. The total amount spent by Pran, Ram, and Uday was Rs. 19, Rs. 16 and Rs. 16 respectively. Teena and Pran bought a common item. Qadir, Ram and Suman bought a common item. Teena spent less than Rs. 20. 1) How much amount (in Rs.) was spent by Teena? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Cost of various pairs of given items are as given below i) a pack of Google eyes & a box of acrylic paint = 7 + 12 = Rs. 19 ii) a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot = 7 + 9 = Rs. 16 iii) a pack of Google eyes & a pack of glue dots = 7 + 4 = Rs. 11 iv) a box of acrylic paint & a terra cotta pot = 12 + 9 = Rs. 21 v) a box of acrylic paint & a pack of glue dots = 12 + 4 = Rs. 16 vi) a terra cotta pot & a pack of glue dots = 9 + 4 = Rs. 13 Pran bought a pack of Google eyes & a box of acrylic paint for Rs. 19. As Ram and Uday spent Rs. 16 each, they bought (a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot) and (a box of acrylic paint & a pack of glue dots) in some order. Teena and Pran bought a common item and Teena spent less than Rs. 20. Therefore, Teena must have bought a pack of Google eyes & a pack of glue dots for Rs. 11. Therefore, the required answer is 11.

Correct Answer: 11

Time taken by you: 264 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 403 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 % 2) Which of the following items was definitely purchased by Suman? A box of acrylic paint A pack of glue dots A terra cotta pot None of these Video Explanation:

As Ram and Uday spent Rs. 16 each, they bought (a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot) and (a box of acrylic paint & a pack of glue dots) in some order.

Teena and Pran bought a common item and Teena spent less than Rs. 20. Therefore, Teena must have bought a pack of Google eyes & a pack of glue dots for Rs. 11. Thus, it can be concluded that Qadir and Suman purchased (a box of acrylic paint & a terra cotta pot) and (a terra cotta pot & a pack of glue dots) in no particular order. Thus, Suman definitely purchased a terra cotta pot. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: A terra cotta pot

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 % 3) Who amongst the following did not buy a pack of Google eyes? Pran Ram Teena Suman Video Explanation:

As Ram and Uday spent Rs. 16 each, they bought (a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot) and (a box of acrylic paint & a pack of glue dots) in some order.

Teena and Pran bought a common item and Teena spent less than Rs. 20. Therefore, Teena must have bought a pack of Google eyes & a pack of glue dots for Rs. 11. Thus, it can be concluded that Qadir and Suman purchased (a box of acrylic paint & a terra cotta pot) and (a terra cotta pot & a pack of glue dots) in no particular order. As Qadir, Ram and Suman bought a common item, Ram must have bought a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot. Teena, Ram and Pran bought a pack of Google eyes each. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Suman

Time taken by you: 12 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 4) What was the amount (in Rs.) spent by Qadir? 13 21 19 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Cost of various pair of given items are as given below i) a pack of Google eyes & a box of acrylic paint = 7 + 12 = Rs. 19 ii) a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot = 7 + 9 = Rs. 16 iii) a pack of Google eyes & a pack of glue dots = 7 + 4 = Rs. 11 iv) a box of acrylic paint & a terra cotta pot = 12 + 9 = Rs. 21 v) a box of acrylic paint & a pack of glue dots = 12 + 4 = Rs. 16 vi) a terra cotta pot & a pack of glue dots = 9 + 4 = Rs. 13 Pran bought a pack of Google eyes & a box of acrylic paint for Rs. 19. As Ram and Uday spent Rs. 16 each, they bought (a pack of Google eyes & a terra cotta pot) and (a box of acrylic paint & a pack of glue dots) in some order. Teena and Pran bought a common item and Teena spent less than Rs. 20. Therefore, Teena must have bought a pack of Google eyes & a pack of glue dots for Rs. 11. Thus, it can be concluded that Qadir and Suman purchased (a box of acrylic paint & a terra cotta pot) and (a terra cotta pot & a pack of glue dots) in no particular order. Thus, Qadir could have spent Rs. 13 or Rs. 21. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the class X of PSD School, there were only two sections A and B, and the total number of students put together in these two sections was 200. Section A had more number of students as compared to section B. Shimla and Nainital were shortlisted as the two cities where the students of class X would be taken for the Summer Camp. The students of the class X were asked to vote for one of the given two cities. The students of section A decided that they will all vote for Shimla whereas the students of the section B decided that they will vote for Nainital. The voting was concluded, and it was observed that 100 students voted for Shimla and 100 students voted for Nainital.

There was cross voting on either side, i.e. some students of section A actually voted for Nainital and some students of section B actually voted for Shimla. Every student in the class X (both sections) voted. It was found that the percentage of students of each of the sections who cross-voted was a natural number and was less than 25% of the number of students of their respective sections. 1) Which of the following can be the number of students in section B? 50 60 80 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Let, M be the number of students in section A and N be the % of cross voting done by students from section A. ? The number of students in section A who cross-voted in favour of Nainital

? The number of students in section A who voted for Shimla

Thus, the maximum value of M = 133. So the minimum number of students in section B was 67. As section A had more students, the number of students in section A = 101 to 133(both inclusive) and the number of students in section A = 67 to 99(both inclusive). Out of the given options, 80 is the only possible option in the range. In that case, the number of students in section A = 120 and the number of students in section B = 80. Less than 25% students in each section cross-voted. Therefore at least 75% of 120 (or at least 80) students from section A voted for Shimla and less than 25% of 80 (or less than 20) students from section B voted for Shimla. If 96 students out of 120 (80%) students in section A and 4 students out of 80 (5%) students in section B voted for Shimla, we get total 100 students who voted for Shimla and both percentages are natural numbers. This is a possible case. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 80

Time taken by you: 604 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 332 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 2) For the number of students in section B as calculated in the first question of the set, the % cross voting done by students from section A was 10 15 20 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let, M be the number of students in section A and N be the % of cross voting done by students from section A. ? The number of students in section A who cross-voted in favour of Nainital

? The number of students in section A who voted for Shimla

Therefore, only possible value of N = 20 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 20

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 3) For the number of students in section B as calculated in the first question of the set, how many students from section B voted for Shimla? 4 5 6 7 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let, M be the number of students in section A and N be the % of cross voting done by students from section A. ? The number of students in section A who cross-voted in favour of Nainital

? The number of students in section A who voted for Shimla

Therefore, only possible value of N = 20 Therefore, 24 students from section A voted for Nainital. Hence, 80 – (100 – 24) = 4 students from section B voted for Shimla. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 4) If the number of students of section B who voted for Shimla is one-eleventh of the number of students of section A who voted for Nainital, then % cross voting done by students of section A is: 15% 20% 10% This situation is not possible Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let, M be the number of students in section A and N be the % of cross voting done by students from section A. ? The number of students in section A who cross-voted in favour of Nainital

? The number of students in section A who voted for Shimla

We have the following possible values of M and X.

The possibility X = 33 and M = 130 (and all other values of x greater than 33) is ruled out because the total cross-voting is less than 25% of the number of students in the section. Similarly, the possibility X = 22 is ruled out because we want the cross-voting percentage an integer in both sections. Therefore, X = 11 and M = 110 is the only possibility.

Number of students in section B who cross-voted for Shimla = 1 and number of students in section B = 90.

Hence, this possibility is also ruled out. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: This situation is not possible

Time taken by you: 287 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs

Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The following tables show the batting performance of the Indian Cricket Team in a match. The first table indicates the score of the team at the fall of each wicket (from 1 to 10). The second table gives the runs scored by the 11 batsmen and the order in which they appeared in the batting line-up.

The following additional information is known – There were no wides, no-balls or extras of any sort in the entire innings. When the team loses a wicket, the next person in the batting order comes to bat. (The No.3 batsman will come to bat when one of the openers is dismissed) 1) How many batsmen were dismissed between Rohit and Hardik’s dismissal?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: 1st wicket fell at the score of 15. Since Rohit scored 18 runs, it has to be Shikhar’s wicket and Rohit must have scored 5 runs by this time. 2nd wicket fell at the score of 31. As Virat scored 21 runs, it has to be Rohit’s wicket. By this time Virat must be at 3 runs. 3rd wicket fell at the score of 53. Runs scored after the fall of 2 nd wicket = 53 – 31 = 22 i) If Raina is the 3rd batsman to get dismissed, then Virat must be at 13 runs. ii) If Virat is the 3 rd batsman to get dismissed, then Raina must be at 4 runs. Working on the similar line the data from both the tables can be simplified into two cases as follows: Case (i) ® Raina is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

Case (ii) ® Virat is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

In both the cases, Virat, Raina and Kedar lost their wicket between Rohit and Hardik’s dismissal. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 371 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 340 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 % 2)

How many runs were scored by the batsman who was the 8 th player to be dismissed? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: 1st wicket fell at the score of 15. Since Rohit scored 18 runs, it has to be Shikhar’s wicket and Rohit must have scored 5 runs by this time. 2nd wicket fell at the score of 31. As Virat scored 21 runs, it has to be Rohit’s wicket. By this time Virat must be at 3 runs. 3rd wicket fell at the score of 53. Runs scored after the fall of 2 nd wicket = 53 – 31 = 22 i) If Raina is the 3rd batsman to get dismissed, then Virat must be at 13 runs. ii) If Virat is the 3 rd batsman to get dismissed, then Raina must be at 4 runs. Working on the similar line the data from both the tables can be simplified into two cases as follows: Case (i) ® Raina is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

Case (ii) ® Virat is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

The 8th player to be dismissed was MS Dhoni. He scored 34 runs. Therefore, the required answer is 34.

Correct Answer: 34

Time taken by you: 11 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 3)

If Raina does not bat with MS Dhoni at any point in the innings, then how many runs did Virat score in the second highest partnership of the innings? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Case (ii) ® Virat is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

We need to consider case (i) as it is given that Raina does not bat with MS Dhoni. Thus, Raina must be the 3rd person to be dismissed. Second highest partnership of the inning is of 22 runs. Raina must have scored 12 runs and the remaining runs (i.e., 10 runs) were scored by Virat. Therefore, the required answer is 10.

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 52 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 56 % 4) If the whole innings comprised of only boundaries and singles, then the number of boundaries scored cannot exceed: (Note: Boundary means four runs.) 20 24 28 32 Video Explanation:

Explanation: 1st wicket fell at the score of 15. Since Rohit scored 18 runs, it has to be Shikhar’s wicket and Rohit must have scored 5 runs by this time. 2nd wicket fell at the score of 31. As Virat scored 21 runs, it has to be Rohit’s wicket. By this time Virat must be at 3 runs. 3rd wicket fell at the score of 53. Runs scored after the fall of 2 nd wicket = 53 – 31 = 22 i) If Raina is the 3rd batsman to get dismissed, then Virat must be at 13 runs. ii) If Virat is the 3 rd batsman to get dismissed, then Raina must be at 4 runs. Working on the similar line thedata from both the tables can be simplified into two cases as follows: Case (i) ® Raina is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

The number of boundaries scored (mentioned in the brackets). The number of boundaries = (1 + 3 + 3 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 1) + (2 + 2 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1) = 24 Case (ii) ® Virat is the 3 rd player to be dismissed.

The number of boundaries scored (mentioned in the brackets).

The number of boundaries = (1 + 3 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1) + (2 + 4 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 1) = 24 Thus in either case, the number of boundaries scored cannot exceed 24. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 24

Time taken by you: 104 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a flower shop, there are six different types of flowers – Tulip, Sunflower, Daffodil, Rose, Marigold and Camellias. The shopkeeper started the day at 9 AM with certain number of flowers of each type. During the day, flowers of different types were sold while no new flower was added. He counted the number of flowers at 9 AM, 11 AM, 1 PM, 3 PM and 5 PM on a particular day. The following table provides the information on the number of flowers of each type as a percentage of the total number of flowers at 9 AM, 11 AM, 1 PM, 3 PM and 5 PM respectively.

1) What is the ratio of number of Sunflowers sold till 11 AM to the number of Roses sold till 11 AM? 1:1 2:1 4:1 8:1 Video Explanation: Explanation: The percentage of all flowers at 11 AM was same as that at 9 AM. This is possible only if till 11 AM, all the flowers were sold in the same ratio as their numbers at 9 AM. Therefore the required ratio = 40 : 5 = 8 : 1. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 8:1

Time taken by you: 112 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 216 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 71 % 2) If a total of 200 Roses were sold till 1PM, how many Daffodils were sold till 3 PM? 100 200 400 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given that a total of 200 Roses were sold till 1 PM. This implies that 200 is 5% of the total flowers in the shop at 9 AM. Therefore, number of Daffodils sold till 3 PM is 10% of total flowers in the shop at 9 AM, i.e. 400. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 400

Time taken by you: 179 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 64 % 3) If the number of flowers in the shop at 5 PM is one-sixth of the number of flowers in the shop at 3 PM, then what is the ratio of the number of Tulips sold to the number of Camellias sold between 3 PM and 5 PM? 6 : 43 1:3 3 : 19 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 : 43

Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 4) Which of the following statement/s is definitely correct?

I: The number of Tulips sold throughout the day was more than the number of Sunflowers sold throughout the day. II: The number of Camellias sold throughout the day was less than the number of Sunflowers sold throughout the day. III: The number of Tulips sold throughout the day was more than the number of Daffodils sold throughout the day. Only (I) Only (II) and (III) Only (I) and (III) Only (III) Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the number of Tulips, Sunflowers, Daffodils, Roses, Marigolds and Camellias at 9 AM be 2x, 4x, x, 0.5x, 0.5x and 2x respectively. Let the number of Sunflowers and Camellias at 5 PM be y each Therefore, the number of Tulips, Sunflowers, Daffodils, Roses, Marigolds and Camellias sold will be 2x, 4x – y, x, 0.5x, 0.5x, and 2x – y respectively. Statement I may or may not be correct. Therefore, only statements (II) and (III) are definitely correct. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Only (II) and (III)

Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Mr. Dilip Dey runs a popular coaching institute. He teaches three subjects – Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry to students of classes XI and XII. In a particular month, for the first six consecutive days, he delivered a lecture on Chemistry on the first day, Mathematics on the second day, Physics on the third day, Chemistry on the fourth day, Physics on the fifth day and Mathematics on the Sixth day. No lecture was offered on the seventh day. This particular pattern of lectures was followed for total four weeks. In addition to the lectures mentioned above, he conducted one or two more lectures on some days of the week such that he did not

conduct more than one lecture on any subject on any day. Over the course of four weeks, two consecutive lectures on the same subject did not have a gap of more than two days. In each of the four weeks, he conducted exactly three lectures on each of the three subjects. He conducted lectures on all the three subjects on Wednesday, which is not day 3. 1) On which of the following days, Mr. Dilip Dey did not deliver any lecture? Saturday Sunday Friday Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: The given information can be summarized as follows: First day: Chemistry Second day: Mathematics Third day: Physics Fourth day: Chemistry Fifth day : Physics Sixth day: Mathematics Seventh day: No lecture Since, the gap between any two consecutive lectures cannot be more than two, first day of the week has to have Physics lecture. Also, fifth and sixth days must have at least one lecture on Chemistry and third, fourth and fifth days must have at least one lecture on Mathematics.

Thus, on fifth day a lecture on Chemistry and a lecture on Mathematics must be delivered and this day has to be Wednesday. The final arrangement is as follows: First day (Saturday): Chemistry, Physics Second day (Sunday): Mathematics Third day (Monday): Physics Fourth day (Tuesday): Chemistry Fifth day (Wednesday) : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics Sixth day (Thursday): Mathematics Seventh day (Friday): No lecture Mr. Dilip Dey did not deliver any lecture on Friday. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Friday

Time taken by you: 316 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 309 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 2) On which of the following day of the week, Mr. Dilip Dey delivered lectures on exactly two of the three subjects? Tuesday Saturday Thursday Monday Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The given information can be summarized as follows: First day: Chemistry Second day: Mathematics Third day: Physics Fourth day: Chemistry Fifth day : Physics Sixth day: Mathematics Seventh day: No lecture Since, the gap between any two consecutive lectures cannot be more than two, first day of the week has to have Physics lecture. Also, fifth and sixth days must have at least one lecture on Chemistry and third, fourth and fifth days must have at least one lecture on Mathematics. Thus, on fifth day a lecture on Chemistry and a lecture on Mathematics must be delivered and this day has to be Wednesday. The final arrangement is as follows: First day (Saturday): Chemistry, Physics Second day (Sunday): Mathematics Third day (Monday): Physics Fourth day (Tuesday): Chemistry Fifth day (Wednesday) : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics Sixth day (Thursday): Mathematics Seventh day (Friday): No lecture Mr. Dilip Dey delivered lectures on exactly two of the three subjects on Saturday. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer:

Saturday

Time taken by you: 52 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 3) The lecture on which of the following subjects was delivered on Sunday? Mathematics Physics Chemistry Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

The given information can be summarized as follows: First day: Chemistry Second day: Mathematics Third day: Physics Fourth day: Chemistry Fifth day : Physics Sixth day: Mathematics

Seventh day: No lecture Since, the gap between any two consecutive lectures cannot be more than two, first day of the week has to have Physics lecture. Also, fifth and sixth days must have at least one lecture on Chemistry and third, fourth and fifth days must have at least one lecture on Mathematics. Thus, on fifth day a lecture on Chemistry and a lecture on Mathematics must be delivered and this day has to be Wednesday. The final arrangement is as follows: First day (Saturday): Chemistry, Physics Second day (Sunday): Mathematics Third day (Monday): Physics Fourth day (Tuesday): Chemistry Fifth day (Wednesday) : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics Sixth day (Thursday): Mathematics Seventh day (Friday): No lecture On Sunday, Mr. Dilip Dey delivered a lecture on Mathematics. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer:

Mathematics

Time taken by you: 9 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 4) On which subject/s did Mr. Dilip Dey deliver a lecture immediately after the day on which he delivered lectures on all the three subjects? Mathematics Physics Chemistry More than one of the above Video Explanation: Explanation:

The given information can be summarized as follows: First day: Chemistry Second day: Mathematics Third day: Physics Fourth day: Chemistry Fifth day : Physics Sixth day: Mathematics Seventh day: No lecture Since, the gap between any two consecutive lectures cannot be more than two, first day of the week has to have Physics lecture. Also, fifth and sixth days must have at least one lecture on Chemistry and third, fourth and fifth days must have at least one lecture on Mathematics. Thus, on fifth day a lecture on Chemistry and a lecture on Mathematics must be delivered and this day has to be Wednesday. The final arrangement is as follows: First day (Saturday): Chemistry, Physics Second day (Sunday): Mathematics Third day (Monday): Physics Fourth day (Tuesday): Chemistry Fifth day (Wednesday) : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics Sixth day (Thursday): Mathematics Seventh day (Friday): No lecture On Thursday (i.e., the day immediately after the day on which he delivered lectures on all the three subjects), Mr. Dilip Day delivered a lecture on Mathematics. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer:

Mathematics

Time taken by you: 11 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A group of 8 friends were sorted into 4 houses – Red, Green, Blue and Yellow, and was made to sit around a circular table. It is known that Guru and Giri belong to the Red house, Yogesh and Yatin belong to the Blue house, Bob and Balaji belong to the Green house while Rohan and Ram belong to the Yellow house. The following additional information is available: 1. Four friends face inwards and four friends face outwards. No two friends sitting next to each other face in the same direction (i.e., either facing inwards or outwards). 2. Red is the only house such that the two friends belonging to that house sit next to each other. 3. Blue is the only one house such that the two friends belonging to that house face each other (i.e., both friends belonging to that house sit diametrically to each other and both face inwards.) 4. There is only one house such that both the friends belonging to that house face outwards. 5. One friend from the Green house sits third to the right of a friend from the Blue house. 6. Three friends sit between Giri and Bob, while Yatin sits to the immediate right of Giri. 1)Who sits to the right of Ram? Balaji Guru Yogesh Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From (6), we notice that there are three people between Giri and Bob, meaning they sit exactly opposite each other. There can be 2 cases, either they both face inwards or face outwards. Case I: Giri and Bob face inwards. From(6), Yatin sits to the immediate right of Giri. So from (1) Yatin faces outwards, which is not true from (3). So this case is ruled out. Case II: Giri and Bob face outwards. From (6), Yatin sits on right side of Giri. From (1) and (2), Guru is on Giri’s left. Both Yatin and Guru face inwards. From (3), Yogesh faces inwards and is diametrically opposite to Yatin. From (3), Yellow house friends cannot sit next to each other. Therefore, one friend from yellow house is between Yogesh and Guru. Now with the help of statement (5), the final seating arrangement will be:

Except Ram and Rohan, the positions of all other friends can be uniquely determined. Therefore the either Balaji or Guru sits to the right of Ram. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Cannot be determined Time taken by you: 546 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 619 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 89 % 2)If Ram does not sit next to a friend from Green house, who sits second to the left of Rohan? Giri Yatin Yogesh Bob

Video Explanation: Explanation: From (6), we notice that there are three people between Giri and Bob, meaning they sit exactly opposite each other. There can be 2 cases, either they both face inwards or face outwards. Case I: Giri and Bob face inwards. From(6), Yatin sits to the immediate right of Giri. So from (1) Yatin faces outwards, which is not true from (3). So this case is ruled out. Case II: Giri and Bob face outwards. From (6), Yatin sits on right side of Giri. From (1) and (2), Guru is on Giri’s left. Both Yatin and Guru face inwards. From (3), Yogesh faces inwards and is diametrically opposite to Yatin. From (3), Yellow house friends cannot sit next to each other. Therefore, one friend from yellow house is between Yogesh and Guru. Now with the help of statement (5), the final seating arrangement will be:

If Ram does not sit next to a friend from Green house, he sits between Yogesh and Guru. Hence, Yogesh sits second to the left of Rohan. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Yogesh Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 % 3)If a friend from Green house sits between Rohan and a friend from Blue house, who sits to the right of Guru? Ram Rohan Giri Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From (6), we notice that there are three people between Giri and Bob, meaning they sit exactly opposite each other. There can be 2 cases, either they both face inwards or face outwards. Case I: Giri and Bob face inwards. From(6), Yatin sits to the immediate right of Giri. So from (1) Yatin faces outwards, which is not true from (3). So this case is ruled out. Case II: Giri and Bob face outwards. From (6), Yatin sits on right side of Giri. From (1) and (2), Guru is on Giri’s left. Both Yatin and Guru face inwards. From (3), Yogesh faces inwards and is diametrically opposite to Yatin. From (3), Yellow house friends cannot sit next to each other. Therefore, one friend from yellow house is between Yogesh and Guru. Now with the help of statement (5), the final seating arrangement will be:

From the given condition, Rohan sits between Bob and Balaji. Therefore, Ram sits to the right of Guru. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Ram Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) If Balaji faces the North, then which direction does Guru face? South North-West North-East South-West Video Explanation:

Explanation: From(6), we notice that there are three people between Giri and Bob, meaning they sit exactly opposite each other. There can be 2 cases, either they both face inwards or face outwards. Case I: Giri and Bob face inwards. From(6), Yatin sits to the immediate right of Giri. So from (1) Yatin faces outwards, which is not true from (3). So this case is ruled out. Case II: Giri and Bob face outwards. From (6), Yatin sits on right side of Giri. From (1) and (2), Guru is on Giri’s left. Both Yatin and Guru face inwards. From (3), Yogesh faces inwards and is diametrically opposite to Yatin. From (3), Yellow house friends cannot sit next to each other. Therefore, one friend from yellow house is between Yogesh and Guru. Now with the help of statement (5), the final seating arrangement will be:

If Balaji, faces the North, Giri faces the West and Bob faces the East and Guru faces the North-East direction. Hence. [3].

Correct Answer: North-East

Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Five nuclear tests codenamed Shakti I, Shakti II, Shakti III, Shakti IV and Shakti V were conducted. Shakti IV was conducted at the Chagai Hills and was not the lowest yield device tested. The 43 kiloton (KT) device was codenamed Shakti III, but was not tested at Pokharan. The 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor but was not under the codename of Shakti V. The Murora Atoll testing range is used only for conducting tests on devices that exceed 1 KT. The test carried out at Pokharan was the largest of the sub-kiloton devices tested and was codenamed Shakti II. The devices tested had different yields that were 0.2 KT, 0.3 KT, 0.5 KT, 12 KT and 43 KT. The various test ranges available for conducting the tests are Baikanur, Chagai Hills, Lop Nor, Murora Atoll, and Pokharan. 1) The yield of the device tested at the Baikanur range was: 0.2 KT 0.3 KT 0.5 KT 43 KT Video Explanation: Explanation: The Murora Atoll testing range is used only for conducting tests on devices that exceed 1 KT i.e., it was used either for 43 KT or 12 KT device. As the 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor, the 43 KT device i.e., the device codenamed Shakti III was tested at the Murora Atoll testing range. The test carried out at Pokharan was the largest of the sub-kiloton devices tested and was codenamed Shakti II. i.e., 0.5 KT device with codename Shakti II was tested at Pokhran. As Shakti IV was conducted at the Chagai Hills and was not the lowest yield device tested, it must be of 0.3 KT. The 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor but was not under the codename of Shakti V, it must be Shakti I. Thus, we have

The yield of the device tested at the Baikanur range was 0.2 KT. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 0.2 KT

Time taken by you: 189 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 405 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 % 2)The codenames of the devices arranged in ascending order of their yield is: Shakti V, Shakti IV, Shakti I, Shakti II, Shakti III Shakti IV, Shakti V, Shakti II, Shakti I, Shakti III Shakti III, Shakti I, Shakti II, Shakti V, Shakti IV Shakti V, Shakti IV, Shakti II, Shakti I, Shakti III Video Explanation:

Explanation: The Murora Atoll testing range is used only for conducting tests on devices that exceed 1 KT i.e., it was used either for 43 KT or 12 KT device. As the 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor, the 43 KT device i.e., the device codenamed Shakti III was tested at the Murora Atoll testing range. The test carried out at Pokharan was the largest of the sub-kiloton devices tested and was codenamed Shakti II. i.e., 0.5 KT device with codename Shakti II was tested at Pokhran. As Shakti IV was conducted at the Chagai Hills and was not the lowest yield device tested, it must be of 0.3 KT. The 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor but was not under the codename of Shakti V, it must be Shakti I. Thus, we have

The codenames of the devices arranged in ascending order of their yield is: Shakti V, Shakti IV, Shakti II, Shakti I, Shakti III Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Shakti V, Shakti IV, Shakti II, Shakti I, Shakti III Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 % 3)The Shakti I test was carried out at: Baikanur Lop Nor Murora Atoll Pokharan Video Explanation: Explanation: The Murora Atoll testing range is used only for conducting tests on devices that exceed 1 KT i.e., it was used either for 43 KT or 12 KT device. As the 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor, the 43 KT device i.e., the device codenamed Shakti III was tested at the Murora Atoll testing range. The test carried out at Pokharan was the largest of the sub-kiloton devices tested and was codenamed Shakti II. i.e., 0.5 KT device with codename Shakti II was tested at Pokhran. As Shakti IV was conducted at the Chagai Hills and was not the lowest yield device tested, it must be of 0.3 KT. The 12 KT device was tested at Lop Nor but was not under the codename of Shakti V, it must be Shakti I. Thus, we have

The Shakti I test was carried out at Lop Nor. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Lop Nor Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 98 % 4)The highest yield device was tested at: Baikanur Chagai Hills Murora Atoll Pokharan Video Explanation:

The highest yield device was tested at Murora Atoll. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Murora Atoll Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 95 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Honey singh runs a lottery business, 'Kismat ka tara'. There are 3 categories of lottery tickets, viz. Rs. 10, Rs. 50 and Rs. 100. Five friends Lala, Kaku, Monu, Vicky and Golu plan to buy lottery tickets worth Rs. 600 each. Each of them buys at least one ticket of each category. If any one of them wins any lottery prize in a particular category then he agrees to divide the money in the ratio of number of lottery tickets of that particular category held by each of them. No two of these friends buy the same number of lottery tickets of any category. 1) If Kaku buys the least number of total tickets among five friends, then what is the sum of the number of tickets of the three categories does he buy? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let x, y and z be the number of tickets that a particular person buys of Rs. 10, Rs. 50 and Rs. 100 respectively. Since the amount invested by each of the friends in the lottery is Rs.600. 10x + 50y + 100z = 600 i.e. x + 5y + 10z = 60 We know that the minimum number of tickets of each type the person bought was 1. The possible values of z are 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. When z = 5, x + 5y = 60 – 50 = 10 The only possible value of x and y that satisfy this are 5 and 1 respectively. Thus, (x, y, z) = (5, 1, 5) is a possible triplet. When z = 4, x + 5y = 20. No two persons bought the same number of tickets of a particular type, x ? 5 and y ? 1. Thus, the only possible value of x and y that satisfy this are 10 and 2 respectively. Thus, (x, y, z) = (10, 2, 4) is a possible triplet. When z = 3, x + 5y = 30 and x cannot take values 5, 10. y cannot take values 1, 2. Thus, the only possible value of x and y that satisfy this are 15 and 3 respectively. Thus, (15, 3, 3) is a possible triplet. When z = 2, x + 5y = 40 and x cannot take values 5, 10, 15. y cannot take values 1, 2, 3. Therefore, (x, y, z) = (20, 4, 2) is a possible triplet. When z = 1, x + 5y = 50 and x cannot take values 5, 10, 15, 20. y cannot take values 1, 2, 3, 4. (x, y, z) = (25, 5, 2) is a possible triplet. Thus, the possible number of tickets that each person bought is as follows:

As Kaku buys the least number of total tickets, he buys 5 tickets of Rs. 100, 1 ticket of Rs. 50 and 5 tickets of Rs. 10. Thus, total number of tickets = 5 + 1 + 5 = 11 Therefore, the required answer is 11.

Correct Answer: 11

Time taken by you: 166 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 197 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 71 % 2) If Golu buys two tickets of Rs. 100, then how many tickets of Rs. 10 does he buy? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Golu buys 2 tickets of Rs. 100. Therefore, he also buys 4 tickets of Rs. 50 and 20 tickets of Rs. 10. Therefore, the required answer is 20.

Correct Answer: 20

Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 25 % 3) A prize amount of Rs. 3,00,000 is kept on the tickets in the Rs. 50 category. If it is known that Lala earned the maximum share in this category, how much amount did he earn? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Lala’s share = 300000 × ${5 \over {15}}$= Rs. 1,00,000 Therefore, the required answer is 100000.

Correct Answer: 100000

Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 % 4) What is the sum of the total number of tickets (of all the categories taken together) bought by the five friends? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Total number of tickets of all 5 friends together = 11 + 16 + 21 + 26 + 31 = 105 Therefore, the required answer is 105.

Correct Answer: 105

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined How many numbers between 101 and 1001 (both inclusive) are divisible by 6 but not by 15? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 120 Time taken by you: 93 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 %

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 161 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 169 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Izaz purchased two cloths of different lengths in yards. He paid less than 1200 cents. The total length of cloth he purchased (in yards) is equal to the amount (in cent) he spent for each yard and he invested 204 cents more for purchasing the longer cloth than the smaller one. Which of the following can be the length of each part of the cloth? 12, 18 14, 20 12, 22 16, 18

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let Izaz purchase x yards of cloths then he pays x cents per yard. Hence, total spending x × x < 1200. Now, for maximum purchasing x has to be maximum. Hence, x = 34. x2 = 1156 Now, he purchased in all 34 yards. Hence, he purchased 14 yards and 20 yards of cloths. Hence, [2]. Alternatively, Solve using the options [1] : 12 + 18 = 30 \ Price per yard = 30 Hence, option [1] is not the answer. [2] : 14 + 20 = 34 \ Price per yard = 34 20 × 34 – 14 × 34 = 204. Correct Answer: 14, 20 Time taken by you: 98 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 151 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined A vessel filled to the brim contains a mixture of two liquids ‘M’ and ‘N’ in the ratio 7 : 5. The volume of the vessel is 36 litres. If a certain volume of liquid is taken out from the vessel and the vessel is filled up using liquid ‘M’, the ratio becomes 13 : 5. What is the volume of liquid withdrawn? 10 litres 5 litres 9 litres 12 litres

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 12 litres Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 137 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined 20 soldiers were asked to build a bridge. Every day after the first, one soldier left the job. Also, every day after the first, each soldier’s efficiency increased by 100%. As a result the bridge was built in five days. How many soldiers, working at normal efficiency would be required to build the bridge in one day? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let one soldier complete one unit of work in one day

Number of units of work completed on first day = 20 Number of soldiers who worked on the second day = (20 – 1) = 19, but they are equivalent to 19 × 2 = 38 soldiers as their efficiency

increased by 100%. Number of units of work completed on second day = 38 Number of units of work completed on the third, fourth and fifth days = (20 – 1 – 1) × 4 = 72, (20 – 3) × 8 = 136 and (20 – 4) × 16 = 256 respectively.

Total number units of work completed on five days = 20 + 38 + 72 + 136 + 256 = 522. Therefore, 522 soldiers would be required to build the bridge in one day. Therefore the required answer is 522.

Correct Answer: 522 Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Given that 17 > a > 5 > b, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime numbers. If the difference between ‘a’ and ‘b’ is a prime number, then what is the remainder when ‘a’ is divided by (b + 1)? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime numbers.

So, ‘a’ can be 13 or 11 or 7 and ‘b’ can be 3 or 2. Since, (a – b) is a prime number, the possible sets of values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ are (13, 2) or (7, 2). In either case the remainder when ‘a’ is divided by (b + 1) will be 1. Therefore the required answer is 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 45 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined What is the number of isosceles triangles having integer valued sides and a perimeter equal to 20 m? 4 6 7 9

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: We have the following possibilities: (6,6, 8), (7, 7, 6), (8, 8, 4) and (9, 9, 2). Hence, [1]. Note that (1, 1, 18), (2, 2, 16), (3, 3, 14), (4, 4, 12) and (5, 5, 10) are not possible as the sum of two sides of a triangle should be greater than the third side. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 212 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 %

undefined In a 100 m race, A beats B by 20 m. The next time they run another 100 m race, A gives B a start of 36 m. By what margin will the winner beat the loser? 16 m 18 m 20 m None of the above

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20 m Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

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0 1001.1001 1002.001 2002

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1002.001 Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 112 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined If one ball is drawn at random from the each of three boxes containing 3 white & 1 black, 2 white & 2 black and 1 white & 3 black. Find the probability that exactly two of the balls are white.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 85 %

undefined A circle of radius 'r' units has a regular hexagon inscribed in it. The mid points of the sides of this regular hexagon are joined and a new regular hexagon is formed. A circle is inscribed within the new hexagon obtained. What is the ratio of the area of the bigger circle to the area of the smaller circle? 25 : 9 16 : 9 9:4 4:3

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 16 : 9 Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The number of apples is 25% less than 40% of the number of oranges. 40% of the apples got rotten and were discarded. If the number of remaining apples is 90, then how many oranges are there?

400 500 600 700

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of oranges be y. Therefore, number of apples = (1 – 0.25) × 0.4 × y = 0.3y Number of apples that got rotten = 0.4 × 0.3 y = 0.12y Number of remaining apples = 0.3y – 0.12y = 0.18y Therefore, 0.18y = 90 or y = 500 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 500 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 %

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 Time taken by you: 94 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Points A and B are separated by 1000 meters. Both hare and tortoise simultaneously start running from point A towards point B. Hare runs 9 times as fast as tortoise runs. Till the time tortoise reaches point B, hare runs back and forth between points A and B. At how many different points between A and B will hare and tortoise meet when hare and tortoise are running in opposite directions? 3 4 5 9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since hare runs nine times as fast as tortoise, by the time tortoise reaches point B, hare would have completed 9 single laps between the two points. After two single laps, hare returns to point A. Thus by the time hare completes 9 single laps, he is at point B. Thus hare and tortoise reach point B simultaneously. When hare is running 2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th single lap, he is running from point B to point A, hare and tortoise are running in opposite directions. Tortoise is on his way to B at different points when hare and tortoise meet. Therefore hare and tortoise meet at four different points between A and B when they are running in opposite directions. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 93 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 208 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 154 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined A milk-water solution contains milk and water in the ratio 4 : 1. 10 litres of solution is replaced with 10 litres of milk. From the resulting solution 10 litres of solution is again replaced with 10 litres of milk. If the final volume of the solution is 50 litres, what is the ratio of milk and water in the final solution? 7:1 109 : 16 103 : 13 21 : 4

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Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 109 : 16 Time taken by you: 107 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 187 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined A function f is defined on all real numbers as f(x) = ax2018 + bx10 + 3x – 2 (where 'a' and 'b' are constants). It is known that f(–1) = 7. Find the value of f(0) + f(1). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: f(x) = ax2018 + bx10 + 3x – 2 f(–1) = a(–1)2018 + b(–1)10 + 3(–1) – 2 = a + b – 3 – 2 = 7 ? a + b = 12 f(1) = a(1)2018 + b(1)10 + 3(1) – 2 = a + b + 3 – 2 = 12 + 3 – 2 = 13 Also f(0) = a(0)2018 + b(0)10 + 3(0) – 2 = – 2 Hence, f(0) + f(1) = – 2 + 13 = 11 Therefore, the required answer is 11. Correct Answer: 11 Time taken by you: 34 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 %

undefined

101 102 103 104

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 103 Time taken by you: 29 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 %

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None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined undefined In how many ways the letters of the word ‘ANDROID’ can be arranged such that the two 'D’s are separated by either one or two vowels but no consonants? 380 504 420 432

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Case 1: One vowel between the two 'D’s The vowel can be chosen in 3 ways. Let the vowel be X, DXD gets fixed. Therefore, number of arrangements = 3 × 5! = 360 Case 2: Two vowels between the two 'D’s The two vowels can be chosen in 3 ways. The D’s and the vowels can be arranged in 2 ways. D XYD gets fixed.

Number of arrangements = 3 × 2 × 4! = 144 Total number of ways = 360 + 144 = 504 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 504 Time taken by you: 109 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 61 %

In how many ways the letters of the word ‘ANDROID’ can be arranged such that the two 'D’s are separated by either one or two vowels but no consonants? 380 504 420 432

Section

Video Explanation:

Number of arrangements = 3 × 2 × 4! = 144 Total number of ways = 360 + 144 = 504 Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 504 Time taken by you: 109 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined In a school, students are wearing t-shirts numbered 1 to 190. Each student shakes hand with every other student such that their t-shirt numbers do not have any common factor other than 1. How many students shook hands with students wearing t-shirts numbered 5 and 13? 140 142 50 52

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: We have to find number of integers in the set 1 to 190, which are relatively prime to both 5 and 13. The multiples of 5 are not relatively prime to 5. All other numbers are relatively prime to 5. Similarly multiples of 13 are not relatively prime to 13. All other numbers are relatively prime to 13. There are 14 multiples of 13 in the set (13, 26, ...., 182). In order to get the number of people who shook hands with 5 and 13 we have to remove 38 multiples of 5 and 14 multiples of 13.

But multiples of 5 and 13 i.e., multiples of 65 i.e., 65 and 130 must not have shaken hands with both of them and have been counted twice. Hence, number of students who did not shake hands with students wearing t-shirts numbered 5 and 13 = 38 + 14 - 2 = 50 Hence number of students who shook hands with students wearing t – shirt number 5 and 13 are 190 – 50 = 140. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 140 Time taken by you: 239 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The sum of the first fifteen terms of an arithmetic progression is 40 more than the sum of first seven terms of the same arithmetic progression. What is the sum of the first 22 terms of the same progression? 100 105 110 115

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 110 Time taken by you: 40 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 91 %

undefined

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 112 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 %

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 107 Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined If 24391x = 8145 + 72 × 3178 , then what is the value of 32 x ? 4 9 2 3

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 151 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

undefined Let p and q be the roots of the equation a2 – 2a – k = 0. If (p + 2)–1 + (q + 2)–1 = 3, then what is the value of k? 3 4 5 6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 27 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 89 %

undefined The ratio of length, breadth and height of a cuboid is 1 : 2 : 2. The outer surface of the cuboid is coloured blue. The cuboid is cut into two identical parts by a plane passing along the diagonal of the top surface of the cuboid. If top surface of the cuboid is not square, what is the ratio of total area of the uncoloured surfaces to that of the coloured surfaces?

1:2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 116 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined When the number N is written in base ‘b’, its representation is the 2-digit numerical PQ, where P = b −2 and Q = 1. Find the representation of N in base (b – 1). 101 120 111 100

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: N = (b – 2)b + 1 = b2 – 2b + 1 = (b – 1)2 Hence, representation of N in base (b – 1) would be: 1(b – 1)2 + 0(b – 1)1 + 0(b – 1)0 = (100)(b – 1) Hence, [4]. Alternatively, Take, b = 3, then N = (11) 3 = 1 + 3 = (4)10 = (100)2 Correct Answer: 100 Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined Each of the 50 regular visitors to a restaurant drinks at least one drink among Tea, Coffee or Juice. Number of people who drink both tea and coffee but not juice is one-sixth of number of people who drink tea. Number of people who drink all the three beverages is two more than number of people who drink both tea and coffee but not juice. Number of people who drink both coffee and juice but not tea and also the number of people who drink both tea and coffee but not juice is same as number of people who drink only tea which is same as those who drink only coffee. If the ratio of number of people who drink exactly two beverages to the number of people who drink all the three beverages is 3, how many people drink only juice? 12 14 16 18

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18 Time taken by you: 958 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 196 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined What is the number of terms in the expansion of (a + b + c + d)20? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Therefore the required answer is 1771.

Correct Answer: 1771 Time taken by you: 74 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined undefined In the figure given below ABCD is a quadrilateral divided into four triangles. The areas of the four triangles are given in terms of x or y. Which of the following represents the correct relation between x and y?

8x – 3y = 0 y – 2x = 0 8y – 3x = 0 3y – 2x = 0

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 8x – 3y = 0 Time taken by you: 170 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 %

In the figure given below ABCD is a quadrilateral divided into four triangles. The areas of the four triangles are given in terms of x or y. Which of the following represents the correct relation between x and y?

8x – 3y = 0 y – 2x = 0 8y – 3x = 0 3y – 2x = 0

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 8x – 3y = 0 Time taken by you: 170 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined Find the sum of the roots of |x + 1| + |x + 2| + |x + 3| + |x + 4| + |x + 5| = 100 –6 –12 12 6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Considering the expression |x + 1| + |x + 2| + |x + 3| + |x + 4| + |x + 5| We see that for any value of x < –5, all the terms within the modulus signs will be negative. Similarly for any value of x > –1, all the terms within the modulus signs will be positive. At x = –1, the value of the expression is |–1 + 1| + |–1 + 2| + |–1 + 3| + |–1 + 4| + |–1 + 5| = 10 which is comfortably less than 100. Similarly at x = –5 also the value of the expression turns out to be 10. So there will be a solution at some x > –1 and one at some x < –5. For x > –1, since all the terms within the modulus signs will be positive, we can write (x + 1) + (x + 2) +

(x + 3) + (x + 4) + (x + 5) = 100 which gives x = 17. For x < –5, since all the terms within the modulus signs will be negative, we can write – (x + 1) – (x + 2) – (x + 3) – (x + 4) – (x + 5) = 100 which gives x = –23 So the total of the roots will be 17 + (–23) = –6. Hence, [1]. Alternatively,

The given function will look as shown in the above graph.

It will be symmetric about x = –3 and will have two roots. So the average of the roots will be –3 (by symmetry) which means the total will be –6.

Correct Answer: –6 Time taken by you: 154 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

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