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The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The greatest challenge in understanding the role of randomness in life is that although the basic principles of randomness arise from everyday logic, many of the consequences that follow from those principles prove counterintuitive. In the mid-1960s, Daniel Kahneman, a psychologist, was lecturing a group of Israeli air force flight instructors on the conventional wisdom of behaviour modification and its application to the psychology of flight training. He drove home the point that rewarding positive behaviour works, but punishing mistakes does not. One of his students interrupted, saying ‘I’ve often praised people warmly for beautifully executed manoeuvres, and the next time they always do worse. And I’ve screamed at people for badly executed manoeuvres, and by and large the next time they improve. Don’t tell me that reward works and punishment doesn’t.’ The other flight instructors agreed. To Kahneman the flight instructors’ experiences rang true. On the other hand, he believed in the animal experiments that demonstrated that reward works better than punishment. He ruminated on this apparent paradox. The answer lies in a phenomenon called regression towards the mean. That is, in any series of random events an extraordinary event is most likely to be followed, purely due to chance, by a more ordinary one. Here is how it works: The student pilots all had a certain personal ability to fly fighter planes. Raising their skill level involved many factors and required extensive practice, so although their skill was slowly improving through flight training, the change wouldn’t be noticeable from one manoeuvre to the next. Any especially good or especially poor performance was thus mostly a matter of luck. So if a pilot made an exceptionally good landing – one far above his normal level of performance – then the odds would be good that he would perform closer to his norm – that is, worse – the next day. And if his instructor had praised him, it would appear that the praise had done no good. But if a pilot made an exceptionally bad landing, then the odds would be good that the next day he would perform closer to his norm – that is, better. And if his instructor had a habit of screaming ‘you clumsy ape’ when a student performed poorly, it would appear that his criticism did some good. In reality, it made no difference at all. This error in intuition spurred Kahneman’s thinking. How widespread, he wondered, was this misunderstanding of uncertainty? Do we make other misjudgements when faced with uncertainty? And what are its implications for human decision making? Kahneman found that even among sophisticated subjects, when it came to random processes, people’s beliefs and intuition very often let them down. Suppose four publishers have rejected the manuscript for your novel. Your intuition might say that the rejections by all those publishing experts mean that your manuscript is no good. But is your intuition correct? Is your novel unsellable? We all know from experience that if several tosses of a coin come up heads, it doesn’t mean we are tossing a two-headed coin. Could it be that publishing success is so unpredictable that even if our novel is destined for the best-seller list, numerous publishers could miss the point and reject it? One book in the 1950s was initially rejected by publishers with such comments as ‘very dull’ and ‘a dreary record of typical family bickering, petty annoyances and adolescent emotions’. Today, that book, The Diary of a Young Girl by Anne Frank, has sold 30 million copies, making it one of the best-selling books in history. 1) According to the passage, which of the following best explains the apparently paradoxical observation that ‘reward doesn’t improve performance but punishment does’? The basic principle of randomness is that rewarding positive behaviour works but punishing mistakes does not. Experiments in animal behaviour have proved that reward works better than punishment. Punishing mistakes merely preceded the improvement but contrary to appearances, did not cause it. Punishing mistakes tends to force the person making a mistake to be more careful the next time, hence causes an improvement the next time, just as praise makes one complacent. Video Explanation: Explanation: The second paragraph explains the flight instructor’s argument that rewards don’t work, but punishment helps to improve performance. The paragraph ends with, “he (Daniel Kahneman) ruminated on this paradox.” Then, his explanation is given in the next paragraph. “The answer lies in a phenomenon called regression towards the mean. That is, in any series of random events an extraordinary event is most likely to be followed, purely due to chance, by a more ordinary one.” This is then explained with the example of student pilots – that there is no cause-effect or any kind of relation between punishment/reward and performance (except randomness). Options 1, 2 and 4 are thus incorrect because a cause-effect relationship is implied in them. Option 3 states Kahneman’s explanation explicitly. Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Punishing mistakes merely preceded the improvement but contrary to appearances, did not cause it.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 33 % 2) Which of the following can be inferred from the student-pilots’ flight training example? An excellent performance of a student at any time is an aberration and has no basis in behaviour modification and its application in psychology. Students should be complimented constantly if they have to improve their performance gradually. Students who have been screamed at with regularity, in spite of how they perform, are more likely to better their performance than others who have never been screamed at. Students who maintain regularity of practice are more likely to gradually improve their performance which may not be noticeable from one test to the next. Video Explanation: Explanation: Options 2 and 3 are eliminated because they imply a cause effect relationship between screaming/rewarding and improvement in performance whereas the passage shows such an observation is merely coincidence. Option 1 is incorrect because an excellent performance need not always be an aberration, but a result of skill achieved through long periods of practice. Option 4 is correct because the passage states, “The student pilots all had a certain personal ability to fly fighter planes. Raising their skill level involved many factors and required extensive practice, so although their skill was slowly improving through flight training, the change wouldn’t be noticeable from one manoeuvre to the next.” Hence the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Students who maintain regularity of practice are more likely to gradually improve their performance which may not be noticeable from one test to the next.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 % 3)All these are examples of ‘regression towards the mean’ EXCEPT: When there was a sudden increase in burglaries in a particular city, the number of policemen in the city were increased, due to which the number of burglaries went down. Mahesh, a politician, seemed set to win the next election, but his popularity went down abruptly after a scandal regarding his personal life became known. Diego, a football player, broke the record for goals scored in one season, but the next season, he scored far fewer goals, leading critics to wonder if he had lost his talent. Previously, Sonia didn’t believe in homeopathic medicine, but when her particularly bad migraine got better after she took some homeopathic medicine, she decided that there must be something to it. Video Explanation: Explanation: The definition of regression towards the mean given in the passage is: ‘in any series of random events, an extraordinary event is most likely to be followed, purely due to chance, by a more ordinary one’. In option [1], the sudden increase in burglaries could be a purely random event, which would go down to ordinary levels – i.e. regress towards the mean – on its own, so the attribution of the decrease to the increase in policemen is a misunderstanding of a case of regression towards the mean. Similarly, extreme events such as breaking a record for goals scored and a particularly bad migraine in [3] and [4] respectively could simply have regressed to the mean – i.e. the number of goals could have gone down and the migraine would have got better – due to chance, so both [3] and [4] also demonstrate a misunderstanding of a case of regression towards the mean. Only [2] is not necessarily such a case: a scandal would have a clear and sudden negative effect on a politician’s popularity, which would not be the result of random chance. Note: there is no series of random events in [2]. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Mahesh, a politician, seemed set to win the next election, but his popularity went down abruptly after a scandal regarding his personal life became known. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 % 4)The example of Anne Frank’s book proves that … Publishers are not good judges of the quality of literature. Writers should keep trying to get their books published, even if they are rejected by multiple publishers. Success in publishing depends mainly on chance, not the quality of the work.

Intuition is not a good guide to predicting which books will be successful. Video Explanation: Explanation: The example of Anne Frank’s book is given as a way of showing how intuitions about the possible success of a book (in this case, the publishers’ intuitions) are not a good guide to predicting whether or not a book will be successful, which depends considerably on chance. So [4] sums up the point it is meant to prove. [3] may be inferable, but it is not the point of the example. [2], while being good advice for writers, is irrelevant to the issues of chance and intuition that the passage focuses on. Similarly, [1] doesn’t keep the bigger picture in mind and doesn’t tie up the example to the main idea of the passage. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Intuition is not a good guide to predicting which books will be successful. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The possibility of untimely death is frightening, but the inevitability of ageing and dying casts the longest shadow on human life. Humankind’s efforts to overcome aging have been impressively persistent. We have, however, not succeeded. By age 80, half of us will die; by age 100, 99 percent; and by about age 115, every one of us will be dead, medical breakthroughs notwithstanding. During the past few hundred years, the average length of life (expectancy) in modern societies has steadily increased, but the maximum duration of life (span) has not. Centuries ago a few people may have lived to 115; today this maximum remains aboutthe same. All the wonders of medicine, all the advances in public health have not demonstrably increased the maximum duration of life. If ageing is a disease, it seems to be incurable. Technically, we are not really talking about ageing, the process of growing older from birth onwards, but senescence, the process of bodily deterioration that occurs at older ages. Senescence is not a single process but is manifested in an increased susceptibility to many diseases and a decreasing ability to repair damage. Death rates in modern developed countries are very low at age 10 to 12, about 0.2 per 1000 children per year. The death rate increases slowly to 1.35 per 1000 at age 30, then increases exponentially, doubling every 8 years. By age 90, the death rate is 169 per 1000. A person aged 100 has only a one-in-three chance of living another year. Every year the mortality curve becomes steeper, until eventually we all are gone. Imagine a world in which all causes of premature death have been eliminated, so that all deaths result from the effects of ageing. We would live hearty, healthy lives, until, in a sharp peak of a few years centred at age 85, we would nearly all die. Conversely, imagine a world in which senescence is eliminated, so that death rates do not increase with age but remain throughout life at the level for eighteenyear-olds, that is, about 1 per 1000 per year. Some people would still die at all ages, but half the population would live to age 693, and more than 13 percent would live to age 2000! Even if death rates were much higher, say 10 per 1000, eliminating the effects of senescence would still give a substantial advantage, with some people living to age 300. From an evolutionist’spoint of view, an individual who did not senesce would have, to put it mildly, a substantial reproductive advantage. This brings us to the mystery. If senescence so devastates our fitness, why hasn’t natural selection eliminated it? This possibility seems preposterous only because senescence is such an inescapable part of our experience. Consider, however, the miracle of development: from a single cell with forty-six strands of nucleic acid, a body gradually forms, with each often trillion cells in the right place, making tissues and organs that function together for the good of the whole. Certainly it should be easier to maintain this body than to form it! Furthermore, our bodies have remarkable maintenance capacities. Skin and blood cells are replaced every few weeks. Our teeth get replaced once. Damaged liver tissue can be rapidly replaced. Most wounds heal quickly. Broken bones grow back together. Our bodies do have some capacity to repair damage and replace worn-out parts; it is just that this capacity is limited. The body can’t maintain itself indefinitely. Why not? 1) All of the following are true according to the passage EXCEPT: During the past few hundred years human life span has steadily increased. Improved life expectancy is attributable to advances in medicine and public health. As an evolutionary principle, senescence is a puzzling phenomenon. Eliminating senescence would substantially improve our life span. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 2 is stated in the second paragraph – where it is stated that in the past few hundred years average length of life (life expectancy) has increased – but all the wonders of medicine and public health have not impacted maximum duration of life (life span). This makes option 1 the exception. The end question ‘why not?’ justifies option 3. Paragraph 4 explains how life span would be affected if senescence was eliminated. Hence the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: During the past few hundred years human life span has steadily increased.

Time taken by you: 1714 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 % 2) Which of the following most accurately expressses the main idea of the passage? The inevitability of death worries mankind the most, and all efforts to overcome senescence are doomed to ultimate failure in the face of evolution. It is a mystery that though natural selection has the capacity to eliminate senescence and the inevitability of death, it does not do so. Ageing is an incurable disease; neither medicine nor advances in science can eliminate senescence which is integral to natural selection. Though mankind is persistent in its efforts to overcome ageing, the inevitability of death arises from senescence which, mysteriously, evolution does not try to correct. Video Explanation: Explanation: Options 1, 2, and 3 side-track the question and present facts stated in the passage. They don’t sufficiently capture the main idea of the passage. Option 1 is also problematic because ‘doomed to ultimate failure’ is not something that passage intends to communicate. Option 2 emphasises the mystery and option 3 emphasise s ageing, hence not complete the theme. Option 4 summarises the passage well. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Though mankind is persistent in its efforts to overcome ageing, the inevitability of death arises from senescence which, mysteriously, evolution does not try to correct.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 198 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 % 3)Senescence is best described as: The miracle of development from a single cell to trillion cells in the right place making tissues and organs that function together for the good of the whole. The process of ageing in which one grows older from birth onwards ultimately leading to death. Bodily deterioration and an increased susceptibility to diseases and a decreased ability to repair the damage at older ages. The remarkable maintenance capacities of our bodies in which damaged tissues are rapidly replaced. Video Explanation: Explanation: Senescence is explained in the third paragraph. “Technically, we are not really talking about ageing, the process of growing older from birth onwards, but senescence, the process of bodily deterioration that occurs at older ages. Senescence is not a single process but is manifested in an increased susceptibility to many diseases and a decreasing ability to repair damage.” Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Bodily deterioration and an increased susceptibility to diseases and a decreased ability to repair the damage at older ages. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 90 % 4) According to the author, which of the following indicates that it is possible for evolution to do away with senescence? Senescence is an inescapable part of our experience and it is preposterous to think of that possibility. From the point of view of evolution, it is easier to create a new body than to maintain an existing one. Our bodies have remarkable maintenance capacity by which damage is easily repaired and worn out parts are replaced. Our ability to live hearty, healthy lives, until the age of around 85. Video Explanation: Explanation: Senescence in brief is the deterioration of the body leading to death. The capacity of evolutionary processes to do away with this deterioration would prove that evolution could have done away with senescence. Option 1 is contrary to this. Option 2 shows why senescence will not be away with as new bodies can be created more easily. Option 3 shows that nature/evolution has the capability to repair and replace parts – that means has the capacity to do away with senescence. Option 4 does not mean that senescence could be done away with. Hence the correct answer is option [3]

Correct Answer: Our bodies have remarkable maintenance capacity by which damage is easily repaired and worn out parts are replaced.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

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undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Barely a century ago, conventional wisdom held that our universe was static and eternal. Now, we can feel smug for having discovered the underlying expansion of the universe, the cosmic microwave background, dark matter and dark energy. But what will the future bring? Poetry ... of a sort. The domination of the expansion of our universe by dark energy was inferred from the fact that this expansion is speeding up. Our observable universe is at the threshold of expanding faster than the speed of light. And with time, because of the accelerated expansion, things will only get worse.

This means that, the longer we wait, the less we will be able to see. Galaxies that we can now see will one day in the future be receding away from us at faster-than lightspeed, which means that they will become invisible to us. The light they emit will not be able to make progress against the expansion of space, and it will never again reach us. These galaxies will have disappeared from our horizon. The way this works is a little different than you might imagine. The galaxies will not suddenly disappear or twinkle out of existence in the night sky. Rather, as their recession speed approaches the speed of light, the light from these objects gets ever more redshifted. Eventually, all their visible light moves to infrared, microwave, radio wave, and so on, until the wavelength of light they emit ends up becoming larger than the size of the visible universe, at which point they become officially invisible. We can calculate about how long this will take. Since the galaxies in our local cluster of galaxies are all bound together by their mutual gravitational attraction, they will not recede with the background expansion of the universe. Galaxies just outside our groupare about 1/5000th the distance out to the point where the recession velocity of objects approaches the speed of light. By about 2 trillion years, their light will have become completely invisible, and the rest of the universe, from the perspective of our local cluster, will literally have disappeared. Two trillion years may seem like a long time, and it is. In a cosmic sense, however, it is nowhere near an eternity. The longest living ‘main sequence’ stars have lifetimes far longer than our Sun and will still be shining in 2 trillion years (even as our own Sun dies out in about only 5 billion years). And so in the far future there may be civilizations on planets around those stars. And there may be astronomers with telescopes on those planets. But when they look out at the cosmos, essentially everything we can now see,all 400 billion galaxies currently inhabiting our visible universe, will have disappeared! In any case, those astronomers in the far future would be in for a big surprise, if they had any idea what they were missing, which they won’t. Because not only will the rest of the universe have disappeared, but essentially all of the evidence that now tells us we live in an expanding universe that began in a Big Bang will also have disappeared, along with all evidence of the existence of the dark energy that will be responsible for this disappearance. While less than a century ago conventional wisdom still held that the universe was static and eternal, in the far future, long after any remnants of our planet and civilization have likely receded into the dustbin of history, the illusion that sustained our civilization until1930 will be an illusion that will once again return, with a vengeance. 1) What does the author mean by ‘Poetry ... of a sort’, with respect to what the future will bring? It is rather poetic that our past incorrect view of the universe will become correct in the far distant future. It is rather poetic that in the far distant future, the scientific evidence will support a view of the universe that we held in the past. It is rather poetic that our current illusions about the nature of the universe will be repeated in the far distant future. It is rather poetic that the inhabitants of the universe in the far distant future will hold a similar view of the universe that we held till a century ago. Video Explanation: Explanation: ‘Poetry ... of a sort’ is the author’s answer to the question ‘But what will the future bring?’ The author returns to this point in the last paragraph, where he states that our past view of the universe was that it was static and eternal. In the distant future (in about two trillion years), the galaxies beyond our local cluster will no longer be visible, and even the evidence that now tells us we live in an expanding universe will have disappeared. So the people of that time would once again mistakenly think that the universe is static and eternal. So [1] is incorrect: our past view will not become correct in the future. It is not that the scientific evidence in the future will support this mistaken view, but rather the lack of evidence will; so [2] is wrong. Option 3 says “current illusions” which is incorrect. The writer does not suggest that our view about the universe currently also is an illusion, so, [3] is not right. Only [4] correctly sums up why the author thinks this mistake will be ‘poetic’ in a sense. Hence [4].

Correct Answer: It is rather poetic that the inhabitants of the universe in the far distant future will hold a similar view of the universe that we held till a century ago.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 % 2) What is the main point of this passage?

Two trillion years into the future, the expansion of the universe will have stopped and it will have again become static. For inhabitants of the universe in two trillion years, the evidence of the Big Bang and the expansion of the universe will have completely disappeared. In two trillion years, all the galaxies except our local cluster will have ceased to exist. Universe has a cyclic existence. In two trillion years the current universe will end and a new one will begin. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not state or imply that the expansion will stop. Option 3 is incorrect because ‘ceased to exist’ is not supported. Option 4 is incorrect as the cyclic existence is not hinted at in the passage. Hence the correct answer is Option [2].

Correct Answer: For inhabitants of the universe in two trillion years, the evidence of the Big Bang and the expansion of the universe will have completely disappeared.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 % 3) Which of the following is true according to the passage? Nothing in the universe can move faster than light. In our local cluster of galaxies gravitational attraction is stronger than in the galaxies just outside it. When light becomes red shifted, its wavelength is smaller, until it is no longer visible. As our universe expands, the speed of light increases. 4) According to the passage, all these contribute to our understanding of a constantly expanding universe EXCEPT: The idea that the universe originated in a Big Bang. The discovery of the dark energy and the cosmic microwave background. The domination of dark energy over gravitational force. The discovery of ‘main sequence’ stars in our local cluster that will outlive the Sun.

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undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Why do the songs I heard when I was teenager sound sweeter than anything I listen to as an adult? I’m happy to report that my own failures of discernment as a music critic may not be entirely to blame. In recent years, psychologists and neuroscientists have confirmed that these songs hold disproportionate power over our emotions. And researchers have uncovered evidence that suggests our brains bind us to the music we heard as teenagers more tightly than anything we’ll hear as adults – a connection that doesn’t weaken as we age.

Musical nostalgia, in other words, isn’t just a cultural phenomenon: it’s a neuronic command. And no matter how sophisticated our tastes might otherwise grow to be, our brains may stay jammed on those songs we obsessed over during the high drama of adolescence. To understand why we grow attached to certain songs, it helps to understand the brain’s relationship with music. When you listen to a song that triggers personal memories, your prefrontal cortex, which maintains information relevant to your personal life and relationships, will spring into action. But memories are meaningless without emotion – and aside from love and drugs, nothing spurs an emotional reaction like music. Brain imaging studies show that our favourite songs stimulate the brain’s pleasure circuit, which releases an influx of dopamine, serotonin, oxytocin and other neurochemicals that make us feel good. The more we like a song, the more we get treated to neurochemical bliss, flooding our brains with some of the same neurotransmitters that cocaine chases after. Music lights these sparks of neural activity in everybody. But in young people, the spark turns into a fireworks show. Between the ages of 12 and 22, our brains undergo rapid neurological development – and the music we love during that decade seems to get wired into our lobes for good. When we make neural connections to a song, we also create a strong memory trace that becomes laden with heightened emotion, thanks partly to a surfeit of pubertal growth hormones. These hormones tell our brains that everything is incredibly important – especially the songs that form the soundtrack to our teenage dreams (and embarrassments). On its own, these neurological pyrotechnics would be enough to imprint certain songs into our brain. But there are other elements at work. First, some songs become memories in and of themselves, so forcefully do they worm their way into memory. Many of us can vividly remember the first time we heard that one Beatles (or Backstreet Boys) song that, decades later, we still sing at every karaoke night. Second, these songs form the soundtrack to what feel, at the time, like the most vital and momentous years of our lives. The music that plays during our first kiss or our first dance gets attached to that memory and takes on a glimmer of its profundity. We may recognize in retrospect that the dance wasn’t really all that profound. But even as the importance of the memory itself fades, the emotional afterglow tagged to the music lingers. As fun as these theories may be, their logical conclusion – you’ll never love another song the way you loved the music of your youth – is a little depressing. It’s not all bad news, of course: Our adult tastes aren’t really weaker; they’re just more mature, allowing us to appreciate complex aesthetic beauty on an intellectual level. No matter how adult we may become, however, music remains an escape hatch from our adult brains back into the raw, unalloyed passion of our youths. The nostalgia that accompanies our favourite songs isn’t just a fleeting recollection of earlier times; it’s a neurological wormhole that gives us a glimpse into the years when our brains leapt with joy at the music that’s come to define us. Those years may have passed. But each time we hear the songs we loved, the joy they once brought surges anew. 1) What is the passage trying to convey? Why one gets attached to the music one heard as a teenager and not to the music that one would hear as an adult. Why no other music is as good as the music that one heard as a teenager. Why one loves the music one heard as a teenager more than any other music one would listen to later. How the connection between music and the working of the brain makes listening to music a memorable experience during teenage. Video Explanation: Explanation: The passage is precisely about why one loves the music one heard as a teenager. The writer explains the reason why the experience in our youth (w.r.t. music) which will not be replicated in our adult life. Option 3 describes the same idea. Option 1 is incorrect – the passage is not about attachment. Option 2 is incorrect – other music may be as good as or better than the music we heard in teenage – we just don’t love them as much, that’s all. Option 4 does not talk about the teenager experience. Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Why one loves the music one heard as a teenager more than any other music one would listen to later.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 30 % 2) When the writer says his “own failures of discernment as a music critic may not be entirely to blame,” he means: The critical appreciation of music that he now provides may not be reflective of the true beauty of the music under review. The music that he reviews now are much less beautiful than the music he listened to in his teens. He is able to appreciate the beauty of the music he reviews currently more intellectually than emotionally.

He is unable to provide an objective criticism of the music that he is currently reviewing. Video Explanation: Explanation: When the writer refer to his ‘own falure of discernement’ as a music critic, he is emphasizing the intense impressions that music created in him during his teenage. He expalins this phenomenon using psychology and neuroscience. As one matures, one’s appreciation of music becomes more intellectual and complex. Hence music fails to evoke strong emotional reaction as it did in our teenage. So the failure is not actually a failure – it is only a less emotional but more intelelctual experience. Option 3 explains the above more accurately than any pther option. Options 1 and 4 are implicitly contrary to the passage. Since the ‘true beauty of music’ is vague and is commented on in the passage, option 2 is incorrect. Hence the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: He is able to appreciate the beauty of the music he reviews currently more intellectually than emotionally.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 3)Which of the following is true as per the passage? The author’s failures as a music critic had more to do with the quality of the music than with his own sensitivity. The connection that our brain establishes with music when we are teenagers does not become weak as we grow old. The brain’s relationship with music is something that is not fully understood in neurological studies. The taste for music is strongest when we are in our teenage and weaken as we age beyond 22 years. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is not true. The second sentence states the contrary. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage explains the relationship in detail. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage (last paragraph) says our taste doesn’t weaken, but mature over time, and it becomes more intellectual. The first paragraph states the connection that ‘doesn’t weaken as we age’. Hence the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: The connection that our brain establishes with music when we are teenagers does not become weak as we grow old. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 % 4) All these are reasons for our loving the music we heard as teenagers, EXCEPT: Music leaves a permanent imprint on the teenage brain. The teenage brain associates a soundtrack with the teenage experiences. The teenage brain comes under the influence of powerful hormones. The teenage brain is not concerned about the genre or the quality of a song. Video Explanation: Explanation: Paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 support all the options from 1 to 3. Option 4 is not stated or implied. The writer does not comment on the quality of the music that a teenager loves. The writer explains the processes in the brain when we “grow attached to certain songs.” Why a teenager likes a certain song is definitely related to the quality of the song and the teenager’s preferences. The article does not explain why a particular teenager would prefer jazz over rock, or classical over pop. Hence option 4 is irrelevant to the question. Hence the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: The teenage brain is not concerned about the genre or the quality of a song.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 83 % 5) “Why do the songs I heard when I was teenager sound sweeter than anything I listen to as an adult?” Which of the following provides the best explanantion for the question? These songs stimulate the brains pleasure circuit and we get treated to neurochemical bliss. These songs form the soundtrack to what we feel like at the time - the most vital and momentous years of our lives. These songs express the best experiences of our lives at a time when we are going through rapid neurological development. These songs trigger memories of the best and worst experiences of our lives at a stage when we are going through emotional upheavals. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 does not explain why the songs sound sweeter than what one listens to in adult life. Option 2 explains the imprint – soundtrack to what we feel (emotional aspect) and the stage in our life which is important. Hence 2 is correct. Option 3 is incorrect – the songs don’t express the best experience but are associated emotionally with them. Option 4 is incorrect in ‘emotional upheavals’. The best answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: These songs form the soundtrack to what we feel like at the time - the most vital and momentous years of our lives.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 15 % 6)The passage supports all the following inferences EXCEPT: Neurochemistry sufficiently explains musical nostalgia in adults. The music that we listen to in our youth leaves lasting impressions on our minds. Teenagers’ love for music is a manifestation of their heightened neural activity in youth. The prefrontal cortex of a teen and of an adult work differently.

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undefined undefined The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Populists abhor restraints on the political executive. Since they claim to represent “the people” writ large, they regard limits on their exercise of power as necessarily undermining the popular will. Such constraints can only serve the “enemies of the people” – minorities and foreigners or financial elites. This is a dangerous approach to politics, because it allows a majority to ride roughshod over the rights

of minorities. Without separation of powers, an independent judiciary, or free media – which all populist autocrats, from Vladimir Putin and Recep Tayyip Erdoğan to Viktor Orbán and Donald Trump detest – democracy degenerates into the tyranny of whoever happens to be in power. Periodic elections under populist rule become a smokescreen. In the absence of the rule of law and basic civil liberties, populist regimes can prolong their rule by manipulating the media and the judiciary at will. Populists’ aversion to institutional restraints extends to the economy, where exercising full control “in the people’s interest” implies that no obstacles should be placed in their way by autonomous regulatory agencies, independent central banks, or global trade rules. Start with why restraints on economic policy may be desirable in the first place. Economists tend to have a soft spot for such restraints, because policymaking that is fully responsive to the push and pull of domestic politics can generate highly inefficient outcomes. In particular, economic policy is often subject to the problem of what economists call time-inconsistency: short-term interests frequently undermine the pursuit of policies that are far more desirable in the long term. A canonical example is discretionary monetary policy. Politicians who have the power to print money at will may generate “surprise inflation” to boost output and employment in the short run – say, before an election. But this backfires, because firms and households adjust their inflation expectations. In the end, discretionary monetary policy results only in higher inflation without yielding any output or employment gains. The solution is an independent central bank, insulated from politics, operating solely on its mandate to maintain price stability.Another example is official treatment of foreign investors. Once a foreign firm makes its investment, it essentially becomes captive to the host government’s whims. Promises that were made to attract the firm are easily forgotten, replaced by policies that squeeze it to the benefit of the national budget or domestic companies. But there are other scenarios as well, in which the consequences of restraints on economic policy may be less salutary. In particular, restraints may be instituted by special interests or elites themselves, to cement permanent control over policymaking. In such cases, delegation to autonomous agencies or signing on to global rules does not serve society, but only a narrow caste of “insiders.” Part of today’s populist backlash is rooted in the belief, not entirely unjustified, that this scenario describes much economic policymaking in recent decades. Multinational corporations and investors have increasingly shaped the agenda of international trade negotiations, resulting in global regimes that disproportionately benefit capital at the expense of labor. Stringent patent rules and international investor tribunals are prime examples. So is the capture of autonomous agencies by the industries they are supposed to regulate. Banks and other financial institutions have been especially successful at getting their way and instituting rules that give them free rein. Independent central banks played a critical role in bringing inflation down in the 1980s and 1990s. But in the current low-inflation environment, their exclusive focus on price stability imparts a deflationary bias to economic policy and is in tension with employment generation and growth. Such “liberal technocracy” may be at its apogee in the European Union, where economic rules and regulations are designed at considerable remove from democratic deliberation at the national level. And in virtually every member state, this political gap – the EU’s so-called democratic deficit – has given rise to populist, Euro skeptical political parties. In such cases, relaxing the constraints on economic policy and returning policymaking autonomy to elected governments may well be desirable. We should constantly be wary of populism that stifles political pluralism and undermines liberal democratic norms. Political populism is a menace to be avoided at all costs. Economic populism, by contrast, is occasionally necessary. Indeed, at such times, it may be the only way to forestall its much more dangerous political cousin. 1) In the context of the passage, which of the following has been identified as being more dangerous than economic populism? Disproportionate control of corporations Majoritarian identity-based politics Religious sectarianism Political populism. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The last paragraph of the passage states the answer explicitly. “We should constantly be wary of populism that stifles political pluralism and undermines liberal democratic norms. Political populism is a menace to be avoided at all costs. Economic populism, by contrast, is occasionally necessary. Indeed, at such times, it may be the only way to forestall its much more dangerous political cousin.” His point of view is that while political populism is to be avoided at all costs, economic populism is necessary at times, and sometimes economic populism may be the only way we can avoid political populism which is dangerous. Thus the answer is option 4. The fourth paragraph talks about multinational corporations when its states that, ‘Multinational corporations and investors have increasingly shaped the agenda of international trade negotiations, resulting in global regimes that disproportionately benefit capital at the expense of labor’. However, this domination of multinational corporations has not being compared with the state’s economic populism. Also, it has not been implied that this disproportionate control of corporations is worse than economic populism. Hence, option 1 is eliminated. Majoritarianism is a political philosophy or agenda that asserts that a majority (sometimes categorized by religion or some other identifying factor) is entitled to a certain degree of primacy in society. The passage states that ‘popular will allows a majority to ride roughshod over the rights of minorities’. However, it has not been compared with economic populism. Hence, option 2 is incorrect. ‘Religious sectarianism’ is a form of discrimination or hatred arising from attaching inferiority to people belonging to a particular religion. The passage does not dwell on Religious sectarianism. Hence, option 3 is irrelevant. Hence the answer is option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Political populism.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 260 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 % 2) The central idea of this passage is that: Populists abhor institutional restraints where they oppose obstacles placed in their way by autonomous regulatory agencies, independent central banks, and global trade rules. Populists abhor restraints on the political executive, which is a dangerous approach to politics as it ends in the marginalization or persecution of minorities. Populists’ aversion to institutional restraints extends to the economy; while populism in the political domain is almost always harmful, economic populism can sometimes be justified. Economists tend to support restraints on the executive as discretionary monetary policy as it almost always leads to economic populism for electoral gains. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy main idea question. The passage makes two major points. One is that political populism in which political leaders – examples given are Putin, Trump, Recep Tayyip Erdogen, and Victor Orban) end up becoming autocrats as they abhor institutional restraints. Hence political populism ought to be avoided at all costs. The other major point is that while restraints on economic policy may be desirable, economic populism may be desirable under certain circumstances in which relaxing constraints on economic policy and returning policy making autonomy to elected governments (instead of independent central institutions like the Central Bank) may also be desirable. Hence economic populism is not always harmful like political populism These points are captured in option 3. Option 1 is incorrect. It does not include the point about the desirability of economic populism under circumstances. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1 it presents only one point of view, the defense of economic populism is not mentioned. Eliminate Option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 highlights only the economists’ view about the need for independent regulatory bodies in an economy. It doesn’t capture the political populism aspect. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Populists’ aversion to institutional restraints extends to the economy; while populism in the political domain is almost always harmful, economic populism can sometimes be justified.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 3) All these are advanced as reasons to justify the restraints on economic policy EXCEPT: Stringent patent rules and international investor tribunals. Short term interests may undermine the pursuit of policies more desirable in the long term. Creation of “surprise inflation” to boost output and employment in the short term for immediate electoral gains. Introduction of protectionist policies. 4) Why does the passage refer to minorities, foreigners and financial elites as ‘enemies of the people’? As an ironical reference to populists’ view that restraints on the populist leader are contrary to popular will. To point out that they are an elite or special interest group that asserts excessive power not commensurate with their numbers. In disapproval of the populist leader riding roughshod over the rights of the minorities, foreigners and the financial elites. To highlight that minorities, foreigners or financial elites should have no political relevance in a true democracy. Video Explanation: Explanation:

This is an easy question. The first paragraph of the passage states, “Populists abhor restraints on the political executive. Since they claim to represent “the people” writ large, they regard limits on their exercise of power as necessarily undermining the popular will. Such constraints can only serve the “enemies of the people” – minorities and foreigners or financial elites. It is the populists’ view that their leader represents the will of the people, hence should be given complete freedom without any restraints to impose his/her will on the state. These restraints on the supreme leader will only help the minorities (w.r.t. their civil and political rights), foreigners (with respect to their investments in the economy) and financial elites (against w.r.t their wealth and businesses) – hence these people become enemies of the people at large. In truth, they are not. Hence it is an ironical reference to the misguided belief of the populists that there should be no check on the populist leader. Hence option 1 is correct. Option 2 is incorrect because the passage does not imply that minorities ‘assert excessive power not commensurate with their numbers’. Option 3 is likewise incorrect. Though a disapproval is implied, the reference to minorities etc. as enemies of the people is not from the point of view of the suppression of minorities. Option 4 is contrary to the writer’s point of view. He does not believe that minorities etc. do not have any political relevance in a democracy. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: As an ironical reference to populists’ view that restraints on the populist leader are contrary to popular will.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 5) With respect to “discretionary monetary policy”, the writer is of the view that … Such policies will be isolated from the pull and push of domestic policies and their consequent ill-effects. It always backfires and creates higher inflation without yielding any output or employment gains.

An independent central bank operating on its own mandate can solve the ill- effects of such policies. It undermines short term interests in pursuit of policies that are desirable in the long term. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph almost defines ‘discretionary monetary policy’ as determined by the push and pull of domestic policy resulting in long term ill-effects. Option 1 which states that it is isolated from such the influence of domestic policies is contrary to the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In fact, under certain circumstances the writer would prefer economic populism and ‘discretionary policy’. Hence it is incorrect to say to say such policy “always” backfires. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The writer explicitly states in the third paragraph that cure for “surprise inflation’ to boost output resorted by the executive as a populist measure finally backfires. And “the solution is an independent central bank, insulated from politics, operating solely on its mandate to maintain price stability.” Retain Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that discretionary monetary policy undermines sacrifices long term interests for short term interests. Hence option 4 is contrary to the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option [3]. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: An independent central bank operating on its own mandate can solve the ill- effects of such policies.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 6) It can be inferred from the passage that the “liberal technocracy” is a reference to: central banks in the European Union whose regulations bordered on the undemocratic. independent central banks that were instrumental in bringing inflation down in the 1980s and 1990s. the Euroskeptical political parties that relax the constraints on economic policy and return policy making to elected governments. banks and other financial institutions that have been successful in instituting rules that give them a free rein. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. When the last paragraph says “such liberal technocracy may be at its apogee in the European Union”, the reference is not directly to such banks, though they are the examples. Hence option 1 does not fully answer the question. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The end of the penultimate paragraph refers to the ‘independent central banks which brought down the inflation in the 1980s and 1990s before referring to “such liberal technocracy”. The technocracy thus includes the independent central banks. However, the passage expands the scope of this technocracy prior to that. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The technocracy does not refer to political parties of any kind, but to financial institutions and banks. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The penultimate paragraph states “Banks and other financial institutions have been especially successful at getting their way and instituting rules that give them free rein.” Then he refers ‘to the banks of 1980s and 1990s and ‘such liberal technocracy’. Thus the reference is clearly to the independent financial institutions and banks who have managed to remain autonomous. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: banks and other financial institutions that have been successful in instituting rules that give them a free rein.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. Norway is currently the world’s demonstration project for green transport solutions. It has the highest EV penetration rate in the world. Nearly 40% of new cars sold are EVs. Infrastructure, technologies and solutions are being developed, tested and assessed in Norway. Valuable lessons have been learnt from looking at customer behavior. For example, the fear of running out of battery power, or range anxiety, has been highlighted as a barrier to EV uptake. While many drivers experience range anxiety at first, this fear quickly subsides. In fact, only 4% of Norwegian EV drivers report having run out of battery power. Businesses and governments from all over the world are looking to Norway to gain insights into how the beginnings of a mass market for EVs functions in practice. With the highest Electric Vehicle penetration, Norway is the mass-market demonstration project in the world in terms of Infrastructure, technologies and customer behavior. Businesses and governments all over the world consider Norway as the mass market demonstration project for electric vehicles in terms of penetration, Infrastructure, and customer behavior. With the highest Electric Vehicle sales, Norway provides insights to governments and businesses into the beginnings of a market for Electric Vehicles in terms of Infrastructure, technologies and customer behavior. With the highest Electric Vehicle penetration and high sales of electric cars, with infrastructure, technologies and solutions being developed and tested, Norway is the demonstration project for green transport solutions in the world. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The main points in the paragraph are: 1. Norway is the mass market demonstration project for green transportation for the world. 2. It has the highest EV penetration in the world. 3. Infrastructure, technologies and solutions are being developed, tested and assessed. 4. Customer behavior is being studied. 5. For Governments and businesses, Norway is the initial prototype of a mass market. Option 1 is incorrect. It misses several points. The most important being about governments and businesses. It also has no reference to the green transport solutions being developed and tested, which is the very reason why Norway is the demonstration project. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect – it misses on the technologies and the testing parts. It makes the assumption that electric vehicles and green transport revolutions are the same, thus missing the larger picture. The option also misses the government and businesses part. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The ‘highest Electric Vehicle sales…’ is a misrepresentation – the paragraph mentions only new cars sold. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. By capturing most of the points in the paragraph succinctly and without distortion, option 4 is the best précis of the paragraph. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: With the highest Electric Vehicle penetration and high sales of electric cars, with infrastructure, technologies and solutions being developed and tested, Norway is the demonstration project for green transport solutions in the world. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. The economic emancipation of women had to wait till after World War II, when permanent male labor shortages – the result, incidentally, of Keynesian full-employment policies – pulled ever more women out of domesticity and into factories and shops. This wave of emancipation concentrated on economic inequalities, especially discrimination in job selection and disparities in pay and property rights. These battles have also mainly been won. Discrimination in inheritance is long gone, and equal pay for equal work is accepted in theory, though a gender bias persists, as it does for selection to senior posts. Male labor shortages after World War II helped bring economic equality of women in job selection, pay and property rights; however, gender bias persists in their selection to senior posts. The permanent male labor shortages and Keynesian policies helped the emancipation of women during World War II. Though the battle of gender equality has been mainly won, bias persists in their section to senior posts. The emancipation of women in terms of economic inequalities, discrimination in job selection and disparities in pay and property rights happened after World War II as a result of Keynesian full employment policies and male labor shortages. As result of Keynesian full-employment policies the economic emancipation of women which began after World War II has been mainly won in job selection and pay and property rights. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question The main points in the passage are: • After WW II Keynesian policies led to male labor shortages and helped bring women into the labor force. • In this phase of emancipation, women could achieve equality in job selection, pay, and property rights. • Gender bias still persists e.g. in their selection to senior posts. Option 1 is correct. It captures the essence of the paragraph without any distortion. The point about Keynesian full employment policies is missing in this option. However, options 2, 3 and 4 incorrectly and directly attribute women’s economic emancipation to Keynesian full employment policies, whereas the paragraph says that Keynesian policies only created male labor shortages, which in turn led to women coming out of domesticity. Retain Option 1 Option 2 is incorrect. Apart from misrepresentation of shortages of male labor and Keynesian polices as two independent causes, option 2 misses the most important aspect of emancipation – the economic emphasis. Women’s emancipation and women’s economic emancipation are two different in implication. Option 2 mentions women’s emancipation in broad terms and not the specific economic emancipation of women. Also, “during WW II” is not precise summary of the paragraph. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Apart from stating the broader “emancipation of women” instead of “economic emancipation”, option 3 leaves out the important point about the prevailing gender bias in promotions to senior posts. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses two important points in the paragraph – that of male labor shortages and gender bias in selection to senior posts. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Male labor shortages after World War II helped bring economic equality of women in job selection, pay and property rights; however,

gender bias persists in their selection to senior posts. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. Multipolarity is back, and with it strategic rivalry among the great powers. The re-emergence of China and the return of Russia to the forefront of global politics are two of the most salient international dynamics of the century thus far. In recent years, the tension between the United States and these two countries increased markedly. As the US domestic political environment has deteriorated, so, too, have America’s relations with those that are perceived as its principal adversaries. Multipolarity is back among the powers in global politics with the reemergence of China, Russia and the increasing tensions with the US owing to a worsening of its relations with adversaries. The reemergence of China and Russia as global powers, the deterioration of the US domestic politics and the increasing tensions with its adversaries have created a multipolar world. The return of China and Russia to the forefront of global politics and the increasing tensions with the US exacerbated by its deteriorating domestic politics have created a multipolar world. The salient dynamics of this century are the reemergence of China and Russia and the increasing tensions with the US in the face of its deteriorating domestic political environment. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The main points in the passage, to be captured in a précis are as follows: • China and Russia have reemerged as global powers in this century • America’s relations have deteriorated with its adversaries owing to its deteriorating domestic political environment. • Multipolarity is back, and with it strategic rivalry among the great powers. This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. “Multipolarity is back among the powers in global politics…” is incorrect. Multipolarity is back in international politics and not among the powers. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The causes for the world becoming multipolar are the reemergence of China and Russia in global politics, and their increasing tensions with the US. The deteriorating domestic political situation in the US is also leading to deteriorating relations with its adversaries. However, Option 2 appears to communicate that the US domestic situation is also a direct cause of a multipolar world. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The main points in the passage are captured accurately by option 3. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses the main point of the passage which is the emergence of a multipolar world. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The return of China and Russia to the forefront of global politics and the increasing tensions with the US exacerbated by its deteriorating domestic politics have created a multipolar world. Time taken by you: 754 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Enter your answer in the space provided below.

1. Earth’s oxygen content has varied as life has evolved, because oxygen produced by land plants during photosynthesis is the primary source of oxygen in the atmosphere. 2. Earth’s atmospheric oxygen content is intimately tied to the recycling of Earth’s rocky crust as well. 3. Oxygen levels were restored to some sort of equilibrium only by the subsequent decay of the organic materials, a process that consumes oxygen. 4. In other words, as plant life evolved and became more abundant leading up to the Carboniferous, 300 million years ago, it added increasing amounts of oxygen to the atmosphere.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence [1] introduces the topic of the variation in Earth’s oxygen content due to plants; [4] talks about the increase in oxygen due to the same reason; [3] is about the restoration of the oxygen level. So these three sentences form a coherent sequence. On the other hand, [2], which introduces a new point about oxygen content being related to the recycling of Earth’s rocky crust, does not fit into the sequence. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Enter your answer in the space provided below.

1. From the early 12 th century onwards, the legend of King Arthur bloomed into myriad tales in numerous different languages, and by 1300 or thereabouts all the well-known characters, places and objects associated with him had made their appearance: Lancelot, Guinevere, Galahad, Gawain, Merlin, Excalibur, the Lady in the Lake, the Sword in the Stone, and Camelot, Arthur’s capital. 2. On one side were the Arthurian hard-liners who claimed that the evidence for Arthur was poor, and thus consigned him wholly to the sphere of legend (by now separable from history), and on the other were the believers in ‘no smoke without fire’, happy to accept that the Arthur attested in certain first-millennium sources had a real existence, giving rise to these tales. 3. Over time, attitudes towards the claim that there was a figure of the name Arthur, alive around 500 AD, divided into two camps.

4. After the blossoming of Arthurian romance in the Victorian period, the historical and legendary Arthurs began to separate from each other, unsurprisingly, when the discipline of history established itself as a scientific exercise with its own academic practices, distinct from philosophy or literature.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence [1] introduces the topic of the variation in Earth’s oxygen content due to plants; [4] talks about the increase in oxygen due to the same reason; [3] is about the restoration of the oxygen level. So these three sentences form a coherent sequence. On the other hand, [2], which introduces a new point about oxygen content being related to the recycling of Earth’s rocky crust, does not fit into the sequence. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the following sentences does not fit into the context. Enter your answer in the space provided below.

1. Here, too, existing regulatory principles, and the agencies that apply and enforce them, should be given an opportunity to prove themselves. 2. As in all previous years, human error of various kinds was responsible for most of these deaths. 3. There were 40,000 road fatalities in 2016 in the US from self-driving cars, and more than one million worldwide, according to the latest WHO data from self-driving cars. 4. Reducing road fatalities is an important goal, and the growing engagement of tech companies should be welcomed, in the interest of improving road safety.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The 40,000 road fatalities mentioned in sentence 3 is referred to as ‘most of these deaths’ in sentence 2, making sentence 3 and 2 in that order a mandatory pair. The topic can be identified as fatalities arising from self-driving cars and rather than tech, human errors being the cause. Sentence 4 which talks about the larger goal of reducing road fatalities directly related to this theme and sentence 1 has no link to any other sentence. Hence the answer is 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. Wild wheat uses the wind to propagate: when its pods become full and heavy, their brittle casings burst, spreading the seed far and wide upon the breeze. 2. Realizing that a wheat that kept its seeds was a useful plant, humans seized upon it, 3. A type of wheat that cannot spread its seeds on its own is an aberration, a variation that would have come about by accident. 4. To select its desirable characteristics,they eliminated the competition by stripping away weeds and wild wheat plants, leaving only the tougher stuff that required harvesting. 5. However, Einkorn wheat – a strain of wild wheat from 8500 BCE – is tougher: its pods yield their seed only when deliberately broken with a tool.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Comparison of five sentences rules out sentences 5 (‘tougher’ – than what?) 4 ( To selects its … they – the pronouns need to have

Comparison of five sentences rules out sentences 5 (‘tougher’ – than what?) 4 ( To selects its … they – the pronouns need to have antecedents) and 2 (starts with ‘but’ ) for the starter. Between sentence 3 and 1, we see that sentence 1 introduces the paragraph, which can then be followed by 5. So 1-5 is a mandatory pair and the beginning of the paragraph. Sentence 3 comes next because it is an elaboration of the Einkorn wheat mentioned in sentence 5. (1-5-3) Placing 2-4 after 1-5-3 is easy because ‘they’ in sentence 4 refers to ‘humans’ in 2 and ‘a wheat that kept its seeds’ in 3 is continued in 2 as “a type that cannot spread its seeds on its own” . Hence the correct sequence is 15324. Correct Answer: 15324 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 18 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. But let’s take it seriously for a moment. 2. Today, the book is such a symbol of learning and knowledge that we laugh at this argument. 3. Nonetheless, Socrates’s point is valid: a technology that gives no opportunity for discussion, explanation or debate is a poor technology. 4. Over two thousand years ago, Socrates argued that the book would destroy people’s ability to reason, because, as he claimed, one cannot debate with a book: the written word cannot answer back. 5. Despite Socrates’s claims, writing does instruct because we can debate its content with each other rather than with the author.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Only sentence 4 can start the paragraph – all the other sentences have abrupt beginnings or reference to something else for them to make sense. Since 4 is about Socrates said two thousand years ago, sentence 2 beginning with ‘today’ immediately after. 4-2 is a mandatory pair. Of the remaining three sentences only sentence 1 can be placed after sentence 2making the sequence 421. Placing sentences 5 and 3 in that order is easy because ‘nonetheless Socrates’s point is valid’ ’ in 3 can be placed only after the point is contradicted as “writing does instruct…’ which is in sentence 5. Hence the correct sequence is 42153. Correct Answer: 42153 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. When they melted, these earthen kettles filled with fossil water, leaving countless mirrors that sequin the tundra. 2. Canada, situated north of the 60th parallel, contains more lakes than the rest of the world combined. 3. Now, as the permafrost thaws around these kettles, glacial water held in place by frozen soil for thousands of years is seeping away. 4. Here, ice ages gouged cavities into which icebergs dropped when the glaciers retreated. 5. Nearly half of Canada’s Northwest Territories isn’t land at all, but water.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The starter sentence stands out form the others. Sentence 2 introduces the geographical aspect about Canada and the abundance of lakes. Sentence 5 is an elaboration of sentence 2. Hence 2-5 is a mandatory pair. More than the connection between sentences 5 and 4, sentences 1 and 3 cannot be placed after 2-5. So sentence 4 has to be placed after 5 and we get 2-5-4. Now, it is easier to place sentences 1 and 3 in that order because ‘they’ in 1 refers to ‘icebergs’ and ‘glaciers’ of sentence 4. Also, ‘these kettles’ in 3 is a reference to ‘earthen kettles’ in 1. So the correct answer is 25413. Correct Answer: 25413 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. To understand where these differences come from, we can start with an evolutionary story about sugary fruits and fatty animals, which were good food for our common ancestors. 2. It takes a lot of additional work to connect the universal taste receptors to the specific things that a particular person eats and drinks. 3. All humans have the same five taste receptors, but they don’t like the same foods.

4. Just knowing that everyone has sweetness receptors can’t tell you why one person prefers Thai food to Mexican, or why hardly anyone stirs sugar into beer. 5. However, we will also have to examine the history of each culture, and we’ll have to look at the childhood eating habits of each individual too.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentences 1, 2, and 5 can be quickly ruled out for the starter. Between sentences 3 and 4, sentence 3 introduces the theme that is continued in 4. Hence sentence 3 begins the paragraph. Sentence 1 follows sentence 3 logically with ‘these differences’ referring to ‘but they don’t like the same foods’. 3-1 pair is then logically followed by sentence 5 as ‘we will also have to examine…’ is a continuation from “we can start with an evolutionary story…’ 3-1-5 sequence is then followed by sentence 4 and 2 in that order as “just knowing … can’t tell you why…’ continues logically to ‘it takes a lot of additional work…’ Hence the correct answer is 31542. Correct Answer: 31542 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 4 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Samsung has branch offices in six cities in India – Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Chennai & Bangalore. 1400 employees work in all of the six offices in total. The number of employees in each of the six offices is a multiple of 100. The table given below provides information about the number of employees, average weight (in kg), average years of experience in Samsung, average years of overall experience, and average height (in cm).

1) What is the number of employees in the Mumbai office? 100 200 300 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Number of employees in the Mumbai office is 200. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 200

Time taken by you: 751 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 359 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2) What is the average weight of the employees in the Hyderabad office? 70 kg 75 kg 60 kg Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Average weight of employees is 60 kg. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 60 kg

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 3)In all, 100 employees having an average experience of 5 years in Samsung left the Chennai office. As a result, the average experience (in Samsung) of employees in the Chennai office was reduced to 3 years. What was the initial average experience (in Samsung) of employees in the Chennai office?

Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 4) What is the approximate average weight of the employees in these six Samsung offices? 71 kg 70 kg 69 kg Cannot be determined

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 69 kg

Time taken by you: 78 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs

Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

National Institute of Management Lucknow (NIM-L) conducts its entrance test called National Admission Test (NAT) for admission to its flagship two-year MBA course. The QA section of NAT-2018 had 34 questions, all of which were multiple choice format questions. The following was the marking scheme for NAT-2018: 1. Each correct answer fetched 12 marks. There was negative marking for incorrect answers. For each incorrect answer, four marks were deducted from the score of a student. 2. Additionally, there was a progressive penalty for skipped questions, as specified in the table below:

For example, a student who skipped 6 questions lost 0 × 4 + 1 × (6 – 4) = 2 marks on account of these 6 skipped questions. Similarly, a student who skipped 18 questions lost 0 × 4 + 1 × 4 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 4 + 4 × 2 = 32 marks on account of these 18 skipped questions. 3. The exam is computerized and the questions are presented to students one at a time. Once a student sees the question, he/she has only two options before seeing the next question: either attempt the question or skip the question. After a student attempts/skips a question, the next question is presented and he/she is not able to revisit the questions that are already attempted/skipped. 4. All the questions that a student is unable to answer in the stipulated time of one hour are considered to be ‘skipped’ by the student. For example, if a student is able to answer only 30 questions in the section at the end of one hour, the remaining 4 questions in the section are considered to be skipped by the student. 5. Cumulative score of a student at the end of each question (considering the penalty on account of incorrect and skipped questions) is calculated. For example, if a student gets one answer correct, one answer incorrect and skips one question out of the first three, his/her cumulative score at the end of the 3rd question will be 12 – 4 – 0 = 8.

Similarly, the total score of a student at the end of the stipulated time is calculated after deducting the marks on account of penalty for the questions that were not visited by the student (and hence were considered to be skipped). 1) Which of the following cannot be a valid cumulative score that a student could have obtained at the end of 10 questions in that section? 43 34 27 30 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Each correct answer fetches 12 marks while each incorrect answer deducts 4 marks from the score. Therefore the score of a student on account of attempted (either correct or incorrect) questions is a multiple of 4. If a student attempts 6 or more questions, there will be no penalty for skipped questions. Therefore the score of the student in that case will be a multiple of 4. None of the options for the question is a multiple of 4. Therefore the student attempted fewer than 6 questions. If a student attempts 5 questions and skips 5 questions, he/she will lose one mark on account of skipped questions (0 × 4 + 1 × (5 – 4) = 1. Therefore the score of the student can be of the form 4n – 1. Two options, 43 and 27 are of the form 4n – 1. A student can score 43 if he/she gets 4 answers correct, 1 incorrect and skips 5. Similarly a student can get 27 if he/she gets 3 answers correct, 2 incorrect and skips 5. If a student attempts 4 questions and skips 6 questions, he/she will lose two marks on account of skipped questions (0 × 4 + 1 × (6 – 4) = 2. Therefore the score of the student will be of the form 4n – 2. Both the remaining options are of the form 4n – 2. A student can score 30 marks if he/she gets 3 answers correct, 1 incorrect and skips 6. If a student attempts 3 questions, the number of questions skipped would be 7. In that case, he/she will lose 3 marks on account of skipped questions 0 × 4 + 1 × (7 – 4) = 3. In that case, the maximum score a student can score can be 12 × 3 – 3 = 33. If a student attempted fewer than 3 questions, the maximum score will be even lower. Therefore it is not possible to score 34. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 34

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 215 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 2) Which of the following can be a valid score that a student could have obtained in the section if it is known that he/she attempted 28 questions in the section? 62 74 86 98 Video Explanation: Explanation: If a student attempted 28 questions, the number of questions skipped = 6 and the number of marks lost on account of skipped questions = (0 × 4) + 1 × (6 – 4) = 2 If out of 28 questions attempted, a student gets (x) correct and (28 – x) incorrect, the score of the student will be 12 × x – 4(28 – x) – 2 = 16x – 112 – 2 = 16 × (x – 7) – 2. Therefore the score of the student will be of the form 16n – 2. Out of the given options, only 62 is of the form 16n – 2. If a student gets 11 answers correct, 17 incorrect and skips 6, the score will be 11 × 12 – 17 × 4 – 2 = 62. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 62

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 3) It is known that a student scored exactly 100 marks in the section. What can be the maximum number of questions that the student could have attempted (either correctly or incorrectly) in the section?

(Write 35 if it is not possible to score 100 marks in the section) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The score of the student is 100, a multiple of 4. If a student doesn’t lose any mark on account of skipped questions, his/her score will be a multiple of 4, as seen in the explanatory answers to previous questions. Let’s first check if a score of 100 can be obtained in the section if up-to 4 questions are skipped (or 30/31/32/33/34 questions are attempted). If x is the number of correct answers and y is the number of incorrect answers, we have 12x – 4y = 100 and x + y = 30 or 31 or 32 or 33 or 34. A valid solution is the one that gives values of x and y that are natural numbers. We have, x = 14 and y = 17 are the natural number values of x and y that satisfy the equations. Therefore, the maximum number of questions that a student can attempt and get a score of 100 is 31. Therefore, the required answer is 31.

Correct Answer: 31

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 657 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 25 % 4) It is known that a student scored exactly 100 marks in the section. What can be the minimum number of questions that a student could have attempted (either correctly or incorrectly) in the section? (Write 35 if it is not possible to score 100 marks in the section) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: As seen in the explanatory answers to the previous questions, the marks obtained by a student due to attempted questions is a multiple of 4. Since the score of the student is 100 (a multiple of 4), the marks lost by the student from skipped questions is also a multiple of 4. The marks that are multiples of 4 that a student can lose on account of skipped questions can be 4/8/12/24/28/32/36…. Accordingly, we get the following table.

It can be seen that a student can score 100 marks if he/she gets 13 answers correct, 13 answers incorrect and skips 8 questions. However, it is not possible to get the marks equal to the marks shown in the fourth row of the table by attempting the number of questions equal to the number in the second row of the table for other cases. Therefore, the required answer is 26.

Correct Answer: 26

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 6 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 4 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr. Trump has a number of boxes with him. These boxes are painted with exactly one of the following four colours: Red, Green, Blue or Black. Each box has a number of chocolates named ‘Seven Star’ in it. The number of ‘Seven Stars’ in the boxes can be one of the following five numbers: 6, 10, 12, 15 or 20. No two boxes coloured with the same colour have equal number of ‘Seven Stars’. The following bar graph shows the number of boxes painted with different colours.

The following column graph shows the distribution of the number of boxes containing different number of ‘Seven Stars’.

1) If it is known that the green boxes contain the maximum possible number of ‘Seven Stars’, what is the total number of ‘Seven Stars’ in all the green boxes taken together? (Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose we denote the number of boxes with 6 Seven Stars as B6, the number of boxes with 10 Seven Stars as B10 and so on. Since there are 12 boxes with at least 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the total number of boxes = 12. There are 5 boxes with at most 10 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 = 5. There are 7 boxes with at least 12 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B12 + B15 + B20 = 7. There are 11 boxes with at most 15 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 + B12 + B15 = 11. Using these four statements, we can get B20 = 1 and B12 + B15 = 6. There are five red boxes, each with different number of ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, the five boxes have 6, 10, 12, 15 and 20 ‘Seven Stars’ respectively. Therefore we have,

Now all the questions can be answered. If Green boxes contain maximum possible number of ‘Seven Stars’, the three green boxes have 10, 12 and 15 Seven Stars. Therefore we have,

Therefore, the number of ‘Seven Stars’ in the green boxes = 10 + 12 + 15 = 37. Therefore, the required answer is 37.

Correct Answer: 37

Time taken by you: 431 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 25 % 2) If it is known that there are maximum possible boxes with 15 ‘Seven Stars’, what is the number of boxes with 12 ‘Seven Stars’? (Use information from the previous questions. Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose we denote the number of boxes with 6 Seven Stars as B6, the number of boxes with 10 Seven Stars as B10 and so on. Since there are 12 boxes with at least 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the total number of boxes = 12. There are 5 boxes with at most 10 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 = 5. There are 7 boxes with at least 12 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B12 + B15 + B20 = 7. There are 11 boxes with at most 15 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 + B12 + B15 = 11. Using these four statements, we can get B20 = 1 and B12 + B15 = 6. There are five red boxes, each with different number of ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, the five boxes have 6, 10, 12, 15 and 20 ‘Seven Stars’ respectively. Therefore we have,

Now all the questions can be answered. We know that B12 + B15 = 6. We have already figured out that one Red box and one Green box have 12 ‘Seven Stars’. That means the minimum value of B12 = 2. Therefore, the maximum value of B15 = 4. Therefore, we have the following:

Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) If it is known that there are minimum possible boxes with 6 ‘Seven Stars’, what is the total number of ‘Seven Stars’ in all the black boxes taken together? (Use information from the previous questions. Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose we denote the number of boxes with 6 Seven Stars as B6, the number of boxes with 10 Seven Stars as B10 and so on. Since there are 12 boxes with at least 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the total number of boxes = 12. There are 5 boxes with at most 10 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 = 5. There are 7 boxes with at least 12 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B12 + B15 + B20 = 7. There are 11 boxes with at most 15 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 + B12 + B15 = 11. Using these four statements, we can get B20 = 1 and B12 + B15 = 6. There are five red boxes, each with different number of ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, the five boxes have 6, 10, 12, 15 and 20 ‘Seven Stars’ respectively. Therefore we have,

Now all the questions can be answered. We know that B6 + B10 = 5. We have already figured out that one red box has 6 ‘Seven Stars’. If there are minimum possible boxes with 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the value of B6 = 1 and B10 = 4. Therefore, we have the following

Therefore, the number of ‘Seven Stars’ in the boxes having Black colour = 10 + 15 = 25. Therefore, the required answer is 25. Correct Answer: 25

Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 23 % 4) What is the total number of ‘Seven Stars’ with Mr. Trump? (Use information from the previous questions. Write ‘0’ if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Suppose we denote the number of boxes with 6 Seven Stars as B6, the number of boxes with 10 Seven Stars as B10 and so on. Since there are 12 boxes with at least 6 ‘Seven Stars’, the total number of boxes = 12. There are 5 boxes with at most 10 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 = 5. There are 7 boxes with at least 12 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B12 + B15 + B20 = 7. There are 11 boxes with at most 15 ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, B6 + B10 + B12 + B15 = 11. Using these four statements, we can get B20 = 1 and B12 + B15 = 6. There are five red boxes, each with different number of ‘Seven Stars’. Therefore, the five boxes have 6, 10, 12, 15 and 20 ‘Seven Stars’ respectively. Therefore we have,

Now all the questions can be answered. The total number of ‘Seven Stars’ = 6 × 1 + 10 × 4 + 12 × 2 + 15 × 4 + 20 × 1 = 150. Therefore, the required answer is 150.

Correct Answer: 150

Time taken by you: 15 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 22 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Ramesh has an apple orchard in the state of Himachal Pradesh. On a particular day, his associate Suresh plucked 103 distinct apples (each apple of a distinct size). He distributed these 103 apples in four distinct boxes – P, Q, R and S at 10:00 AM.

Later at multiple times during the day (12:00 noon, 2:00 PM, 4:00 PM and 8:00 PM), Ramesh tested some of the apples that were present in some or all of the four boxes at those times. He performed one of the following three operations – I, II and III on the apples he tested:

Operation I: If Ramesh liked any apple in a box, he plucked a new apple of the same size and placed in one of the other three boxes. Operation II: If Ramesh did not like the box in which a particular apple was placed, he removed the apple from that box and placed it in another box. Operation III: If Ramesh did not like any apple, he discarded the apple from the box.

The following table provides information about the number of apples in each of the boxes – P, Q, R and S at different times during the entire day. Ramesh was very lazy and hence performed minimum possible number of operations. An operation is said to have been performed, when any of I, II or III is performed.

1) Find the total number of operations performed by Ramesh between 10:00 AM and 8:00 PM. 63 67 64 62 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 noon to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5

4:00 PM to 8:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23

Number of operations performed by Ramesh = 18 + 17 + 5 + 23 = 63. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 63

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 2) How many times did Ramesh perform operation III between 10:00 AM and 8:00 PM? 6 5 4 3 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 noon to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23

Now all the questions can be answered. Four times between 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 300 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) At least how many times was operation II performed to remove an apple from box S and place it in box R between 10:00 AM and 8:00 PM? 1 2 3 More than 3 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 noon to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5

4:00 PM to 8:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23 Now all the questions can be answered. From 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon: 8 – (25 – 23) – (31 – 27) = 2 From 12:00 noon to 2:00 PM: 5 – (29 – 25) = 1 From 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM: 0 From 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM: 0 Therefore, the required answer = 2 + 1 = 3. Hence [3]

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 % 4) How many times did Ramesh perform operation II between 10:00 AM to 8:00 PM? 25 24 23 22 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Minimum number of times for which the operations were performed are as follows: 10:00 AM to 12:00 PM Operation I: 113 – 103 = 10 Operation II: 38 – 30 = 8 Operation III: 0 Total = 18

12:00 PM to 2:00 PM Operation I: 125 – 113 = 12 Operation II: 30 – 25 = 5 Operation III: 0 Total = 17

2:00 PM to 4:00 PM Operation I: 0 Operation II: 1 Operation III: 125 – 121 = 4 Total = 5 4:00 PM to 6:00 PM Operation I: 134 – 121 = 13 Operation II: (32 – 29) + (39 – 32) = 10 Operation III: 0 Total = 23 Now all the questions can be answered.

8 + 5 + 1 + 10 = 24 times. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 24

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are the eight professors teaching in different departments of a University. They are seated across a rectangular table on chairs, such that each longer side of the table has four chairs each. One professor belongs to the Department of Accountancy. The following points are known: 1. The professor of Sociology is seated opposite to the professor of Law. 2. A is seated opposite to the professor of Political Science. 3. The professor of History is seated second to the left of the professor of Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Economics sits opposite to D. 4. Exactly one professor is seated between the professors of Law and Humanities on the same side of the table. 5. The professor of Taxation is seated third to the right of H on the same side of the table. H is seated opposite to the professor of Humanities. 1) If G is seated second to the right of C, which of the following departments can G belong to? Law Economics History Political Science Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If G is seated second to the right of C, we get the following:

Thus G can belong to either Economics or Humanitiesdepartment. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Economics

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 401 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) If B is the only professor who is seated between F and the professor of Accountancy, which department does B belong to? Sociology Taxation Law Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If B is the only professor seated between F and the professor of Accountancy, only possibility 1 is valid. We get the following:

Therefore B belongs toDepartment of Sociology. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Sociology

Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 3) Additional information: H and the professor of History swap their seats. Which of the following statements cannot be correct? Professors of Accountancy and Law are seated next to each other. Professors of History and Accountancy are seated next to each other. Professors of Political Science and Economics are seated next to each other. Professors of History and Accountancy are seated farthest apart from each other. Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If H and the professor of History swap their seats, we get the following:

It can be seen that the professors of Political Science and Economics cannot beseated next to each other. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Professors of Political Science and Economics are seated next to each other.

Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 4) Additional information: H and the professor of History swap their seats. Which of the following statements can be correct? The professor of Accountancy is seated between the professors of History and Sociology on the same side of the table. The professor of Sociology is seated between the professors of Taxation and History on the same side of the table. The professor of Law is seated between the professors of Humanities and Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Accountancy is seated between the professors of Taxation and Economics on the same side of the table. Video Explanation: Explanation:

Using condition 2, we get the following possibilities:

Now all the questions can be answered. If H and the professor of History swap their seats, we get the following:

It can be seen that only statement [1] can be correct. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: The professor of Accountancy is seated between the professors of History and Sociology on the same side of the table.

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. RVP is a very popular multiplex in the garden city of Bangalore. It has five screens – Screen N, Screen C, Screen W, Screen B and Screen E. Five different movies – TKR, SP, TGST, PC and EQ – were screened over five consecutive days on these screens. Each movie was shown on a different screen every day. Similarly, each screen showed a different movie every day. The following points are known:

i. In all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. ii. TKR was the third movie to be screened on screen B, and it was screened after PC. iii. PC was screened on two other screens prior to W, and was screened on N immediately after it was screened on W. 1)Which movie was screened on the first day at screen C? TGST EQ PC Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screened on the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on this screen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [2] Correct Answer: EQ Time taken by you: 902 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 162 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 42 % 2)On which screen was SP screened on the fourth day? B N C

Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screened on the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on thisscreen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [1] Correct Answer: B Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) Which of the following is the correct order of screens (from first day to fifth day) on which TGST was screened? B, N, C, W, E W, E, N, C, B E, B, C, W, N Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screenedon the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on thisscreen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [3]

Correct Answer: E, B, C, W, N

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 % 4)On which screen was EQ screened immediately on the next day after it was screened on screen N? B E C Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given

It is given that in all the screens, except C, SP was screened before EQ. From this, we can say that on no other screen except C, EQ was screened on the first day and SP was screened on the fifth day. But as every movie was screened on the five screens on each day, it must be screen C on which EQ was screened on the first day and SP on the fifth day. Now, on one among the remaining four screens, EQ was screened on the second day. As on all, except screen C, SP was screened before EQ, the screen on which EQ was screened on the second day must have screened SP on the first day. On another screen, EQ was screened on the third day and on thisscreen SP was screened on the second day. Similarly, we can say that on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fourth day, SP must have been screened on the third day and on the screen on which EQ was screened on the fifth day, SP must have screened on the fourth day. From the above, we can conclude that on all other screens apart from C, SP and EQ must have been screened on consecutive days. Also, from (ii), as on screen B, PC was screened before TKR, which was screened third, PC must have been screened on the first two days. So, on screen B, SP and EQ could not have been screened on the first two days. Therefore, on screen B, SP and EQ were screened on the fourth and fifth days. Now, from the above conclusion regarding screen B, we can say thaton screen W, SP was not screened on the fourth day. Also, SP could not have been screened on the second day (according to (iii), PC was screened on the third day). Therefore, on screen W, SP must have been screened on the first day and therefore, EQ was screened on the second day. Now from the above conclusions and from (iii), we can say that on screen N, SP could not have been screened on the first day and third day. So, SP must have been screened on the second day and EQ on the third day and therefore on screen E, SP must have been screened on the third day and EQ on the fourth day. Now, on the third day, TGST must have been screened on C. PC must have been screened on C on the second day and TKR on the fourth day. TKR must have been screened on E on the second day. PC on the fifth day and TGST on the first day. On screen N, TKR must have been screened on the first day and TGST on the fifth day.On screen W, TGST and TKR have been screened on the fourth and the fifth days respectively. Finally on screen B, PC and TGST have been screened on the first two days in the given order.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence [2] Correct Answer: E Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined

undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a game named ‘Pelton wheel’, natural numbers 1 to 12 are arranged along the circumference of a circle in a way similar to the dial of a clock. In the game, the pointer is placed initially on any of the 12 numbers. In one move, a player can move the pointer by one place in the clockwise direction or in the counter-clockwise direction or move it to the diametrically opposite number on the wheel. Following are the rules of the game: 1. One round consists of three consecutive moves. The pointer has to be at different number every time in a given round. 2. Initially, a player starts with zero points. In each move of each round, a player gets certain number of points according to the rules (given below). It is possible to score negative points in a move. 3. The second and each subsequent round begins from the same number and with the same points where the previous round has ended. 4. If the pointer is moved in a clockwise direction in a move to number ‘N’, the player gets ‘N’ points in that move. 5. If the pointer is moved in a counter-clockwise direction in a move to number ‘N’, the player gets ‘N – 1’ points in that move. 6. If the pointer is moved to a diametrically opposite number ‘N’, the player gets ‘N – 2’ points in that move. 7. A player must have exactly one move in each round, wherein the pointer is moved to a diametrically opposite number. 1) What is the maximum possible score at the end of the first round if a player can select the number where he/she wants to place the pointer at the beginning of the round? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

It can be seen that the maximum score that can be obtained in the first round is 31. Therefore, the required answer is 31.

Correct Answer: 31

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 18 % 2) On which of the following positions should the pointer be placed at the beginning of the first round such that a player scores a maximum of 29 points in that round? 3 6 10 It is not possible to obtain a score of 29 in the first round Video Explanation: Explanation: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

As seen in the table developed for the answer to the first question in the set, a player should place the pointer at 6 so as to obtain a score of 29 in the first round. Hence [2]

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 3) Additional information: Suppose a player plays the game for two rounds and can decide the placement of the pointer (say at number X) at the beginning of the first round. Further: N 1 = The maximum possible score in the first round corresponding to pointer position X. N 2 = The score in the second round. What is the maximum possible value of N 1 + N 2 ? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

We can generate the following table:

Therefore, the maximum possible value of N1 + N2 is 56. Therefore, the required answer is 56.

Correct Answer: 56

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 8 % 4) Additional information: Suppose a player plays the game for two rounds and can decide the placement of the pointer (say at number X) at the beginning of the first round. Further: N 1 = The maximum possible score in the first round corresponding to pointer position X. N 2 = The score in the second round. Which of the following positions can be chosen for placing the pointer at the beginning of the first round if a player wants to maximize

the value of N1 + N 2 ? 3 4 6 8 Video Explanation: Explanation: The important point to note the following point maximization strategies: a. If a player begins a round from any number between 1 and 4 (both included), the points will be maximized by moving the pointer to a diametrically opposite number in the first move of the round and then move it in clockwise direction in the following two moves. b. If a player begins a round from 5, the points will be maximized by moving the pointer in the following order: 5 to 6 to 12 to 11 c. If a player begins a round from 6, the points will be maximized by moving the pointer in the following order: 6 to 12 to 11 to 10. Accordingly we can develop the following table of the moves in a round: We can develop the following table of the moves in a round to maximize the points in the round:

We can generate the following table:

The maximum possible score in the first two rounds can be 56. This score can be obtained if the pointer is placed at 6 or 10 at the beginning of the first round. Hence [3].

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Five cricketers – Ambrose, Botham, Chris, David and Elgar – are standing in a queue, in that order, from first to last. These five cricketers are the top five rankers not necessarily in that order, in each of three ICC competitions – A, B and C. No cricketer got the same rank in any two competitions and no two cricketers got the same rank in any competition. Further, for any cricketer, none of his ranks is the same as his position in the queue Further, it is known that: i. Ambrose got the second rank in the competition A. ii. Botham got the third rank in competition B. iii. Elgar got the first rank in competition C. iv. The sum of ranks obtained by David is 9. v. The sum of the ranks obtained by Botham is not more than that obtained by Chris. 1)

The sum of ranks obtained by Elgar is 6 7 8 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that in any competition, Ambrose did not get the first rank, Botham did not get the second rank, Chris did not get the third rank, David did not get the fourth rank and Elgar did not get the fifth rank. Therefore, David’s rank must be 1, 3 and 5 As X is less than or equal to Y, if Botham’s ranks are 3, 4, 5 then Chris’s ranks must be 3, 4, 5, which is not possible as Chris cannot get the third rank. Therefore, Botham’s ranks cannot be 3, 4 and 5. This implies that Botham got the first rank in one of the subjects. As it cannot be competitions B or C, Botham got the first rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the first rank in competition B. This implies that Chris’s ranks are 2, 4 and 5 and he got the second rank in competition C, since Ambrose, Botham, David and Elgar cannot get the second rank in competition C. Now, Chris or Elgar secured the fourth rank in competition A.Let us assume that Chris got the fourth rank in competition A, this means he got fifth rank in competition B. Therefore, Elgar got the third rank and David got the fifth rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the third rank in competition C. This implies that Elgar for the second rank in competition B and Ambrose got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, in competition C, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Let us assume that Elgar got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, Chris got the fifth rank in competition A and the fourth rank in competition B. This implies that David got the third rank in competition A and the fifth rank in competition C. Therefore, in competition B, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Elgar got the second rank. This implies in competition C, Ambrose got the third rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 566 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 2) The rank of Elgar in competition B is 4 3 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that in any competition, Ambrose did not get the first rank, Botham did not get the second rank, Chris did not get the third rank, David did not get the fourth rank and Elgar did not get the fifth rank. Therefore, David’s rank must be 1, 3 and 5 As X is less than or equal to Y, if Botham’s ranks are 3, 4, 5 then Chris’s ranks must be 3, 4, 5, which is not possible as Chris cannot get the third rank. Therefore, Botham’s ranks cannot be 3, 4 and 5. This implies that Botham got the first rank in one of the subjects. As it cannot be competitions B or C, Botham got the first rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the first rank in competition B. This implies that Chris’s ranks are 2, 4 and 5 and he got the second rank in competition C, since Ambrose, Botham, David and Elgar cannot get the second rank in competition C. Now, Chris or Elgar secured the fourth rank in competition A.Let us assume that Chris got the fourth rank in competition A, this means he got fifth rank in competition B. Therefore, Elgar got the third rank and David got the fifth rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the third rank in competition C. This implies that Elgar for the second rank in competition B and Ambrose got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, in competition C, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Let us assume that Elgar got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, Chris got the fifth rank in competition A and the fourth rank in competition B. This implies that David got the third rank in competition A and the fifth rank in competition C. Therefore, in competition B, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Elgar got the second rank. This implies in competition C, Ambrose got the third rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 % 3) What is the absolute value of the difference between the ranks of David and Elgar in Competition B? 3 2 1 Cannot be determined

Video Explanation: Explanation:

Given that in any competition, Ambrose did not get the first rank, Botham did not get the second rank, Chris did not get the third rank, David did not get the fourth rank and Elgar did not get the fifth rank. Therefore, David’s rank must be 1, 3 and 5 As X is less than or equal to Y, if Botham’s ranks are 3, 4, 5 then Chris’s ranks must be 3, 4, 5, which is not possible as Chris cannot get the third rank. Therefore, Botham’s ranks cannot be 3, 4 and 5. This implies that Botham got the first rank in one of the subjects. As it cannot be competitions B or C, Botham got the first rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the first rank in competition B. This implies that Chris’s ranks are 2, 4 and 5 and he got the second rank in competition C, since Ambrose, Botham, David and Elgar cannot get the second rank in competition C. Now, Chris or Elgar secured the fourth rank in competition A.Let us assume that Chris got the fourth rank in competition A, this means he got fifth rank in competition B. Therefore, Elgar got the third rank and David got the fifth rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the third rank in competition C. This implies that Elgar for the second rank in competition B and Ambrose got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, in competition C, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Let us assume that Elgar got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, Chris got the fifth rank in competition A and the fourth rank in competition B. This implies that David got the third rank in competition A and the fifth rank in competition C. Therefore, in competition B, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Elgar got the second rank. This implies in competition C, Ambrose got the third rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 % 4) If the sum of ranks obtained by two cricketers is the same, then which of the following statements is definitely true? Ambrose got the fifth rank in competition C. David got the fifth rank in competition A. Both of the above None of the above Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that in any competition, Ambrose did not get the first rank, Botham did not get the second rank, Chris did not get the third rank, David did not get the fourth rank and Elgar did not get the fifth rank. Therefore, David’s rank must be 1, 3 and 5 As X is less than or equal to Y, if Botham’s ranks are 3, 4, 5 then Chris’s ranks must be 3, 4, 5, which is not possible as Chris cannot get the third rank. Therefore, Botham’s ranks cannot be 3, 4 and 5. This implies that Botham got the first rank in one of the subjects. As it cannot be competitions B or C, Botham got the first rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the first rank in competition B. This implies that Chris’s ranks are 2, 4 and 5 and he got the second rank in competition C, since Ambrose, Botham, David and Elgar cannot get the second rank in competition C. Now, Chris or Elgar secured the fourth rank in competition A.Let us assume that Chris got the fourth rank in competition A, this means he got fifth rank in competition B. Therefore, Elgar got the third rank and David got the fifth rank in competition A. Therefore, David got the third rank in competition C. This implies that Elgar for the second rank in competition B and Ambrose got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, in competition C, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Let us assume that Elgar got the fourth rank in competition B. Therefore, Chris got the fifth rank in competition A and the fourth rank in competition B. This implies that David got the third rank in competition A and the fifth rank in competition C. Therefore, in competition B, Ambrose got the fifth rank and Elgar got the second rank. This implies in competition C, Ambrose got the third rank and Botham got the fourth rank.

Now all the questions can be answered. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both of the above

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs

% Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined Classic Antiques employs male and female workers to create designer pots for their stores. 5 males and 3 females can create as many pots in 4 days as 3 males and 3 females in 5 days. If one man and one woman work together and complete an assignment of creating 400 pots in 50 days, then how many pots can be created by 6 males and 2 females in 7 days? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 196 Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined While working alone, A can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B in 15 days and C in 20 days. Initially, all the three started working together but C left midway. The remaining work was completed by A and B together. If the entire work was completed in 6 days, then after how many days did C leave? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined What is the minimum value of the function f(x) = (x – 3) 2 + (5 – x)2 ? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: f(x) = (x – 3)2 + (5 – x)2 = x2 – 6x + 9 + 25 – 10x + x2 = 2x2 – 16x + 34 = 2(x2 – 8x + 17) = 2(x2 – 8x + 16 + 1) = 2[(x – 4)2 + 1] The minimum value of this function will be at x = 4 and the minimum value = 2 × 1 = 2. Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined The lengths of the medians of an isosceles triangle are 6, 4.5 and 4.5. Find the area of the triangle (in sq. units).

10

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The compound interest (compounded annually) at a certain rate on a certain principal for 2 years is same as the simple interest at the same rate for 4 years on the same principal. Find the rate of interest per annum. 100% 125% 150% 200%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 200% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined

1:2

1:4

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1:2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Anjum and Divyansh live in cities Deepapur and Armapur respectively. Deepapur is on a higher elevation than Armapur. Due to this, whenever someone drives from Deepapur towards Armapur, their driving speed becomes 10% more than their speed on plain ground. Also, whenever someone drives from Armapur towards Deepapur, their driving speed becomes 10% less than their speed on plain ground. Anjum and Divyansh simultaneously start driving from their respective cities towards the other city. When they reach the other city, they immediately turn back and return to their own cities. When they reach their own cities, they immediately turn back towards the other city and meet exactly at the midpoint between the two cities. What is the ratio of the speeds of Anjum and Divyansh on plain ground? 9 : 11 29 : 31 39 : 41 49 : 51

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 49 : 51 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 %

undefined Class 10 of a school has 2 sections, namely section A and section B. Each section has students in either Red house or Blue house. The number of students in Red and Blue houses of sections A and B are in the ratio 4 : 1 and 9 : 1 respectively. If 3 students from section A’s red house are transferred to section B’s blue house and 3 students from section B’s red house are transferred to section A’s blue house, then the ratio of the number of students in Red and Blue houses of both the sections A and B becomes 3 : 2. What is the total number of students in class 10?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined There are 15 baskets of apples and some baskets of oranges. Each basket has only one kind of fruit. All the children of Shishuvan School came and took some apples and oranges from the respective baskets. The number of students taking apples from each basket is 6 and the number of students taking oranges from each basket is 8. Also, each child took apples from exactly 5 baskets and oranges from exactly 4 baskets. How many baskets of orange were there? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Number of times apples were picked = 15 × 6 = 90 Each child took apples from exactly 5 baskets. Therefore, the total number of children = 90 ÷ 5 = 18 Let the number of baskets of orange be ‘n’.

Therefore, the number of times oranges were picked = n × 8 Each child took oranges from exactly 4 baskets. Therefore, n × 8 = 18 × 4. Therefore, n = 9 Therefore, the required answer is 9. Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 %

undefined Gajodhar sells milk after adulterating X litres of pure milk with 0.5 litres of tap water. If he sold milk after adulterating X litres of pure milk with 0.5 litres of mineral water instead, his profit would reduce by 20%. What is the cost of pure milk per litre? (The cost of mineral water is Rs. 12 per litre and tap water comes for free. Gajodhar always sells at cost price.) Rs. 30 Rs. 60 Rs. 45 More information is needed to answer the question

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 60 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined

By what minimum distance should the point (1, 3) be shifted so that it is collinear with the points (–7, –1) and (–3, 3)? 2 units

3 units

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 98 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined

1 –1 m+n mn

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined In how many points do the line y = 2 and the curve y = |x 2 – 6x + 6| meet? 2 3 4 5

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined Five politicians – A, B, C, D & E – contested the elections. The number of votes earned by A, C and E are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The number of votes earned by B, C and D are in the ratio 1 : 5 : 2. If 10% of the total votes were to candidates other than these five, then

what percentage of the total votes was won by C? 10% 15% 25% 35%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 126 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined Radii OA and OB divide the circle into two sectors with central angles 60° and 300°. Find the ratio of the areas of the largest circles that can be fitted inside each of the two sectors.

1:2 1:5 1:3 4:9

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4:9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 23 %

undefined

Here, min [a, b] refers to the minimum value between a and b. Which of the following will have the highest value? f(500, 350) f(1000, 700)

f(2000, 1950) f(4000, 3950)

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: f(500, 350) = f(150, 350) = f(200, 150) = f(50, 150) = f(100, 50) = f(50, 50) = 100 f(1000, 700) = f(300, 700) = f(300, 400) = f(100, 300) = f(200, 100) = f(100, 100) = 200 f(2000, 1950) = f(50, 1950) = f(1900, 50) = f(1850, 50) = … = f(100, 50) = f(50, 50) = 100 f(4000, 3950) = f(50, 3950) = f(3900, 50) = … = f(100, 50) = f(50, 50) = 100 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: f(1000, 700) Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 140 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined It takes 18 minutes to paint the outer surface of a cube. This cube is cut into 216 smaller identical cubes. All these 216 smaller cubes are separated into three groups such that in each group, all the cubes can be glued together to form an individual larger cube. How much total time (in minutes) will it take to paint the outer surface of all the three new cubes? 20 27 30 25

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 32 %

undefined The average of the first ‘3m’ natural numbers is ‘x’. What will be the average of the first ‘5m’ natural numbers?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 106 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined If (b + c)2 – 2a(b + c) + a2 = 0, then which of the following is true? a=b+c b=a+c c=a+b None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: (b + c)2 – 2a(b + c) + a2 = 0 b2 + c2 + 2bc – 2ab – 2ac + a2 = 0 (a – b – c)2 = 0 a=b+c Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: a=b+c Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined If log2 3 = 1.58, then find the approximate value of log 48 72. 1.1 1.2 1.4 1.5

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1.1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined The sum of the roots of the equation x 2 – 16|x| + 55 = 0 is ____. 0 16 32 –16

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If x = 0, the equation becomes x 2 – 16x + 55 = 0. Therefore, (x – 5)(x – 11) = 0 Therefore, the roots in this case are 5 & 11. If x < 0, the equation becomes x 2 + 16x + 55 = 0. Therefore, (x + 5)(x + 11) = 0 Therefore, the roots in this case are –5 & –11. Required sum of roots = 5 + 11 – 5 – 11 = 0 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined A rectangle with perimeter 36 cm is such that it can be divided into squares with each side equal to 2 cm. Find the maximum possible area of such a rectangle. 56 cm 2 64 cm 2 72 cm 2 80 cm 2 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be ‘l’ cm and ‘b’ cm respectively. Therefore, 2(l + b) = 36 Therefore, l + b = 18 Now, l and b have to be even numbers for the rectangle to be divided into squares with side 2 cm. Therefore, all possible pairs of l and b (in no particular order) are (16, 2), (14, 4), (12, 6) and (10, 8). Therefore, the maximum possible area is 10 × 8 = 80 cm2. Hence, [4]

Correct Answer: 80 cm 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

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x3

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined If 2 × 25x + 3 × 52x = 0.008, then find x. –2 –1 1 2

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Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined If x, y > 0 and 3x2 + 5y2 = 10, then find the maximum value of 125x 4 y6 . 144 288 384 768

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Correct Answer: 384 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined How many of the first 1000 natural numbers contain at least one odd digit? 875 872 876 880

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Explanation:

Let’s calculate the number of natural numbers up to 1000 that do not contain any odd digit. Single-digit numbers include 2, 4, 6 and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 Two-digit numbers will have digits 0, 2, 4, 6, and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 × 5 = 20 Three-digit numbers will have digits 0, 2, 4, 6, and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 × 5 × 5 = 100 Total numbers = 4 + 20 + 100 = 124 Therefore, the number of natural numbers up to 1000 that contain at least one odd digit Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 876 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

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7:3 7:4 7:2

= 1000 – 124 = 876

7:1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Let’s calculate the number of natural numbers up to 1000 that do not contain any odd digit. Single-digit numbers include 2, 4, 6 and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 Two-digit numbers will have digits 0, 2, 4, 6, and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 × 5 = 20 Three-digit numbers will have digits 0, 2, 4, 6, and 8. Total possible numbers = 4 × 5 × 5 = 100 Total numbers = 4 + 20 + 100 = 124 Therefore, the number of natural numbers up to 1000 that contain at least one odd digit Hence, [3].

= 1000 – 124 = 876

Correct Answer: 876 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined A container contains a total of 160 ml of a solution of alcohol, acid and water such that the volumes (in ml) of these three liquids in the container are in AP in that order. 100 ml of acid-water solution is added into this container such that the volumes of the three liquids are still in AP in the same order. What is the concentration of the acid-water solution that was added? 16.67% 33.33% 50% Insufficient data

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Explanation:

Let the volumes of alcohol, acid and water initially be ‘a – d’, ‘a’ and ‘a + d’ ml respectively. Let the concentration of acid solution be p%. Therefore, 100 ml of acid solution has ‘p’ ml acid and ‘100 – p’ ml water. Now, when the acid solution is added to the container, then the volumes of alcohol, acid and water will become ‘a – d’, ‘a + p’ and ‘a + d + 100 – p’ respectively. Since they are also in AP, we have (a + p) – (a – d) = (a + d + 100 – p) – (a + p) Therefore, p + d = d + 100 – 2p Therefore, p = 33.33% Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 33.33% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

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20% 22% 25% 30%

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Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 125 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined Arfa’s expenses are 20% of the income of Ben. Arfa’s savings are 40% of her income. By what percentage is Ben’s income more than Arfa’s? 50% 100% 150% 200%

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Explanation: Let the incomes of Arfa and Ben be Rs. A and Rs. B respectively. Arfa’s savings are Rs. 0.4A and her expenses are Rs. 0.6A. 0.6A = 0.2B B = 3A Ben’s income is 200% more than Arfa’s income. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 200% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

undefined A numerical lock can be opened using the code 2542 or any possible combination of these four digits (2, 5, 4 and 2). Pratik used all possible incorrect combinations on the 4-digit lock before finally opening the lock at the next attempt. How many total attempts did he make? The digits available on the lock are from 0 to 6. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Since there are 7 digits (0-6) available, the total number of combinations will be 74 = 2401. Out of these, the number of combinations that will open the lock will be all possible combinations of 2, 5, 4 and 2, that is, 12. Therefore, the number of incorrect combinations is 2401 – 12 = 2389. Therefore, Pratik made 2390 attempts. Therefore, the required answer is 2390.

Correct Answer: 2390 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 5 %

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Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined Starting from 180, every natural number that follows the series 180, 187, 194 … is selected such that the final number selected does not exceed 980. What is the sum of the last 50 numbers of this series? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 40325 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined A shopkeeper sells rice after marking up the price by 55.55% per kg. During Christmas, he wants to offer 10 kg of rice free to any customer who buys more than a certain quantity of rice. What should be the least value of the quantity bought (ordered for) by a customer so that the shopkeeper does not suffer any loss? 15 kg 18 kg 20 kg 22.5 kg

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18 kg

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 164 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. It is our misfortune to live through the largest increase in expressive capability in the history of the human race – a misfortune because surplus is always more dangerous than scarcity. Scarcity means that valuable things become more valuable, a conceptually easy change to integrate. Surplus means that previously valuable things stop being valuable, which upsets and confuses people. To make a historical analogy with the last major spread of new publishing technology: you could earn a living in 1500 simply by knowing how to read and write. The spread of those abilities in the subsequent century had the curious property of making literacy both more essential and less professional; literacy became critical at the same time as the scribes lost their jobs. The same thing is happening with publishing due to the Internet. In the twentieth century, the mere fact of owning the apparatus to make something public – whether a printing press or a TV tower – made you a person of considerable importance. Today, though, publishing, in the sense of making things public, is becoming similarly deprofessionalized. YouTube is now in the position of having to stop eightyear-olds from becoming global publishers of video. The mere fact of being able to publish to a global audience is the new literacy – formerly valuable, now so widely available that you can’t make any money with the basic capability anymore. So it falls to us to make sure that that isn’t the only consequence. The twentieth-century model of publishing is inadequate to the kind of sharing possible today. As we know from Wikipedia, post hoc peer review can support astonishing creations of shared value. As we know from the search for Mersenne primes, whole branches of mathematical exploration are now best taken on by groups. As we know from open-source efforts such as Linux, collaboration between loosely joined parties can work at scales and over time frames previously unimagined. As we know from NASA clickworkers, groups of amateurs can sometimes replace single experts. As we know from www.patientslikeme.com, patient involvement accelerates medical research. And so on. The beneficiaries of the system in which making things public was a privileged activity – academics, politicians, reporters, doctors – will complain about the way the new abundance of public thought upends the old order, but those complaints are like keening at a wake: the change they are protesting is already in the past. The real action is elsewhere. The Internet’s primary effect on how we think will reveal itself only when it affects the cultural milieu of thought, not just the behaviour of individual users. We will not live to see what use humanity makes of a medium for sharing that is cheap, instant and global (both in the sense of ‘comes from everyone’ and in the sense of ‘goes everywhere’). We are, however, the people who are setting the earliest patterns for this medium. Our fate won’t matter much, but the norms we set will. 1) The author likens the effect of the Internet to that of the spread of literacy after 1500 in order to show that: Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals. Publishing as a profession is considered less important. Publishing is no longer a valuable skill in today’s world. The medium of publication is no longer vital for publishing. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is correct. Refer to the last sentence of paragraph 2 and the first sentence of paragraph 3: ‘The spread of those abilities in the subsequent century had the curious property of making literacy both more essential and less professional ... The same thing is happening with publishing due to the Internet.’ Thus, the author likens the publishing capabilities granted by the Internet with the spread of literacy, in order to show that both these led to the capabilities that had previously rested with professionals (publishing and literacy respectively) being spread among everybody. Retain option [1]. Option [2] is incorrect. The spread of literacy made it more important, not less, and the same can be inferred about publishing. Option [2] is thus ruled out. Option [3] can be rejected on the same grounds as option [2]. Option [4] is incorrect. The passage does not comment on the medium of publishing. So option [4] can be eliminated. . Hence, the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals.

Time taken by you: 280 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 49 % 2) The word ‘publishing’ is used in this passage primarily to refer to: Submitting content online. Making content widely known or available. Preparing content for sale to the public. Issuing printed material for sale or distribution. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is easy. Option [1] is an incomplete answer – while the passage undoubtedly refers to publishing in this sense, especially in the context of the Internet, it also talks about older methods of publishing, such as ‘a printing press or a TV tower’. So option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is correct. In paragraph 3, the author clarifies that he is referring to publishing ‘in the sense of making things public’, irrespective of medium. Option [2] refers to this broad sense of the word ‘publishing’, and so must be retained. Option [3] is incorrect. A major point of the passage is that people can no longer make money through publishing, so a definition like option [3], which involves selling content, cannot be correct. Option [4] is incorrect on the same grounds as both option [1] and [3] – it restricts itself to a specific medium (print) and involves sale. So option [4] is also rejected. Thus, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Making content widely known or available.

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 3) All of the following are kinds of sharing made possible by the Internet, EXCEPT: Groups of amateurs replacing single experts. Patient involvement speeding up medical research. Groups taking on whole branches of mathematical exploration. Creations of shared value made without peer review. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is an easy one. Option [1] is stated to be one of the kinds of sharing made possible by the Internet in paragraph 5 (in reference to NASA clickworkers), so it cannot be the answer. Option [2] can be ruled out on the same grounds – it is stated in paragraph 5 (in reference to www.patientslikeme.com). Option [3] is similarly ruled out, as it is also stated in paragraph 5 (in reference to the search for Mersenne primes). Option [4] is correct, as it is not stated in the passage. According to paragraph 5, ‘post hoc peer review can support astonishing creations of shared value’ in reference to Wikipedia, but option [4] talks about creations made without peer review. Thus, the right answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Creations of shared value made without peer review.

Time taken by you: 79 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 82 % 4) The author considers the current spread of publishing technology to be a ‘misfortune’ because: People are no longer able to make money out of owning publishing technology. A number of people will lose their jobs when their skills become too widely available. Publishing is now in the hands of amateurs instead of professionals who know what they are doing. People have difficulty dealing with the idea of valuable things no longer being valuable. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option [1] is incorrect. While it is factually correct, the author does not seem to consider it a bad thing, and in fact compares it to the spread and deprofessionalisation of literacy in the 16th century. So option [1] is ruled out. Option [2] is not mentioned in the passage. The author mentions scribes losing their jobs when literacy became widespread, but makes no mention of people in the publishing industry losing theirs. So option [2] can be rejected as well. Option [3] can be dismissed instantly, as nothing of that sort is mentioned in the passage. Option [4] is correct. Refer to the first paragraph: ‘It is our misfortune to live through the largest increase in expressive capability in the history of the human race – a misfortune because surplus is always more dangerous than scarcity ... Surplus means that previously valuable things stop being valuable, which upsets and confuses people.’ The author’s point in calling the current spread of publishing technology a ‘misfortune’, therefore, is not that it is a bad thing in itself, but rather that people have difficulty coping with this change. Therefore, option [4] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: People have difficulty dealing with the idea of valuable things no longer being valuable.

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 % 5) In the penultimate paragraph the writer says that complaining about the easy sharing of information is futile. He believes it to be a futile exercise because? This trend is unlikely to be reversed in the foreseeable long run One can only wait and see if the assumed damage from a change is real or imagined The results of this change can only be evaluated after a generation or more The beneficiaries of an earlier system will naturally complain about its end Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer does not see it as reversible at all. Hence one cannot say that the reason he believes the complaints to be futile is because he does not think that the trend will be reversed in the “foreseeable” long run. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The writer does not believe that the impact of the change can be evaluated by the current generation, which he says will not be alive to make the evaluation. Therefore, reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. Refer to the penultimate paragraph: ‘“……the change they are protesting is already in the past. The real action is elsewhere. The Internet’s primary effect on how we think will reveal itself only when it affects the cultural milieu of thought, not just the behaviour of individual users. We will not live to see what use humanity makes of a medium for sharing that is cheap, instant and global”. Thus according to the writer, it is futile to complain because the results of the change can be seen only after a generation or more”Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer says that the complaining is futile because we will not live to see its impact. He does not say that it is futile because it is natural for the beneficiaries of an earlier system to complain. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The results of this change can only be evaluated after a generation or more

Time taken by you: 196 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 % 6) According to the passage, the Internet is: A great misfortune, as it upends our views regarding publishing. Changing how we think and how we disseminate those thoughts. Revolutionizing the way information is shared. As much of a boon to the modern world as the spread of literacy was in the 16 th century. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. It is a ‘main idea’ type question. Option [1] is incorrect. While the author does begin by calling the increase in expressive capacity made possible by the Internet a ‘misfortune’, this is only because people have a difficulty dealing with the idea of surplus. This is not the author’s own opinion regarding the Internet, and nor is it the main point he is making regarding it. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is only partially correct. While the second half is correct, the first half is not: in the last paragraph, the author says that the Internet has the potential to change how we think, but does not suggest that this change is already in progress. So option [2] is ruled out. Option [3] is correct. Throughout the passage, the author praises the Internet’s capacity for allowing anyone to share anything with anyone else. He also points out that the Internet makes it possible to share information in new ways: see paragraph 5 – ‘The twentieth-century model of publishing is inadequate to the kind of sharing possible today’ – and the numerous examples mentioned in that paragraph. So option [3] must be retained. Option [4] is incorrect. The comparison of the Internet to the spread of literacy is merely an analogy used by the author to drive home his point; it is not the main point of the passage. So option [4] can be ruled out. Hence, the right answer is option [3]. Correct Answer: Revolutionizing the way information is shared. Time taken by you: 39 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. In the 1930s, Niko Tinbergen and David Lack began pioneering the systematic, scholarly observation of individual animals. In his bestselling The Life of the Robin (1943), Lack argued that in order to study animal life you had to know the animals individually. Colour-coded rings on the legs of each robin meant that the daily observations of individual birds could accumulate into individual histories, enabling Lack to set present-day behaviour in the context of past events. Similarly, in Curious Naturalists (1958) Tinbergen used coloured dots to identify individual wasps on the sands of Hulshorst in the Netherlands. These two men, founders in the fields of ethology and ecology, realized that individual identification was the first stage in adopting the animal perspective and exploring the lived consciousness of other species. Rather than using human experiences – that sense of selfconscious subjectivity – as their yardstick, they focused instead on individual animal behaviour as it occurred within the environment in which it had evolved. In many ways, they took the first steps towards being able to see what it might mean to be an animal. Tinbergen and Lack (among others) were critical of both field scientists who indulged in lazy anthropomorphism, and those who insisted on setting up ‘artificial standards of simplicity’. In particular, they objected to the dismissal of any apparently sophisticated animal action as ‘instinctive’. Such behaviour needed to be investigated, not marginalized: what was instinct, after all? At the same time, they argued that assuming parity between animal and human mental processes was not just wrong, but foolish. Lack was clear that speculating about an animal’s emotional state could provide valuable clues to guide future study, but one should never presume that a bird feels or perceives in the same way as a human. Lack demonstrated the point with great elegance using a stuffed robin. This was presented to individual birds to see how they would respond to a stranger’s presence; since the ornament itself never changed, it could, argued Lack, be used as a means of objectively testing robin personality or temperament. One day, however, it did change – fatally. An ‘exceptionally violent hen robin attacked [it] so strongly

that she removed his head. For a moment, the bird seemed rather startled, but then continued to attack … as violently as before.’ Further investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke a brutal response that might continue even after the feathers’ complete disappearance. Lack wrote: ‘We tend to think that, clothed in a robin’s body, but retaining a human mind, we would do much the same things in much the same way … We tend to assume that the world the robin sees is much like the world which we see. Suitable experiments show how false this impression is. Even the empty air can contain a rival to be destroyed.’ Tinbergen and others agreed: while their aim was to see the world with animal eyes, they worked with the caveat that animal mentalities were neither similar to nor less than those of humans. They were, instead, different – and different animals possessed different minds, often prioritizing different senses. No matter how hard a human tried to see through animal eyes, they would find it impossible to figure out how a pig’s biography would smell. 1) What is the central idea of this passage? In order to study animal mentalities, it is important to observe individual animals’ behaviour, and not compare them to human mentalities. In order to figure out how animals think, it is important to study their behaviour in their natural surroundings, and keep in mind that they use different senses than humans. Animals think differently than humans do, as they use different senses, so it is important not to stick to human criteria when trying to understand them. Animals do not think in the same way that humans do, so it is impossible for humans to understand how an animal’s mind works. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. It is a ‘main idea’ type question. Option [1] is correct. This passage is primarily about two scientists’ (Tinbergen and Lack) attempts to understand how animals think, by observing individual animals. They emphasize that animal minds work differently from humans, so it is important not to conflate the two: ‘animalmentalities were neither similar to nor less than those of humans. They were, instead, different’. Retain option [1]. Option [2] is not quite correct, as it does not include the vital point that animals think differently from humans. Option [2] can therefore be rejected. Option [3] is incomplete, as it fails to mention the point about observing animal behaviour, which forms an important aspect of this passage, and of Tinbergen and Lack’s work. So option [3] can be negated. Option [4] is incorrect as well. Not only does it not mention the point about observing animal behaviour, but it is also too negative in suggesting that humans can never understand an animal’s mind. So option [4] can be ruled out as well. Hence, the right answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: In order to study animal mentalities, it is important to observe individual animals’ behaviour, and not compare them to human mentalities.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 2) Which of the following is true about David Lack, as per this passage? He observed individual birds and wasps daily. He considered speculating about animals’ emotional states to be futile. He believed that animal behaviour could be explained by instincts. He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect. According to the first paragraph, David Lack observed robins (which is also borne out by the experiments described in paragraph 4), while Niko Tinbergen observed wasps. So option [1] is false. Option [2] is incorrect as well. In paragraph 3, it is stated that Lack believed that ‘speculating about an animal’s emotional state could provide valuable clues to guide future study’. So option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is also incorrect. In paragraph 3, it is stated that Tinbergen and Lack criticized scientists who dismissed animal behaviour as ‘instinctive’. He questioned the meaning of “instinct” implying that instinct was essentially a human concept or experience. So option [3] is rejected. Option [4] is correct. See paragraph 1: ‘In the 1930s, Niko Tinbergen and David Lack began pioneering the systematic, scholarly observation of individual animals.’ We can therefore conclude that he did pioneer the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour. Option 4 should be retained. Thus, option [4] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.

Time taken by you: 154 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) What does Lack mean when he says ‘Even the empty air can contain a rival to be destroyed’? Robins attack potential rivals violently, continuing to attack them even after they behead them. Robins can see potential rivals in just a tuft of feathers and where none exists to the human eye. Robins are violent birds who attack and destroy any potential rivals, including stuffed birds and tufts of feathers. Robins tend to attack both real and imaginary potential rivals with extreme ferocity and violence. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is not quite correct. It refers to the first experiment mentioned in paragraph 4 (in which a robin beheaded a stuffed bird), whereas Lack’s quote is regarding the second experiment (in which robins attack tufts of feathers). So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is correct. Refer to paragraph 4 – Lack’s quote is in response to this experiment involving robins: ‘Further investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke a brutal response that might continue even after the feathers’ complete disappearance.’ “… We tend to assume that the world the robin sees is much like the world which we see” – the implication is that animal perception is completely different from that of the human. Retain option [2]. Option [3] is incorrect. It goes a little too far in calling robins ‘violent birds’, while the passage merely describes their behaviour, in specific circumstances, without ascribing any qualities to them. So option [3] is ruled out. Option [4] is incorrect as well. The passage does not mention any instance of robins attacking real rivals, and mentions the fictitious ones as an example of how animal mentalities cannot be compared to human mentalities. Thus the hypothetical comparison in the option is baseless. . Option [4] is thus negated. Hence, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Robins can see potential rivals in just a tuft of feathers and where none exists to the human eye.

Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) Tinbergen and Lack criticized field scientists who called any animal behaviour ‘instinctive’, because:

Both of them deemed that such behaviour should be investigated rather than dismissed as ‘instinctive’. They felt that these scientists failed to recognize the importance of instinct in animal behaviour. They thought that these scientists did not realize how animal behaviour could be understood on human behaviour. The duo believed that this resulted in ignoring the importance of animals’ emotional states. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option [1] is correct. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘they objected to the dismissal of any apparently sophisticated animal action as “instinctive”. Such behaviour needed to be investigated, not marginalized: what was instinct, after all?’ Thus, the two felt that scientists were assuming an understanding of the situation by labelling behaviour as “instinctive” when they should have further investigated the behaviour. Retain option [1]. Option [2] has no basis in the passage, so it can be dismissed immediately. Option [3] is incorrect It is contrary to the passage. The two scientists were against interpreting or trying to understand animal behaviour on the basis of human behaviour or anthropomorphism. So, option [3] can be eliminated. . Option [4] is a misinterpretation of another point made in paragraph 3; it has no connection to the ‘instinct’ issue either. So option [4] can be rejected as well. Thus, the right answer is option [1].

Correct Answer: Both of them deemed that such behaviour should be investigated rather than dismissed as ‘instinctive’.

Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 5) What is the incident with the stuffed robin meant to show? Robins cannot distinguish between a live rival bird and a stuffed ornament. Robins will react with brutal violence to a supposed stranger’s presence. Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human. Certain individual robins can display a surprisingly violent temperament. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Refer to paragraph 4, in which David Lack’s experiment with a female robin’s reaction to a stuffed robin is described. Option [1] is incorrect, as it is an overly simplistic and rather negative reading of the incident. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is an incomplete answer – while it is a true description of the behaviour of the female robin who beheaded the stuffed one, it is not true that this is the usual and expected behaviour for robins, with all strangers. a Such a conclusion cannot be derived from that incident. So option [2] can be ruled out as well. Option [3] is correct. The female robin continued to attack the stuffed one even after she had beheaded it. Further investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke the same behaviour… and even after the disappearance of the feathers… We tend to think that, clothed in a robin’s body, but retaining a human mind, we would do much the same things in much the same way’. He then concludes in the last paragraph that no matter how hard a human tried to see through animal eyes… they would find it impossible to figure out how a pig’s biography would smell.” Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incorrect. Though the experiment was meant as a way of gauging individual robins’ temperaments, the purpose of the experiment was to find out what the behaviour would be and why. Thus option [4] option 4 does not explain the experiment’s purpose. Eliminate option 4. Therefore, the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human.

Time taken by you: 85 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 % 6) The reference to ‘how a pig’s biography would smell’ is meant to indicate that: Pigs are known to think about the world around them in terms of smell. Animals experience the world through different kinds of senses unknown to humans. Not all animals have a good sense of vision, so they have to focus on their other senses. Human beings should not just try to see through animals’ eyes, but through their other senses as well.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The starting point for understanding inequality in the context of human progress is to recognize that income equality is not a fundamental component of well-being. It is not like health, prosperity, knowledge, safety, peace and the other areas of progress. The reason is captured in an old joke from the Soviet Union. Igor and Boris are both dirt-poor peasants, barely able to feed their families. The only difference between them is that Boris owns a scrawny goat. One day a fairy appears to Igor and grants him a wish. Igor says, ‘I wish that Boris’s goat would die.’ The point of the joke, of course, is that the two peasants have become more equal but that neither is better off, aside from Igor’s indulging his spiteful envy. The point is made with greater nuance by the philosopher Harry Frankfurt in his book On Inequality. Frankfurt argues that inequality itself is not morally objectionable; what is objectionable is poverty. If a person lives a long, healthy, pleasurable and stimulating life, then how much money his neighbours earn, how big their house is, and how many cars they drive are morally irrelevant. Frankfurt writes, ‘From the point of view of morality, it is not important everyone should have the same. What is morally important is that each should have enough.’ Indeed, a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one. The confusion of inequality with poverty comes straight out of the lump fallacy – the mindset in which wealth is a finite resource, like an antelope carcass, which has to be divvied up in zero-sum fashion, so that if some people end up with more, others must have less. But wealth is not like that: since the Industrial Revolution, it has expanded exponentially. That means that when the rich get richer, the poor can get richer, too. Even experts repeat the lump fallacy, presumably out of rhetorical zeal rather than conceptual confusion. Thomas Piketty, whose bestseller Capital in the Twenty-First Century became a talisman in the uproar over inequality, wrote, ‘The poorer half of the population are as poor today as they were in the past, with barely 5 per cent of total wealth in 2010, just as in 1910.’ But total wealth today is vastly greater than it was in 1910, so if the poorer half own the same proportion, they are far richer, not ‘as poor’. A more damaging consequence of the lump fallacy is the belief that if some people get richer, they must have stolen more than their share from everyone else. The following illustration shows why this is wrong. Among the world’s billionaires is J. K. Rowling, author of the Harry Potter novels, which were also made into movies. Suppose that a billion people have handed over $10 each for the pleasure of a Harry Potter paperback or movie ticket, with a tenth of the proceeds going to Rowling. She has become a billionaire, increasing inequality, but she has made people better off, not worse off (which is not to say that every rich person has made people better off). This doesn’t mean that Rowling’s wealth is just deserts for her effort or skill; no committee ever judged that she deserved to be that rich. Her wealth arose as a by-product of the voluntary decisions of billions of book buyers and moviegoers. 1) The author uses the joke about the Soviet peasants to show all these EXCEPT: Inequality leads people to destructive acts.

Poverty is morally objectionable. Inequality in itself is not morally objectionable. Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. The joke in brief is this: Igor and Boris are both dirt-poor peasants. In other words they were equal and poor. However there was a degree of inequality between them because Boris owned a scrawny goat which Igor did not – in this respect they was inequality between them (poverty being constant) Igor’s wish to the fairy is that Boris’s goat would die. “The point of the joke, of course, is that the two peasants have become more equal but that neither is better off, aside from Igor’s indulging his spiteful envy.” This makes option 1 correct, that inequality and (not poverty) leads people to destructive acts. Also, the end of the second paragraph we find, “Indeed, a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one.” Eliminate option 1 as it is not an exception. The writer continues the explanation of the joke in the second paragraph, “The point of the joke … is made with greater nuance by the philosopher Harry Frankfurt in his book On Inequality. Frankfurt argues that inequality itself is not morally objectionable; what is objectionable is poverty. This makes option 2 correct and not an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct: The explanation of the joke from the morality perspective is continued in the second paragraph. “If a person lives a long, healthy, pleasurable and stimulating life, then how much money his neighbours earn, how big their house is, and how many cars they drive are morally irrelevant. Frankfurt writes, ‘From the point of view of morality, it is not important everyone should have the same. This makes option 3 correct and not an objection. Option 4 is correct. It is an exception. It is at best data inadequate, as the passage does not contain any information about the economic conditions in the Soviet Union. Hence the correct answer is option [4]

Correct Answer: Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union.

Time taken by you: 233 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 232 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 78 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following is true? In equality is morally and economically objectionable. Economic inequality breeds envy and hence to violence. Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being. Economic inequality is a result of the lump fallacy. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph states that philosopher Harry Frankfurt does not find inequality morally objectionable. The end of the second paragraph the writer comments that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive.’ However, the third paragraph the objection to economic inequality arises from the lump fallacy and accepts the fact that ‘when the rich get richer, the poor can get richer too. Writer finds this natural and not objectionable. Thus option 1 which states the contrary is incorrect. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive’ – however, the option translates this destructiveness as necessarily leading to envy and violence, which is somewhat far-fetched – a possibility is expressed as something that generally occurs. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The first sentence of the passage states this explicitly.” The starting point for understanding inequality in the context of human progress is to recognize that income equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.” Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The third paragraph states that the “the confusion of inequality with poverty comes straight out of the lump fallacy. The passage does nto dicuss the casues of economic inequality. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.

Time taken by you: 120 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 3) Why, according to the author, is Thomas Piketty’s reasoning incorrect? Piketty wrongly states that the poor own the same per cent of total wealth in 2010 as they did in 1910. Piketty fails to take into consideration the fact that total wealth has increased greatly over the past century. Piketty fails to take into account the large number of people who have become richer following the Industrial Revolution. Piketty is confused regarding the concept of the lump fallacy, and believes that if some people get richer, others get poorer. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3. The author does not disagree with Piketty’s factual statement that the poor half of the population own only 5 percent of the wealth in 2010, just as they did in 1910. So option [1] is ruled out. Option [2] is correct. According to the author, Piketty is repeating the lump fallacy, which suggests that wealth is a finite resource; so his reasoning is incorrect, in that he does not acknowledge that wealth has increased greatly in the past century: ‘But total wealth today is vastly greater than it was in 1910, so if the poorer half own the same proportion, they are far richer, not “as poor”.’ Retain option [2]. Option [3] is ambiguous, as it does not specify whether poor people got richer (which would cast doubt on Piketty’s views), or alreadyrich people got richer (which would support his views). So option [3] is not a suitable answer. Option [4] is incorrect as well. While the author does accuse Piketty of repeating the lump fallacy, he suggests that this is not the result of ‘conceptual confusion’ on Piketty’s part, but rather ‘rhetorical zeal’. So option [4] is rejected. Thus, the right answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Piketty fails to take into consideration the fact that total wealth has increased greatly over the past century.

Time taken by you: 37 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) What does the author imply by saying in paragraph 2 that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into

killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one’? Trying to reduce inequality is likely to be pointless in the long run. Trying to ameliorate inequality could become counterproductive. Ameliorating inequality could lead to undesirable consequences. Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [1] is too negative. Nowhere in the passage does the author suggest that trying to reduce inequality is or will be pointless. So option [1] can be dismissed at once. Option [2] is not quite correct, because of the word ‘counterproductive’ – it is not clear how trying to ameliorate inequality would result in an increase in inequality. So option [2] can be ruled out as well. Option [3] is incorrect as well. The author urges the amelioration of inequality by eradicating poverty and does not mention any undesirable consequences of ameliorating inequality. . So option [3] is rejected. Option [4] is correct. In the joke the author is referring to, inequality between Boris and Igor is eradicated by killing Boris’s goat – i.e. by a destructive action – rather than getting a goat for Igor – i.e. a constructive action. The author’s implication is, therefore, that we should be using constructive, not destructive, methods for eradicating inequality, such as trying to help people rise out of poverty (as opposed to trying to reduce the amount of money the rich have). Therefore, the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty.

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 5) The author brings up the example of J. K. Rowling in order to show that: It is unfair that she is a billionaire, as this results in greater inequality in the world. She does not deserve to be so wealthy, despite the fact that she has made some people better off. She deserves to be a billionaire because of her talent as a writer. Her immense wealth does not result in a loss to anyone else in the world. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question . Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to the last paragraph. Though J. K. Rowling’s wealth does increase the inequality in the world, the author does not consider it unfair, as she has made people better off. Option [1] is thus rejected. Option [2] is also incorrect. While the author admits that Rowling’s wealth has nothing to do with what she deserves, he does not criticize her wealth, and his attitude towards her and her wealth is much more positive than implied in this option. Therefore, option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect as well, as it contradicts the author’s assertion that Rowling’s wealth is not a reward for her skill or efforts, but rather, the simple economic effect of the popularity of her work. So option [3] is eliminated. Option [4] is correct. The author brings up the example of J. K. Rowling in order to show the error in ‘the belief that if some people get richer, they must have stolen more than their share from everyone else’. Rowling’s wealth is not the result of her taking other people’s share – rather, ‘She has become a billionaire, increasing inequality, but she has made people better off, not worse off’. Hence, option [4] is the right answer. Correct Answer: Her immense wealth does not result in a loss to anyone else in the world. Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 6) The author mentions the lump fallacy in order to: Explain why people tend to equate inequality with poverty. Suggest that a zero-sum mindset is applicable to wealth distribution.

Prove that wealth is not a finite resource. Demonstrate that wealth has increased since the Industrial Revolution.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Home, according to the Oxford English Dictionary, is ‘A dwelling place; a person’s house or abode; the fixed residence of a family or household; the seat of domestic life and interests’. But more than that, while a house is the physical structure, a home is ‘The place where one lives or was brought up, with reference to the feelings of belonging, comfort, etc., associated with it’. It is a state of being as well as the place where one lives or one’s place of origin. To speakers of English, or the Germanic and Scandinavian languages, or the Finno-Ugric group – that is, the languages of north-western Europe, from Hungary to Finland and Scandinavia, the German-speaking lands, and then descending to the Netherlands and across the Channel to the British Isles – to these peoples, the differences between home and house are obvious. They are two related but distinct things, and therefore they have two separate words. These are languages of what I call ‘home’ countries. Speakers of Romance and Slavic languages, living in ‘house’ countries, have by contrast just one word for both meanings. The existence of what I call home and house languages suggests something about the societies in which they developed. The latter are societies where the community space, the town, village or hamlet, is the canvas on which life is painted, and where an individual house is only a more private area within that primary space. On the other hand, the former are societies where the house is the focal point, while the town, village or hamlet functions mainly as the route through which one passes in order to reach the essential privacies of the houses. The reason for such differences is frequently put down to climate, and it is certainly more pleasant to spend an autumn afternoon in a market square on the Mediterranean than it is in Oslo. But while the weather is an element in the distinction between home and house countries, it is only one element among many. 1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? Point out the difference in the importance of home life in different parts of Europe Suggest a connection between the climate of a region and the emphasis on private/public life in them Compare attitudes towards the house/home in different societies based on the languages spoken by them Chart out some languages which do or do not differentiate between ‘house’ and ‘home’ Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is easy. Option [1] is an incomplete answer, as it fails to mention the distinction of ‘home’ and ‘house’ languages, which makes up a major portion of this passage. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is incorrect as well, as it too fails to mention the importance of the linguistic differences. Additionally, it focuses on a minor point regarding climate mentioned only in the last paragraph. So option [2] is also ruled out. Option [3] is correct. In the first paragraph, the author differentiates between the connotations of the words ‘house’ and ‘home’; in the second paragraph, the author specifies which European languages distinguish between these two words and which do not; and in the last paragraph, she draws connections between these languages and the attitudes towards the house/home in the societies where they are spoken. Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incomplete, as it mentions only the linguistic difference, but not its relationship to societal attitudes towards the house/home. So option [4] is rejected. Therefore, the correct answer is option [3]. Correct Answer: Compare attitudes towards the house/home in different societies based on the languages spoken by them Time taken by you: 198 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) In what way do ‘home’ countries primarily differ from ‘house’ countries, as per this passage? The home countries distinguish between the words ‘home’ and ‘house’. Life in home countries revolves around the individual house rather than the community. The inhabitants in home countries tend to live closer to their place of origin. Home countries have a relatively less congenial climate. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect. It states the basis on which the author differentiates between the two types of countries she discusses, home countries have two words, and house countries have just one word. Option 1 does not answer the question. So option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is correct. The actual difference between home and house countries is stated in the last paragraph: ‘The latter are societies where the community space, the town, village or hamlet, is the canvas on which life is painted, and where an individual house is only a more private area within that primary space. On the other hand, the former are societies where the house is the focal point, while the town, village or hamlet functions mainly as the route through which one passes in order to reach the essential privacies of the houses.’ Retain option [2]. Option [3] is incorrect. ‘the place of origin’ is cited only as nuance of the word ‘home’ ant to suggest that people live closer the place of origin’.. Eliminate option 3. Option [4] is a plausible secondary difference between home and house countries, as mentioned in the last paragraph, but the author does not consider it the primary difference. So option [4] can be rejected. Thus, option [2] is the correct answer. Correct Answer: Life in home countries revolves around the individual house rather than the community. Time taken by you: 130 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 57 % 3) The author begins this passage with a dictionary definition in order to: Provide the precise meaning of the word ‘home’. Demonstrate that the word ‘home’ means something different to everyone. Underline the difference between the official definitions of ‘house’ and ‘home’. Introduce the idea that words suggest something about the societies in which they developed. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is an incomplete answer, as it does not tie the definition to the larger point being made in the passage. So option [1] is ruled out. Option [2] contradicts a major point in the passage, which shows that the word ‘home’ has similar connotations in various languages that differentiate between ‘house’ and ‘home’. So option [2] can be rejected. Option [3] is incorrect as well. The first paragraph provides the official definition of ‘home’, but not ‘house’. So option [3] is also negated. Option [4] is correct. The definition is used by the writer to introduce the larger thesis that he is presenting in the essay, that the technical definition of home, its difference from the meanings attached to the word house, and the cultures in which these languages originated, have implications in the societies in which they originated. Hence, the right answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Introduce the idea that words suggest something about the societies in which they developed.

Time taken by you: 11 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 28 %

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Have we become too obsessed with giving awards, especially participation awards, for youth sports? With trophies given out like candy, have they lost their meaning? If children always receive a trophy – regardless of effort or achievement – we’re teaching kids that losing is so terrible that we can never let it happen. This is a destructive message, because how we react to kids’ failure is just as crucial as celebrating their success. A recent study found if parents thought failure was debilitating, their kids adopted that perspective. If parents believed overcoming failure and mistakes made you stronger, then their children believed it, too. Thus letting kids lose, or not take home the trophy, isn’t about embarrassing children. It’s about teaching them it can take a long time to get good at something, and that’s all right. Kids need to know they don’t have to win every time. It’s O.K. to lose, to make a mistake. (In a study of Gold Medal Olympians, they said a previous loss was key to their championships.) It’s through failure and mistakes that we learn the most. We must focus on process and progress, not results and rewards. Some claim that constant awards improve children’s self-esteem, and, once kids have high self-esteem, they’ll achieve more. But scientists have tested these claims and found them to be false. Kids with already high self-esteem see the trophies as vindication they really are as wonderful as they see themselves. In a longitudinal study, when parents regularly overpraised their children’s performances, their children were more likely to be narcissistic two years later. And for kids with low self-esteem, undeserved praise doesn’t help them, either. Research has found that kids with low self-esteem believe they can’t live up to their own hype, so they withdraw even further. Research has found that the best way to improve kids’ self-image is to help them develop their abilities. Once they master a skill, they won’t need manufactured praise to tell them they’ve done well. They’ll know it. And they’ll be thrilled. Like the child who just learned to tie her shoes. That sense of accomplishment is worth more than any trophy. Therefore, instead of blowing a team’s budget on participation trophies, spend that money on kids’ and coaches’ skill development. Or donate the money to kids who can’t afford the basic equipment they need to develop their own skills. 1) The central point in the second paragraph is that: Teaching kids how to deal with failure is more important than celebrating their success. Helping kids deal with the inevitability of failure is just as important as rewarding their achievements. Giving kids trophies regardless of whether they have won or lost leads them to devalue the importance of failure. Rewarding kids regardless of their effort or achievement leaves them with an unhealthy attitude towards failure. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect. The author does not suggest that dealing with failure is more important than celebrating success. Option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is incorrect as well. The point of the second paragraph is that parents should teach their kids to have a positive attitude towards failure, not that failure is inevitable (which is a very negative view). So option [2] is ruled out as well. Option [3] is incorrect for similar reasons as option [2]: the point of the paragraph is not that failure is important, but that parents should teach their kids to cope with it. Option [3] is thus rejected. Option [4] is correct. According to paragraph 2, giving kids trophies regardless of their effort or achievement sends them the message that failure is unacceptable, which the author considers an unhealthy attitude. Instead, she advocates that parents must teach their kids to deal with failure. This is the central point of paragraph 2. Hence, the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Rewarding kids regardless of their effort or achievement leaves them with an unhealthy attitude towards failure.

Time taken by you: 213 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 % 2) What is the relation between giving kids undeserved trophies and their self- esteem, as per this passage? The trophies are beneficial only to the kids who already have high self- esteem. The trophies are beneficial only to the kids who have low self-esteem. The trophies have negative repercussions on kids’ self-esteem. The trophies make no difference to kids, whatever their self-esteem. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is an easy one. Option [1] is incorrect. According to paragraph 4, giving undeserved trophies to kids who already have high self-esteem makes them narcissistic in the long run. So option [1] can be dismissed. Option [2] is incorrect as well. As per paragraph 5, giving undeserved praise to kids with low self-esteem makes them withdraw further. So option [2] can be ruled out as well. Option [3] is correct. Combining the information in paragraphs 4 and 5, we can infer that giving undeserved praise/trophies to children has negative repercussions on them, no matter what their self-esteem. Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incorrect, as it is too mild. Paragraphs 4 and 5 show that giving kids undeserved trophies does make a difference – a negative one. Option [4] is thus rejected. Therefore, the right answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: The trophies have negative repercussions on kids’ self-esteem.

Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) The author of this passage would agree with all of the following statements, EXCEPT: Failure can be an important step on the way to success. Keeping the hope of reward alive can help people do their best. Children must learn that it takes time to develop important skills.

Children should be praised only for their actual abilities and accomplishments. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option [1] is incorrect, as the author would agree with it. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘It’s through failure and mistakes that we learn the most.’ The example of Gold Medal Olympians in the same paragraph also suggests that failing at least once is an important part of eventually succeeding. Therefore, option [1] is not the answer. Option [2] is correct, as the author would not necessarily agree with it. In paragraph 3, the author states, ‘We must focus on process and progress, not results and rewards.’ And throughout the passage, she points out that rewards can be counterproductive if they are undeserved, so she is unlikely to advocate option [2] without any qualifications. Therefore, option [2] must be retained. Option [3] is also something the author would agree with, so it too is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘It’s about teaching them it can take a long time to get good at something, and that’s all right.’ So option [3] is ruled out as well. Option [4] is incorrect too, as the author would agree with it as well – this is a major point she makes throughout the passage, and especially in the sixth paragraph. So option [4] is also negated. Hence, option [2] is the right answer.

Correct Answer: Keeping the hope of reward alive can help people do their best.

Time taken by you: 54 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 %

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undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. According to its own traditions, the teachings of Jainism are eternal, and hence have no founder; however, the Jainism of this age can be traced back to Mahavira, a teacher of the sixth century BCE, a contemporary of the Buddha. Like those of the Buddha, Mahavira’s doctrines were formulated as a reaction to and rejection of the Brahmanism then taking shape. The brahmans taught the division of society into rigidly delineated castes, and a doctrine of reincarnation guided by karma, or merit brought about by the moral qualities of actions. Their schools of thought, since they respected the authority of the Vedas and Upanisads, were known as orthodox darsanas. Jainism and Buddhism, along with a school of materialists called Carvaka, were regarded as the unorthodox darsanas, because they taught that the Vedas and Upanisads, and hence the brahman caste, had no authority. Jainism originated with the teaching of Mahavira a contemporary of Buddha. Like Budhism, Jainism was a reaction to Brahmanism and rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Upanishads as unorthodox. Teachings of Jainism considered eternal began with the teachings of Mahavira, who was a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism regarded as unorthodox by the brahaman caste rejected the authority of Vedas and Upanisads. Though considered eternal, teachings of Jainism can be traced back to Mahavira, a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism rejected Brahmanism - its scriptures, caste system and its ideas of morality and reincarnation. Jainism, considered eternal by its own traditions, can be traced back to the teachings of Mahavira. Budhism and Jainism were reactions to the prevalent Brahmanism and they rejected the authority of Vedas and Upanisads.

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Explanation: Option 1 is contrary to the passage in “…rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Upanishads as unorthodox” is contrary to the passage Option 2 may be evaluated for the answer but is inferior to option 3. Option 3 is the best précis – It captures the essence of the paragraph in the best way possible with all the main points precidly captured. Option 4 does not mention that Mahavira was a contemporary of Buddha. Hence the answer is option [3]. Correct Answer: Though considered eternal, teachings of Jainism can be traced back to Mahavira, a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism rejected Brahmanism - its scriptures, caste system and its ideas of morality and reincarnation. Time taken by you: 207 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. There are many people who quite innocently and sincerely believe that if they are earnest in attending to their own personal ‘spiritual’ needs, this amounts to living a morally good life. I know many activists, both religious and secular, who agree with me that these people are deluding themselves. Just taking care of one’s own ‘soul’ is self-centred. Consider, for instance, those contemplative monks who, unlike hardworking nuns in schools and hospitals, devote most of their waking hours to the purification of their souls, and the rest to the maintenance of the contemplative lifestyle to which they have become accustomed. In what way, exactly, are they morally superior to people who devote their lives to improving their stamp collections or their golf swing? It seems to me that the best that can be said of them is that they manage to stay out of trouble. Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred, and doing so all the time is morally no superior to spending all of one’s time on one’s hobbies. Though many religious people believe that taking care of one’s soul is important to leading a morally good life, many secular people disagree with them, and consider it to be equivalent to spending time on hobbies. Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred. It is more moral to spend all of one’s time on one’s hobbies, as that keeps one out of trouble. Many people believe that taking care of one’s soul and spiritual needs amounts to living a good life. However, many others disagree with them on this point and consider it self-centred. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option [2] can be ruled out at once, as it sets up a false dichotomy between religious and secular people – in the passage, the author says that both religious and secular people agree with him that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is self-centred. Option [3] distorts the point made in the last two sentences: the author does not suggest that spending time on one’s hobbies is morally superior to taking care of one’s spiritual needs – just that the latter is not necessarily superior to the former. Option [4] fails to mention this comparison at all, so it is an incomplete summary. Only option [1] correctly and comprehensively summarizes the author’s position in this passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred, and doing so all the time is morally no superior to spending all of one’s time on one’s hobbies. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. As it is difficult to remember today how small houses were in pre-industrial times, so too it is hard to comprehend the sheer labour, and time, involved in keeping that small space functioning. It has been estimated that three to four hours were spent daily on food preparation, an hour to fetch water, an hour to feed the children and keep the fire alight, an hour in the kitchen garden, two to three hours to milk cows and goats, feed chickens or perform other animal husbandry, an hour to clean, an hour spinning and an hour spent looking after the children, teaching them to read and write, or knit and sew: a total of sixteen hours a day. Add in the laundry, which occupied approximately eight hours weekly, and by the time meals were eaten, there was little time to do more than fall into bed in order to get up and do it all over again the following day. In pre-industrial times it was difficult to imagine or understand how small the houses were and how much labor had to be invested to keep them running day after day. In pre-industrial times, people lived in small houses that needed so much constant maintenance that they had no time to do anything else but sleep. It is hard to imagine today how small houses were in pre-industrial times, because the focus is on the huge amount of labour that was necessary to keep them functioning. In the preindustrial times, the houses were small and it took great labor and more than sixteen hours a day for routine chores to keep the houses functioning, which left little time for anything else. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 says it was difficult to imagine in the preindustrial times. Option 2 is incorrect. It says “they had no time to do anything else but

sleep” implying they slept all the time. Option 3 is ambiguous as there is an unnecessary cause-effect relationship made between “it is hard to imagine … because of the focus.’ This is a misrepresentation. Option 4 captures the gist of the paragraph. Hence [4]. Correct Answer: In the preindustrial times, the houses were small and it took great labor and more than sixteen hours a day for routine chores to keep the houses functioning, which left little time for anything else. Time taken by you: 161 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. In the United States, the share of income going to the richest one percent grew from 8 percent in 1980 to 18 percent in 2015, while the share going to the richest tenth of one percent grew from 2 percent to 8 percent. 2. Gini values generally range from .25 for the most egalitarian income distributions, such as in Scandinavia after taxes and benefits, to .7 for a highly unequal distribution such as the one in South Africa. 3. In the United States, the Gini index for market income (before taxes and benefits) rose from .44 in 1984 to .51 in 2012. 4. Inequality can also be measured by the proportion of total income that is earned by a given fraction (quantile) of the population. 5. Economic inequality is usually measured by the Gini coefficient, a number that can vary between 0, when everyone has the same as everyone else, and 1, when one person has everything and everyone else has nothing.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This paragraph is about measuring inequality; sentence 5, which introduces the Gini coefficient, a scale for the same, is therefore the first sentence. Sentence 2, which explains the range of Gini values, comes after 5. Sentence 3, which continues the discussion of the Gini index, follows 2. Sentence 4 mentions another method for measuring inequality, and sentence 1 provides an example of this method, so we get a 4-1 link. Hence, 52341. Correct Answer: 52341 Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Camelids are unusual in that their modern distribution is almost the reverse of their origin. 2. The original camelids of North America remained common until the quite recent geological past, but then disappeared, possibly as a result of hunting or habitat alterations by the earliest human settlers, and possibly as a result of changing environmental conditions after the last ice age, or a combination of these factors. 3. Camelids first appeared around 45 million years ago during the middle Eocene, in present-day North America. 4. Three species groups survived: the dromedary of northern Africa and southwest Asia; the Bactrian camel of central Asia; and the South American group, which has now diverged into a range of forms that are closely related, but usually classified as four species: llamas, alpacas, guanacos and vicuñas. 5. The family remained confined to the North American continent until only about two or three million years ago, when representatives arrived in Asia, and (as part of the Great American Interchange that followed the formation of the Isthmus of Panama) South America.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: At first glance, either 1 or 3 would make a suitable opening sentence; but on looking through all the sentences, it becomes clear that sentence 1 encapsulates the main topic of the paragraph (the distribution of camelids) better, and so makes for a better first sentence. Sentences 3 and 5 then follow from 1, as they talk about the origin and spread of camelids, respectively, in chronological order. Sentence 2 states that the original camelids of North America disappeared; and sentence 4 lists the species groups of camelids that survived on other continents. Thus, 2 and 4 illustrate the point stated in the first sentence – that the current distribution of camelids is the reverse of their origin – and therefore, together, they conclude the paragraph. Hence, 13524. Correct Answer: 13524 Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 16 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Gradually, they expanded the tentacles of Norse contacts and trade over huge areas of the north. 2. They crossed the stormy North Sea with impressive confidence, raided towns and villages in eastern Britain, ransacked isolated Christian settlements, and returned home each winter laden with booty. 3. The explorations of these Norse, otherwise known as Vikings or ‘Northmen’, were a product of overpopulation, short growing seasons

and meagre soils in remote Scandinavian fjords. 4. The Norse also travelled far east, down the Vistula, Dnieper, and Volga rivers to the Black and Caspian seas, besieged Constantinople more than once and founded cities from Kiev to Dublin. 5. During the seventh century, young Norse ‘rowmen’ left in their long ships each summer in search of plunder, trading opportunities and adventure.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 5 is preferable as an opening sentence as it introduces the explorations of the Norse by providing the reasons for the same, while the rest of the sentences simply describe these explorations. Then 3 makes most sense as the sentence following 3, as it describesthe beginning of such explorations. This is followed by sentence 2, which describes what the Norse typically did on such explorations. Sentences 1 and 4 are linked: 1 states that the Norse expanded over huge areas of the north, while 4 says that they also expanded over the east. Hence, 53214. Correct Answer: 53214 Time taken by you: 120 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 19 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. When an organism changes in some fundamental way, it typically starts with a genetic mutation - a change to the DNA. 2. This is weird because that's really not how adaptations usually happen in multicellular animals. 3. But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions - occasionally it improvises changing which proteins are produced in the cell in a rare process called RNA editing. 4. Those genetic changes are then translated into action by DNA's molecular sidekick, RNA. 5. In a surprising twist, scientists discovered that octopuses, along with some squid and cuttlefish species, routinely edit their RNA (ribonucleic acid) sequences to adapt to their environment.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 1 explains how a typical genetic mutation or ‘fundamental’ evolutionary changes happen – by a change to the DNA. So sentence 1 begins the narrative. 1-4 is a mandatory pair. The 1-4 pair is then followed by sentence 3, because “translated into action by RNA” in sentence 4 is continued in sentence 3 as “But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions ….” “In a surprising twist” mentioned in sentence 5 refers back to whole process explained in 143. Hence sentence 5 has to be placed after 143 and sentence 2 at the end to conclude the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 14352 Correct Answer: 14352 Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. Passive sentences are useful in English because they allow people to say that something happened without having to say who did it. 2. Science writers use them a lot, because a passive lets them say ‘The mixture was poured into the beaker’ instead of the uncomfortably personal ‘I/we poured the mixture into the beaker.’ 3. Children as young as six do not grasp that the change in the form of the verb between active and passive actually reverses the action. 4. But everyone uses passives sometimes, saying such things as ‘My house was just painted’ or ‘Two people have been killed in an accident’ or ‘Entry is prohibited.’ 5. People who recommend that the passive should be avoided – George Orwell was a famous instance – forget cases like this, where we want to report an action without naming the actor.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This paragraph is about the usefulness of passive sentences in English. Sentence 1 introduces the topic, 2 and 4 provide examples of their use (by scientists and everyone, respectively), and 5 reiterates their usefulness by pointing out that people who criticize their use are mistaken. Only 3 does not fit into this sequence, as it says nothing about the usefulness of passive sentences, but rather about children’s

inability to grasp them. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. 1. Our body dries out with every passing year; newborns are about 75 percent water, not much different from an average potato. 2. The first 2.7 billion years of the history of life on earth were spent entirely in water, and the imprint is in every living organism. 3. We may live on the ‘blue planet’ – unique in the known universe for its abundance of liquid water – but our bodies’ ocean lies on the inside. 4. Most of the body’s water is not in the fluid of our blood, but remains locked inside the cells of our muscles, brains and hearts. 5. Adult humans are about 57 per cent water by weight.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This paragraph is about the water present in our bodies. Sentence 3 introduces this topic by calling it ‘our bodies’ ocean’. Sentences 5 and 1 specify how much of our body is composed of water, in case of adults and newborns, respectively. 4 explains where in our bodies this water is found. Thus, these four sentences form a coherent paragraph. On the other hand, sentence 2, which talks about the billions of years life being spent in water, rather than the watery composition of our bodies, does not fit into this paragraph. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 115 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. Mars’s Olympus Mons, the largest known volcano in the solar system, is about 2.5 times taller than Mt. Everest and so wide that, if placed on North America, it would extend from New York City to Montreal, Canada. 2. The largest Martian canyon, Mariner Valley, which is probably the largest canyon in the solar system, is so vast that, if placed on North America, it would extend from New York City to Los Angeles. 3. But unlike the Grand Canyon, Mariner Valley does not have a river at the bottom. 4. The latest theory is that the more-than-three-thousand-mile canyon is the juncture of two ancient tectonic plates, like the San Andreas Fault on Earth. 5. Hikers who have marvelled at the Grand Canyon would be astounded by this extraterrestrial canyon network.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Four out of five of these sentences talk about Mariner Valley, a huge canyon on Mars, comparing it to features on Earth. Sentence 2 introduces it; 5 and 3 compare it to the Grand Canyon; and 4 provides an explanation for it. On the other hand, sentence 1 is about a different Martian feature altogether, the volcano Olympus Mons. Thus, it does not fit into the sequence. Hence, 1. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 158 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Horizon International School is a leading school in Panchgani. Students from 1st standard to 12th standard study in the school. The academic year of the school is between January 1st and December 31st every year and the result of the annual exam is declared on December 31st every year. It is also known that all the students passed their annual exams and were promoted to the next academic standard every year. Further, all the students joined the school in their 1st standard and left only after finishing their 12th standard. The following table gives the information about the students in 5 th to 8th standard (both included) in the school from five states, namely Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, as on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018.

1) Find the minimum possible number of the students from the given five states who passed the 8 th standard exam on either 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we have the following:

Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018. It can be seen that 0< a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36 Now all the questions can be answered. The required number of students can be obtained by minimizing the number of students in the 7th & 8th standard on 15th August th th th 2016. The total number of students in the 7 and 8 standard on 15 August 2016 = (24 – a) + (18 – b) + (12 – c) + (30 – d) + (36 – e) = 120 – (a + b + c + d + e). The maximum value of (a + b + c + d + e) = (20 + 18 + 12 + 10 + 36) = 96. Therefore, 120 – 96 = 24 Therefore, the required answer 24.

Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 1175 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 2) What is the maximum possible number of students from the given five states who passed the 8 th standard exam on either 31st December 2018 or 31st December 2019? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

3) Additional information: The number of students from two more states, namely Kerala and Rajasthan is now available. It is known that the number of students (in 5th to 8th standard - both included) from Kerala on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 48 and 28 respectively. Similarly, the number of students (in 5th to 8th standard - both included) from Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 36 and 22 respectively. Now answer the following questions for originally given 5 states as well as these two

states (total 7 states). It is known that the number of students who passed 8 th standard exam either on 31st December 2016 or on 31st December 2017 was maximum possible for the state of Karnataka, which was also higher than the corresponding number for any other state. What was the maximum possible number of students from Kerala who passed 4th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017? 8 9 12 Information given in the question is inconsistent and is conflicting with other information Video Explanation: Explanation: Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we have the following:

Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018. It can be seen that 0< a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36 Now all the questions can be answered. If we denote the number of students in 5 th or 6th standards from Kerala and Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 as ‘f’ and ‘g’ respectively, we get the following:

The number of students who passed 8th standard exam either on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 from Karnataka: 30 – d. Since 0 < d < 10, the maximum number of students from Karnataka who passed 8th standard exam on 31st December 2016 and 31st December 2017 = 30. Therefore, the maximum number of students from Kerala in 7th & 8th standard = 29 or 48 – f < 29 or f > 19 The students who passed 4 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 were the ones who were in 5th or 6th standard as on 15th August 2018. Therefore, the number of students who passed 4 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 from Kerala = 28 – f. Since f > 19, 28 – f < 9. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 9

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 25 % 4) Additional information: Additional information: The number of students from two more states, namely Kerala and Rajasthan is now available. It is known that the number of students (in 5 th to 8th standard - both included) from Kerala on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 48 and 28 respectively. Similarly, the number of students (in 5 th to 8th standard - both included) from Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 36 and 22 respectively. Now answer the following questions for originally given 5 states as well as these two states (total 7 states).

Which of the following statements can be correct? Total 56 students from these 7 states passed 8 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017. Total 30 students from Kerala were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2016. Total 20 students from Tamil Nadu were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2018. Total number of students from 7th and 8th standard on 15th August 2016 from Rajasthan was 12. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we have the following:

Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018. It can be seen that 0 < a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36 Now all the questions can be answered. If we denote the number of students in 5 th or 6th standards from Kerala and Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 as ‘f’ and ‘g’ respectively, we get the following:

Statement 1: The minimum number of students from these 7 states who passed 8th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 = (24 – 20) + (18 – 18) + (12 – 12) + (30 – 10) + (36 – 36) + (48 – 28) + (36 – 22) = 58. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2: Since f < 28, the maximum number of students from Kerala in 5th standard on 15th August 2016 cannot be more than 28. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3: Since e < 36, the number of students from Tamil Nadu in 5th standard on 15th August 2018 (50 – e) can be between 14 and 50. Therefore, statement 3 can be correct. Statement 4: Since g < 22, the number of students from Rajasthan in 7th and 8th standard on 15th August 2016 (36 – g) can be between 14 and 36. Therefore, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Total 20 students from Tamil Nadu were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2018.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Ten people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J – are assigned a number from 1 to 6 (both included). Each number is assigned to at least one of the ten people. The numbers 1 and 6 are assigned to equal number of people, which is different from the number of people who are assigned number 3. The number of people who are assigned number 2 is same as those assigned number 5. Also, the number of people who are assigned number ‘n’ is not equal to those assigned number ‘n + 1’, for n = 1 to 5. Further it is known that: i.

Both A and B are assigned a number one more than that assigned to I.

ii.

The number assigned to C is greater than the number assigned to F, G and J but is smaller than the number assigned to A.

iii. D and H are assigned the same number. iv. The number of people who are assigned the same number as assigned to G is equal to the number of people who are assigned the same number as assigned to E. 1) What is the sum of the number of people assigned numbers 3 and 4? 4 5 6 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

The following table can be thus concluded:

From statement (ii) and the above table, it is evident that the number assigned to A is greater than 3 and hence from statement (i) and the above table, it can be concluded that the number assigned to A and B is 5. Subsequently, the numbers assigned to I and C are 4 and 3 respectively. Numbers assigned to F, J and G must be 1 and 2 (in no particular order), as they are assigned a number lesser than that assigned to C. From statement (iii), it can be concluded that D and H are assigned the same number as C and is equal to 3. Finally, it can be concluded from statement (iv) that G and E are assigned numbers 1 and 6 respectively.

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 388 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) Who has been assigned the number 4? A I C Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The following table can be thus concluded:

From statement (ii) and the above table, it is evident that the number assigned to A is greater than 3 and hence from statement (i) and the above table, it can be concluded that the number assigned to A and B is 5. Subsequently, the numbers assigned to I and C are 4 and 3 respectively. Numbers assigned to F, J and G must be 1 and 2 (in no particular order), as they are assigned a number lesser than that assigned to C. From statement (iii), it can be concluded that D and H are assigned the same number as C and is equal to 3. Finally, it can be concluded from statement (iv) that G and E are assigned numbers 1 and 6 respectively.

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: I

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 % 3) How many people were assigned a number higher than that assigned to C? 3 5 4 Cannot be determined 4) Which of the following statements is correct? C is assigned a smaller number than D. B is assigned a smaller number than C. E is assigned a smaller number than A. J is assigned a smaller number than I.

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A management consulting firm hired 400 students from the top 25 business schools around the world as management trainees. The firm had offices in the cities of Berlin, Dhaka, Colombo, New York & New Delhi. The base location of each of the hired students was one of these five cities. After completing one year, all the management trainees tried to change their base location but not all were able to change their base location. The priority for opting a base location is New York, Berlin, New Delhi, Colombo and Dhaka, which all management trainees follow.

For example, if a management trainee with base location New Delhi wants to change his/her base location, he/she will first opt for New York and then Berlin. He/She will never opt for base locations of lower priority than his/her current base location.

Priority of management trainees is decided on the basis of their Performance Rating in the first year in the company. Performance Rating (PR) varies from 1 to 5. The management trainee with higher PR will get the higher base location mentioned in the priority order. For example, if there are two management trainees with PR 5 and 4 respectively and there is only one place vacant at the locations New

York and Berlin, then the management trainee with PR 5 will get New York as the base location and the management trainee with PR 4 will get Berlin as the base location.

The bar-graph given below shows the number of management trainees at each of the given five locations in the first and the second year. The pie-chart given below provides information about the PR wise distribution of the management trainees in the first year.

1) What is the maximum possible number of management trainees who could have changed their base location? 150 155 160 165 Video Explanation: Explanation: To maximise the number of management trainees who can change their base location is only possible when management trainees at a particular base location changes to the immediate next base location in priority. Maximum possible management trainees at Dhaka who can change = 30 – 5 = 25 These 25 management trainees changed their base location to Colombo, which had 75 management trainees in the second year. This means a maximum of 100 – 75 + 25 = 50 management trainees at Colombo can change their base location to New Delhi. Maximum of 50 + 120 – 125 = 45 management trainees at New Delhi can change their base location to Berlin. Maximum of 45 + 80 – 95 = 30 management trainees at Berlin can change their base location to New York. Required Answer = 25 + 50 + 45 + 30 = 150 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 150

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 227 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 2) It is given that 60% of the management trainees at Dhaka, who changed their base location, got PR rating of 5 in the first year. Also, X management trainees at Colombo changed their base location in the second year. What is the maximum possible value of X? 34 35 36 37 Video Explanation: Explanation: 30 – 5 = 25 management trainees whose base location is Dhaka changed their base location. 60% of 25 = 15 This means 15 management trainees got PR of 5. So these 15 management trainees will definitely change their base location to New York. So only 25 – 15 = 10 management trainees with base location Dhaka could have changed their base location to Colombo. Therefore, a maximum of (100 – 75) + 10 = 35 management trainees with base location Colombo could have changed their base location. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 35

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 3) It is given that only the management trainees with PR rating of 5 in the first year were allowed to change their base location. In the first year, what can be the minimum number of management trainees at New York who got a PR rating different from 4? 58 61 60 59 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Minimum possible number of management trainees that changed their base location is (30 – 5) + (100 – 75) = 50 Given that only those with a PR of 5 changed their base locations. This means that at least 50 management trainees got PR 5 in the first year. Management trainees with PR 4 & 5 = 15% of 400 = 60 At most 60 – 50 = 10 management trainees could have got a PR of 4 and in one of the cases could be all having base location New York. Required Answer = 70 – 10 = 60 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 60

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 4) It is given that only management trainees with a PR rating of 1 in the first year were not able to change their base location and this number was equal to X. Which of the following can be a value of X? 250 249 248 All of the above

Video Explanation: Explanation: Maximum possible number of management trainees that changed their base location = 150 (from the first question in this set) Management Trainees with rating of 3 and above in first year = 35% of 400 = 140 As per the information given in question, we can conclude that at most 150 – 140 = 10 management trainees with PR of 2 changed their base location. Therefore, at least 260 – 10 = 250 management trainees got a PR of 1. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 250

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Chintu used to collect coins in six piggy banks – A, B, C, D, E and F. Each piggy bank had Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins only. One day he took out some coins from each piggy bank to purchase a cricket bat. The following pie-charts give information about the piggy bank-wise distribution of the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins collected by Chintu and the total worth of coins taken out by him to purchase the cricket bat. There were a total of 500 coins in these piggy banks, out of which Chintu took out Rs. 1500. Also, piggy bank C had 80 coins before Chintu took out coins from any of the piggy banks.

1) What was the total worth (in Rs.) of the coins in these six piggy banks initially? 3000 3500 2500

4000 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered. Total worth of coins = 400× 5 + 100 × 10 = Rs. 3000 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 3000

Time taken by you: 202 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 374 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 80 % 2) The total worth of Rs. 5 coins taken out by Chintu cannot be Rs. 1400 Rs. 1430 Rs. 1420 Rs. 1410 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered.

Correct Answer: Rs. 1430

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 166 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 67 % 3) The minimum number of coins Chintu could have taken out of piggy bank D is 23 24 25 26 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered. Chintu took Rs. 150 from piggy bank D. He could have taken all the five Rs. 10 coins, and twenty Rs. 5 coins. This makes a minimum of 25 coins from piggy bank D. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer:

25

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 % 4)Which of the following is definitely true with respect to the coins taken out by Chintu from these piggy banks? The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank B is more than that from piggy bank C. The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank A is more than that from piggy bank C. The number of Rs. 5 coins taken out from piggy bank F is less than that from piggy bank E. The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank D is less than that from piggy bank B. Video Explanation: Explanation: Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks. x + y = 500 … (i) Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively. 0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100

Now all the questions can be answered. At least 8 Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank B (solution to Q.14) and piggy bank D had 5 Rs. 10 coins only. Hence, option [4] is definitely correct. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank D is less than that from piggy bank B. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

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Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer are four individuals (with different weights) out of which two are from Mumbai (M) and the remaining two are from Delhi (D). It is known that Qasim is lighter than Paresh, Sameer is lighter than Ranjana and Sameer is not from Mumbai. 1) If the heaviest as well as the lightest persons are from Delhi, then which of the following must be true? Paresh is the heaviest and only one person is lighter than Qasim. Sameer is the lightest and he is the only person lighter than Ranjana. Ranjana is the heaviest and Sameer is the lightest. Sameer is the lightest and Qasim is from Mumbai. Video Explanation: Explanation: If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights of the given four persons) can be:

Now, all the questions can be answered. If the lightest and the heaviest persons are from Delhi, only cases 1, 2 and 6 are possible. It can be seen that options [1], [2], [3] may not be always true. Option [4] has to be always correct. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Sameer is the lightest and Qasim is from Mumbai.

Time taken by you: 195 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 223 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 2) It is known that Qasim is the lightest and Ranjana is from Mumbai. Consider the following statements: Statement I : Only Qasim is lighter than Ranjana.

Statement II: Paresh is the heaviest of all. Which of these statements can be true? Only I Only II Both I and II Neither I nor II Video Explanation: Explanation: If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights of the given four persons) can be:

Now, all the questions can be answered. If Qasim is the lightest, cases 3, 4 and 5 are possible. It can be seen that Paresh can be the heaviest of all. Therefore, statement II can be correct. However, statement I that only Qasim is lighter than Ranjana is incorrect. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Only II

Time taken by you: 106 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 55 % 3) If the persons from Mumbai are the heaviest as well as the lightest, then for how many persons it can be uniquely determined the city they are from? 0 1 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights of the given four persons) can be:

Now, all the questions can be answered. If the lightest as well as heaviest persons are from Mumbai, only cases 3, 4 and 5 are possible, as shown below:

We can definitely say that Qasim is from Mumbai. We already know that Sameer is from Delhi. However, we cannot exactly determine the cities that Paresh and Ranjana are from. Therefore, the required answer is 2. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 4) If no person from Mumbai is lighter than a person from Delhi, then how many distinct arrangements (with respect to persons arranged in descending order of their weights) can be made? 7 6 5 4 Video Explanation: Explanation: If no person from Mumbai is lighter than a person from Delhi, only possible arrangement of cities we can have is Mumbai > Mumbai > Delhi > Delhi. We already know that Sameer is from Delhi. Therefore Sameer must be either 3 rd or 4th. Therefore, only case 4 is not possible. Other 5 cases are possible. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Rajesh has a cube having length of each side equal to 5 cm. Out of the three pairs of opposite faces, one is painted Red, other is painted Blue while the third is painted Green. Rajesh placed the cube such that one green face of the cube was touching the ground and one red face of the cube was directly in front of him. He further cut the cube into 125 small identical cubes having each side equal to 1 cm. He then assigned numbers to the 125 small cubes as follows: The cubes in the front-most row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 1 to 5 from left to right. The cubes in the row just behind the front-most row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 6 to 10 from left to right. The cubes in the middle row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 11 to 15 from left to right. The numbering was continued this way and the rightmost cube in the last row of the bottommost layer was assigned number 25. Assignment of the numbers was continued for the second layer from the bottom on similar lines. The leftmost cube in the front-most row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 26, the rightmost cube in the front-most row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 30 while the rightmost cube in the last row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 50. The numbering was continued on similar lines for the remaining layers of the cubes. The leftmost cube in the front-most row of the topmost layer of the cubes was assigned 101 while the rightmost cube in the last row of the topmost layer was assigned 125. 1) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have been painted using three different colours? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: The cubes in the 8 corners have been painted using three colours. The numbers assigned to the 4 bottom cubes are 1, 5, 21 and 25 while the numbers assigned to the 4 top cubes are 101, 105, 121 and 125. Therefore, the required sum = 1 + 5 + 21 + 25 + 101 + 105 + 121 + 125 = 504. Therefore, the required answer is 504.

Correct Answer: 504 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 51 % 2) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have been painted using two different colours? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: There are 12 edges of the bigger cube. The three middle small cubes along each edge have been painted using two different colours, so there are 36 cubes in consideration. Consider the two green faces of the cube. One is at the bottom touching the ground while the other is at the top. These two faces encompass total 8 edges of the bigger cube. The cubes in the bottommost layer that have been painted using two different colours have been assigned numbers 2, 3, 4, 10, 15, 20, 22, 23, 24, 6, 11 and 16 (sum = 156). The cubes in the topmost layer that have been painted using two different colours have been assigned numbers 102, 103, 104, 110, 115, 120, 122, 123, 124, 106, 111 and 116 (sum = 1356). Additionally there are four vertical edges that have three cubes each that have been painted using two colours each. Two of these vertical edges are from the left face while the remaining two are from the right face of the bigger cube. The cubes along the left face that have been painted using two colours have been assigned numbers 26, 51, 76, 46, 71 and 96 (sum = 366). The cubes along the right face that have been painted using two colours have been assigned numbers 30, 55, 80, 50, 75 and 100 (sum = 390). Therefore, the required sum = 156 + 1356 + 366 + 390 = 2268 Therefore, the required answer is 2268.

Correct Answer: 2268 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 % 3) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have green colour on at least one of their faces? 625 1250 2500 3150 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3150

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 % 4) What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have none of their faces painted? 1026 1701 2376 None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Total 27 cubes in the middle three layers (9 in each layer) have not been painted. Important point to note is that the numbers assigned to cubes in each layer are 25 more than the numbers assigned to the corresponding cubes in the layer just below them. The 9 cubes that have not been painted in each layer form a 3× 3 square. The 9 cubes in the bottommost layer that are directly below these 9 cubes in the middle three layers have been assigned the numbers 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18 and 19 (sum = 117). The numbers assigned to the cubes in the second layer from the bottom that have not been painted are 25 more than the corresponding numbers in the bottommost layer. Therefore, the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the second layer = 117 + 25 × 9 = 342. Similarly, the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the third layer =342 + 25 × 9 = 567 and the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the fourth layer= 567 + 25 × 9 = 792. Therefore, the required sum = 342 + 567 + 792 = 1701. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 1701

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Total ten gemstones Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Turquoise, Emerald, Topaz, Ruby, Coral, Jasper and Onyx are to be placed in four jewellery boxes – P, Q, R and S. Boxes P and Q should have at least three gemstones each. Box R should have at least two gemstones. Box S should have at least one gemstone. Further, it is known that: I. Pearl and Sapphire are in the same box. II. Amber and Topaz are in the same box which is neither box Q nor box R. III. Among Amber, Turquoise, Coral and Onyx no two gemstones are in the same box. IV. Jasper is in box R. V. None of Emerald, Coral and Onyx is in box R. VI. Ruby is not in box S. 1) If Pearl and Emerald are not in the same box and the number of gemstones in box Q and box R are equal, then for how many gemstones, the exact box in which they are placed can be uniquely determined?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. As box Q and R have equal number of gemstones, box S will have 1 gemstone and each of the remaining box contains 3 gemstones. So, box R has Jasper, Turquoise and Ruby. From (II), Amber and Topaz must be in box P. Therefore, from (I), Pearl and Sapphire must be in box Q. As Pearl and Emerald are not in same box, Emerald must be in box P. One of Coral and Onyx is in box Q and the other is in box S. Hence, for 8 gemstones, the box can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 8.

Correct Answer: 8 Time taken by you: 152 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 158 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 % 2) All the gemstones from two of the boxes are taken out and placed in box T. Box T, initially empty, now has 3 gemstones, and does not have Coral. Given that Coral and Ruby were in the same box. Which of the following statements is/are definitely correct? Box P had more gemstones than box R. One of the gemstones in box R was Turquoise. Sapphire and Emerald were not in the same box. All of the above. Video Explanation: Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. If all the gemstones from R and S are moved to T and T has 3 gemstones, Box R and S must initially had 2 and 1 gemstones respectively. So, box P can have 3 or 4 gemstones. Thus, statement given in the first option [1] is definitely correct. Box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Statement given in option [2] is also correct. Thus, the best suitable option is [4]. Hence, [4]. Note: As box S had 1 gemstone, from (II), Amber and Topaz must be in box P. Box T does not have Coral. So, box S has to have Onyx. Coral is in box Q. Now Coral and Ruby are in box Q. So, box Q has either both Pearl and Sapphire or Emerald. Accordingly, box P, either Emerald or both Pearl and Sapphire. Thus, statement [3] is also true.

Correct Answer: All of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 127 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 % 3) If the number of gemstones in box R and box S are found to be equal and Emerald is in box P, then for how many of the given boxes, the exact gemstones placed in them can be uniquely determined?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. Box R (and box S as well) has two gemstones. So there are 3 gemstones in each of boxes P and Q. Emerald is in box P. From (II), Amber and Topaz can be in box P or box S. Case 1: Amber and Topaz are in box P. Pearl and Sapphire are in box Q with Coral or Onyx. Box S will have Ruby and either Onyx or Coral. But Ruby is not in box S. So, this case is invalid. Case 2: Amber and Topaz are in box S. So, box P has Ruby, Emerald and either Coral or Onyx. Box Q has Pearl, Sapphire and either Onyx or Coral. This is a valid case. Thus, it can be seen that the contents of boxes R and S can be uniquely determined. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 59 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 % 4) If the number of gemstones in box R and box S are found to be equal and Emerald is in box Q, then Coral is placed in Box P Box Q Box S Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four boxes. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I), (II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx. Thus, box R can have Ruby. Each of boxes R and S has two gemstones. So there are 3 gemstones in each of boxes P and Q. Emerald is in box Q. From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. From (II), Amber and Topaz can be in box P or S. Case 1: Amber and Topaz are in box P. Emerald, Pearl and Sapphire are in box Q. From (III), box Q should also have either Coral or Onyx. Thus, box Q have 4 gemstones, which is a contradiction. So, this case is invalid. Case 2: Amber and Topaz are in box S. So, box Q has Ruby, Emerald and either Coral or Onyx. Box P has Pearl, Sapphire and either Onyx or Coral. This is a valid case. Thus, it can be seen Coral can be placed in either P or Q. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 230 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Manchester United Football Club (MUFC) has four strikers – Lukaku, Rashford, Martial and Zlatan. Only one striker could be in the playing eleven for the Champions League Final against Football Club Barcelona. In order to select the striker, the manager of the MUFC decided to evaluate the performance of the four strikers in four penalty shootouts – PS 1, PS 2, PS 3 and PS 4, conducted in that order. Only the strikers who have cleared a penalty shootout (scored at least one goal) are eligible to take the next penalty shootout. Initially, each of the four penalty shootouts is scheduled to have exactly three attempts per striker at goal. However, for each striker, based on his performance, i.e. the number of goals scored in each of the penalty shootouts, the number of attempts at goal in each of his subsequent penalty shootouts are revised as per the following criteria: 1. In any penalty shootout, if the number of goals scored by a striker is at least 50%, but not 100%, of the total number of available attempts at goal (after all applicable revisions), he gets a bonus attempt at goal in each of his subsequent penalty shootouts. 2. In any penalty shootout, if a striker scores in all the possible attempts at goal (after all applicable revisions), then he gets three bonus attempts at goal in each of his subsequent possible attempts. 3. In any penalty shootout, for each goal scored, a striker is awarded 10 points by the manager and for each failed attempt at goal, he is penalised 3 points by the manager. The same point scheme is followed for all the attempts at goal, including the bonus attempts. The striker with maximum points, in all the four penalty shootouts put together, will be selected for the position of striker in the playing eleven at the Champions League Final against Football Club Barcelona. 1) If Zlatan scored 34 points in PS 2, and less than 24 attempts at goal in all four penalty shootouts put together, then at most how many points he could have scored in PS 3? 18 31 5 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: If Zlatan scored 34 points in PS2, he must have had six attempts at goal with four goals scored and two failed attempts. Hence, he gets seven attempts at goal in PS3. Total attempts at goal so far = 3(PS 1) + 6 (PS 2) + 7 (PS 3) = 16 Now, in PS 4, Zlatan could have (3 + 3 + 1 + 3 = 10 or 3 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 8 or 3 + 3 + 1 = 7) attempts at goal. Given that in total he had not more than 24 attempts at goal, this means that he had 7 attempts at goal in PS4. This means he scored a maximum of 3 × 10 – 4 × 3 = 18. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 18

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 % 2) If Lukaku scored 31 points in PS 3, then points scored by him in PS 2 cannot be 21 34 40 45 Video Explanation: Explanation: Lukaku scored 31 points in PS3. This means he had seven attempts at goal with 3 failed attempts 31 = 10 × 4 – 3 × 3 = 31 Hence, Lukaku had either 4 or 6 attempts at goal in PS 2 If he got 4 attempts, then he must have scored all 4 goals – Points in PS 2 = 40 If he got six attempts, he could have scored 3, 4 or 5 goals – Points in PS 2 = 21, 34 or 47 points . Hence [4] Correct Answer: 45 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 % 3) If Rashford had a total of 24 attempts at goal in all the four penalty shootouts put together, then he could have scored a maximum of _____. 214 240 227 224 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 227

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 % 4) It is given that Martial scored the same number of goals in PS 1 as Rashford did in PS 3. If Martial scored 17 points in PS 2, then Rashford could have scored a maximum of how many points in PS 4? 100

90 80 70 Video Explanation: Explanation: Given that Martial scored 17 points in PS 2. This means that Martial had 3 attempts at goal in PS 2 and he scored 2 goals. This also implies that he scored only one goal in PS 1. Given that Rashford scored same number of goals in PS 3 as Martial did in PS 1, therefore Rashford scored only one goal in PS 3. This implies that he had same number of attempts at goals in PS 4 as he had in PS 3. Maximum number of attempts Rashford could have had in PS 3 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 Maximum possible points in PS 4 = 9× 10 = 90. Hence [2] Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 197 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined Game of Pairs is a game played using two number machines in which a player earns points only when he selects positive integer numbers in each machine such that their product is 480. In how many ways can a player select positive integers so that he earns points? 20 24 25 32

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 480 = a × b We need to find all possible pairs (a, b). Finding value of a will fix value of b. a can be any factor of 480. We basically need to find the number of factors of 480.

480 = 25 × 31 × 51 Therefore, number of factors = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 72 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined Sameer normally takes 8 hours to drive from Agra to Chandigarh. Today, his car developed some fault at Noida, a city between Agra and Chandigarh. After fixing the fault in 24 minutes, he drove at a speed 25% more than the normal speed. He reached the destination 12 minutes earlier than the normal time. The ratio of distance between Agra and Noida to that between Noida and Chandigarh is 5:3 4:3 2:1 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 480 = a × b We need to find all possible pairs (a, b). Finding value of a will fix value of b. a can be any factor of 480. We basically need to find the number of factors of 480. 480 = 25 × 31 × 51 Therefore, number of factors = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 72 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined Find the number of roots that are common between x3 + 3x2 – 3x + 13 = 0 and x3 + 2x2 – 8x + 7 = 0. 0

1 2 3

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 74 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined The figure shows four squares: ABCD, PQRS, QTUR and TVWU. Find the ratio of the areas of squares ABCD and PQRS.

8:1 4:1

16 : 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 8:1

Time taken by you: 132 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 234 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 79 %

undefined A fly is stuck inside an inverted conical flask made of glass. The flask has an etched rim (represented by DE) at exactly half its height. The angle at the tip of the cone is 60°. The fly is initially sitting on a point along the circumference of the base of the flask. What is the ratio of the shortest and the longest possible distances that the fly would have to travel in order to reach the etched rim from its initial

position? Given that it always flies in a straight line to travel between any two points.

1:2

1:3

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined What is the difference between the square of the sum of the roots and the square of the difference of the roots of the equation 4x 2 + 11x – 17 = 0? 11 –11 17 –17

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –17 Time taken by you: 157 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined If 10 machines take 10 days to make 10 widgets, then how many days will 50 machines take to make 50 widgets? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 10 machines make 10 widgets in 10 days. Therefore, 1 machine will make 1 widget in 10 days. Therefore, 50 machines will make 50 widgets in 10 days. Therefore, the required answer is 10. Alternatively The number of widgets to be made is 5 times more. The number of machines availableis also 5 times more. Therefore, the number of days required will remain unchanged. Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined

64 : 75 14 : 15 4:5 56 : 75

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 56 : 75 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined Haider and Zubin simultaneously start running from their original positions towards each other, meet at a point in between, and then keep running till they reach the other person’s original position. The time taken by Haider from his original position till their meeting point and the time taken by Zubin from the meeting point till Haider’s original position are 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively. What is the total time taken by Haider to run from his original position to Zubin’s original position? 20 minutes 21 minutes 25 minutes 28 minutes

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 21 minutes Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined

a+b+c=1 abc = 1 abc = 4 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: abc = 1 Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined The Cost Incurred by Company (CIC) per employee for an organization varies with the number of employees in the organization. Priyakant, the HR Associate computed the maximum total CIC that could be possible in the main branch. He found out that the average CIC per employee in the main branch is (32 – x) thousand rupees when the number of employees is (3x + 24). What is the average CIC per employee when the maximum possible total CIC for the organization is observed at the main branch? Rs. 12,000 Rs. 16,000 Rs. 24,000 Rs. 20,000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Total CIC for the organization at the main branch (in thousands) = (32 – x)(3x + 24) = 3(32 – x)(x + 8) = 3(256 + 24x – x2 ) = 3[400 – 144 + 24x – x2 ] = 3[400 – (x – 12)2 ] Maximum possible total CIC will occur when x = 12. Total CIC for the organization at the main branch (in thousands) = (32 – x)(3x + 24) = 3(32 – x)(x + 8) = 3(256 + 24x – x2 ) = 3[400 – 144 + 24x – x2 ] = 3[400 – (x – 12)2 ] Maximum possible total CIC will occur when x = 12. Average CIC per employee = (32 – 12) thousand = Rs. 20,000 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Rs. 20,000 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 %

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 235 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined When x is increased by x%, it gives the same value as 2x does, when it is decreased by 2x%. What will be the value of 3x after it is increased by x%? (Given x is not equal to 0.)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 72 Time taken by you: 89 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined If f(x) = min (4 – x2 , 4 + x, 4 – x), then find the maximum value of f(x). –4 0 2 4

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: 4 – x2 graphically will be an inverted parabola that is symmetric about the y-axis and cutting y-axis at (0, 4). The graphs of (4 – x) and (4 + x) also pass through (0, 4). Therefore, the value of the function Min (4 – x2, 4 + x, 4 – x) will not be greater than 4. Hence, [4]. Alternatively, We can draw the graphs of each function to confirm our solution. The graphs of (4 – x2), (4 + x) and (4 – x) will be as follows:

Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined In ⎕ABCD, diagonal AC bisects diagonal BD at point O. AO = 10, BO = 24, CO = 32 and AD = 26. Find the perimeter of the quadrilateral.

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 132 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined A microbe doubles itself every 3 seconds. There were 100 microbes in a jar to start with. At the end of the 30th second, half of the microbial population got killed due to a poisonous gas and the rest continued to multiply. What will be the microbial population after 1 minute? (The only microbes that died during this period were the ones that died due to the poisonous gas at the end of the 30 th second.) 25 × 219 25 × 220 25 × 221 25 × 222 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Initial population = 100 Population after 30 seconds before the effect of poisonous gas = 100 × 210 Population after 30 seconds after the effect of poisonous gas = 50 × 210 Population after 60 seconds = 50 × 210 × 210 = 25 × 221 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 25 × 221 Time taken by you: 160 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined Banat lent Rs. 80,000 to Rukhsana with the assurance that Rukhsana would return Rs. 50,000 every year for two years. What is the approximate rate of compound interest per annum that Banat is charging Rukhsana? 11.8% 25% 18.75% 16.25%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 16.25% Time taken by you: 112 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined 1000 chocolates are to be distributed among the students of a class. It was observed that when some students were given 3 chocolates each and the remaining students were given 4 chocolates each, then 3 chocolates remained. What can be the maximum number of students in the class?

331 332 333 Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 332 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined A and B have speeds 20 m/s and 16 m/s. They are moving around a circular track beginning from point P on the track. In how many distinct points will they meet if they are moving in opposite directions?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The speeds 20 and 16 are not co-prime. We have 20 : 16 = 5 : 4. Now 5 and 4 are co-prime. Therefore, A and B will meet in 5 + 4 = 9 distinct points. Therefore, the required answer is 9. Correct Answer: 9 Time taken by you: 43 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined How many points with integral coordinates are there inside the boundary of rhombus ABCD where the coordinates of A and C are (–12, 0) and (12, 0) respectively, and the area of the rhombus is 120 sq. units? 119 120 122 126

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

119 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined The LCM of two numbers is 120 and their product is 480. Which of the following cannot be their sum? 68 64 52 44

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the two numbers be ha and hb, where h is the HCF of the two numbers, where a and b are co-prime. hab = 120 and h2ab = 480 h=4 ab = 30 The possible values of (a, b) are (1, 30), (2, 15), (3, 10) and (5, 6). The two numbers can be (4, 120), (8, 60), (12, 40) and (20, 24). The sum of the two numbers can be 124, 68, 52 and 44. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 64 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 105 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined If log(x – 2) (3x – 2) = log(x – 2)2 (x + 2)2 , then x = _____. 1 2 4 Undefined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Undefined Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined Beaker A contains 60 litres of 60% acid solution. Another perfectly sealed beaker B filled with 20 litres of 90% acid solution is suspended above beaker A. Beaker B bursts such that 120 ml of the acid solution from beaker B starts leaking every minute and falling into beaker A. In how many seconds after the burst will the acid concentration in beaker A become 65%? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6000 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 25 %

undefined What is the ratio of the lengths of the shortest and the longest diagonals of a regular octagon?

1:2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Aninda has to make a payment of Rs. 26,000 to Aurobindo. While making the payment, he used a total of 250 notes of Rs. 20, Rs. 50 and Rs. 200 denominations. In how many distinct ways could he do that, if it is known that he used at least one note of each denomination? 25 26 30 31

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined A, B, C, D and E are equally efficient people who worked together on an assignment. After the completion of the assignment, each of them was paid Rs. 1000, assuming that each of them worked with 100% efficiency for equal amounts of time. However, later it was found that A alone worked for the entire duration till the assignment was completed while B did not work for 1 hour, C for 2 hours, D for 3 hours and E for 4 hours during the assignment. Had they been working equally, the assignment would have been completed in 12 hours. If the remunerations were recomputed, how much extra would A receive? Rs. 100 Rs. 120 Rs. 133.33 Rs. 166.66

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Rs. 166.66 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined A container has a certain number of balls each of a different colour. Let X = Number of ways of linearly arranging any 3 balls out of the container. Let Y = Number of ways of selecting 4 balls out of the container. It is given that X : Y = 6 : 7. What is the number of balls originally in the container? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 31 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined From a vessel containing 1 litre of pure acid, 100 ml pure acid was drawn out in each of the beakers A and B. The acid in both the beakers was diluted by adding water in different proportions. After that, the contents of A and B were added back to the vessel. The concentration of acid in the vessel now is 80%. Had the contents of beakers A and B be mixed with each other instead of adding into the vessel, what would be the concentration of acid in that mixture? 28.57% 44.44% 55.55% Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 44.44% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined How many 4-digit numbers have all four distinct digits? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The 1st digit can be chosen in 9 ways, the 2nd digit in 9 ways, the 3rd in 8 ways and the 4th in 7 ways. Therefore, total number of ways = 9 × 9 × 8 × 7 = 4536 Therefore, the required answer is 4536. Correct Answer: 4536 Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined The average age of a family of five members reduces by 7 when the age of the oldest member is not considered. The average age increases by 4 when the age of the youngest member is not considered. The average of the middle three members is 16. Find the average age of the oldest and youngest members. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 104 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined The sum of seven consecutive even numbers is 2982. What will be the sum of all the odd numbers between these even numbers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2556 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined The largest number that definitely divides the sum of the cubes of three consecutive natural numbers (out of which only one is even) is ____. 12 30 36 48

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the three consecutive numbers be (2n – 1), (2n) and (2n + 1). Sum of their cubes = (2n – 1)3 + (2n)3 + (2n + 1)3 = (8n3 – 1 – 12n2 + 6n) + (8n3) + (8n3 + 1 + 12n2 + 6n) = 24n3 + 12n = 12n(2n2 + 1) One of (n) or (2n2 + 1) will always be divisible by 3. The sum of the cubes will always be divisible by 12 × 3 = 36. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 36 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined In a class of 120 students, the percentage of students who play neither Tabla nor Sitar is 20%. The percentage of students who play neither Veena nor Sitar is 30%. The percentage of students who play neither Veena nor Tabla is 40%. What can be the maximum percentage of students who play exactly two instruments out of Tabla, Sitar and Veena? It is known that each student plays at least one instrument. 5% 10% 20% 50%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

We can draw the Venn diagram as follows:

Number of students who play exactly two instruments will be maximized when those who play all three is minimized to 0. Required number = 120 – (36 + 48 + 24) = 12 Required percentage = 10% Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 10% Time taken by you: 262 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 191 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Imagine three kids running around a maypole, forming a chain with their arms. The innermost kid is holding the pole with one hand. The faster they run, the more centrifugal force there is tearing the chain apart. The tighter they grip, the more centripetal force there is holding the chain together. Eventually centrifugal force exceeds centripetal force and the chain breaks. That’s essentially what is happening in this country, N.Y.U.’s Jonathan Haidt argued in a lecture delivered to the Manhattan Institute in November. He listed some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus. Haidt made the interesting point that identity politics per se is not the problem. Identity politics is just political mobilization around group characteristics. The problem is that identity politics has dropped its centripetal elements and become entirely centrifugal. Martin Luther King described segregation and injustice as forces tearing us apart. He appealed to universal principles and our common humanity as ways to heal prejudice and unite the nation. He appealed to common religious principles, the creed of our founding fathers and a common language of love to drive out prejudice. King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed. “A funny thing happens,” Haidt said, “when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” The problem is that tribal common-enemy thinking tears a diverse nation apart. This pattern is not just on campus. Look at the negative polarization that marks our politics. Parties, too, are no longer bound together by creeds but by enemies. In 1994, only 16 percent of Democrats had a “very unfavorable” view of the G.O.P. Now, 38 percent do. Then, only 17 percent of Republicans had a “very unfavorable” view of Democrats. Now, 43 percent do. When the Pew Research Center asked Democrats and Republicans to talk about each other, they tended to use the same words: closed-minded, dishonest, immoral, lazy, and unintelligent. Furthermore, it won’t be easy to go back to the common-humanity form of politics. King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years. Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion. In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security.” In societies like ours, individuals are responsible for their own identity, happiness and success. “Everyone must sell himself as a person in order to be accepted,” Bruckner wrote. We all are constantly comparing ourselves to others and, of course, coming up short. The biggest anxiety is moral. We each have to write our own gospel that defines our own virtue. The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault. 1) The writer uses the maypole example in order to … Explain that when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force the chain breaks. Resolve the differences between the political attitudes of various people, who act in ways similar to these forces that are centrifugal or centripetal. Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity. Capture the fundamental notions of forces acting around a centre point and the reasons these forces always are of two opposing natures. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Paragraph 2 states – “That’s essentially what is happening in this country, ………..some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus.” The objective of using the maypole as an example was thus to lead to an understanding of these opposing forces playing out in the political landscape. Option 1 is incorrect. The example that occurs at the beginning of the essay is not used to literally explain what happens when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The maypole example is used as a starting point to explain the ideas of forces that pull things apart and those that bring things together. It is clearly not meant to “resolve” any issues. Option 3 is correct. The maypole example leads to an understanding of how these centrifugal and centripetal forces can be seen to operate in the political lives of human beings. Thus option 3 correctly states that the example is used to correctly explain the current political scenario in which identity politics has overwhelmed the binding force of a sense of common humanity. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The example is not meant to literally capture the notions of forces running around a centre point. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity.

Time taken by you: 348 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 241 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 2)According to the passage, in terms of the political situation, what are the two forces that are of a centripetal nature? Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years. Humanitarian values that have been upheld by democratic societies and individual morality that makes for a society based on civility. Democratic institutions that rely on individual sincerity and legal institutions that protect individual rights. Political identities that are based on homogeneous social and religious structures and recourse to the law when individual liberties are threatened. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. Refer to paragraph 4: “King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years.” Option 1 refers to this when it talks of ‘Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years’. These two aspects are seen as the two “forces of social cohesion” or centripetal forces. This is implied in the next line which says – “Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion”. Option 2 is incorrect. Humanitarian values and individual morality are not referred to in the passage as two centripetal or cohesive forces. Option 3 is incorrect. Democratic and legal institutions are also not stated in the passage as two forces of social cohesion. Option 4 is incorrect. Political identities and recourse to the law are not stated to be centripetal forces in the passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years. Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 18 % 3) According to the author, the ‘new form of identity politics on campuses’ is mainly a manifestation of which of the following? The deliberate attempt to radicalise the youth on campuses by making them see themselves as belonging to a particular victim group. The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism. The campus is a breeding ground for feelings of inferiority and superiority. The youth on campuses are only capable of seeing situations in a binary form and cannot grasp the unity of things. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The writer states that “The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story”. However, it is incorrect to say that this is the result of a deliberate attempt to radicalise the youth – nothing in the passage can lead to this conclusion. Option 2 is correct. The sixth paragraph states that “….when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” Therefore option 2 is correct when it states that “The youth find it easy to identify with a certain tribe or group as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.”.Option 3 is incorrect. There is no such reference to feelings of inferiority or superiority in the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that the minds of youth, that have evolved with tribal instincts, are filled ‘full of binary dimensions’ on campus. It does not state or imply that the youth are only capable of ‘seeing situations in a binary form’. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.

Time taken by you: 166 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 26 % 4)Who does the writer refer to when he says - You have virtue without obligation – in the last paragraph. The person who is the innocent victim of an oppressor and who has become aware of the fact that he/she is oppressed. The person who has identified his/her status as a victim and the group that has made him/her a victim. The person who understands that in order to fit in with those who are better than oneself, one must find one’s own story of victim hood. The person who decides to be a victim of circumstances and is thus able to navigate the future course of action, based on this identity. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph where it states: “The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault.” The writer sarcastically suggests that one must “build your own innocence on your status as victim”. Therefore the person who has virtue without obligation is not actually the innocent victim. Option 2 is correct. As the last paragraph states, the person who has a tribal oppressor/oppressed story to tell, and has identified his own victimhood as well as his herd’s oppressor can go ahead and “have virtue without obligation”. Option 3 is incorrect. There is no reference to fitting in with those who are better than oneself. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage doesn’t imply that the “the person decides to be a victim of circumstances” or that he is then clear about any future course of action. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: The person who has identified his/her status as a victim and the group that has made him/her a victim. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 5)According to the writer, how has Identity politics changed since Martin Luther King? Identity politics today has more to do with politics than identities whereas earlier it was about identities and not politics. Identity politics today is about the population following a leader whereas earlier it was about a leader understanding his followers. Identity politics today is ubiquitous – with everyone choosing a tag to identify with, whereas earlier it was a matter of pertinence and relevance to real issues. Identity politics today is about grabbing power from those who have unfairly retained it and earlier it was about emphasising common ground with the oppressor. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that identity politics was always there, even during the time of Martin Luther King. And it was about identity, both earlier and now. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not make any statements about leaders understanding their followers or populations following leaders. Option 3 is incorrect – the passage does not imply that the difference lies in the ubiquity of identity politics. Option 4 is correct. The answer can be deduced from the fourth and the fifth paragraph. “King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed.” Thus option 4 correctly states the difference in identity politics as one that is about grabbing power and about emphasising common ground. The focus on power leads to the difference. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Identity politics today is about grabbing power from those who have unfairly retained it and earlier it was about emphasising common ground with the oppressor. Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 35 % 6) One may infer from the passage that according to Pascal Bruckner, the individualist reverts to tribalism essentially because He feels besieged by conflicting thoughts. He feels insecure in his individualism. He has to sell himself as a person in order to be accepted. He is uncertain about his own individual self Video Explanation: Explanation: Towards the end of the passage the writer states, “In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security”.” Thus, Bruckner concludes that the individual is insecure and from this one can infer that it is the loss of security that pushes him towards tribalism. Option 1 is incorrect. “Conflicting thoughts”, as option 1 suggests, are not the reason for the return to tribalism. Option 2 is correct. Because of “the lack of assurance of a place”, Bruckner states that while the individual gains freedom, he loses security. And given what is said earlier about the natural urge of humans to identify with a tribe, one can correctly infer that this insecurity acts as a trigger to tribalism in the person who believes in individualism. Option 3 is incorrect. Bruckner is quoted as saying that the individual today “has to sell himself in order to be accepted”. However the question as to why the individualist reverts to tribalism is answered by the quote earlier in the passage which explains the individualist’s insecurity arising from his reliance only on himself. Thus the reason the individualist moves to tribalism is because of insecurity and not because he has to sell himself as a person. Option 4 is incorrect. The individual is “insecure” because of the absence of a base and not because he is “uncertain of his own individual self”. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: He feels insecure in his individualism.

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 52 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Imagine three kids running around a maypole, forming a chain with their arms. The innermost kid is holding the pole with one hand. The faster they run, the more centrifugal force there is tearing the chain apart. The tighter they grip, the more centripetal force there is holding the chain together. Eventually centrifugal force exceeds centripetal force and the chain breaks. That’s essentially what is happening in this country, N.Y.U.’s Jonathan Haidt argued in a lecture delivered to the Manhattan Institute in November. He listed some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in

World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus. Haidt made the interesting point that identity politics per se is not the problem. Identity politics is just political mobilization around group characteristics. The problem is that identity politics has dropped its centripetal elements and become entirely centrifugal. Martin Luther King described segregation and injustice as forces tearing us apart. He appealed to universal principles and our common humanity as ways to heal prejudice and unite the nation. He appealed to common religious principles, the creed of our founding fathers and a common language of love to drive out prejudice. King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed. “A funny thing happens,” Haidt said, “when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” The problem is that tribal common-enemy thinking tears a diverse nation apart. This pattern is not just on campus. Look at the negative polarization that marks our politics. Parties, too, are no longer bound together by creeds but by enemies. In 1994, only 16 percent of Democrats had a “very unfavorable” view of the G.O.P. Now, 38 percent do. Then, only 17 percent of Republicans had a “very unfavorable” view of Democrats. Now, 43 percent do. When the Pew Research Center asked Democrats and Republicans to talk about each other, they tended to use the same words: closed-minded, dishonest, immoral, lazy, and unintelligent. Furthermore, it won’t be easy to go back to the common-humanity form of politics. King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years. Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion. In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security.” In societies like ours, individuals are responsible for their own identity, happiness and success. “Everyone must sell himself as a person in order to be accepted,” Bruckner wrote. We all are constantly comparing ourselves to others and, of course, coming up short. The biggest anxiety is moral. We each have to write our own gospel that defines our own virtue. The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault. 1) The writer uses the maypole example in order to … Explain that when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force the chain breaks. Resolve the differences between the political attitudes of various people, who act in ways similar to these forces that are centrifugal or centripetal. Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity. Capture the fundamental notions of forces acting around a centre point and the reasons these forces always are of two opposing natures. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Paragraph 2 states – “That’s essentially what is happening in this country, ………..some of the reasons centrifugal forces may now exceed centripetal: the loss of the common enemies we had in World War II and the Cold War, an increasingly fragmented media, the radicalization of the Republican Party, and a new form of identity politics, especially on campus.” The objective of using the maypole as an example was thus to lead to an understanding of these opposing forces playing out in the political landscape. Option 1 is incorrect. The example that occurs at the beginning of the essay is not used to literally explain what happens when the centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The maypole example is used as a starting point to explain the ideas of forces that pull things apart and those that bring things together. It is clearly not meant to “resolve” any issues. Option 3 is correct. The maypole example leads to an understanding of how these centrifugal and centripetal forces can be seen to operate in the political lives of human beings. Thus option 3 correctly states that the example is used to correctly explain the current political scenario in which identity politics has overwhelmed the binding force of a sense of common humanity. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The example is not meant to literally capture the notions of forces running around a centre point. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Explain the current political scenario in which the force of identity politics has broken the chain of common humanity.

Time taken by you: 348 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 241 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 2)According to the passage, in terms of the political situation, what are the two forces that are of a centripetal nature? Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years. Humanitarian values that have been upheld by democratic societies and individual morality that makes for a society based on civility. Democratic institutions that rely on individual sincerity and legal institutions that protect individual rights. Political identities that are based on homogeneous social and religious structures and recourse to the law when individual liberties are threatened. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. Refer to paragraph 4: “King was operating when there was high social trust. He could draw on a biblical metaphysic debated over 3,000 years. He could draw on an American civil religion that had been refined over 300 years.” Option 1 refers to this when it talks of ‘Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years’. These two aspects are seen as the two “forces of social cohesion” or centripetal forces. This is implied in the next line which says – “Over the past two generations, however, excessive individualism and bad schooling have corroded both of those sources of cohesion”. Option 2 is incorrect. Humanitarian values and individual morality are not referred to in the passage as two centripetal or cohesive forces. Option 3 is incorrect. Democratic and legal institutions are also not stated in the passage as two forces of social cohesion. Option 4 is incorrect. Political identities and recourse to the law are not stated to be centripetal forces in the passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Abstract religious notions that have been debated for thousands of years and national identities honed over hundreds of years. Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 18 % 3) According to the author, the ‘new form of identity politics on campuses’ is mainly a manifestation of which of the following? The deliberate attempt to radicalise the youth on campuses by making them see themselves as belonging to a particular victim group. The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism. The campus is a breeding ground for feelings of inferiority and superiority. The youth on campuses are only capable of seeing situations in a binary form and cannot grasp the unity of things. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The writer states that “The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story”. However, it is incorrect to say that this is the result of a deliberate attempt to radicalise the youth – nothing in the passage can lead to this conclusion. Option 2 is correct. The sixth paragraph states that “….when you take young human beings, whose minds evolved for tribal warfare and us/them thinking, and you fill those minds full of binary dimensions. You tell them that one side in each binary is good and the other is bad. You turn on their ancient tribal circuits, preparing them for battle. Many students find it thrilling; it floods them with a sense of meaning and purpose.” Therefore option 2 is correct when it states that “The youth find it easy to identify with a certain tribe or group as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.”.Option 3 is incorrect. There is no such reference to feelings of inferiority or superiority in the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that the minds of youth, that have evolved with tribal instincts, are filled ‘full of binary dimensions’ on campus. It does not state or imply that the youth are only capable of ‘seeing situations in a binary form’. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: The youth find it easy to identify themselves with a certain tribe or group, as humans have evolved to view things from the perspective of tribalism.

Time taken by you: 166 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 26 % 4)Who does the writer refer to when he says - You have virtue without obligation – in the last paragraph. The person who is the innocent victim of an oppressor and who has become aware of the fact that he/she is oppressed. The person who has identified his/her status as a victim and the group that has made him/her a victim. The person who understands that in order to fit in with those who are better than oneself, one must find one’s own story of victim hood. The person who decides to be a victim of circumstances and is thus able to navigate the future course of action, based on this identity. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph where it states: “The easiest way to do that is to tell a tribal oppressor/oppressed story and build your own innocence on your status as victim. Just about everybody can find a personal victim story. Once you’ve identified your herd’s oppressor — the neoliberal order, the media elite, white males, whatever — your goodness is secure. You have virtue without obligation. Nothing is your fault.” The writer sarcastically suggests that one must “build your own innocence on your status as victim”. Therefore the person who has virtue without obligation is not actually the innocent victim. Option 2 is correct. As the last paragraph states, the person who has a tribal oppressor/oppressed story to tell, and has identified his own victimhood as well as his herd’s oppressor can go ahead and “have virtue without obligation”. Option 3 is incorrect. There is no reference to fitting in with those who are better than oneself. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage doesn’t imply that the “the person decides to be a victim of circumstances” or that he is then clear about any future course of action. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: The person who has identified his/her status as a victim and the group that has made him/her a victim. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 5)According to the writer, how has Identity politics changed since Martin Luther King? Identity politics today has more to do with politics than identities whereas earlier it was about identities and not politics. Identity politics today is about the population following a leader whereas earlier it was about a leader understanding his followers. Identity politics today is ubiquitous – with everyone choosing a tag to identify with, whereas earlier it was a matter of pertinence and relevance to real issues. Identity politics today is about grabbing power from those who have unfairly retained it and earlier it was about emphasising common ground with the oppressor. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that identity politics was always there, even during the time of Martin Luther King. And it was about identity, both earlier and now. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not make any statements about leaders understanding their followers or populations following leaders. Option 3 is incorrect – the passage does not imply that the difference lies in the ubiquity of identity politics. Option 4 is correct. The answer can be deduced from the fourth and the fifth paragraph. “King “framed our greatest moral failing as an opportunity for centripetal redemption,” Haidt observed. From an identity politics that emphasized our common humanity, we’ve gone to an identity politics that emphasizes having a common enemy. On campus these days, current events are often depicted as pure power struggles — oppressors acting to preserve their privilege over the virtuous oppressed.” Thus option 4 correctly states the difference in identity politics as one that is about grabbing power and about emphasising common ground. The focus on power leads to the difference. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Identity politics today is about grabbing power from those who have unfairly retained it and earlier it was about emphasising common ground with the oppressor. Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 35 % 6) One may infer from the passage that according to Pascal Bruckner, the individualist reverts to tribalism essentially because He feels besieged by conflicting thoughts. He feels insecure in his individualism. He has to sell himself as a person in order to be accepted. He is uncertain about his own individual self Video Explanation: Explanation: Towards the end of the passage the writer states, “In 1995, the French intellectual Pascal Bruckner published “The Temptation of Innocence,” in which he argued that excessive individualism paradoxically leads to in-group/out-group tribalism. Modern individualism releases each person from social obligation, but “being guided only by the lantern of his own understanding, the individual loses all assurance of a place, an order, a definition. He may have gained freedom, but he has lost security”.” Thus, Bruckner concludes that the individual is insecure and from this one can infer that it is the loss of security that pushes him towards tribalism. Option 1 is incorrect. “Conflicting thoughts”, as option 1 suggests, are not the reason for the return to tribalism. Option 2 is correct. Because of “the lack of assurance of a place”, Bruckner states that while the individual gains freedom, he loses security. And given what is said earlier about the natural urge of humans to identify with a tribe, one can correctly infer that this insecurity acts as a trigger to tribalism in the person who believes in individualism. Option 3 is incorrect. Bruckner is quoted as saying that the individual today “has to sell himself in order to be accepted”. However the question as to why the individualist reverts to tribalism is answered by the quote earlier in the passage which explains the individualist’s insecurity arising from his reliance only on himself. Thus the reason the individualist moves to tribalism is because of insecurity and not because he has to sell himself as a person. Option 4 is incorrect. The individual is “insecure” because of the absence of a base and not because he is “uncertain of his own individual self”. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: He feels insecure in his individualism.

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 52 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. As Arctic permafrost thaws, it unleashes a vicious cycle—the unfrozen soil releases its carbon reserves that intensify climate change, in turn accelerating the thaw. Now researchers have reported another disturbing discovery: The permafrost holds a much greater cache of mercury than thought—and as the ground warms, it could potentially release that toxic metal on the world. In the new study, published in Geophysical Research Letters, an international team of scientists drilled 13 permafrost soil cores at various locations in Alaska. Back at their lab they analysed the frozen cores to measure factors such as moisture, organic carbon and mercury content. The 50- to 100-centimeter cores spanned a time between 22,000 and 2,400 years ago, meaning the vast majority of mercury they hold came from nonhuman sources. The researchers used their measurements to extrapolate an estimate of how much mercury is stored in the entire Northern Hemisphere’s permafrost. Their results indicate Arctic permafrost holds about 793 gigagrams of mercury—more than 15 million gallons, or the equivalent of about 23 Olympic swimming pools, says Paul Schuster, a research geologist for the U.S. Geological Survey and one of the study authors. When the researchers calculated the amount of mercury likely stored in both the permafrost and the layer of soil that sits above it (and routinely thaws for part of the year), they estimated there is a total of 1,656 gigagrams. “The active layer and the permafrost together contain nearly twice as much [mercury] as all the other soils, the ocean and the atmosphere combined,” the researchers wrote in their study. Permafrost is frozen soil, rock or sediment that stays at or below freezing for at least two consecutive years. It covers about a quarter of the Northern Hemisphere’s landmass, which helps explain why it holds so much mercury. But permafrost is also unique in that its frozen state traps the mercury in the soil, rather than allowing it to be mobile in the environment. “In [other locations such as] the Lower 48 [U.S. states], soils are hydrologically connected and mercury cycles through. It’s part of the whole global mercury cycle,” Schuster says. “In the Arctic you’re locking in the mercury—it’s not reacting with the rest of the world.” The new findings have potentially massive implications for ecosystems and human health. Between 30 and 99 percent of the Arctic’s near-surface permafrost is predicted to thaw by 2100, according to the study. As it does so, at least a portion of the previously lockedaway mercury will probably become mobile. “It becomes not just an Arctic problem, but a global problem,” says Elsie Sunderland, an associate professor of environmental science and engineering at Harvard University who was not involved in the study. “It doesn’t just stay in the [same] place.” The mercury could either be washed into the Arctic Ocean and then circulate through the global marine system or escape into the

atmosphere and travel to other parts of the planet. Either in the Arctic soil or in the broader environment, mercury can get converted into a form dangerous to humans and other wildlife, including marine animals. “The other half of the story—the one that most people are concerned with—is how does this affect the health of our environment, our aquatic systems, us?” Schuster says. “This has major ramifications.” Other experts concur: “It really reinforces the [idea] that climate change can make a lot of other environmental issues worse,” says Noelle Selin, an associate professor of data, systems, and society, and atmospheric chemistry at Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Carl Lamborg, an assistant professor of ocean sciences at the University of California, Santa Cruz, agrees it is definitely a concern that humans have potentially “added a whole bunch of mercury into the global mercury cycle.” But he also notes, “it’s a little hard to know exactly what’s going to happen when this permafrost soil thaws. Just because the soil warms, is all of the mercury going to get released? I don’t think we know, but it’s definitely something to be worried about.” Schuster says this is exactly what experts want to find out now: “The next question is, if it’s going to be released, where is it going to go?” 1) Which of the following best describes what the writer is attempting to do in this passage? To caution mankind of the consequences of the large amounts of mercury in the Arctic that may become mobile sooner than expected in view of climate change owing to human activities. To bring to light the hitherto unknown existence of enormous amounts of mercury in the Arctic permafrost and the risk it poses to the environment. To explain the findings of a recent study related to the Arctic permafrost that has potentially massive implications for ecosystems and human health. To point out that Northern Hemisphere’s huge cache of mercury has troubling implications for wildlife and human health. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The writer explains the discovery of large amounts of mercury in the Northern Hemisphere’s permafrost and says that it may get released owing to natural thawing – he calls it a vicious cycle. The writer does not attribute the potential release to manmade climate change. His position is that “climate change can make a lot of other environmental issues worse.” Option 1 which states ‘sooner than expected” and ascribing a direct cause effect relationship between an environmental issue and human activities is not his purpose. Option 2 is incorrect. The option says“hitherto unknown existence” of mercury on the Northern Hemisphere. This distorts the passage and the purpose. The discovery helped the scientist to understand that ‘the permafrost held a much greater cache of mercury that thought.’ Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 is too general, though it can apply to the passage. The specific nature of the discovery that has massive implications is not specified in the option. Option 4 is correct. It captures the purpose of the writer in brief. He points out that scientists have only recently realized the extent of mercury in the permafrost in the Northern Hemisphere. And that its potential release owing to natural thawing of the permafrost can become a global problem. And, like many other environmental issues this problem can also be aggravated by human made climate change. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: To point out that Northern Hemisphere’s huge cache of mercury has troubling implications for wildlife and human health.

Time taken by you: 338 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 % 2) According to the passage, all these are true EXCEPT: A quarter of Northern Hemisphere’s landmass contains almost twice as much mercury as all other soils, the ocean, and the atmosphere combined. Mercury occurring in the active layer and the permafrost is a naturally occurring phenomenon. Mercury from the Arctic routinely gets washed into the Arctic Ocean and circulates through the global marine system in the ‘mercury cycle’. A global ‘mercury cycle’ is a natural phenomenon at places other than the Arctic. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is factually correct. One fourth of the Northern Hemisphere is Permafrost and this permafrost and the active layer together contain as much mercury as all other sources put together – in effect 1/4th of the Northern Hemisphere holds this mercury. Options 2 and 4 are true according the passage. Option 2 is stated in the second paragraph. The researchers found that the vast majority of mercury the permafrost holds came from non-human sources. The cores they examined spanned a time between 22000 and 2400 years ago. So Mercury occurring in the active layer and the permafrost is a naturally occurring phenomenon. Option 3 is factually incorrect. Mercury in the permafrost is locked up in the permafrost and not part of the mercury cycle. Paragraph 4 states “… permafrost is also unique in that its frozen state traps the mercury in the soil, rather than allowing it to be mobile in the environment. … In the Arctic you’re locking in the mercury—it’s not reacting with the rest of the world.” Option 4 is factually correct. The fourth paragraph explains this cycle. It is only in the permafrost keeps the mercury locked in. At places other than the Arctic, for example, in the Lower 48 US states, soils are hydrologically connected and mercury cycles through. The passage then states that it is a part of the global phenomenon. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Mercury from the Arctic routinely gets washed into the Arctic Ocean and circulates through the global marine system in the ‘mercury cycle’.

Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 75 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 % 3)In the light of the passage, the enormous amount of mercury locked-in in the Arctic permafrost is “something to be worried about” because: Mercury can get converted into a form dangerous to humans and other wildlife, including marine animals. According to the study, between 30 and 99 percent of the Arctic’s near-surface permafrost is predicted to thaw by 2100. According to Carl Lamborg, humans have potentially added a whole bunch of mercury into the global mercury cycle. The ‘active layer’ or the layer of soil that sits above the permafrost routinely thaws for part of the year. Video Explanation: Explanation: The reason for the worry can be briefly explained this way: A recent research estimated the quantity of mercury held sealed by the permafrost to be massive. As permafrost thaws, this mercury can be potentially released into the environment causing harm to humans and animals. The worry mainly springs from the possibility of the thawing of the arctic permafrost. Option 1 is incorrect. It is a fact that mercury exists in the Arctic. That it can get converted into harmful forms cannot be worrisome only if it is released into the environment. Option 1 does no indicate nay such possibility. Option 2 is correct. As explained in the passage, the thaw of the Arctic will make the mercury so far sealed within the permafrost mobile. Its release into the environment has major ramifications. These ramifications are worrisome. Option 3 is incorrect. t talks about the human contribution to the store of mercury. It cannot answer the question why mercury in the Arctic permafrost is worrisome. Option 4 is incorrect. The routine and periodical thaw of the ‘active layer’ is not advanced as of any major concern in the passage. It is explained as a periodical occurrence and a part of the mercury cycle, hence not worrisome or elated to the mercury locked in by the arctic permafrost. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: According to the study, between 30 and 99 percent of the Arctic’s near-surface permafrost is predicted to thaw by 2100. Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 % 4)It can be inferred from the passage that … The permafrost contributes is one of the natural factors affecting climate change. Arctic’s near surface permafrost is predicted to thaw completely by 2100 releasing 1656 gigagrams of locked-in mercury. The consequences of the thaw of arctic permafrost are beginning to be felt in the Northern Hemisphere. The mercury held locked-in by the Arctic permafrost has an otherwise important role to play in the mercury-cycle in the environment. 5)Which one of the following, about permafrost, is NOT asserted in the passage? Stays frozen for at least two consecutive years. Thaw of Permafrost periodically releases the mercury locked-in inside. Covers a quarter of the landmass of the Northern Hemisphere. Holds totally 793 gigagrams of mercury. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Options 1, 3 and 4 are explicitly stated in the passage. An explanation of what the permafrost is, can be found in the 4th paragraph. The permafrost is frozen soil, rock or sediment that stays at or below freezing for at least two consecutive years. This makes option 1 correct. Option 3 is stated in the same paragraph that it (permafrost) covers about a quarter of the Northern Hemisphere’s landmass. The beginning of paragraph 3 states that Arctic permafrost holds about 793 gigagrams of mercury. This makes option 4 also correct. Option 2 is not correct. The first paragraph states that “As Arctic permafrost thaws, it unleashes a vicious cycle—the unfrozen soil releases its carbon reserves that intensify climate change, in turn accelerating the thaw.” The fourth paragraph states that the mercury in the permafrost does not react with the rest of the world. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Thaw of Permafrost periodically releases the mercury locked-in inside. Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 6)According to the passage, the findings of the study highlight which of the following? The consequences of human activities that have added a whole bunch of mercury into the global mercury cycle. The unpredictable effects of natural and man-made climate change. How climate change can affect other natural phenomena and make them worse. How a local phenomenon restricted to the Arctic can become a global problem.

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The fact that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being, or even of market activity, has, of course, long been recognized. But changes in

society and the economy may have heightened the problems, at the same time that advances in economics and statistical techniques may have provided opportunities to improve our metrics. For example, while GDP is supposed to measure the value of output of goods and services, in one key sector – government – we typically have no way of doing it, so we often measure the output simply by the inputs. If government spends more – even if inefficiently – output goes up. In the last 60 years, the share of government output in GDP has increased from 21.4% to 38.6% in the US, from 27.6% to 52.7% in France, from 34.2% to 47.6% in the United Kingdom, and from 30.4% to 44.0% in Germany. So what was a relatively minor problem has now become a major one. Likewise, quality improvements – say, better cars rather than just more cars – account for much of the increase in GDP nowadays. But assessing quality improvements is difficult. Health care exemplifies this problem: much of medicine is publicly provided, and much of the advances are in quality. The same problems in making comparisons over time apply to comparisons across countries. The United States spends more on health care than any other country (both per capita and as a percentage of income), but gets poorer outcomes. Part of the difference between GDP per capita in the US and some European countries may thus be a result of the way we measure things. Another marked change in most societies is an increase in inequality. This means that there is increasing disparity between average (mean) income and the median income (that of the “typical” person, whose income lies in the middle of the distribution of all incomes). If a few bankers get much richer, average income can go up, even as most individuals’ incomes are declining. So GDP per capita statistics may not reflect what is happening to most citizens. We use market prices to value goods and services. But now, even those with the most faith in markets question reliance on market prices, as they argue against mark-to-market valuations. The pre-crisis profits of banks – one-third of all corporate profits – appear to have been a mirage. This realization casts a new light not only on our measures of performance, but also on the inferences we make. Before the crisis, when US growth (using standard GDP measures) seemed so much stronger than that of Europe, many Europeans argued that Europe should adopt US-style capitalism. Of course, anyone who wanted to could have seen American households’ growing indebtedness, which would have gone a long way toward correcting the false impression of success given by the GDP statistic. Recent methodological advances have enabled us to assess better what contributes to citizens’ sense of well-being, and to gather the data needed to make such assessments on a regular basis. These studies, for instance, verify and quantify what should be obvious: the loss of a job has a greater impact than can be accounted for just by the loss of income. They also demonstrate the importance of social connectedness. Any good measure of how well we are doing must also take account of sustainability. Just as a firm needs to measure the depreciation of its capital, so, too, our national accounts need to reflect the depletion of natural resources and the degradation of our environment. Statistical frameworks are intended to summarize what is going on in our complex society in a few easily interpretable numbers. It should have been obvious that one couldn’t reduce everything to a single number, GDP. The report by the Commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress will, one hopes, lead to a better understanding of the uses, and abuses, of that statistic. The report should also provide guidance for creating a broader set of indicators that more accurately capture both well-being and sustainability; and it should provide impetus for improving the ability of GDP and related statistics to assess the performance of the economy and society. Such reforms will help us direct our efforts (and resources) in ways that lead to improvement in both. 1) The primary purpose of the passage is to: Identify some critical shortcomings of GDP and suggest that better indicators of economic well-being and sustainability are needed. Show that incorrect interpretation of GDP numbers lead to a false notion that US growth was much stronger than that of Europe. Suggest ways in which inferences from GDP numbers could be improved so that economic well-being and sustainability can be assessed more accurately. Argue that changes in society and the economy and simultaneous advances in economics and statistical techniques have diminished the relevance of GDP as an indicator of the nation’s economic well-being. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is correct. The passage lists the shortcomings of the GDP and how ‘one couldn’t reduce everything to a single number GDP.’ The last paragraph then states that “the report of the Commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress should also provide guidance for creating a broader set of indicators that more accurately capture both well-being and sustainability; and it should provide impetus for improving the ability of GDP and related statistics to assess the performance of the economy and society. Such reforms will help us direct our efforts (and resources) in ways that lead to improvement in both. ” Option 2 is incorrect. This point is made in the passage to show the consequences of incorrect inferences made from GDP numbers. It is not the main point of the passage. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest ways to improve inferences from GDP numbers; it merely states that inferences from GDP numbers must be improved. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage mentions this point to argue against chasing GDP growth. It is not the primary purpose of the passage. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Identify some critical shortcomings of GDP and suggest that better indicators of economic well-being and sustainability are needed.

Time taken by you: 333 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 223 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 2)The function of paragraph 3 in the passage as a whole is to: Narrow the scope of discussion pertaining to limitations of GDP. Present examples to assert that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being. Cite the most prominent limitation of GDP. Explain the need for quality improvements. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. 3rd paragraph does not narrow down the scope of the passage. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that GDP has limitations and there is an opportunity to improve the economic metrics. Paragraphs 2 and 3 provide examples corresponding to the assertion made in paragraph 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Para 3 makes no mention of the most prominent limitation of GDP. Option 4 is incorrect. In context of the passage as a whole, paragraph 3 serves to provide examples of limitations of GDP. The function of paragraph 3 is not to explain the need for quality improvement per se. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Present examples to assert that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being. Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 % 3)The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following? GDP measure may actually impede economic development by limiting the application of statistical techniques to improve general well-being. GDP is a comprehensive and accurate indicator of a nation’s well-being and market activity. Market prices of goods and services are usually less than the intrinsic value of those goods and services. GDP is calculated differently in capitalist countries like US than in non- capitalist European countries. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. The author states that “The fact that GDP may be a poor measure of well-being … has long been recognized.” Also, it states that “… in most societies [there] is an increase in inequality … GDP per capita statistics may not reflect what is happening to most citizens.” This implies that GDP might not capture the growing inequality.” In the 8th paragraph the writer says that “Recent methodological advances have enabled us to assess better what contributes to citizens’ sense of well-being, and to gather the data needed to make such assessments on a regular basis” GDP, by being a false metric in itself may hinder the application of these methodological advances. Option 2 is incorrect. In fact, the author states the opposite that GDP is a poor measure of a nation’s wellbeing. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not mention of intrinsic value of goods and services. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage makes no mention of capitalist vs. non-capitalist countries. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: GDP measure may actually impede economic development by limiting the application of statistical techniques to improve general well-being. Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 4)

The passage mentions all of the following as not included in GDP, EXCEPT: Importance of social connectedness. Degradation of environment. A country’s growing indebtedness. Depletion of natural resources. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that recent methodological advances demonstrate importance of social connectedness. It is implied that GDP did not factor in social connectedness. Therefore this is not an exception. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that “Any good measure … must also take account of sustainability. … our national accounts need to reflect the depletion of natural resources and the degradation of our environment.” Option 3 is correct. The passage does not mention whether or not a country’s growing indebtedness is a parameter of GDP. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 2 the need for GDP to take account of depletion of natural resources is mentioned by the author. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: A country’s growing indebtedness.

Time taken by you: 93 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 54 % 5)The reference to “American households’ growing indebtedness” serves to do which of the following? Argue that Europe should not adopt US-style capitalism. Highlight the limitations of GDP. Show that the pre-crisis growth of US was stronger than that of Europe. Demonstrate the importance of recent methodological advances to measure economic well-being. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The author states that “…many Europeans argued that Europe should adopt US-style capitalism.” The author does not argue for or against it. Option 2 is correct. In paragraph 7, the author states that “before the crisis, when US growth (using standard GDP measures) seemed so much stronger than that of Europe, many Europeans argued that Europe should adopt USstyle capitalism. Of course, anyone who wanted to could have seen American households’ growing indebtedness, which would have gone a long way toward correcting the false impression of success given by the GDP statistic.” Hence, the author highlights that limitations of GDP could have been observed by looking at American households’ growing debts.” Option 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions that pre-crisis growth of US only “seemed” to be stronger than that of Europe. Rather the author argues that the perceived growth was actually a false impression given by GDP statistics. Option 4 is incorrect. The author does not mention “American households’ growing indebtedness” to show the importance of recent methodological advances. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Highlight the limitations of GDP. Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 6)All of the following can be inferred from the passage, EXCEPT: GDP per capita statistics do not reveal the increase in inequality. A good measure of economic well-being should evaluate the destructive impact of economic activities on the environment. (GDP does not measure the destructive impact of economic activities on the environment.) Nations that rely heavily on economic indicators such as the GDP tend to become increasingly capitalistic in nature. Sustainability is one of the key factors to measure economic well-being of a nation. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “Another marked change in most societies is an increase in inequality … GDP per capita statistics may not reflect what is happening to most citizens.” This option can be inferred from the passage and is NOT an exception. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions that “… our national accounts need to reflect … the degradation of our environment.” Option 3 is correct. The passage makes no correlation between reliance on GDP and tendency of a nation to become increasingly capitalistic. We cannot infer this option from the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that “Any good measure … must also take account of sustainability.” Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: Nations that rely heavily on economic indicators such as the GDP tend to become increasingly capitalistic in nature. Time taken by you: 55 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The human intellect is said to be so constituted that general ideas arise by abstraction from particular observations, and therefore come after them in point of time. If this is what actually occurs, as happens in the case of a man who has to depend solely upon his own experience for what he learns — who has no teacher and no book — such a man knows quite well which of his particular observations belong to and are represented by each of his general ideas. He has a perfect acquaintance with both sides of his experience, and accordingly, he treats everything that comes in his way from a right standpoint. This might be called the natural method of education. Contrarily, the artificial method is to hear what other people say, to learn and to read, and so to get your head crammed full of general ideas before you have any sort of extended acquaintance with the world as it is, and as you may see it for yourself. You will be told that the particular observations which go to make these general ideas will come to you later on in the course of experience; but until that time arrives, you apply your general ideas wrongly, you judge men and things from a wrong standpoint, you see them in a wrong light, and

treat them in a wrong way. So it is that education perverts the mind. This explains why it so frequently happens that, after a long course of learning and reading, we enter upon the world in our youth, partly with an artless ignorance of things, partly with wrong notions about them; so that our demeanor savors at one moment of a nervous anxiety, at another of a mistaken confidence. The reason of this is simply that our head is full of general ideas which we are now trying to turn to some use, but which we hardly ever apply rightly. This is the result of acting in direct opposition to the natural development of the mind by obtaining general ideas first, and particular observations last: it is putting the cart before the horse. Instead of developing the child’s own faculties of discernment, and teaching it to judge and think for itself, the teacher uses all his energies to stuff its head full of the ready-made thoughts of other people. The mistaken views of life, which spring from a false application of general ideas, have afterwards to be corrected by long years of experience; and it is seldom that they are wholly corrected. This is why so few men of learning are possessed of common-sense, such as is often to be met with in people who have had no instruction at all. 1)What is the main idea of the passage? The abstraction of one’s general ideas should follow from and be rooted in direct experience and observation. The artificial method of education is essentially the inverse of the natural method. Artificial education produces at once a nervous anxiety and mistaken confidence. Common-sense is uncommon among learned men. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. The author argues for natural method of education i.e. to first observe the world by ourselves and then form general ideas about those observations and against the artificial method. Option 2 is incorrect. The author mentions that artificial method is contrary to the natural method but it is not the main idea of the passage. Option 3 is incorrect. The author uses this point to argue against the artificial method but it is not the central point of the passage. Option 4 is incorrect. The author again uses this argument against the artificial method of education but it does not convey the main idea of the passage. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: The abstraction of one’s general ideas should follow from and be rooted in direct experience and observation. Time taken by you: 36 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 143 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 2)The author contends that artificial method of education leads to “artless ignorance” in the third paragraph to point out that: We see the world around us as per the ready-made thoughts of other people rather than try to see and think for ourselves. We tend to be generally ignorant about the art and beauty around us. Wrong general ideas are filled into our minds and have to be corrected afterwards. People who have no instructions at all are not ignorant and have better common-sense. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is correct. “Artless ignorance” is used in the context of the subsequent sentence i.e. “The reason of this is simply that our head is full of general ideas which we are now trying to turn to some use, but which we hardly ever apply rightly.” Option 2 is incorrect. This option is out of context of the passage. Option 3 is incorrect. “Artless ignorance” does not refer to wrong ideas filled into our minds. Option 4 is incorrect. In the context of the passage, “Artless ignorance” does not refer to people with no instructions and their common-sense. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: We see the world around us as per the ready-made thoughts of other people rather than try to see and think for ourselves. Time taken by you: 140 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 70 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 3)In the author’s view, education perverts the mind because We judge men and things from a wrong standpoint. We are filled with general ideas but have no practical observations. We apply general ideas wrongly. We treat men in a wrong way. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. This option is a consequence of education perverting the mind, but is not the reason why education perverts the mind option 2 is correct. Paragraph 2 mentions that “You will be told that the particular observations which go to make these general ideas will come to you later on in the course of experience;…”. This is the reason why education perverts the mind. Option 3 & 4 are incorrect. Again like option 1 these are the consequences and not the reason. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: We are filled with general ideas but have no practical observations. Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 63 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Given below is a paragraph, followed by four options. From the given options, choose the one that summarises the paragraph in the most appropriate way. The current moment in world history is a painful one. Open societies are in crisis, and various forms of dictatorships and mafia states, exemplified by Vladimir Putin’s Russia, are on the rise. In the United States, President Donald Trump would like to establish his own mafia-style state but cannot, because the Constitution, other institutions, and a vibrant civil society won’t allow it. Not only is the survival of open society in question; the survival of our entire civilization is at stake. The rise of leaders such as Kim Jong-un in North Korea and Trump in the US have much to do with this. Both seem willing to risk a nuclear war in order to keep themselves in power. But the root cause goes even deeper. Mankind’s ability to harness the forces of nature, both for constructive and destructive purposes, continues to grow, while our ability to govern ourselves properly fluctuates, and is now at a low ebb. Putin in Russia, Trump in the US and Kim Jong-un in North Korea put our civilization and open society at risk with their craze for power and threats of nuclear war. This root cause lies in our inability to govern ourselves combined with the destructive capabilities of technology. The current moment in world history is a painful one because of the rise of dictatorships and Mafia states like Russia, US and North Korea. Their threat of nuclear war arises from their craze for power and the destructive technologies at their disposal. The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states, Russia, US, and North Korea puts the survival of our civilization at stake with threats of nuclear war as they want to remain in power. Our ability to govern ourselves is at its lowest ebb compared to the destructive potential of science. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph states that the threat is exemplified by Putin and other leaders. However the option states that Putin and other leaders directly put our civilization and open society at risk. Also, it is a misrepresentation to say “our inability to govern ourselves”. The paragraph refers to our inability to govern ourselves properly. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It can be more easily eliminated because the option misses the point of the threat to open societies and the civilization itself. Option 3 is correct. It is an appropriate summary of the main points that we identified at the beginning. It also does away with the examples; instead, properly highlights the essence of the paragraph.. Option 4 is inferior to option 3. The examples are directly blamed for the threat to our civilization. Thus, it misses the bigger picture (of world history). Also the threat to open societies does not find any mention. Option 4 is thus an inferior representation of the passage. Eliminate option 4 in favor of option 3. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The current rise of dictatorships and mafia states threatens not only open societies but also the survival of our civilization, as these regimes are willing to risk a nuclear war. The root cause lies in our ability to govern ourselves properly which is now outweighed by our destructive technologies. Time taken by you: 173 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 69 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Given below is a paragraph, followed by four options. From the given options, choose the one that summarises the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Alongside Paul Rée, Nietzsche came to the conviction that values, whether moral, political, aesthetic, or even metaphysical, were a function of drives which were themselves conditioned subconsciously throughout a long historical process. Old religious and Platonic beliefs in good and evil as static metaphysical entities were, for both Rée and Nietzsche, to be replaced with a naturalistic and developmental account about how present-day values derive from a convoluted process of practical and often egoistical considerations.

Paul Ree and Nietzsche believed that values were not static metaphysical entities but were a result of long environmental and psychological conditioning. For both Paul Ree and Nietzsche the metaphysical values of good and evil differed from the old religious and Platonic belief that they were static entities. Alongside Paul Ree, Nietzsche believed that values were static metaphysical entities like good and evil and independent of practical and egoistical considerations. Paul Ree and Nietzsche held that Platonic beliefs in good and evil as static metaphysical entities that replaced the naturalistic and developmental account about how values were derived. Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is correct. It succinctly captures the essence of the paragraph. Though it fails to mentions that value as static entities was the Platonic viewpoint, other options are worse and unacceptable. Option 2 is incorrect. it limits its description to good and evil and fails to mention the concept of values that Ree and Nietzsche held. Option 3 is incorrect. It is contrary to what is stated in the paragraph. The Platonic belief about values is attributed to Ree and Nietzsche. Option 4 is incorrect. It is misrepresentation of the paragraph. The concept of values of Plato was replaced by that of Ree and Nietzsche. The option appears to say the reverse. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: Paul Ree and Nietzsche believed that values were not static metaphysical entities but were a result of long environmental and psychological conditioning. Time taken by you: 180 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 50 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 %

undefined Given below is a paragraph, followed by four options. From the given options, choose the one that summarises the paragraph in the most appropriate way. The Greek Stoic philosopher Epictetus once said, “We have two ears and one mouth so that we can listen twice as much as we speak.” The same principle applies to dialogue, which requires that we listen to different perspectives, and always keep an open mind. That means heeding the public’s grievances, and working together toward collective solutions. Only joint responses will suffice to tackle the complex problems we face. The indispensability of multi-stakeholder dialogue to global progress should be the guiding ethos. The principle of ‘one mouth and two ears’ applies to dialogue. The guiding ethos to global progress is heeding the public’s grievances, multi-stakeholder dialogue with an open mind, and working for collective solutions. The fact that we have one mouth and two ears implies that we must listen more than we speak. Multi-stakeholder dialogue with an open mind for joint responses and collective solutions is indispensable for global progress. Epictetus’ principle to dialogue, multi-stakeholder dialogue, heeding public’s grievances and perspectives, and working towards collective solutions to complex problems should be our guiding ethos. Epictetus’ principle of ‘Listen more than you speak’ applies to dialogue. Heeding public’s grievances and different perspectives, and working towards collective solutions is indispensable for global progress. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It does not mention Epictetus who is invoked in the paragraph. The reference to Epictetus is a crucial element to the précis as the principle invoked for the entire paragraph comes from Epictetus. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, option 2 also

captures the essence without the mention of Epictetus. Option 3 is incorrect. The principle of ‘listen more than youspeak’ is not specified in this option which makes it unclear as to what the Epictetus principle to dialogue may mean, also the paragraph does not call it Epictetus’ principle of dialogue. Option 4 is correct. Without the figurative use of mouth and ears for speech and listening the option accurately captures the essence of the paragraph. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Epictetus’ principle of ‘Listen more than you speak’ applies to dialogue. Heeding public’s grievances and different perspectives, and working towards collective solutions is indispensable for global progress. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined The question below has a set of five sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following: ​ Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘1’). Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘2’). ​ Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘3’). Enter the answer sequence (ex: 1231, 1121, 2233 or any such sequence) that best describes the set of four statements. (Fact -1; Inference - 2; Judgment - 3).

1. At the Madinat Jumeirah in Dubai, there is art in every nook and corner. 2. One can’t help being caught up in the whirl of feverish activity. 3. Sprawling halls display cutting-edge contemporary art, symposiums discuss art and there are several film screenings too. 4. The list of things to see, hear and do is endless but the time, limited.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Statement 1 is a fact. The location and the presence of works of art are open to direct experience, hence fact or label 1. Statement 2 is a judgment. That one can’t help being caught in the whirl of feverish activity is a subjective and personal reaction to some event. Hence this is a judgment and gets the label 3. Statement 3 is a fact. The sprawling halls, the cutting edge contemporary art, symposiums and the film screenings are all open to direct verification or discover. Hence this statement is a fact and gets the label 1. Statement 4 is a judgment. The reference to the list is a fact, but the when the speaker terms it as endless; it is an exaggeration or personal opinion. Hence this statement is a judgment, and the statement gets the label 3. Hence, 1313. Correct Answer: 1313

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 11 %

undefined The question below has a set of five sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following: ​ Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘1’). Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘2’). ​ Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with ‘3’). Enter the answer sequence (ex: 1231, 1121, 2233 or any such sequence) that best describes the set of four statements. (Fact -1; Inference - 2; Judgment - 3) 1. After a run of nearly one thousand years, quipped the French philosopher and writer Voltaire, the fading Holy Roman Empire was neither holy nor Roman nor an empire. 2. Today, some two and a half centuries later, the problem is that the fading liberal world order is neither liberal nor worldwide nor orderly. 3. The United States, along with the United Kingdom and others, established the liberal world order in the wake of World War II. 4. The goal was to ensure that the conditions that had led to two world wars in 30 years would never again arise.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Statement 1 is a fact “quipped (utter taunting words)… Voltaire” overrides everything else in the sentence to make it a fact. Hence F or 1 Statement 2 is a judgment. ‘the problem ..is that fading liberal world order is neither liberal nor worldwide nor orderly” is a writer’s opinion- personal and subjective. Hence J or 3. Statement 3 is a Fact. ‘…established the liberal world order..’ is a fact. Hence F or 1.Statement 4 is a Fact. The goal as a stated aim “to ensure that the conditions … would never rise again” is a fact. Since ‘to ensure’ means it is a potential event/action, whether it can be a fact is a legitimate doubt. However, the goal was to go to the market, or the goal was to ensure success in the CAT etc. would not qualify to be an inference or a judgment. So the goal – as the potential end or the current purpose is a fact. Hence Fact or 1.. The sequence thus is FJFF Hence, 1311. Correct Answer: 1311 Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 4 %

undefined In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) (numbered 1 to 4) that is/are INCORRECT in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, and logical consistency. Ignore punctuation errors if any). Then key in the numbers in the ascending order. 1. Brand narrative is more controlled by the consumers as it is by the companies.

2. Not just online purchases, even offline purchases are being influenced by digital media.

3. It is estimated that over 50 percentage of today’s online population

4. claims to do online comparison shopping when buying products online or offline.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Fragment 1 is incorrect. ‘Brand narrative is more controlled by the consumers as it is by the companies. The comparison is in fragment 1 should be either ‘more… than’ or ‘as….as’ So. the sentence should read either more controlled by consumers than it is by companies or as controlled by consumers as it is by the companies. Fragment 2 is incorrect. The standard conjunction is Not… but. Hence the sentence should read ‘Not just online purchases, but even offline purchases …” Fragment 3 is incorrect. when the numeral is mentioned we do not use the word percentage with it, we use per cent. A large percentage or 50 percent will be correct usage. Fragment 4 is correct. Hence,123. Correct Answer: 123 Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 1 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 1 %

undefined In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) (numbered 1 to 4) that is/are INCORRECT in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, and logical consistency. Ignore punctuation errors if any). Then key in the numbers in the ascending order. 1. Although, all major political parties in India wax eloquence about patriotism

2. every time a soldier is killed in a terror attack or a counter-insurgency operation

3. against Pakistan-sponsored terrorists in Kashmir, when it comes to equip soldiers

4. who lie down their lives for the nation, patriotism often amounts to little more than lip-service.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Fragment 1 is incorrect. The correct idiom is ‘wax eloquent’. Fragment 2 is correct. Fragment 3 is incorrect. ‘Comes to’ is always followed by a noun or a gerund and not a verb. e.g “when it comes to reading (gerund) or when it comes to books (noun) are correct usage, but “when it comes to read.” Is incorrect. Fragment 4 is incorrect. Soldiers “lay down their lives’ is the correct idiom, not “lie down their lives”. Hence, 134. Correct Answer: 134 Time taken by you: 68 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 4 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. For writers like George Orwell, there is a whole honest politics in lucidity. 2. When it comes to the English language, long words are a clear enemy, say most of the style guides. 3. They remind you that concrete words like ‘stony’ evoke the thing itself, while abstract words like ‘lapidarian’ convey nothing unless you know them.

4. Cloudy language is just a cover for insincerity.

5. They tell you to take out every extra word, starve your sentences, murder your pet phrases.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentences 1, 3, and 5 are unlikely to be the starter sentence because of their abrupt start and their reference to something else – they are danglers which depend on some other sentence to get their clear meaning. We can consider sentence 4 and sentence 2 as the starter sentence. Sentence 4 cannot be followed by any of the other 4 sentences logically – so sentence 2 is clearly the starter. “the style guides’ mentioned in sentence 2 then is referred to as ‘they’ in sentences 3 and 5. ‘they tell you’ and ‘they remind you’ are more meaningful in that order rather than in the reverse. So weget our sequence of 2-5-3 which gives clear sense and coherency. Whether sentence 1 should come next or sentence 4 is not an easy choice. However, the clue lies in Orwell’s ‘honest politics in lucidity’. This honest politics in lucidity is explained as “cloudy language is just a cover for insincerity’. Thus 1-4 need to be placed in that order. This gives us the sequence 2-5-3-1-4. Hence the correct answer is 25314. Correct Answer: 25314 Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. The British Empiricists, following Locke, subscribed to a tabula rasa theory, denying innate ideas and maintaining that our knowledge must ultimately be based on sense experience. 2. Descartes and his followers were convinced that a priori knowledge of the existence of God, as an infinitely perfect Being, was possible and favored (what Kant would later call) the Ontological Argument as a way to establish it. 3. The Continental Rationalists, following Descartes, subscribed to a theory of a priori innate ideas that provide a basis for universal and necessary knowledge. 4. By contrast, Locke and his followers spurned such a priori reasoning and resorted to empirical approaches, such as the Cosmological Argument and the Teleological Arguments or Design Arguments. 5. Before Kant, modern European philosophy was generally split into two rival camps.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: The camps are mentioned in sentences 1 and 3 - the followers of Locke (The British Empiricists,) and the followers of Descartes (the continental rationalists). These sentences can be fixed as 5-1-3 or 5-3-1 as they merely name the two rival camps mentioned in sentence 1. We have to carefully look at both the sequences. Sentence 1 says the British Empiricists subscribed to the tabula theory which denied “innate ideas” – they denied the ‘innate ideas”. This is a denial of “a priori innate ideas...” already mentioned in sentence 3. Hence 3-1 is a mandatory pair. We can now be sure that the sequence so far is 531 and not 513. Sentence 4 which talks about “Locke and his followers’ begins with “by contrast. Hence it is easy to see that 2-4 is mandatory pair as well. So this 2-4 pair can be placed after 531 to get a meaningful paragraph. Hence 53124. Correct Answer: 53124. Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Such a failure erodes the gains made by many communities, because lost natural capital contributes to material losses. 2. The impact of such a terrible loss must be seen against the backdrop of the Northeast representing a global biodiversity hotspot. 3. The Environment Ministry’s report has calculated a cumulative loss of forests in Mizoram, Nagaland and Arunachal of nearly 1,200 sq km. 4. Naturally, environmental economists have come to regard the calculation of national accounts of wealth and development as weak, because governments do not add the benefits of functions such as flood control and climate moderation to the value of forests. 5. Any gains achieved through remediation programs in these States cannot compensate for it adequately.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The starter sentence is easy to identify through comparison: such a failure in sentence 1, ‘such a terrible loss in sentence 2, “in these states” in sentence 5 are danglers and will need another sentence before them to make sense. Comparing sentence 3 and 4, we can safely

settle that 3 is the best available starter sentence. 3-2 is a mandatory pair because “cumulative loss” in sentence 3 is referred to as “such a terrible loss” in sentence 2. Sentence 5 comes next because it refers to “these states” – the reference to ‘these states can be found in both sentences 3 and 2 , as Mizoram, Nagaland etc. in sentence 3 and “the Northeast” in sentence 2. So, we get 3-2-5 as a sequence. Placing the remaining two sentences is easy. Sentence 1 has to be placed after sentence 4 because ‘such a failure’ mentioned in sentence 4 will be without a reference if placed anywhere else. This gives the correct sequence of 41 placed after 325. Hence the correct answer is 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 5 %

undefined From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Then key in the number of that option as your answer. A hypothetical alien visitor, sent to observe all of human culture – art and architecture, music and medicine, storytelling and science – would quickly conclude that we as a species are obsessed with patterns. The formal gardens of 18th-century England, the folk tales of medieval Germany and the traditional woven fabrics of Mayan civilisation have little in common, ___________ 1. but, they are perfectly symmetrical unlike the patterns in the universe elsewhere. 2. except that they are reflections of the symmetry in the patterns of art and science. 3. but they owe their charm to smaller parts being arranged into a harmonious whole. 4. except that at a deeper level, they are representations of the very patterns of the Universe.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect – “unlike the patterns in the universe elsewhere…” is not indicated by the passage and even contrary to fact. Option 2 is incorrect. An alien is unlikely to conclude that the examples reflect the patterns in our art and science. Aliens are unaware of our arts and sciences. The only thing that they will observe is the patterns. For them the patterns are real, and they are not reflections of something else. Option 3 is correct. Most objectively, without being aware of the significance of our arts and sciences, an alien’s most superficial observation of the examples would be that they follow particular patterns. It helps to reinforce that our obsession with patterns is reflected in everything that we create, and impart it a particular charm. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not give us any information about what these patterns are at a deeper level, and whether they are representations of the universe in general. Such assumptions are unwarranted. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 17 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 17 %

undefined From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Then key in the number of that option as your answer. Can psychological “big data” be leveraged to make you buy products? Or, even more concerning, can such techniques be weaponized to influence the course of history, such as the outcomes of elections? On one hand, we’re faced with daily news from insiders attesting to the danger and effectiveness of micro-targeted messages based on unique “psychographic” profiles of millions of registered voters. _________________. 1. On the other hand, analytics show that repeatedly targeting people with misinformation that is designed to appeal to their political biases may well influence public attitudes. 2. On the other hand, academic writers warn that the political power of targeted online ads and bots are widely overblown. 3. On the other hand, we need to distinguish the attempts to manipulate and influence public opinion, from actual voter persuasion. 4. On the other hand, academics maintain that classic prediction models that only contain socio-demographic data aren’t very informative on their own in predicting behavior.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It is not contrasting to the second last sentence. It expresses a view similar to that of the ‘insiders’ and explains their methodology, that by repeatedly targeting people with misinformation, it is possible to exploit their political biases and influence election outcomes. Option 2 is correct. It provides a contrasting view – that of the academic writers who warn that the effectiveness and the potential of using psychological big data as a weapon are overrated. Thus it answers the question at the beginning of the paragraph, can “psychological “big data” be leveraged to influence elections? The answer is – it is debatable. Option 3 is incorrect. Since the insiders’ view is already stated that the efforts to influence are effective, the point of view that we need todistinguish between the effectiveness in different areas does not provide the contrast we are looking for. The option can make sense and provide the contrast only if we assume that the efforts to influence elections are futile. Option 4 is incorrect and more easily eliminated. ‘Socio- demographic data’ in the option vis a vis “psychological big data” in the passage, and the ‘classical prediction models’ in the option vis a vis ‘weaponization of data’ in the passage, make option 4 unsuitable. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Then key in the number of that option as your answer. Researchers have long known that people choose friends who are much like themselves in a wide array of characteristics: of a similar

age, race, religion, socioeconomic status, educational level, political leaning, pulchritude rating, even handgrip strength. The impulse toward homophily, toward bonding with others who are the least other possible, is found among traditional hunter-gatherer groups and advanced capitalist societies alike.______________. 1. A new study of 30,000 pairs of friends revealed that friends often have diverse tastes in aesthetics. 2. The misunderstanding, if any, between friends, is something that one can expect to be minimal, or of low intensity. 3. New research too, suggests that the roots of friendship extend even deeper than previously suspected. 4. Most of us have best friends who share the characteristics in ourselves that we most relate to as defining of our identity.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph begins by stating that “researchers have long known” that friendships thrive on similarities. Therefore it cannot lead to a statement that new research leads to a negation. Option 2 is incorrect. The paragraph does not preclude misunderstanding between friends, or suggest that misunderstanding will be minimal. It is beyond the scope of the paragraph. The paragraph merely says that research shows that people choose friends who are more like themselves. Option 3 is correct. It endorses the firm conclusion about similarities forming the basis of friendships and continues to discuss further research on the subject. Option 4 is incorrect. That we relate to others in terms of what defines our identity goes much beyond what is suggested in the paragraph. The tone of option 4 is also inconsistent with the preceding lines. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. The information given below indicates the movement of trucks between any pair of towns, from among six towns – A, B, C, D, E and F. All these six towns are on the Yamuna Express Highway connecting Delhi and Agra along a straight line. The distance between any two adjacent towns is 50 km.

All truck movements are direct movements. For example, as per the table given above, 6 trucks moved directly from town B to town A, without stopping at any intermediate cities. Total truck movement between any two towns i and j = tij + tji tij = Number of trucks that moved from town i to town j tji = Number of trucks that moved from town j to town i Total truck travel distance = Sum of the distances travelled by all the trucks put together It was observed that the total truck travel distance is minimum possible. 1) Which two towns are the farthest from each other? A&B D&F C&D A&D Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

The maximum number of truck movements are between (A & B = 7); (B & C = 8); (D & E = 8); (A & E = 6). Therefore, A must be adjacent to towns B & E. Similarly, B must be adjacent to both towns A & C. C must be adjacent to B & F and town E must be adjacent to towns D & A. Also, D & F = 0, therefore towns D & F can be farthest from each other. Therefore, there are two possible sequences of towns: Case 1: D, E, A, B, C, F Case 2: F, C, B, A, E, D D & F are the farthest from each other. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: D&F

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 % 2)

What is the sum of the number of truck movements between all the pairs of adjacent towns put together? 25 29 33 35 Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

The maximum number of truck movements are between (A & B = 7); (B & C = 8); (D & E = 8); (A & E = 6). Therefore, A must be adjacent to towns B & E. Similarly, B must be adjacent to both towns A & C. C must be adjacent to B & F and town E must be adjacent to towns D & A. Also, D & F = 0, therefore towns D & F can be farthest from each other. Therefore, there are two possible sequences of towns: Case 1: D, E, A, B, C, F Case 2: F, C, B, A, E, D D & E = 8, A & E = 6, A & B = 7, B & C = 8 and C & F = 4. Required sum = 33. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 33

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 23 % 3) What is the total truck travel distance (in km)? 4050 3250 3750 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

The maximum number of truck movements are between (A & B = 7); (B & C = 8); (D & E = 8); (A & E = 6). Therefore, A must be adjacent to towns B & E. Similarly, B must be adjacent to both towns A & C. C must be adjacent to B & F and town E must be adjacent to towns D & A. Also, D & F = 0, therefore towns D & F can be farthest from each other. Therefore, there are two possible sequences of towns: Case 1: D, E, A, B, C, F Case 2: F, C, B, A, E, D

Required answer = 350 + 200 + 200 + 300 + 300 + 400 + 450 + 400 + 450 + 200 + 400 + 400 = 4050 km. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 4050

Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 110 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 % 4) What was the sum of the truck travel distances (in km) covered by all the trucks that involved town E? 1800 1850 1900 1950 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us find the sequence of towns that can give minimum truck travel distance. The table given below provides the total truck movements between the towns.

The maximum number of truck movements are between (A & B = 7); (B & C = 8); (D & E = 8); (A & E = 6). Therefore, A must be adjacent to towns B & E. Similarly, B must be adjacent to both towns A & C. C must be adjacent to B & F and town E must be adjacent to towns D & A. Also, D & F = 0, therefore towns D & F can be farthest from each other. Therefore, there are two possible sequences of towns: Case 1: D, E, A, B, C, F Case 2: F, C, B, A, E, D Required answer = 300 + 400 + 450 + 400 + 400 = 1950 km. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 1950

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A company has seven business units – I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII. Each business unit generates some revenue for the company and incurs some cost on its operations. The stacked bar-charts given below show: First chart: The percentage contribution of each business unit in the total revenue generated by the company in the year 2017. Second chart: The percentage contribution of each business unit in the total cost incurred by the company in the year 2017. Third chart: The percentage break-up of the total number of employees working in the company in the year 2017.

1) If business unit IV made a profit, then how many of the other six business units may have made a loss? 0 1 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 141 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 128 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 40 % 2)

If profit per employee made by the business units IV and VI is same, then how many business units made a profit in the given year? (Write 8 if your answer is 'Cannot be determined')

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Therefore, the required answer is 7.

Correct Answer: 7

Time taken by you: 213 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) If none of the business units made a loss in the year 2017, then the profit percentage of business unit III would have been at least

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Therefore, the required answer is 26. Correct Answer: 26%

Time taken by you: 280 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 27 % 4) The senior management of the company decided to shut down the top three business units with highest average cost per employee. It was found that the average cost per employee in only these three departments was more than one unit and it was less than one unit in the remaining four departments. Which of the following can be the ratio of the total cost incurred to the total number of employees in the company? 6:7 7:8 8 : 15 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Let the total revenue generated, total cost incurred and the total number of employees be 100A, 100B and 100C respectively.

Correct Answer: 8 : 15

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Aplela, Bluy, Caspa, Dastrye, Eim and Fluana are the only six countries on an alien planet named ‘Bungaplanet’. Each of these countries trades (i.e. imports goods from and/or exports goods to other countries) with at least one of the remaining five countries every year. Both imports and exports are denominated in million BD (where BD is the currency of Bungaplanet, called Bunga Dollar). For all countries, we define trade surplus and trade deficit as follows: Trade surplus = Total Exports – Total Imports (if Total Exports > Total Imports) Trade deficit = Total Imports – Total Exports (if Total Imports > Total Exports) The following table shows the information about the exports and imports of the six countries in 2017. (Certain entries have been deliberately kept blank):

Additionally, the following points are known about the import/exports of the six countries in 2017: 1. The sum of the total imports of the six countries was 1000 million BD. 2. Only country Bluy had neither trade surplus nor trade deficit. Two other countries had trade surplus while the remaining three countries had trade deficit. 3. All the total imports/exports were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD. 1) Which of the following cannot be the value of total imports of country Aplela in 2017? 170 million BD

200 million BD 230 million BD 260 million BD Video Explanation: Explanation: We have total exports of the 6 countries = total imports = 1000 million BD. Using variables, m & n, we get the following values for 2017:

Given: CountryBluy had neither trade surplus nor trade deficit in 2017. Clearly, country Caspa had a trade surplus in 2017. Out of the remaining four countries, exactly one country had a trade surplus in 2017 and three countries had a trade deficit in 2017. Since total imports and exports values were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD, we have, 10 < m < 190 (in million BD). If m = 10, Fluana will have a zero trade surplus or deficit. Also if m = 200, country Fluana will have zero total exports, which is not possible. Therefore, we have 20 < m < 190. Therefore, countries Dastrye and Fluana definitely have trade deficit. To ensure that both Aplela and Eim have non-zero exports that are multiples of 10, we have 10 < n < 290. Out of Aplela and Eim, one country had a trade surplus and the other country had a trade deficit in 2017. We have the following cases: 1. Country Aplela had a surplus and country Eim had a deficit in 2017: For that, we must have 10 < n < 170. 2. Country Aplela had a deficit and country Eim had a surplus in 2017. For that, we must have 230 < n < 290. Combining the two, the possible values of n are: 10 to 170 (both included) and 230 to 290 (both included). Thus, n cannot take the value 200 million BD. Other three values are possible. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 200 million BD

Time taken by you: 285 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 309 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 % 2) Out of the countries Dastrye and Fluana, how many countries had trade deficit in 2017? (Write 3 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We have total exports of the 6 countries = total imports = 1000 million BD. Using variables, m & n, we get the following values for 2017:

Given: CountryBluy had neither trade surplus nor trade deficit in 2017. Clearly, country Caspa had a trade surplus in 2017. Out of the remaining four countries, exactly one country had a trade surplus in 2017 and three countries had a trade deficit in 2017. Since total imports and exports values were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD, we have, 10 < m < 190 (in million BD). If m = 10, Fluana will have a zero trade surplus or deficit. Also if m = 200, country Fluana will have zero total exports, which is not possible. Therefore, we have 20 < m < 190. Therefore, countries Dastrye and Fluana definitely have trade deficit in 2017. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 234 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 % 3) Additional information: In 2018, following were the numbers for the total exports and total imports for the six countries:

Additionally, the following points were known about imports/exports of the six countries in 2018: 1. Total sum of the imports of the six countries was 1450 million BD. Exactly two countries had a trade surplus and the remaining four countries had a trade deficit. 2. Both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have a trade surplus in 2018 as well. 3. All the total exports and total imports were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD.

Which of the following countries definitely had a trade surplus in 2018? Aplela Dastrye Fluana None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have the same in 2018 as well. CountryCaspa definitely had a trade surplus in 2018. From the explanatory answer to the previous questions, we know that one country out of Aplela and Eim had a trade surplus while the other had a trade deficit. Also, the other countries had a trade deficit in 2018. Using the total volume of trade = 1450 million BD, we have the following for 2018:

We have the following cases: 1. Country Aplela had trade surplus and Country Eim had trade deficit. For this to happen, 10 < n < 210 million BD. 2. Country Aplela had trade deficit and country Eim had trade surplus. For this to happen, 340 < n < 400 million BD. It can be seen that country Aplela may have a surplus or a deficit in 2018. We have already figured out that countries Dastrye and Fluana had a trade deficit in 2018. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 335 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 85 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 4) Additional information: In 2018, following were the numbers for the total exports and total imports for the six countries:

Additionally, the following points were known about imports/exports of the six countries in 2018: 1. Total sum of the imports of the six countries was 1450 million BD. Exactly two countries had a trade surplus and the remaining four countries had a trade deficit. 2. Both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have a trade surplus in 2018 as well. 3. All the total exports and total imports were non-zero multiples of 10 million BD.

If country Eim had a trade surplus in 2018, what can be the minimum value of the trade surplus of country Eim in 2018 (in million BD)? (Write 0 if country Eim cannot have a trade surplus in 2018). Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that both the countries that had a trade surplus in 2017 continued to have the same in 2018 as well. CountryCaspa definitely had a trade surplus in 2018. From the explanatory answer to the previous questions, we know that one country out of Aplela and Eim had a trade surplus while the other had a trade deficit. Also, the other countries had a trade deficit in 2018. Using the total volume of trade = 1450 million BD, we have the following for 2018:

We have the following cases: 1. Country Aplela had trade surplus and Country Eim had trade deficit. For this to happen, 10 < n < 210 million BD. 2. Country Aplela had trade deficit and country Eim had trade surplus. For this to happen, 340 < n < 400 million BD. Imports of country Aplela in 2018 = n. We know that for country Eim to have trade surplus, 340 < n < 400. Exports of Eim = 190 million BD and imports = (410 – n) million BD. For minimum value of trade surplus, the value of imports should be maximum. Maximum value of imports = 410 – 340 = 70 million BD. Therefore, the minimum value of trade surplus = 190 – 70 = 120 million BD. Therefore, the required answer is 120.

Correct Answer: 120

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Wrong

% Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Automobile companies Honda & Hyundai together sold 1500 cars this year. The cars were categorized as Manual & Automatic. It is known that the total number of manual cars sold by the two companies together is half the total number of automatic cars sold by the two companies together. The number of cars sold by Honda is half the number of cars sold by Hyundai. The number of Honda cars priced above INR 15 lakhs is same as the number of automatic cars priced above INR 15 lakhs. The number of manual cars, priced below INR 15 lakhs and sold by Honda is 10 more than the number of Hyundai automatic cars priced above INR 15 lakhs. Of all the cars sold, those priced below INR 15 lakhs is 540 more than those priced above INR 15 lakhs. No car costs exactly INR 15 lakhs. 1) What is the difference between the number of manual Hyundai cars priced below INR 15 lakhs and the number of automatic Honda cars priced above INR 15 lakhs? 0 10 30 None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that the number of manual cars is half the number of automatic cars. Manual cars = 500, Automatic cars = 1000 Therefore, a + b + e + f = 500 & c + d + g + h = 1000 Also, a + b + c + d = 500 & e + f + g + h = 1000 From above, we can conclude that c + d = e + f Also, given that b = 10 + g Given that (b + d + f + h) – (a + c + e + g) = 540 Also, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 1500 Therefore, a + c + e + g = 480 and b + d + f + h = 1020 Given that (c + a) = (c + g) or a = g We need to calculate f – c. (a + b + e + f) – (a + c + e + g) = b + f – c – g = 500 – 480 = 20 Also, b – g = 10. Therefore, f – c = 20 – 10 = 10. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 275 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 % 2) If the number of automatic cars priced above INR 15 lakhs is 220, then what could be the minimum percentage of Honda cars that are automatic and priced below INR 15 lakhs? 0% 2% 8% 10% Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Given that the number of manual cars is half the number of automatic cars. Manual cars = 500, Automatic cars = 1000 Therefore, a + b + e + f = 500 & c + d + g + h = 1000 Also, a + b + c + d = 500 & e + f + g + h = 1000 From above, we can conclude that c + d = e + f Also, given that b = 10 + g Given that (b + d + f + h) – (a + c + e + g) = 540 Also, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 1500 Therefore, a + c + e + g = 480 and b + d + f + h = 1020 Given that (c + a) = (c + g) or a = g

Correct Answer: 10%

Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 26 % 3)

50 90 160 170 Video Explanation: Explanation:

Given that the number of manual cars is half the number of automatic cars. Manual cars = 500, Automatic cars = 1000 Therefore, a + b + e + f = 500 & c + d + g + h = 1000 Also, a + b + c + d = 500 & e + f + g + h = 1000 From above, we can conclude that c + d = e + f Also, given that b = 10 + g Given that (b + d + f + h) – (a + c + e + g) = 540 Also, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 1500 Therefore, a + c + e + g = 480 and b + d + f + h = 1020 Given that (c + a) = (c + g) or a = g

Correct Answer: 160

Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 4) If the number of Honda manual cars priced below INR 15 lakhs is minimum possible, then which of the following can be the number of automatic cars priced below INR 15 lakhs?

510 780 1010 More than one of these values Video Explanation: Explanation:

Given that the number of manual cars is half the number of automatic cars. Manual cars = 500, Automatic cars = 1000 Therefore, a + b + e + f = 500 & c + d + g + h = 1000 Also, a + b + c + d = 500 & e + f + g + h = 1000 From above, we can conclude that c + d = e + f Also, given that b = 10 + g Given that (b + d + f + h) – (a + c + e + g) = 540 Also, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 1500 Therefore, a + c + e + g = 480 and b + d + f + h = 1020 Given that (c + a) = (c + g) or a = g Given that b is minimum. Also, b = g + 10. For b to be minimum, g has to be 0. Therefore, b = 10 and g = 0. Since a = g, a = 0 We know a + g + c + e = 480 or c + e = 480 c = 480 – e Also, c + d + g + h = 1000 d + h = 1000 – c = 520 + e Since e can take values from 0 to 480, d + h can range from 520 to 1000. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 780

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6, P7 and P8 are eight persons working in the JCF bank. The manager of the bank came across some discrepancies in some banking transactions recently and suggested to form a committee of four persons in order to look into the matter. Any committee thus formed should have two males and two females. The chairman of the bank, nominated five directors – A, B, C, D and E to suggest their choice for the committee keeping in mind the guidelines set by the manager of the bank. The following table provides information about the suggestions made by the five directors.

The number of married couples included in the committee suggested by the five directors A, B, C, D and E is 1, 1, 1, 1 and 0 respectively. It is also known that P2 and P3 are males. 1) If there are exactly two couples among the eight persons, then which of the following is not a couple? P2 and P8 P3 and P7 P4 and P5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1.

(P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples.

2.

(P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples.

3.

(P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples.

4.

(P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples.

5.

(P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

Considering case (2), P2 and P8 is not a couple. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: P2 and P8

Time taken by you: 10 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 267 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 % 2) If there are exactly three couples among the eight persons, then which of the following must be a couple? P4 and P8 P2 and P7 P3 and P5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1. (P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples. 2. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples. 3. (P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples. 4. (P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples. 5. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

Considering cases (1), (3) and (4), P4 and P8 is definitely a couple. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: P4 and P8

Time taken by you: 101 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 18 % 3) If there are exactly three couples among the eight persons, then which of the following persons is definitely not married? P1 P3 P5 P8 Video Explanation: Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1. (P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples. 2. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples. 3. (P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples. 4. (P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples. 5. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

P1 is definitely not married. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: P1

Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 4) Each of the following persons is of the same gender except P5 P6 P7 P8 Video Explanation:

Explanation: We know that P2 and P3 are males. Consider suggestion made by A: P2 and P3 be males. Therefore, P7 and P8 will be females. From the suggestion made by E: P1 and P6 will be males. From the suggestion made by C: P5 will be female. From the suggestion made by B: P4 will be male. Since, from the suggestion made by E, P1 and P6 are not married to P7, P8, we can have the following sub cases: 1. (P6, P5); (P4, P8) and (P2, P7) are couples. 2. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) are couples. 3. (P4, P8); (P3, P5) and (P2, P7) are couples. 4. (P4, P8); (P3, P7) and (P2, P5) are couples. 5. (P4, P5); (P3, P7) and (P2, P8) are couples. But then couples suggested by director A would be 2. Hence, this case is ruled out.

P5, P7 and P8 are females and P6 is a male. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: P6

Time taken by you: 18 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 86 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Eight chairs : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – are placed along the boundary of a circular pathway in a park. Each chair is of a different colour – Red, Green, Blue, White, Black, Yellow, Orange and Purple, not necessarily in the same order. Two children P & Q started walking along the pathway in opposite direction. P started travelling in clockwise direction from chair F, which was not orange in colour, while Q started from a chair which was not red in colour and was neither immediately after nor immediately before the chair from where P started. The blue chair was not adjacent to the black chair, and was diametrically opposite to either chair C or chair H.

Some of the observations made by P:

1.

The black chair was not immediately before the purple chair.

2.

The number of chairs between the green chair and D was same as the number of chairs between D and the red chair.

3.

G was not black and was after the orange chair.

4.

The white chair was immediately after the yellow chair E.

5.

B was neither blue nor green.

Some of the observations made by Q: 1.

From the black chair, he crossed two other chairs to reach the white chair.

2. F was third chair he reached (including the chair he started from) and the fourth chair he reached (including the chair he started from) was blue. 3.

D was neither white nor black and the red chair was before the white chair an was after the black chair.

4.

A and the blue chair were adjacent to each other.

5.

Blue chair was neither C nor H.

1) The chair which P reached immediately after passing the red chair is F D G B Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Blue chair is not adjacent to black chair. From P’s 1st observation, purple chair is also not next to black chair. So, it can be concluded that orange chair is next to black chair. So, D is orange chair. The neighbouring chair of D has to be purple (using I) and blue chair is opposite to purple chair. So again from Q’s 2nd observation, F is red chair, A is white chair. Now from Q’s 5 th observation, G is blue chair. So, C and H are purple and green chairs, not necessarily in the same order. From P’s 5th observation B must be black in colour. The final arrangement is as follows:

The chair that is immediately after the red chair is B. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 335 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 46 % 2) Which of the following is definitely the correct combination of a chair and its colour? A – Red H – Purple F – Green D – Orange Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Blue chair is not adjacent to black chair. From P’s 1st observation, purple chair is also not next to black chair. So, it can be concluded that orange chair is next to black chair. So, D is orange chair. The neighbouring chair of D has to be purple (using I) and blue chair is opposite to purple chair. So again from Q’s 2nd observation, F is red chair, A is white chair. Now from Q’s 5 th observation, G is blue chair. So, C and H are purple and green chairs, not necessarily in the same order. From P’s 5th observation B must be black in colour. The final arrangement is as follows:

Now all the questions can be answered.

The chair D is orange. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: D – Orange

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 31 % 3)

As per the path taken by Q, what is the colour of the chair, which is the third chair after the blue chair? Orange Purple Green Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Blue chair is not adjacent to black chair. From P’s 1st observation, purple chair is also not next to black chair. So, it can be concluded that orange chair is next to black chair. So, D is orange chair. The neighbouring chair of D has to be purple (using I) and blue chair is opposite to purple chair. So again from Q’s 2nd observation, F is red chair, A is white chair. Now from Q’s 5 th observation, G is blue chair. So, C and H are purple and green chairs, not necessarily in the same order. From P’s 5th observation B must be black in colour. The final arrangement is as follows:

The chair that is the third chair after the blue chair is green in colour. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Green

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 33 % 4) Which of the following statements is false? As per path taken by Q, the black chair is before the yellow chair As per path taken by Q, the yellow chair is before the green chair As per path taken by P, the orange chair is before the black chair None of these Video Explanation:

Explanation: From P’s 4th and Q’s 1st observation, we get the following arrangement.

From Q’s 3rd and P’s 2nd observation, the red chair cannot be immediately after the white chair and so it must be immediately before the black chair.

From Q’s 2nd and 4th observation, we can say that blue chair is between the chairs A and F.

… (I)

Blue chair is not adjacent to black chair. From P’s 1st observation, purple chair is also not next to black chair. So, it can be concluded that orange chair is next to black chair. So, D is orange chair. The neighbouring chair of D has to be purple (using I) and blue chair is opposite to purple chair. So again from Q’s 2nd observation, F is red chair, A is white chair. Now from Q’s 5 th observation, G is blue chair. So, C and H are purple and green chairs, not necessarily in the same order. From P’s 5th observation B must be black in colour. The final arrangement is as follows:

Choice [3] is definitely false. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: As per path taken by P, the orange chair is before the black chair

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Eight professional boxers – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – participated in the world heavyweight championship in Ukraine. In the 1st round, these eight boxers were divided into two groups of four boxers each. Each boxer has to play two matches against each of the other boxers in his group. The boxers with the highest and second highest number of wins in both the groups will move to the next round, i.e. the semi-finals. The following points about the 1 st round are known: 1. The four boxers that moved to the semi-finals were B, F, G and H. 2. No match in the first round ended in a draw. 3. In both the groups, the four boxers in the group won different number of matches. 4. F lost both of his matches against G. 5. A and H won equal number of matches in the first round. 6. In his group, C lost both of his matches against each of the other boxers except D, who, in turn won at least one match against each of the other boxers in the group, except one. 1) Which boxer won highest number of matches in the first round? F G B Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 0 (iv) 1 (v) 1

2 1 3 2 2

4 5 4 3 4

6 6 5 6 5

From (5) score of A is same as score of H. But A could not reach the semi-finals. This is possible only if the scores are as in (iii) and (iv). In group 1, A won 3 matches but did not reach the semi-finals. The other boxer who did not reach the semi-finals was E. He must have lost all matches. Since F lost both matches to G, maximum number of matches he could have won was 4. Therefore F won 4 matches and G won 5 matches. In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that B won all the 6 matches in the first round. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 161 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) Which boxer won the least number of matches in the first round? E C D Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 0 (iv) 1 (v) 1

2 1 3 2 2

4 5 4 3 4

6 6 5 6 5

From (5) score of A is same as score of H. But A could not reach the semi-finals. This is possible only if the scores are as in (iii) and (iv). In group 1, A won 3 matches but did not reach the semi-finals. The other boxer who did not reach the semi-finals was E. He must have lost all matches. Since F lost both matches to G, maximum number of matches he could have won was 4. Therefore F won 4 matches and G won 5 matches. In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that E lost all the matches in the first round. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: E

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 3) What was the total number of matches won by D in the first round?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 2 4 6 (ii) 0 1 5 6 (iii) 0 3 4 5 (iv) 1 2 3 6 (v) 1 2 4 5 From (5) score of A is same as score of H. But A could not reach the semi-finals. This is possible only if the scores are as in (iii) and (iv). In group 1, A won 3 matches but did not reach the semi-finals. The other boxer who did not reach the semi-finals was E. He must have lost all matches. Since F lost both matches to G, maximum number of matches he could have won was 4. Therefore F won 4 matches and G won 5 matches.

In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

Now all the questions can be answered. It can be seen that D won 2 matches in the first round. Therefore, the required answer is 2.

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 % 4) What was the minimum number of matches won by a boxer who reached the semi-finals?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

From (2) and (3); scores of players in a group can be (i) 0 2 4 6 (ii) 0 1 5 6 (iii) 0 3 4 5 (iv) 1 2 3 6 (v) 1 2 4 5 From (5) score of A is same as score of H. But A could not reach the semi-finals. This is possible only if the scores are as in (iii) and (iv). In group 1, A won 3 matches but did not reach the semi-finals. The other boxer who did not reach the semi-finals was E. He must have lost all matches. Since F lost both matches to G, maximum number of matches he could have won was 4. Therefore F won 4 matches and G won 5 matches. In group 2, H won 3 matches and reached the semi-finals. The other boxer who reached the semi-final was B. He must have won 6 matches. The other two boxers ( C and D) won 1 and 2 matches. Using statement 6, D lost both matches against exactly one boxer. So he must have won one match against C. Now the table can be completed as follows:

Now all the questions can be answered. A boxer who reached the semi-finals won at least 3 matches. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Four countries : India, Canada, England and Australia sent five wrestlers, I, II, III, IV and V and six weightlifters, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X and XI to participate in the 2018 Commonwealth Games held in Australia. Further, it is known that:

A. I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries B. X and XI are the only two participants sent by England to the Commonwealth games. C. I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of wrestlers and weightlifters put together. D. Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. E. Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. F. Each country sent a different number of wrestlers and weightlifters put together. 1) How many wrestlers and weightlifters put together did Australia send? 1 2 3 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

This also implies that 2 countries which sent 1 and 3 participants sent only wrestlers Statement (A): I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries. This implies that they do not belong to the country that has sent 3 wrestlers. Statement (C): I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of participants. This implies that I is from the country which has sent only one participant and V is from the country which sent 5 participants. All the other 3 wrestlers belong to the same country, which has sent exactly three participants.

From statement (E): Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. India did not send any weightlifter which implies that India sent I or II, III and IV. But again Australia sent more wrestlers than India implies that I was sent by India. Australia should have sent more than 1 wrestler implies that Australia sent three wrestlers. Canada sent five participants.

Australia sent three participants. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 323 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 % 2) Which country sent the maximum number of wrestlers and weightlifters put together? India England Australia Canada Video Explanation: Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

This also implies that 2 countries which sent 1 and 3 participants sent only wrestlers Statement (A): I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries. This implies that they do not belong to the country that has sent 3 wrestlers. Statement (C): I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of participants. This implies that I is from the country which has sent only one participant and V is from the country which sent 5 participants. All the other 3 wrestlers belong to the same country, which has sent exactly three participants.

From statement (E): Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. India did not send any weightlifter which implies that India sent I or II, III and IV. But again Australia sent more wrestlers than India implies that I was sent by India. Australia should have sent more than 1 wrestler implies that Australia sent three wrestlers. Canada sent five participants.

Canada sent the maximum number of participants. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Canada

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 % 3) Which country sent three wrestlers? Australia England Canada Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

This also implies that 2 countries which sent 1 and 3 participants sent only wrestlers Statement (A): I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries. This implies that they do not belong to the country that has sent 3 wrestlers. Statement (C): I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of participants. This implies that I is from the country which has sent only one participant and V is from the country which sent 5 participants. All the other 3 wrestlers belong to the same country, which has sent exactly three participants.

From statement (E): Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. India did not send any weightlifter which implies that India sent I or II, III and IV. But again Australia sent more wrestlers than India implies that I was sent by India. Australia should have sent more than 1 wrestler implies that Australia sent three wrestlers. Canada sent five participants.

Australia sent three wrestlers. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Australia

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 % 4) Which of the following countries did not send any weightlifter? England India Australia

Both India and Australia Video Explanation:

Explanation: There are a total of eleven wrestlers and weightlifters put together. From statement (F), the only possibility that exists is that the countries India, Canada, England and Australia sent 1, 2, 3 and 5 participants not necessarily in this particular order. From statement (B): Only X and XI were sent by England. This implies that England is the country that sent two participants. From statement (D): Wrestlers came from more number of countries than the weightlifters did. There is one country England which sent only weightlifters. From the remaining 3 countries, all of them could not send weightlifters. Wrestlers might have come from at most 3 countries (India, Canada and Australia). This implies that the weightlifters must have been sent by less than 3 countries. England is not the only country which sent weightlifters as there are 4 more weightlifters. Number of countries that sent weightlifters is greater than 1 and less than 3. This implies the number is 2. That is, just one country sent all the remaining 4 weightlifters. It means that the country which has sent 5 participants sent these 4 weightlifters.

This also implies that 2 countries which sent 1 and 3 participants sent only wrestlers Statement (A): I and V are the only wrestlers from their respective countries. This implies that they do not belong to the country that has sent 3 wrestlers. Statement (C): I is not from the country which sent the maximum number of participants. This implies that I is from the country which has sent only one participant and V is from the country which sent 5 participants. All the other 3 wrestlers belong to the same country, which has sent exactly three participants.

From statement (E): Australia sent more wrestlers than India, which did not send any weightlifters. India did not send any weightlifter which implies that India sent I or II, III and IV. But again Australia sent more wrestlers than India implies that I was sent by India. Australia should have sent more than 1 wrestler implies that Australia sent three wrestlers. Canada sent five participants.

Both India and Australia did not send any weightlifter. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Both India and Australia

Time taken by you: 28 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Kishan offered discounts of 10%, 20%, 30%, 40% and 50% to five customers who bought 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg, 4 kg and 5 kg of rice respectively and is able to just recover the cost of rice. If he were to give the same discount rate for all the five customers such that he would neither gain profit nor suffer loss, what would be the approximate value of that discount rate? 27% 33% 37% 39%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 37% Time taken by you: 174 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined Jayesh has a certain number of 5-rupee and 2-rupee coins. Thickness of each 5-rupee coin is same as thickness of each 2-rupee coin. Inside a closed cylindrical container, he is able to exactly fit all 5- rupee coins and all but twenty 2-rupee coins when they are piled up one above the other. If the height of the container is increased by 20%, he is able to exactly fit all 2-rupee coins and all but ten 5-rupee coins when they are piled up one above the other. What is the total number of 5-rupee and 2-rupee coins available with Jayesh? 50 70 80 Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of 5-rupee and 2-rupee coins with Jayesh be ‘x’ and ‘y’ respectively. The original height of the container can hold ‘x’ 5-rupee coins and ‘y – 20’ 2-rupee coins. When the height of the container is increased by 20%, he is able to fit ‘x – 10’ 5-rupee coins and ‘y’ 2-rupee coins. Therefore, we have: 1.2(x + y – 20) = (x – 10 + y) 0.2(x + y) = 14 x + y = 70 Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 70 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 %

undefined Three identical circles with maximum possible area are drawn inside an isosceles trapezium as shown. Find the ratio of the sum of the circumference of all the three circles combined to the perimeter of the trapezium. Note: C 1 and C3 touch the trapezium at three points. C 2 touches C 1 and C3 .

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 126 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined

10 7 1 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Box 1 contains 10 red balls, box 2 contains 20 blue balls and box 3 contains 30 green balls. Abhinav picks some balls from boxes 1 and 2. Bipin picks the remaining balls from box 2 and some balls from box 3. Chetan picks the remaining balls from boxes 1 and 3. The ratio of the number of red and blue balls with Abhinav is 2 : 3, the ratio of the number of blue and green balls with Bipin is 7 : 5 and the ratio of the number of green and red balls with Chetan is 10 : 3. Find the ratio of the number of total balls picked up by Abhinav, Bipin and Chetan. 5 : 12 : 13 5:7:8 2:5:8 3:4:5

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of red and blue balls with Abhinav be 2x and 3x respectively. Let the number of blue and green balls with Bipin be 7y and 5y respectively. Let the number of green and red balls with Chetan be 10z and 3z respectively. Therefore, 2x + 3z = 10, 3x + 7y = 20 and 5y + 10z = 30. The only possible integer solutions to this set of linear equations is x = 2, y = 2 and z = 2. Therefore, the total number of balls picked up by Abhinav, Bipin and Chetan are 10, 24 and 26 respectively. Therefore, required ratio = 5 : 12 : 13 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 5 : 12 : 13 Time taken by you: 339 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 230 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined If |1 – 2x2 | ≤ 1 – x2 , then which of the following is true?

|x| < 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 111 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined

2 units 3 units

5 units

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3 units Time taken by you: 251 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined The product of some natural numbers (all under 25) is 1730520. These numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of the first three of those numbers is 3420. The product of the last three of those numbers is 9614. What is the product of the first four of these numbers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 3420 = 180 × 19. Therefore, 19 has to be one of the numbers among the first three. 9614 = 2 × 11 × 19 × 23. Since 11 cannot be among the last three numbers, the last three numbers are 19, 22 and 23. Therefore, there are a total of 5 numbers, out of which the product of the first two numbers is 180 and the 3rd 4th and 5th numbers are 19, 22 and 23. Therefore, the product of the first four of these numbers = 180 × 19 × 22 = 75240. Therefore, the required answer is 75240.

Correct Answer: 75240 Time taken by you: 23 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined A tap fills an empty tank in 12 hours, but due to a leak at the bottom of the tank it took 20 hours to fill the tank that was initially empty. If the tap is opened at time t = 0 and closed at time t = 10 hours, after how many hours since the beginning, the tank will be empty again? 15 25 20 30

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined In the year 2018, Carl's father was thrice as old as Carl was. In the year 2033, Carl's father will be twice as old as Carl will be then. In which Calendar year will Carl's father be 2.5 times as old as Carl will be then?

2021 2023 2025 2027

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If Carl was ‘x’ years old in 2018, his father was ‘3x’ years old in 2018. Carl’s age in 2033 = x + 15 and his father’s age in 2033 = 3x + 15 3x + 15 = 2(x + 15). Solving for x, x = 15. That means in 2018, Carl was 15 years old and his father was 45 years old. If Carl’s father will be 2.5 times as old as he will be ‘y’ years after 2018, we get 2.5(15 + y) = 45 + y. Solving for y, we get y = 5. Therefore the required calendar year is 2023. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 2023 Time taken by you: 6 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 140 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

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3:8 1:3 2:5 5 : 12

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3:8 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined Find the number of composite factors of 4320. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 4320 = 25 × 33 × 51 Total number of factors = 6 × 4 × 2 = 48 Out of these, 2, 3 and 5 are prime factors and 1 is not a composite number. Therefore, the required answer is 44. Correct Answer: 44 Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 21 %

undefined The ratio of the compound interest earned over 2 years when compounding a principal annually to the simple interest earned for the same principal at the same rate for the same duration is 17 : 16. Find the ratio of the compound interest earned over 3 years when compounding the same principal annually to the simple interest earned for the same principal at the same rate for 3 years. 77 : 64 137 : 128 9:8 217 : 192

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 217 : 192 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 146 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 59 %

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Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 122 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined Which of the following equations has 2 as one of the roots and the other roots in the ratio of –2 : 3? x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 48 = 0 x3 + 3x2 – 4x – 12 = 0 x3 – 28x + 48 = 0 x3 – 7x2 + 16x – 12 = 0 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: x3 – 28x + 48 = 0 Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined A sphere is cut into 8 equal parts along 3 mutually perpendicular planes passing through the centre of the sphere. The maximum distance between any two points within each part is 4 cm. What is the volume of the original sphere?

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Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined What is the remainder when (1011943) 14 is divided by 7?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Therefore, the required answer is 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 55 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined Two persons A and B start running simultaneously around a circular track from the same point in opposite directions with speeds 5 m/s and 7 m/s respectively. How many rounds around the track will A make before he meets B for the first time at the point which is diametrically opposite the starting point? 1.5 2.5 3.5 6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since A and B are running in opposite directions and their speeds are co-prime, they will meet in 5 + 7 = 12 distinct points. These 12 points will be equidistant from each other. Thus, the 6th point will be the one diametrically opposite the starting point.

Therefore, after completing 2.5 rounds (in the third round), A will meet B at the point diametrically opposite the starting point. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 2.5 Time taken by you: 146 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 %

undefined

11 55 187 231

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Explanation: f(f(f(k))) = 22 f(f(k)) = 11 or 44 Case 1: If f(f(k)) = 11, then f(k) = 22. If f(k) is 22, then k is either 11 or 44. Case 2: If f(f(k)) = 44, then f(k) = 88. If f(k) = 88, then k = 176. Therefore, all the possible values of k are 11, 44 and 176. Therefore, required sum = 231.

Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 231 Time taken by you: 206 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 65 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 35 %

undefined How many 2-digit numbers in base 4 are 2-digit numbers with the same digits (but not necessarily in the same order) in base 10? 0 1 9 10

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is only possible if (ab)4 = (ba)10 Therefore, 4a + b = 10b + a. Therefore, a = 3b. The only possible solution is when a = 3 and b = 1. Therefore, there is only one 2-digit number. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined If y and x are positive integers, then what is the minimum possible value of x + y for which y log 10 = log 32 + log x? 3130 3125 3135 3120

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: y log 10 = log 32 + log x log 10y = log(32x) 10y = 32x = 25 x 2 y × 5y = 25 × x For x and y to be integers and for minimizing the value of x + y, y = 5 and x = 5 5 = 3125. Minimum possible value of x + y = 3130 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 3130 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined Farhan, Karan and Shoojit entered into partnership by investing money in the ratio 3 : 5 : 4 respectively. Karan left 3 months before Farhan left the partnership whereas Shoojit continued the business. At the end of 15 months, the business was closed and the profit was divided among Farhan, Karan and Shoojit in the ratio 3 : 2 : 12. For how many months did Shoojit run the business by himself? 5 8 10 12

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Explanation:

Let the number of months that Farhan and Karan worked be ‘x’ and ‘x – 3’. 3 × x : 5 × (x – 3) : 4 × 15 = 3 : 2 : 12 3x : (5x – 15) : 60 = 15 : 10 : 60 x=5 Therefore, Shoojit ran the business for 15 – 5 = 10 months by himself.

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 10 Time taken by you: 217 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Gulzarilaal divides his hexagonal farm to be distributed among his three sons. Natwar receives the rectangular region ABDE whose breadth and length are in the ratio 1 : 2. Mohan and Kamlesh receive regions AFE and BCD respectively that are shaped as isosceles right triangles. Find the percentage share of Mohan out of the entire farmland.

50% 22.5% 25% 30%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 139 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 116 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined There are 25 distinct points on a circle. Khushbu is asked to draw chords using these points as end points. She randomly draws 10 chords such that none of them have any common end points. In how many ways can she draw the maximum possible number of chords using the remaining unused points such that none of them have any common end points? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since 10 chords have been drawn, we are only left with five unused points. Using these, we can draw only two chords with one point remaining unused. From the chosen four points, the number of distinct pairs will be three. Therefore, total number of ways = 5 × 3 = 15. Therefore, the required answer is 15. Correct Answer: 15 Time taken by you: 162 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 7 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 6 %

undefined Find the number of zeroes at the end of (855!) 2 . Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 424 Time taken by you: 96 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined Cups A and B have equal volumes. Cup A drew acid from beaker A having 150 litres of 20% acid solution such that cup A is filled to the brim. Cup B drew acid from beaker B having 120 litres of 10% acid solution such that cup B is filled to the brim. Now, contents of cup A are added to beaker B and that of cup B are added to beaker A. After this, the volume of pure acid in both the beakers becomes equal. What is the volume of each cup (in litres)? 90 45 60 30

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the volume of each cup be ‘m’ litres. Final volume of pure acid in beaker A = 0.2 × (150 – m) + 0.1 × m = 30 – 0.1m Final volume of pure acid in beaker B = 0.1 × (120 – m) + 0.2 × m = 12 + 0.1m 30 – 0.1m = 12 + 0.1m m = 90 litres. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

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20° 22.5° 27.5° 29.5°

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Explanation:

Correct Answer:

27.5° Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined All students who play hockey in a class play cricket as well. Some football players play cricket as well but none of them plays hockey. It is known that the number of students who play only one sport is twice the number of players who play two sports. The number of students who play football is equal to the number of students who play hockey which is equal to half the number of students who play only cricket. If there are 120 students in the class and each student plays at least one sport, find the number of students who play only football. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: We can draw the Venn diagram as follows:

It is given that the number of students who play only one sport is twice the number of players who play two sports. Therefore, x + z = 80 and y + h = 40 y = 40 – h Also, x + y = h x = h – (40 – h) = 2h – 40 z = 80 – x = 80 – (2h – 40) = 120 – 2h Also, z ÷ 2 = h. 60 – h = h h = 30 The number of players who play only football = 2 × 30 – 40 = 20. Therefore, the required answer is 20. Correct Answer:

20 Time taken by you: 164 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 99 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 39 %

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25 40 50 60

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Alternatively, Let B = 100 Substitute values of x as given in answer options. Option1 : x = 25 A = 125 and C = 75 125 is not (4 × 25)% more than 75. Option 2 : x = 40 A = 140 and C = 60 140 is not (4 × 40)% more than 60. Option 3 : x = 50 A = 150 and C = 50 150 is (4 × 50)% more than 50. Option 4 : x = 60 A = 160 and C = 40 160 is not (4 × 60)% more than 40. Correct Answer: 50

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined

90 120 150 180

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 180 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 111 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined

(Note: Common difference of the AP > 0)

Insufficient data

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the first term and common difference of the AP be ‘a’and ‘d’ respectively. If we consider just the odd-numbered terms, they form an AP with first term ‘a’ and common difference ‘2d’. If we consider just the even-numbered terms, they form an AP with first term ‘a + d’ and common difference ‘2d’.

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 164 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined A straight wire connects the foot of building A and the top of building B, making an angle of 30° with the ground. The same straight wire is just long enough to connect the top of building B and the top of building A. What will be the ratio of the length of this wire to the length of the wire that connects the top of building A and the bottom of building B?

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 124 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined Five numbers are given. All possible sets of three numbers out of these five are chosen and their individual averages are computed. The

Five numbers are given. All possible sets of three numbers out of these five are chosen and their individual averages are computed. The average of these individual averages is 14. Which is the sum of all the original five numbers? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Alternatively, Consider a case where all the numbers are equal to 14. Average of any three chosen = 14 Average of averages of all the sets = 14 Hence, sum of original five numbers = 14 × 5 = 70. Correct Answer: 70 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The word “algorithm” has become an evil agent. The algorithms of the biggest internet companies sell our fear and outrage for profit and favour conspiratorial and divisive content. We’ve anthropomorphized the word so much that Gen Z children might start checking for algorithms under their beds. But when you strip away all the boogeyman connotations, an algorithm is simply a set of rules. The technology alone isn’t to blame for its misdoings, but that doesn’t mean an algorithm won’t be to blame for the destruction of humankind—especially if left unchecked. To explain this, there’s a common thought experiment in the world of artificial intelligence called the Paper Clip Maximizer. It goes like this. Imagine a group of programmers build an algorithm with the seemingly innocuous goal of gathering as many paper clips as possible. This machine-learning algorithm is intelligent, meaning it learns from the past and continually gets better at its task—which, in this case, is accumulating paper clips. At first, the algorithm gathers all the boxes of paper clips from office-supply stores. Then it might look for all the lost paper clips in the bottom of desk drawers and between sofa cushions. Running out of easy targets, over time it will learn to build paper clips from fork prongs and electrical wires—and eventually start ripping apart every piece of metal in the world to fashion into inch-long document fasteners. The thought experiment is meant to show how an optimization algorithm, even if designed with no malicious intent, could ultimately destroy the world. The technology’s original goal was never to bring about the end of civilization—it was just looking to achieve the objective set by its human parent. However, without proper regulation, the results can be dire. As technology progresses at an exponential rate, we must take a step back to ask what we’re optimizing for. The analogies to today’s global economy are clear. Environmentalists argue that coal-burning plants have optimization machines aimed at maximizing energy output without taking responsibility for the pollution. Social media critics argue that social networking companies have optimization machines aimed at capturing human attention without accountability to the costs. Media pundits argue that certain adsupported publications have optimization machines aimed at maximizing clicks without regard to journalistic standards. Algorithmic accountability matters now more than ever because technological progress is increasing at an exponential rate. A supercomputer beat the world’s best Go player a decade before most experts expected. Translation algorithms are approaching humanlevel accuracy. Self-driving cars are already cruising around our streets. Course correction will become more difficult as algorithms become more ubiquitous. When it comes to algorithmic accountability, it’s important to set up the necessary checks and balances before it’s too late. As technologies scale, a lack of initial oversight could have disastrous long-term consequences. “If we don’t get women and people of color at the table—real technologists doing the real work—we will bias systems,” said Melinda Gates at the launch of the nonprofit “AI4All” last year, which she funded. “Trying to reverse that a decade or two from now will be so much more difficult, if not close to impossible.” Though amorphous algorithms often become the scapegoat for technological mishaps, it’s important to remember that algorithms are written by humans. A diversity of input—from both data and personnel—is necessary to illuminate potential blind spots. If we leave ourselves in the dark, algorithmic bias—whether it’s facial recognition software that more easily identifies white men than black women, or an SAT-prep company’s pricing algorithm that charges predominantly Asian zip codes twice as much as non-Asian zip codes—can be pervasive. But the fear of misuse should not trump the potential improvements these technologies can bring. Recent studies proved that algorithmic approaches to criminal sentencing can reduce the incarceration rate without adversely affecting public safety. Though sentencing decisions have traditionally relied on a judge’s intuition or subjective preferences, computers can help make our systems more fair. The key to these experiments is supervision. The Paper Clip Maximizer shows us that intentions won’t matter unless we’ve set up systems to hold ourselves accountable. But when the proper checks are in place, algorithms are nothing to fear—and neither are office supplies. 1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? The passage questions the lack of controls and diversity of input while building algorithms, and calls for accountability.

The passage cautions that algorithms if unregulated can prove potentially evil and bring about the destruction of mankind, notwithstanding their benefits. The passage evaluates the algorithmic bias that can become pervasive in the absence of algorithmic accountability. The passage highlights the urgency of course correction since algorithmic bias will be more difficult to reverse as technology progresses at an exponential rate. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The passage starts by mentioning some incidents that have led to the word “algorithm” having negative implications. It then states that technology alone cannot be blamed since an algorithm is simply a set of rules defined by humans. It explains this by using a thought experiment called “Paper Clip Maximiser”. Thus, the need for algorithmic accountability is highlighted by explaining the importance of checks and balances and diversity of inputs. The author concludes by stating that these technologies can bring potential improvements when proper checks are in place and should not be shunned due to fear of misuse. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does list the negative consequences resulting from lack of checks and balances and diversity of input while building algorithms. However, the passage does not “question” the lack of controls and diversity of input as suggested by the option. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage begins with “The word “algorithm” has become an evil agent.” Then it discusses the concerns arising from the use of algorithms. “The algorithms of the biggest internet companies sell our fear and outrage for profit and favor conspiratorial and divisive content.” It exemplifies these concerns through the “Paper Clip Maximizer” thought experiment. Throughout the passage, the author states the need for “algorithmic accountability”, “course correction”, “checks and balances” and “diversity of inputs”, all of which are unfavourable aspects of technology. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage explains the need for algorithmic accountability and gives examples of algorithmic bias that can become pervasive. However, evaluating algorithmic bias in itself is not the purpose of the passage. The destructiveness of algorithmic bias is not highlighted in option 3. Hence eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect.The passage does mention the importance of course correction and reversing the bias now, however, option 4 does not convey the seriousness of the negative impact that these technologies can bring, including the potential destruction of mankind. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: The passage cautions that algorithms if unregulated can prove potentially evil and bring about the destruction of mankind, notwithstanding their benefits.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 177 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 % 2) All these are true about the Paper Clip Maximiser thought experiment EXCEPT: The only goal in the algorithm in the Paper Clip Maximiser thought experiment is to maximize the number of paper clips in its collection. Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm improves its own optimisation power constantly as it starts functioning. The Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm learns things unrelated to paperclip gathering to reach the goal of maximizing the number of paper clips in its collection. Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm cannot calculate the maximum number of paper clips it can have in its collection. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. That the only goal of the thought experiment is to maximize the collection of paper clips is true. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states that the machine-learning algorithm is intelligent, meaning it learns from the past and continually gets better at its task—which, in this case, is accumulating paper clips. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Since the only goal is to maximize the number of paper clips the algorithm is not going to pick up any skill that is not required to collect paper clips. For example it may learn the skill to manufacture paper clips but not that of manufacturing paper. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The algorithm has to be unable to calculate the maximum number of paper clips for the process to go on endlessly until it destroys the world. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The Paper Clip Maximiser algorithm learns things unrelated to paperclip gathering to reach the goal of maximizing the number of paper clips in its collection.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 21 % 3) According to the passage, setting-up necessary checks and balances matters now more than ever before because … Algorithms are approaching human-level accuracy. Technological progress is happening at an exponential rate and algorithms are now universal. A lack of initial oversight could have disastrous long-term consequences. We must take a step back to ask what we are optimizing for. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “Translation algorithms are approaching human-level accuracy”. We cannot generalize it to include algorithms in general. Besides, human-level accuracy in itself does not make checks and balances urgent. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 8 states that “When it comes to algorithmic accountability, it’s important to set up the necessary checks and balances before it’s too late.” Thus we have a correlation between “algorithmic accountability” and “checks and balances”. Also, in paragraph 7, the author states that “Algorithmic accountability matters now more than everbecause technological progress is increasing at an exponential rate. … Course correction will become more difficult as algorithms become more ubiquitous.” Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The author does not state “a lack of initial oversight” as the reason why it is necessary to set-up checks and balances now, but as a consequence of setting-up controls too late. Eliminate 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not imply any correlation between the necessity to set-up checks and balances and the necessity to take a step back to ask what we are optimizing for. This option is out of context. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [2].

Correct Answer: Technological progress is happening at an exponential rate and algorithms are now universal.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 % 4) It can be inferred from the passage that criminal sentencing decisions … Depend on an implicit trust in the intuitions and preferences of an individual. Can be converted to computer algorithms which will make judicial systems more fair.

Can be based on algorithmic approaches, to reduce crime rates without adversely affecting public safety. Can be made more accountable with artificial intelligence (algorithms) technologies. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. The passage states that “Though sentencing decisions have traditionally relied on a judge’s intuition or subjective preferences, computers can help make our systems more fair.” Thus, it can be inferred that currently, sentencing decisions depend on the judge’s intuition i.e. instinct or specific preferences (i.e. predilections). Thus, option 1 is inferable. Retain 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that “… algorithmic approaches to criminal sentencing can reduce the incarceration rate … computers can help make our systems more fair.” Thus, we cannot deduce with certainty whether sentencing decisions can be fully converted to computer algorithms or they can only act as an aid to the existing judicial system. Also, “will make judicial systems more fair” in the option is problematic since “will” implies certainty while the passage uses “can help” to imply a possibility. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is incorrect. While the passage talks about criminal sentencing, the option misrepresents it as ‘crime rates.’ Eliminate option 3. . Option 4 is incorrect. The accountability of criminal sentencing decisions is beyond the scope of this passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [1].

Correct Answer:

Depend on an implicit trust in the intuitions and preferences of an individual.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 8 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 8 % 5) All these are examples of Algorithm bias EXCEPT: The pricing algorithm of a SAT-prep company charges an Indian twice the amount it charges a Canadian. A biometric system identifies a visitor as a bona fide employee. A social media company has optimization algorithms built solely to capture attention of the users without any social liability. An online news website has an algorithm optimized to publish sensational headlines aimed to garner clicks of the users without verifying the authenticity of the source. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is difficult. The passage cites several examples of algorithm bias. Option 1 is an example of algorithm bias. Whether it is nationality or geography (as mentioned in the passage), discrimination is deliberate and biased. Eliminate option 1 Option 2 is correct. A biometric system wrongly identifying a visitor as an employee is an error and not a bias. Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “Optimization algorithm’ in itself is an algorithm bias voluntarily introduced into the system. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3 “optimized to publish” implies an inbuilt bias. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: A biometric system identifies a visitor as a bona fide employee.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 69 % 6) Melinda Gates’ call to “bring people of color at the table” highlights which of the following issues related to AI? Women of color are not employed in IT/Tech firms and AI. AI to be effective and without bias needs to be built with diversity of input. Racial biases are prevalent in all current AI algorithms.

Currently facial recognition software is unable to recognize black and Asian women. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 is a social issue related to racial bias. The question is about issue related to AI. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. Melinda Gates is quoted while discussing the algorithm bias. In the next paragraph, the write mentions the need for diversity of input from both data and personnel. He talks about the potential blind spots algorithmic bias and cites the example of facial recognizing software more easily identifying a while man than a black woman. All this makes option 2 correct. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The phrasing of the option is too strong. “Prevalent in all current AI algorithms’ is a sweeping generalization. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. the passage does not support the claim “unable to recognize’ as mentioned in the option. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: AI to be effective and without bias needs to be built with diversity of input.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Daydreaming is one of life’s great joys. You can indulge in it when you’re stuck in a boring meeting or a long queue. This seemingly innocuous pastime, however, is a double-edged sword. Some research has found that it boosts creativity, but other studies suggest that it is bad for your mental health and could lower your intelligence. In a study conducted by psychologists at the University of California, Santa Barbara, undergraduate students were asked to come up with as many uses for everyday objects – such as toothpicks, clothes hangers and bricks – as they could in two minutes, take a 12-minute break, and then repeat the exercise. The students were able to generate more creative uses for the objects the second time around if their break involved completing an undemanding task, which is known to promote more daydreaming, compared with a break filled with a more attention-demanding task, known to reduce daydreaming. Daydreaming has also been linked with feeling socially connected. In a study conducted by the University of Sheffield, a group of participants were induced to feel lonely. Afterwards, they were instructed to either daydream about someone special, daydream about a non-social situation, or complete a mentally demanding task. Those who daydreamed about someone special demonstrated significantly increased feelings of connection, love and belonging, compared with the other two groups, indicating that daydreaming serves the function of keeping us connected to loved ones, even in their absence. One of the downsides to daydreaming is that it can get in the way of learning. If attention is diverted away from words on the page and directed to the content of the daydream, retrieving information can be seriously affected. Considering reading and understanding is one of the main ways in which educational success is measured, daydreaming can come at a high price. Other studies have found that daydreaming is associated with poorer performance on tests of general intelligence and memory capacity. Not only can daydreaming mess up your chances of doing well in exams, it can also mess with your mental health. Researchers at Harvard University used an app to monitor thoughts, feelings and activity of 2,250 adults in the US. They found that daydreaming about pleasant topics added nothing to the participants’ levels of happiness, and when they daydreamed about neutral or negative topics, they became more unhappy. It also appears that a wandering mind causes unhappiness rather than unhappiness leading to a wandering mind. Some psychologists have suggested that how people evaluate their daydreaming may help to explain the link with unhappiness. When people believe their daydreaming is either uncontrollable or bad for them, these beliefs appear to significantly influence the relationship between daydreaming and unhappiness.

The ability to gain control of thinking and sustain focus on the present is considered the antidote to problematic daydreaming. Mindfulness is one technique that some people find helpful. Mindfulness helps people to bring their minds back to the present moment, and is associated with improving reading comprehension and memory capacity. Maybe we should all try and be in the present moment a little bit more – we might be a lot happier as a result. 1) The author is likely to agree with all of the following statements EXCEPT: The advantages of daydreaming are relatively fewer than its disadvantages. The costs of daydreaming are both emotional and cognitive. Daydreaming causes unhappiness regardless of whether it is about pleasant, neutral or negative topics. Daydreaming is more prevalent among people with poor mental health or poor memory. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The author starts the passage by contrasting the advantages of daydreaming with its disadvantages. Then the author lists down the positive aspects of daydreaming before stating the negative impact that daydreaming can have on an individual’s mental health and intelligence. The author concludes by stating that Mindfulness i.e. living in the present moment is an antidote to problematic daydreaming and might make us a lot happier. Option 1 is incorrect. It can be concluded from the passage that the author considers daydreaming to be less beneficial and more harmful. Another giveaway of the author’s stance is the use of the phrase “seemingly innocuous pastime” to refer to daydreaming in the first paragraph. Thus, the author would most likely agree with this option and it is not an exception. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is incorrect. “Cognitive” means something related to thinking or conscious mental processes. Paragraphs 4 and 5 list the downsides of daydreaming which are summarized by the statement “Not only can daydreaming mess up your chances of doing well in exams, it can also mess with your mental health.” Thus option 2 is not an exception to author’s views. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is incorrect. In paragraph 5, the author states that “They [Researchers at Harvard University] found that daydreaming about pleasant topics added nothing to the participants’ levels of happiness, and when they daydreamed about neutral or negative topics, they became more unhappy. It also appears that a wandering mind causes unhappiness rather than unhappiness leading to a wandering mind.” Thus, the author is of the opinion that a wandering mind, irrespective of positive, neutral or negative thoughts, leads to unhappiness. Eliminate 3. Option 4 is correct. It interchanges the cause and effect. Daydreaming is not more prevalent with people with poor mental health or poor memory. On the other hand, the passage states that people with poor mental health or poor memory are more likely to indulge in daydreaming. Hence, the correct answer is option [4].

Correct Answer: Daydreaming is more prevalent among people with poor mental health or poor memory.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 123 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 % 2) The primary purpose of the passage is to Spread awareness about the benefits of mindfulness. Highlight the dim side of daydreaming and suggest a countermeasure. Present the pros and cons of daydreaming and to point out that daydreaming is largely beneficial. Draw attention to the fact that people’s evaluation of their daydreaming as either uncontrollable or bad, rather than daydreaming itself, causes unhappiness. 3) The passage implies which of the following about “Mindfulness”? Cultivating mindfulness helps improve certain cognitive functions. Mindfulness helps people to bring their minds back to the present moment and be a lot happier. Mindfulness helps people counter the negative aspects of daydreaming while retaining its positive side.

Mindfulness is a technique to counter problematic daydreaming permanently.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Amid the name-calling and bluster that mar many fights between economists are a few common tactics. Belligerents may attack the theory used to support a claim, or the data analysis used to quantify an effect. During the debate over the US tax bill, to take a recent example, economists bickered over which side had more credibly calculated the economic effect. They did not, for the most part, argue about whether it was morally acceptable to pass a regressive tax reform after years of wage stagnation and rising inequality. To do so would strike many economists as entirely un-economist-like. Yet economics has not always been so shy about moral philosophy. As well as “The Wealth of Nations”, Adam Smith wrote a “Theory of Moral Sentiments”. Great 20th-century economists like Paul Samuelson and Kenneth Arrow also took questions of values very seriously. Their successors would do well to take several pages from their books. Modern economists have attempted to strip value judgments out of their policy analyses. Policies are judged on how they are likely to affect economic variables such as income and its distribution, and how those changes would affect overall welfare. If the models suggest that one policy choice—a top tax rate of 40%, say, rather than 50%—leads to greater welfare than another, that is usually good enough for an economist. This approach is enormously valuable. It disciplines thinking, produces useful information and makes it easier to build professional consensus about what is known and which questions remain unanswered. Though cost-benefit analysis is not perfect, is often the best route to getting informed experts to agree. Used in isolation, however, it can lead to trouble. In a paper presented at the annual conference of the American Economic Association (AEA), Matthew Weinzierl, of Harvard University, notes that the world is too complicated to be modelled with anything like perfect accuracy. Many knock-on effects from policy shifts are unknowable beforehand. He suggests that in the absence of perfect foresight, policymakers could turn to social principles or rules that have evolved over time. These may reflect accumulated knowledge about some choices’ unintended consequences. He gives an example. Governments might choose to increase redistribution based on evidence that high inequality creates feelings of envy, and envy reduces the welfare of the non-rich by making them feel worse. Yet survey evidence suggests that people are largely opposed to redistribution that is motivated by envy. Validating envy through tax policy could prove socially corrosive, in a way that economists’ models fail to capture. Put differently, MrWeinzierl contends that economists should take moral concerns more seriously. That is something close to professional heresy. At the AEA conference Alvin Roth, a Nobel prizewinner, delivered a lecture on his life-saving work in the field of market design. To donate an organ, one must share a blood-type with the recipient. Mr Roth circumvented this problem by developing matching markets, in which one person donates to a compatible stranger and in turn receives another stranger’s compatible organ for use by the donor’s ailing loved-one. Yet demand for healthy organs vastly outstrips supply. Were it legal to buy and sell organs, many more people might donate, helping to alleviate the deadly shortage. Moral qualms generally discourage governments from legalising the trade. This is an example of what Mr Roth calls a “repugnant market”, one which is constrained by popular distaste or moral unease. He recommends that economists spend more time thinking about such taboos, but mostly because they are a constraint on the use of markets in new contexts. These social rules also contain insights. Nicola Lacetera, of the University of Toronto, argues that there may be important reasons for moral objections to repugnant activity, and costs to abandoning such objections. Though studies show that telling people that payment

encourages organ donations increases support for legalising payments, other examples work in the opposite way. Giving women information about the health and safety benefits of legalising prostitution seems to reduce support for legalization. Not all economists avoid ethical considerations entirely. Jean Tirole, another Nobel prizewinner, in his book “Economics for the Common Good”, writes about “the moral limits of the market.” He says economists should respect society’s need to set its own goals, then help devise the most efficient ways to attain them. But, as Beatrice Cherrier of the Institute for New Economic Thinking argued in an essay addressing Mr. Roth’s lecture, these questions are fundamental to economics. The hard sciences deal much better with the ethical implications of their work, she says. And moral concerns affect human behaviour in economically important ways, as Mr Roth found to his frustration. 1) The writer makes reference to Adam Smith’s “Theory of Moral Sentiments” in order to … Show that modern economists have fallen out of the habit of moral reasoning, but historically ethical considerations were central to economics. To highlight the difference between modern economists and classical ones in terms of their approach to policies that would affect overall welfare. To drive home the point that economists ought to consider whether questions of values should override calculations of social utility. Show that historically, economists have dealt with the issue of moral sentiments and settled in favour of the most efficient ways to achieve the “common good.” Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. The passage mentions the book, Adam Smith’s “Theory of Moral Sentiments”, in a single sentence in the first paragraph. Referring to the economists’ discussion on the US tax bill, entirely to quantify its economic effect, the passage says, “they did not, for the most part, argue about whether it was morally acceptable to pass a regressive tax reform after years of wage stagnation and rising inequality. To do so would strike many economists as entirely un-economist-like. Yet economics has not always been so shy about moral philosophy.” Then, the writer makes the assertion that, “as well as “The Wealth of Nations”, Adam Smith wrote a “Theory of Moral Sentiments”. Then, he mentions Paul Samuelson and Kenneth Arrow, modern economists, who took questions of values very seriously. After that he concludes, “their successors would do well to take several pages from their books.” The message is that the Father of Economics, Adam Smith (18th century economist) took the question of moral issue seriously – modern economists must learn from history what economics was all about. Option 1 is correct. The purpose of the writer to refer to Adam Smith and his book “Theory of Moral Sentiments” is to show that modern economists no longer continue the moral traditions in their science. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The option highlights the approach of classical versus modern economics with respect to their policies of welfare; however the writer mentions the book not in relation to their approach to welfare policies but does so only to highlight their approaches to moral principles and ethical considerations. In addition, the writer implies that modern economists are driven purely by welfare policies and not ethical considerations whereas classical economists took account of moral principles as well. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. According to the writer, with modern economists, questions of value do not override calculations of utility. They are driven purely by calculations of utility. Hence the implied issue in option 3 is incorrect. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is contrary to the writer’s purpose behind referring to Adam Smith. His view is that the classical economists did not settle for “the most efficient ways to achieve the “common good,” but took into account the greater principle of morality, and may consider it the overriding factor over economic utility or common good. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Show that modern economists have fallen out of the habit of moral reasoning, but historically ethical considerations were central to economics.

Time taken by you: 587 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 160 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following considerations can make the economists decide against a ‘top tax rate of 40% rather than 50%’? A top rate of 40% is likely to increase overall welfare in terms of income and distribution. A top rate of 50% is likely to increase the overall revenue by more than 75%.

A top rate of 50% is likely to encourage the rich to evade taxes. A top rate of 40% is likely to make a large class of non-rich people feel jealous. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The second paragraph states, “if the models suggest that one policy choice—a top tax rate of 40%, say, rather than 50%— leads to greater welfare than another, that is usually good enough for an economist.” What would force the economist to decide against 40% is thus, a reason that these economists haven’t factored in while deciding on 40% cap. This factor is explained in the next paragraph, which says, “Governments might choose to increase redistribution based on evidence that high inequality creates feelings of envy, and envy reduces the welfare of the non-rich by making them feel worse. Validating envy through tax policy could prove socially corrosive, in a way that economists’ models fail to capture.” Thus, the possibility of disintegration in society can make the economists go against the cap of 40% tax. Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph states option 1 as the reason for the decision to cap the tax at 40%. Eliminate this option. Option 2 is incorrect. The phenomenal increase with top 50% tax rate mentioned in option 2 does not explain why this should stop the economists from deciding against it. It does not thus answer the question. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. If option 3 is true, it is a likely reason for deciding against 50% and not deciding against 40%. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It brings in the other factor or the unseen consequence that makes them decide against 40%. Since the non-rich in any society are going to be the majority, the envy in the majority can cause social corrosion. Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: A top rate of 40% is likely to make a large class of non-rich people feel jealous.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 9 % 3) All these arguments are advanced in favour of modern economists’ cost-benefit analysis EXCEPT: Cost-benefit analysis is based on well- defined theory and analysis of data. Cost-benefit analysis produces predictable consequences. Cost-benefit analysis has a professional and authentic appearance to it. Cost benefit analysis uses mathematical models to quantify claims. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The arguments advanced in favour of cost-benefit analysis can be found in the first three paragraphs. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 is supported by the passage and is not an exception. The beginning of the passage states that economists may attack the theory used to support the claim, or may attack the data analysis which is used to quantify an effect etc. This supports the option. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage does not mention that consequences produce predictable outcomes. It is contrary to what is stated in the third paragraph. Quoting Matthew Weinzierl, of Harvard University, the writer notes that “the world is too complicated to be modeled with anything like perfect accuracy. Many knock-on effects from policy shifts are unknowable beforehand. … These may reflect accumulated knowledge about some choices’ unintended consequences.” Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The first paragraph states that Economists may belligerently attack the theoretical models used for tax-analysis, they do not argue about whether it was morally acceptable to pass a regressive tax reform after years of wage stagnation because to look at it from a moral angle would make them look entirely un-economist. This implies that a costbenefit analysis gives them a professional and authentic “economic” appearance. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is stated in the first paragraph and is not an exception. The first paragraph mentions that a common tactic used by economists is to attack the theory, or to attack the data analysis which is used to quantify an effect. This implies that mathematical methods are used to quantify the effect. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Cost-benefit analysis produces predictable consequences.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 4) Why does Alvin Roth recommend that Economists spend more time thinking about moral taboos? Because these moral taboos preclude the benefits of legalizing of trade in ‘repugnant markets’ Because thinking more about moral taboos will be close to a professional heresy. Because legislating on ‘repugnant markets’ could prove socially corrosive. Because economists have so far failed to take moral concerns more seriously. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Paragraphs 5 and 6 describe Alvin Roth’s lecture on his life saving work on market design. He describes how legalizing the so called ‘repugnant markets’ – the example of organ markets – characterized by popular distaste or moral unease, can alleviate the deadly shortage of organs. It is in this context that Alvin Roth recommends that economists spend more time thinking about such taboos, mostly because they are a constraint on the use of markets in new contexts. Option 1 is correct. The reason advanced by Roth is that legalization of organ trade is prevented by popular distaste and moral unease. These are the constraints that Alvin Roth is referring to his market design in the organ’s market. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that thinking about moral taboos is professional heresy. Mathew Weinzierl of Harvard talks about the unintended consequences of economic decisions that economists are unable to anticipate because they do not think include the moral radar. Hence Mr. Weinzierl asks economists to take moral concern seriously. Economists who are used to only conventional cost-benefit analysis may find this suggestion “moral heresy” so the implication is the opposite of what is stated in option 2. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Weinzierl does not say that legislating on ‘repugnant markets’ can prove socially corrosive. Hence eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is incorrect to say that “economists have so far failed to take moral concerns more seriously.” The reference to Adam smith is to show that moral concerns have been central to economics historically. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Because these moral taboos preclude the benefits of legalizing of trade in ‘repugnant markets’

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 % 5) “Giving women information about the health and safety benefits of legalizing prostitution seems to reduce support for legalization.” A possible explanation for the reduced support would be: Women do not believe that the objections to repugnant activity are beneficial. Women do not subscribe to a cost-benefit approach to prostitution. There aren’t important reasons for moral objection to prostitution. Women believe that prostitution arises out of constraining circumstances and not out of choice. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. In the seventh paragraph, the writer mentions the insights that can be had from social rules. Asking the economists to spend more time to thinking about taboos because these taboos are a constraint on the use of markets in new contexts (like organ trade) the writer quotes Nicola Lacetera of the University of Toronto, and explains that “there may be important reasons for moral objections to repugnant activity, and costs to abandoning such objections. The example of prostitution is cited after that. The writer’s implication is that women’s objections to legalizing prostitution lie beyond the pale of costbenefit analysis, unlike in the case of organ trade where a cost benefit analysis can gather support for organ trade. This is an important social insight. Option 1 is incorrect. The implication of option 1 is contrary to women’s approach to legalising prostitution. They believe that objections are beneficial. Eliminate option 1. Option 2is correct. The support is reduced because women worry about the consequences of applying a cost-benefit approach to areas relating to their status within society – they would rather consider the issue of legalizing prostitution purely from a moral point of view than from a cost-benefit analysis. Retain option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. This is contrary to women’s attitude. They do have important reasons for their moral objections to legalizing prostitution. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Women’s belief that prostitution is because of circumstances would sidetrack the issue of morality and cost-benefit analysis. Hence it does not answer the specific query. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Women do not subscribe to a cost-benefit approach to prostitution.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 % 6) What is the passage trying to convey? Modern economics, unlike classical economics, does not shy away from moral philosophy and social principles and rules that have evolved over time. As moral concerns affect human behavior in important ways, economic policy ought to take account of the social costs of not legalizing the “repugnant” markets. Though calculations of social utility are tidier, economists need to understand and evaluate moral arguments rather than dismiss them. While hard sciences deal with the ethical implications of their work, social sciences are driven purely by utilitarian principles.

Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. What the passage is trying to convey is made explicitly clear in several places in the passage. The first paragraph explains how economists today are preoccupied with a mere cost-benefit analysis of economic issues. The second paragraph states, “Modern economists have attempted to strip value judgments out of their policy analyses. Policies are judged on how they are likely to affect economic variables such as income and its distribution,”… and, something that “leads to greater welfare than another, is usually good enough for an economist.” The passage explains the importance of taking account of moral principles into economic policy. Various economists and examples are cited throughout the passage to emphasize the importance of taking moral concerns seriously. Option 1 is incorrect. It is contrary to what the passage is trying to convey. The writer is of the opinion that while classical economists did include moral principles in economic discussions modern economics is predominantly driven by a cost-benefit analysis. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is limited. The passage is not specific to “repugnant markets.” Repugnant markets are mentioned only as an example of one aspect of the moral aspect of the markets – and to show that there can be benefits if the moral issued are closely looked into and overcome. It is not the main argument. Eliminate Option 2. Option 3 is correct. The gist of the passage is captured by the option that, ‘calculations of social utility are tidier, economists need to understand and evaluate moral arguments rather than dismiss them.’ Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The reference to hard sciences in the passage is done for a casual comparison and lack elaboration. Besides, “social sciences are driven purely by utilitarian principles”, as stated in option 4, is not supported by the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Though calculations of social utility are tidier, economists need to understand and evaluate moral arguments rather than dismiss them.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The ethicist of belief will need to specify the type of value she is invoking, why and how she thinks it can ground doxastic (relating to an individual's beliefs) norms, whether it is the only kind of value that does that, and (if not) what the priority relations are between norms based on different kinds of value. The general idea is that if something is beneficial, and believing that p will help us achieve, acquire, or actualize that thing, then it is prima facie prudent for us to believe that p. This will be true even if we lack sufficient evidence for the belief in that p, and even if we are aware of that lack.

Consider for example someone who reads in the psychological literature that people are much more likely to survive a cancer diagnosis if they firmly believe that they will survive it. Upon being diagnosed with the disease himself, and in light of the fact that his goal is to survive, it will be prudent for this person to believe that he will survive, even if he knows that he (and his doctors) lack sufficient evidence for that belief. James refers to such cases as ones “where faith in a fact can help create the fact”. Someone might suggest that the patient's knowledge that his “faith helps create the fact” itself counts as a kind of evidence in its favour. But other cases can be used to make the same point: Pascal famously argues that it is required by prudential rationality that we believe in God, even though we lack sufficient evidence for that belief, and even though such belief would play no role in “creating” the fact that it describes. Here’s a non-religious example: suppose that you would like to retain a good relationship with your teenage son, and you are aware that this requires believing the best of him whenever possible. You also have some moderate but not compelling olfactory evidence that he is using drugs in the house when you are away (in response to your queries, he claims that he has recently taken up transcendental meditation, and that the funny smell when you come home is just incense). Suppose too that you know yourself well enough to know that your relationship with your son will be seriously damaged if you come to view him as a habitual drug-user. This suggests that you would violate a prudential norm if you go ahead and believe that he is. In other words, it is prudent, given your ends, to withhold belief about the source of the aroma altogether, or even to believe, if possible, that he is not smoking pot but rather burning incense in your absence. On the other hand, if you regard the occasional use of recreational drugs as harmless fun that expresses a healthy contempt for overweening state authority (in some states, at least), then it might be prudent for you—confronted with the tell-tale odour—to form the belief that your son has indeed taken up the habit in question. 1) What is this passage about? The central debate in ethics of belief is whether there are norms of some sort governing our habits of belief-formation, beliefmaintenance, and belief-relinquishment. Ethics of belief postulates that we are obliged to form beliefs on insufficient evidence and that it would be a significant failure to do otherwise. In ethics of belief, different types of norms govern the process for belief formation and these norms reflect different types of value. According to ethicists of belief, to form a belief about important matters without possessing sufficient evidence is an error of judgment. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. What poses difficulty is not the question itself or the answer to it, but the abstract idea in the passage and the complexity of the language in which it is explained. This is one of those passages in which we find the main idea stated at the beginning of the passage. “The ethicist of belief will need to specify the type of value she is invoking, why and how she thinks it can ground doxastic (relating to an individual's beliefs) norms, whether it is the only kind of value that does that, and (if not) what the priority relations are between norms based in different kinds of value.” Option 1 is incorrect. The passage is not a debate about whether there are norms; nor does it state that any kind of debate is at the centre of ethics of belief. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It states that we are obliged to form beliefs. The passage merely describes the process of forming beliefs according to individual value systems. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Option 3 paraphrases the first sentence of the passage in simple words. The gist of the passage is that people form beliefs in different ways and have different norms to form beliefs. These beliefs and norms in turn, reflect their value system. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The value judgments about beliefs are not part of the passage – there are no implications about whether the beliefs are right or wrong. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: In ethics of belief, different types of norms govern the process for belief formation and these norms reflect different types of value.

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% Students got it correct: 46 % 2) The writer’s recommendation that “it might be prudent for you… to form the belief…” most likely reflects… The pragmatic and prudent value of the belief rather than truth in itself. That “the faith in fact can help create the fact.” The compelling reason to form a belief without sufficient evidence. That such belief would play no role in “creating” the fact that it describes. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a difficult question. It can be answered only with the whole passage in mind. The central idea of the passage is how different norms are used by people to form different beliefs. The examples in the passage, that of the cancer patient, belief in god, and the drug user and his parent, illustrate how depending on the kind of outcome that that one desires a particular belief is formed. Inherent in the process of forming those beliefs is the value that it point to. In case of the cancer patient it is survival, in case of the belief in god, it is “prudential rationality”. In case of the drug user-parent example, it is good relations with the teenage son. The last example which reflects a “healthy contempt for the authority of the state” doesn’t bother about whether drug use is good or bad. Hence option 1 is correct – the belief has some practical value and is unconcerned about what the truth might be. Option 2 is incorrect. The belief is not going to create any fact in this case. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Since the parent condones occasional use as harmless, no compelling reason can be derived from that belief. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, the recommendation does not reflect a belief that may or may not create the fact. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: The pragmatic and prudent value of the belief rather than truth in itself.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) It can be inferred from the passage that a “belief” from the point of view of ethicists of belief is most probably … A conviction arrived at by suppressing facts. A conviction arrived at by ignoring evidence. A sincere and comfortable conviction. A conviction that one is obliged to go out and gather evidence for. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage makes it quite clear that beliefs are formed in the face of sufficient evidence or facts. Suppressing evidence or facts cannot be implied by such beliefs. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, the question of ignoring evidence arises only when evidence is available. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The example of belief in god will support the explanation of belief in option 3. The belief in god is neither an uncertain belief nor a belief searching for evidence. It is a sincere and comfortable conviction that one carries. Retain Option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The believer who holds a belief is not said to be looking for, nor obliged to look for, evidence. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: A sincere and comfortable conviction.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of 6 questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Urbanization has many advantages. But the benefits of urban life are often accompanied by costs. Perhaps none feels more burdensome – and downright infuriating – than traffic congestion. Many governments have tried to develop policies to reduce traffic congestion by making it more expensive to get behind the wheel. Since 2003, London has successfully implemented a congestion charge, while Singapore wants to use GPS technology to police its own congestion-pricing strategy. But such policies are harder to implement in poorer countries, where technological capabilities and infrastructure are often lacking. That is why developing countries typically seek more basic policies to improve traffic flows. For example, in India, Delhi’s suffocating air pollution has led the government to experiment with “even-odd” policies: individuals can drive only on certain days, based on the numbers on their license plates. But this approach has had minimal impact. Gabriel Kreindler of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology has shown that while the policy reduced congestion slightly, drivers circumvented the rule by switching to other vehicles. Vendors also started selling old plates so that drivers could change their tags as needed. With these documented failures in mind, I worked with colleagues to study policies that might be more effective. With MIT’s Benjamin Olken and Kreindler, we examined the impact in Jakarta, Indonesia, of the widespread policy of high-occupancy vehicle (HOV) restrictions, which limit travel based on the number of passengers in a car. Jakarta has some of the worst traffic gridlock in the world. Since the early 1990s, Jakarta’s government has sought to improve traffic flows with a rule that private cars driven during rush hours in the city’s central business district must contain three or more passengers. Just about everyone despised this “three-in-one” policy, and people often complained that it created further inconvenience, without reducing time spent on the road. Our research sought to quantify the policy’s true impact. In defending the view that the policy was onerous and ineffective, drivers often pointed to an informal business of enlisting “professional” passengers who took money to sit in as passengers and give the appearance of a carpool. According to the policy’s opponents, what looked like carpooling was an evasion of it. Eventually, the Jakarta government sided with the policy’s naysayers, announcing in March 2016 that the rules would be suspended indefinitely. For researchers, this created a golden opportunity to measure the impact of a policy before its adoption and immediately after its repeal. To do that, we queried a Google Maps interface every ten minutes, 24 hours a day. With this real-time, crowd-sourced traffic data for each route previously under restriction, we were able to ascertain what happened to traffic flows after the policy was suspended.

The results were striking. Despite what drivers – and eventually the government – believed, the three-in-one policy was highly effective in reducing congestion. Our data showed that traffic congestion worsened significantly after the policy was rescinded. On Jakarta’s regulated roads, average speeds fell from 28 kilometers (17.4 miles) per hour to 19 kilometers per hour during the morning rush, and from 21 kilometers per hour to 11 kilometers per hour during the evening rush. Moreover, we found increases in traffic at times of day that were not previously regulated, and more vehicles appearing on non-regulated roads in general. These findings have implications for traffic-control measures in other cities. For example, our data imply that Jakarta’s HOV restrictions were more effective than London’s congestion pricing or Delhi’s even-odd policy. As megacities continue to emerge in many developing countries, strategies like Jakarta’s three-in-one approach can help reduce gridlock. But they can succeed in delivering benefits only if they are crafted wisely, enforced effectively, and studied well. People will always seek to circumvent regulations, but policymakers must consider all the evidence before they decide to take the off-ramp. 1) According to the writer, “policymakers must consider all the evidence before they decide to take the off-ramp” because, Good ideas can often be derailed by trying to predict whether they will succeed or not based on inadequate data. Statistics do not always reflect the reality on the ground. The cost of abandoning a course of action can be offset by the benefits of staying on course. In the Jakarta’s traffic policy, proofs offered by Google maps were far more significant than the experiences of drivers on the ground. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The idiom ‘take the off-ramp’ means to leave a particular action that one has been following. Option 1 is incorrect. It is too general. The writer is commenting specifically about dropping a course of action. He is not commenting on ‘good ideas’ or predictions in general. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. One cannot infer from the passage whether the writer is commenting on the relation between statistics and reality. This is an opinion not supported by the passage. Eliminate option 2 Option 3 is correct. In the last paragraph before making the comment that “policymakers must consider all the evidence before they decide to take the off-ramp,” the writer refers to the data the MIT team has collected and says that; “our data imply that Jakarta’s HOV restrictions were more effective than London’s congestion pricing or Delhi’s even-odd policy. The government’s decision to give up the policy was not based on evidence and hastily done. The benefits were not evaluated. If government had studied the cost of congestion against the benefits of carpooling by looking at the available evidence the policy would not have been rescinded. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The writer does not attribute any higher value to the data that his team has derived from Google, but merely suggests that the data available from Google have not been taken account of while discontinuing the three-in-one policy. Hence the option is a misrepresentation of the author’s position. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The cost of abandoning a course of action can be offset by the benefits of staying on course.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 17 % 2) Which of the following is true about the policy of ‘high-occupancy vehicle restriction’ in Jakarta? It reduced traffic congestion by making it expensive for users to get behind the wheel. It created further inconvenience to the people without reducing the time spent on road. It was in reality an evasion of ‘carpooling’ which the policy tried to encourage. It failed because it was misconceived and the government had to withdraw it eventually. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. The aim of the policy as stated in the second paragraph was to “to reduce traffic congestion by making it more expensive to get behind the wheel.” The rule that “those private cars driven during rush hours in the city’s central business district must contain three or more passengers,” made it more expensive for drivers, because the driver who was prevented from using his car alone, had to enlist others who charged the driver for riding with him/her. Thus, it became costly for the driver. At the end of the passage it is stated that the policy succeeded in reducing congestion. Retain 1. Option 2 is incorrect. This is a claim made by the detractors of the policy. The paragraph provides statistics that prove that the time spent on road had actually reduced. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This is also a claim made by the detractors. Since the riders had to give the appearance of carpool by paying people to ride with them – this does not mean that they could evade carpooling without a cost. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not indicate that the policy was misconceived. The passage comments only on the policy’s faulty implementation. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: It reduced traffic congestion by making it expensive for users to get behind the wheel.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 % 3) Which of the following is cited as a consequence of the suspension of three-in-one policy? Suspending the three-in-one policy produced more traffic and less carpooling. After the suspension of the policy, traffic on regulated roads did not show any visible difference in speed or the time spent on the road. Suspension of three-in-one policy produced more traffic and congestion only on regulated roads. Three-in-one policy became a recommended solution for cities like Delhi and London. Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 9 states that “Moreover, we found increases in traffic at times of day that were not previously regulated, and more vehicles appearing on non-regulated roads in general.” “More vehicles appearing on the road” means that traffic increased overall and the increase in the number of cars suggests that carpooling was less than earlier. Hence option 1 is correct. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is contrary to the passage. The passage explicitly states that traffic increased and slowed down. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The option says that suspension of three-in-one policy produced more traffic and congestion only on regulated roads. This is incorrect. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. There is no information in the passage about the recommended solutions for Delhi and London. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Suspending the three-in-one policy produced more traffic and less carpooling.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 % 4) Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

The HOV restriction policy’s success was subtle and therefore confusing to the policymakers. There was no attempt to make a before-and-after comparative study of the policy before withdrawing it. The writer’s own contribution to a better understanding of the policy would have helped the policy stay on track and not get repealed The government failed to account for the increase in the number of vehicles over two decades and gave into the demands of irate commuters. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. This is an ambiguous statement and cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage does not imply that the success of the policy was subtle. It indicates that the success went unnoticed because there was no attempt to evaluate it on evidence. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The policy was in effect since the 1990s. It was indefinitely suspended in march 2016. The writer then states that the policy’s suspension created a golden opportunity to measure the impact of a policy before its adoption and immediately after its repeal. Thus till 2016, there was no effort to make a before-after comparative study. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 can be inferred from paragraph 9. The writer says the results of his research were striking. Despite what the drivers and eventually the government believed the three in one policy was highly effective in reducing congestion. That the government had implemented and continued the policy for more than 20 years suggests that it would have gone on with the policy if the data had been made available before suspension of the policy. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The government withdrew the policy because of public pressure, and not based on data, hence not taken account of the relevant data about the increase in the number of vehicles over a period of twenty years. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: The HOV restriction policy’s success was subtle and therefore confusing to the policymakers.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 % 5) The conclusion of the study that Jakarta’s “three-in-one policy was highly effective” suggests that … While Jakarta’s “professional” passengers when the policy was in effect were a visible presence, they did not weaken the effect of the policy. While people often complained that the policy created further inconvenience, the policy in reality made travelling more convenient. The methodology used for the study was similar to those used by the author’s study of London, Singapore, and Delhi. Efforts to reduce urban traffic congestion, and the air pollution that comes with it, are onerous and ineffective especially in poorer cities like Jakarta. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. While the presence of passengers who had to be paid in order to give a ride an appearance of carpooling was a reality when the three-in-policy was in effect, it seems to have had no impact on the overall effectiveness of the policy as overall the policy made getting behind the wheel more expensive and reduced congestion. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Though congestion reduced as a result of the implementation of the policy, it cannot be ascertained from the passage that the inconvenience that people were complaining of wasn’t a fact, or that the policy had made travelling more convenient. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage provides no data about the studies conducted in London, Singapore or Delhi. Besides the methodology used in other cities is not related to the conclusion of the study. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The three-in-one policy was termed ‘onerous and ineffective’ by the drivers in Jakarta who faced inconvenience due to the policy. However, the study proved that the policy was effective. Hence option 4 is factually incorrect. Besides, the broad generalisation about “poorer cities like Jakarta” is not sustainable by the conclusion of the study. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 1. Correct Answer: While Jakarta’s “professional” passengers when the policy was in effect were a visible presence, they did not weaken the effect of the policy.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 14 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 15 % 6) Which of the following is NOT a congestion-reducing measure mentioned in the passage? Levying a charge on private vehicles that enter a particular area. Making personal transport more expensive for commuters Using GPS technology to check the impact of policies and methods on congestion. Restricting certain vehicles on certain days. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions that London levies a congestion charge. Congestion charge is generally a fee charged on vehicles that enter a particular area and/or at a particular time. Hence option 1 is a congestion reducing measure. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The general strategy adopted by various governments to reduce traffic congestion is to make “it more expensive to get behind the wheel.” Hence option 2 is mentioned. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. Using GPS technology to check something in itself is not a measure adopted to reduce congestion. It is used to check the volume of traffic flow. It is not a step to curb or reduce congestion but only a way to gather data. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The odd-even scheme and Delhi using it as a measure to reduce congestion is mentioned in the passage. So eliminate option 2. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Using GPS technology to check the impact of policies and methods on congestion.

Time taken by you: 3013 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 16 %

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Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Most of us would say that we do have free will. We can do anything we wish. If we want to wear a red shirt instead of a blue one, we can. If we want to eat a sandwich instead of a pizza, we can. If we want to marry the girl or boy we love, we can. If we have enough money, we can buy any house, car or gadget. Likewise, we can travel wherever we want to. Obviously, it looks as if free will exists. All the choices that we make are from the act of exercising the will. How free is free will? Whatever we call free will or choice is finally determined by a mix of two things, nature and nurture, or by our heritage and conditioning. We can’t choose our parents, and, hence, we have no choice over the genetic material they gift to us. Also, from birth, we are exposed to conditioning and belief systems. In the process of growing up, we are conditioned and led to believe a great many things by family, friends and strangers, the media, commercials, books and what-have-you. As an adult, we are, thus, a mixture of our genetics and all these conditionings. Free will does not exist – what we believe to be free will is finally a product of the conditioning we have received from family, society, the media, and books. Based on our freedom to choose we believe that free will exists; however, finally we have no free will as our choices are a result of social conditioning. Most of us believe that free will exists since we make choices in our daily life. However, in the final analysis we are products of our social and environmental conditioning. As adults, what we call free will, which gives us the freedom to make various choices in our daily life, is finally determined by our genetics and social conditioning. Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. Bertrand Russell famously distinguished between knowledge by description and a quite particular kind of knowledge by acquaintance. He allowed there to be a form of acquaintance that was immediate and unquestionable, linking one with such things as abstract properties and momentary sensory items passing before one’s mind: you can be acquainted with the abstract property of redness, as well as with a specific patch of redness briefly in your visual field. Knowledge by description was the means by which, in Russell’s view, a person could proceed to know about what he or she had not experienced directly. We formulate definite descriptions (‘the third man listed in the current Sydney residential phonebook’) and indefinite ones (‘a man listed in the current Sydney residential phonebook’). With these, we can designate individuals with whom we have not interacted. Then we can formulate claims using such descriptions. Some of these claims could be knowledge. According to Bertrand Russell there are two kinds of knowledge – knowledge by description, or knowing a person whom we have met; and knowledge by acquaintance or knowing something or someone by sensory experience. Bertrand Russell distinguishes between knowledge gained through acquaintance without knowing a person and knowledge gained through description or indefinite ones with whom we have not interacted.

Knowledge by description is when you know things as abstract properties like ‘redness’ and knowledge by acquaintance is when you know something or someone as a definite or indefinite person listed in the phonebook. According to Bertrand Russell there are two kinds of knowledge – knowledge by description, or knowing a person whom we have not met; and knowledge by acquaintance or knowing something by sensory experience. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question The main points in the passage are: Bertrand Russell distinguished between knowledge by description and knowledge by acquaintance. Knowledge by acquaintance is immediate and based on sensory items passing before the mind (as direct experiences). Knowledge by description is the formulation of definite or indefinite descriptions of things or people (we have not experienced directly). Option 1 is incorrect. “Knowing a person whom we have met” leads to knowledge by acquaintance, but option term sit as knowledge by description. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, option also confuses one type of knowledge for the other. Also it is incomprehensible in “knowledge gained through description or indefinite ones with whom we have not interacted.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “Knowledge by description is when you know things as abstract properties like ‘redness’…” is incorrect. This is knowledge by acquaintance. Option 3 also leaves out Bertrand Russell form the précis. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It correctly summarises Russell’s description of two distinct types of knowledge. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: According to Bertrand Russell there are two kinds of knowledge – knowledge by description, or knowing a person whom we have not met; and knowledge by acquaintance or knowing something by sensory experience. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position. There is a common misunderstanding about the reservation policy even among the educated; in as much as they think that the provision for reservation for the SCs and the STs was originally only for 10 years after the commencement of the Constitution. This is not so. The 10-year provision was only in respect of the political reservations and that is why it needs to be extended after every 10 years. Reservation in education and employment has proved to be much more effective in improving the living conditions of these groups, particularly of the SCs and STs, in comparison to political reservations. Though faulty in its implementation, reservations in education created necessary educational skills and capabilities that enabled these groups to benefit from the job opportunities. Contrary to common understanding, the ten year expiry applies only to political reservations. In education and employment Reservation has helped improve the skills of the reserved groups and enabled them to benefit from the job opportunities.

The 10-year provision applies only to political reservations. In other areas it has improved the living conditions, imparted skills and capabilities, and enhanced job opportunities of the reserved group, particularly of the SCs and STs. Contrary to what even the educated think; the Constitution had a ten year limit only to political reservations necessitating extensions. Reservation in education and employment has been more effective in improving the skills and capabilities and the living conditions of the reserved groups. Even the educated misunderstand that the provision for reservation for the SCs and the STs was originally only for 10 years. However, reservation in education and employment is forever and has helped SCs and STs to improve their living conditions. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The main points in the passage are: The ten year expiry of reservation, as stated in the Constitution, applies only to political reservations. Even the educated are misinformed in this respect. Reservation in education and employment has been much more effective than political reservation and has helped in improving the living conditions of the reserved groups. It has helped enhance their skills and capabilities enabling them to benefit form job opportunities. Option 1 is incorrect. The 10 year expiry period the option mentions does not clarify that it starts from the commencement of the Constitution. Other than this, the option contains all the major points that a précis is expected to capture. So we can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It does not specify the other areas of reservation. In the absence of this, the précis has become vague and incomprehensible. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured effectively in option 3. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 misses several points. ‘Forever’ is a misrepresentation. It also does not mention political reservation. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Contrary to what even the educated think; the Constitution had a ten year limit only to political reservations necessitating extensions. Reservation in education and employment has been more effective in improving the skills and capabilities and the living conditions of the reserved groups. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 95 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Five sentences numbered 1 to 5 related to a topic are given below; four of them when arranged in a logical sequence form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in its number as your answer.

1. Silicon Valley prophets talk of colonizing new planets, conveniently sidestepping the challenge of saving our own. 2. After all, the most recent wave of innovation has been driven by ‘machine learning’ or ‘deep learning’ – a computer-science version of an adaptive process.

3. Nature and technology seem to pull us in different directions. 4. Amazon and Twitter take their names from the natural world, even as they invent products that seem bent on supplanting it. 5. At Google and Facebook, the world’s best engineers are engaged in souping up our own species via artificial intelligence (AI), rather than protecting millions of others.

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Explanation: This is an easy question The first thing you notice is that sentence 3 stands out. It is either the introductory beginning or the conclusive end of the paragraph. Once we see that it can only be the beginning in this paragraph, we also can identify the theme of the paragraph. That, “nature and technology pull us in different directions.” There is no need to see which sentence comes next. Sentences 1, 4, and 5 are examples of how we are pulled in different directions by technology and nature and can be listed almost anyhow. However, being the most important and general example sentence 1 is best placed after sentence 3. After that it does not matter whether we place 4-5 or 5-4 in that order. 3154 and 3145 are equally good. The out of sequence sentence 2 talks about how innovation is a result of these technological pursuits. It has no place in the theme of the paragraph. Hence option 2 is the correct answer. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Five sentences numbered 1 to 5 related to a topic are given below; four of them when arranged in a logical sequence form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in its number as your answer.

1. It is, all at once, a fever and an occupation, an affliction and a constitution. 2. Anxiety is therefore a perspective, a hermeneutical relationship with the world, whose text now gets read in a very peculiar way by this anxiety-laden vision. 3. Anxiety is insidious, more than just a simple fear. 4. Anxieties are not immortal; some die on their own, subdued by exposure to enough recalcitrant facts about the world to make some terrors untenable. 5. An anxiety is a lens through which to view the world, a colouration that grants the sufferer’s experiences their distinctive hue.

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Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The first sentence is easy to identify from among the five sentences. Sentence 3 which reads ‘anxiety is insidious, more than just a simple fear’ sets the theme of the paragraph as well. The next sentence is also easy to identify. Sentence 1 explains why anxiety is more than a simple fear – because, it is many things at once – a fever, an occupation, and affliction and a constitution. Once we have connected sentences 3 and 1 this way, sentences 5 and 2 also can be related to them – the word “therefore’ in sentence 2 gives us the clue that it should come after sentence 5. Thus we get a coherent paragraph in 3-1-5-2 sequence – that anxiety “is a lens through which we view the world”. And in that sense, “it is, therefore a perspective…”. The word hermeneutical means: interpretative or the act or interpreting. Sentence 4, however, talks about, how anxieties die, sometimes a natural death, and at other times, get erased by facts. This is unrelated to the theme that describes how anxieties are a perspective on situations. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined Five sentences numbered 1 to 5 related to a topic are given below; four of them when arranged in a logical sequence form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in its number as your answer.

1. However, popular culture has lost its ability to create these integrated, unified wholes. 2. Aesthetic experience without compromise or qualification is unpredictable, fluid, and has a complex structure. 3. It’s not uncommon to hear films praised for their ‘set-pieces’ and ‘special effects’; we praise a two-hour film for the enjoyable moments it contains. 4. Aesthetic freedom requires an artwork to give us space and time to inhabit it, and to experience it as a unified whole. 5. Instead, works are now being produced that are a loose collection of moments experienced in a rapid and disconnected series.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question Trying to unravel the theme of the paragraph in these jumbled sentences does not yield any results. So, let’s try to find a mandatory pair. We can begin with sentence 1 which is a dangler. It reads: “However, popular culture has lost its ability to create these integrated, unified wholes.” We can now look for a sentence that specifies “these integrated, unified wholes.” We find that Sentence 4 which says experiencing an artwork as a whole is what “aesthetic freedom” is, refers to the ‘integrated, unified wholes” in sentence 1. So, 4-1 is a mandatory pair. From this mandatory pair of 4-1, we can understand the theme of the paragraph as well, which is – aesthetic freedom implies that we experience artwork as a unified whole, but “popular culture has lost its ability to create these integrated, unified wholes.” “Instead, works are now being produced…” in sentence 5 can be immediately related to the current popular art – that “works are now being produced that are a loose collection of moments experienced in a rapid and disconnected series.” So we see that 4-1-5 is a meaningful and coherent sequence. Now it is a question of relating the remaining two sentences – sentence 2 and sentence 3 - to this narrative. Sentence 3 which provides an immediate example of the fragmented popular art of a two-hour popular film, relates to the paragraph well. Sentence 2 which is about aesthetic experience in general is unrelated. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. The past uniquely determines the future. 2. Physics loses its determinism handle and starts staring at multiple futures. 3. In the world around us—the real world according to physics—determinism rules. 4. But what happens when the information about the past gets erased? 5. So, the moment it became apparent to many physicists that our universe started with a Big Bang, they could calculate its future for all time and all space.

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. There are two clear clues that we can use to get the answer right. The first clue is in sentence 3 – it introduces the topic that “in the world around us determinism rules.” The other clue is in sentence 4 – It begins with ‘but’; hence, requires a contrasting sentence before it. Finding this sentence before sentence 4 will give us a mandatory pair that can be used to construct the paragraph. We will use both the clues. Sentence 3 states that the world is ruled by determinism, and determinism means that the past determines the future. Hence 3 -1 is a mandatory pair. When we compare sentences 5, 4 and 2 to be placed after the 3-1 pair, sentence 2 is least likely and even illogical – there is no point saying ‘physics loses its handle’ after the 3-1 pair. Sentences 5 and 4 both seem to fit. However, sentence 5 becomes a dangler if not placed immediately after the 3-1- pair. In other words, sentence 5 cannot be placed anywhere else in the paragraph, but immediately after 3-1. Also it follows logically from the ‘past determines the future’ as stated in sentence 1 – so, the scientists could calculate the future of the universe, once they came to know about its past. So we get the sequence 3-1-5. Also, the sentence beginning with “but” is better placed after the effect of it is explained in 4 beginning with ‘so’. This is our second clue. And, the question that is raised in sentence 4, “but what if the past gets erased…” is a concern that will arise if the scientists’ theory about the future of the universe is based on the determinism of 3-1 and the future of the universe based on this determinism. So, we can be certain that 3-1-5-4 is the correct sequence. The effect of the erasure of the past is then explained in sentence 2 – that “physics will, then, lose its determinism handle” to explain the future of the universe, thus concluding the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 31542. Correct Answer: 31542. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 24 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. Given the religious and industrial importance of Ganga, any further deterioration will have significant ramifications. 2. For north India, Ganga is at the heart of its cultural and economic landscape. 3. The river is currently struggling to cope with the sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it. 4. Along with its tributaries, it covers 11 states that are home to 600 million people and serves water to 40% of India’s population. 5. The 2,525 km long Ganga flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and Bengal before reaching the Bay of Bengal.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. After the initial reading of the five sentences, it becomes clear that sentences 3-1 are a mandatory pair. The ‘further deterioration’ mentioned in sentence 1 follows from the “sewage waste and industrial effluents dumped into it” mentioned in sentence 3. Between sentences 2, 4, and 5, sentence 4 cannot be the starter because it begins abruptly with ‘along with its tributaries…’ When we compare sentence 2 and 5 for the starter, both appear to be equally good. Some deliberation is needed. Mention of north India followed by the names of states Uttarakhand etc. will give us 2-5. Mention of the names of the states followed by north India gives us 5-2. 2-5 order is more logical than 5-2, because it is better to mention the broad area of north India first and then mention the names of states in the north rather than mention the names of the states first and then the general area of north India. So we can be certain that 5-2 is more logical and the correct order. Sentence 4 comes next, because sentence 4 continues the narrative related to the geographical aspect of Ganga. So, the 3-1 mandatory pair about the pollution of Ganga can be placed only after sentence 4 and not before it. Placing sentence 4 after sentence 5 is also important because the pronoun “its” in 4 clearly refers only to Ganga which sentence 5 makes explicit. Anywhere else, the pronoun “it” can create an ambiguity, because north India is also referred to as ‘it’ in sentence 2. So we get the sequence 2-5-4, and then the mandatory pair 3-1 is placed logically after that. Hence the correct answer is 25431. Correct Answer: 25431 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. This is not about doing away with plastics but about shifting to a production and consumption system that is sustainable, based on efficiencies across the life cycle of the product. 2. It generates more than 15,000 tonnes of plastic waste every day, a third of which remains uncollected. 3. The annual consumption of plastic in India is nearly 12.8 million tonnes, and expected to rise at a compound annual growth rate of 10%. 4. In 2016, India issued a new regulatory framework for plastic waste management but implementation remains a problem. 5. India’s ragpickers and kabadiwallahs do help divert plastics from landfills, but the system is far from efficient.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Sentences 3 and 4 both can be considered for the starter. However, if we start with sentence 4, at best, sentence 3 can be placed after that. Then, we come to a dead end, and become unable to make any progress. We will be force-fixing sentences after 4-3 without any concrete reasoning. The other option is to start with sentence 3. Sentence 3 talks about the annual consumption of plastic in India and its expected increase. Now, sentence 2 makes sense after sentence 3, because sentence 2 talks about the generation of plastic waste on a daily basis. Consumption followed by the generation of waste are logically related. So, we can confidently fix sentences 3 and 2 at the beginning of the paragraph. Since sentence 2 ends with the mention of 1/3rd of the wasted plastic remaining uncollected – the role of rag pickers and kabadiwallahs in diverting the waste becomes relevant and sentence 5 can be suitably placed after sentences 3 and 2. So we get the sequence 3-2-5. Placing sentences 4 and 1 after this sequence is easy. Sentence 4 comes immediately after because it continues the theme of waste-management - giving us 3-2-5-4 sequence. Sentence 1 then logically concludes the paragraph by stating that the regulatory framework is not about getting rid of plastic altogether but about its sustainable use throughout the lifecycle of plastic. Hence the correct answer is 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. Rather than interrupting us with their own stories and anecdotes, they interject at the right moments with the right responses to our stories! 2. They give us space to talk, express ourselves and to be who we are. 3. Are the people most comfortable to be with, those who are most like us, in thought and belief? 4. Without prejudice or impatience, they listen to us with interest, showing us that we really matter to them. 5. That may be true to some extent, but what is truer is that we are at ease in the company of those who are tolerant and appreciative of who or what we are.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The starter sentence is easy to identify among the five sentences. Hence, in this question, we can build the paragraph from the starter up. Sentence 3 asks a question, slightly rhetorical, wondering whether the people with whom we are comfortable, are some way similar to us. Sentence 5 answers this question – that to an extent, it may be true, that they are like us. So we get 3-5 to begin with. Sentence 5 goes on to say that what is more important is that the people we are comfortable with are also, tolerant and appreciative of who or what we are. So sentence 2 has to be placed next because sentence 2 generally illustrates how they are more tolerant and appreciative – they give us space to talk and express ourselves. Thus, we get the sequence 3-5-2. Now it is easy to follow it up with sentences 4 and 1. In sentence 4 explains how attentively they listen us, and sentence 1 elaborates on the how they show us that we matter to them, by not interrupting our stories and by speaking only when we expect them to. So the correct answer is 35241. Correct Answer: 35241 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 21 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Each of the 12 jars – Jar 1 to Jar 12 – has certain number of marbles. The table given below provides information about the number of marbles in some of the pairs of jars. Each jar has at least one marble.

In the above table, the total number of marbles in Jars 1 and 7 put together is 139, Jars 7 and 2 is 169 and so on and so forth. One value (the total number of marbles in Jars 6 and 12 put together) got deleted, and is denoted by NA. 1) What is the value of NA? 254 255 256 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

NA = 240 – X + X + 14 = 254. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 254

Time taken by you: 177 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 193 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 % 2) What could be the maximum possible number of marbles in Jar 9? 55 56 57 54 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

Number of marbles in Jar 9 = 75 – X and 18 < X < 75. Therefore, 0 < Marbles in Jar 9 < 57. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 56

Time taken by you: 419 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 70 % 3) Which of the following can be the possible number of marbles in Jars 2 and 3 put together? 210 220 255 340 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

Marbles in jars 2 and 3 put together = X + 30 + X + 150 = 2X + 180 Since 18 < X < 75, 216 < 2X + 180 < 330. Also, since 2X + 180 is an even number, the sum of the number of marbles in jars 2 and 3 can take any even value between 218 and 328 (both inclusive). Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 220

Time taken by you: 63 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 % 4) If the number of marbles in Jars 2 and 3 put together is minimum possible, then number of marbles in Jar 10 is: 198 199 200 201 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of marbles in Jar 1 be X, then we can calculate the number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 with the help of figures in the column for Jar 1.

The number of marbles in Jars 7 to 12 are (139 – X), (177 – X), (75 – X), (220 – X), (200 – X), and (240 – X) respectively.

Now, once we get to know number of marbles in Jar 7, we calculate number of marbles from Jars 2 to 6 using the figures in the row for Jar 7.

Now, marbles in any Jar have to be more than 0, therefore 18 < X < 75.

Number of marbles in Jars 2 and 3 put together = 2X + 180 2X + 180 will be minimum possible for X = 19

Therefore, the number of marbles in Jar 10 = 220 - 19 = 201

Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 201

Time taken by you: 60 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the 2015 cricket world cup, five cricketers – A, B, C, D and E participated. Each of them was an all rounder, that is, could both bat and bowl. The runs scored and the runs conceded by each of these five cricketers were among 650, 700, 750, 850 and 900 runs. The runs conceded by each cricketer is different and also the runs scored by each of these five cricketers is different. For any cricketer, the runs scored is not equal to the runs conceded. The difference between the runs scored and runs conceded for any cricketer is denoted by the parameter X (Runs Scored – Runs Conceded). Further it is known that: I. The runs conceded by C is equal to the runs scored by E. Also the value of parameter X for both C and E is negative. II. The runs conceded by B is more than that by D. The value of X is positive for B and less than the value of X for D. III. If the value of X is positive for any cricketer, then it is always more than 50. Also, the value of X is not the same for any two cricketers. IV. The value of X is positive for only two cricketers. Absolute value of X for any cricketer is not 150. 1) How many runs were scored by A?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

Here, m > n and r < s.

Out of [650, 700, 750, 850 and 900], m cannot take the values 650 (since m > n), 850 (because r will become 50 which contradicts III) and 900 (because r will become negative). Therefore, m = 700 or 750. Now, if m = 700, then the runs scored by B has to be 900 (making r = +200). This means that n = 650. If n = 650, then runs scored by D cannot be 650, 700 (from III), 750 (since r < s), 850 (since r < s) or 900 (As B has scored 900.). Therefore, m cannot be 700, so m = 750. Therefore, the runs scored by B has to be 850. Since s cannot be 150, s is either 200 or 250, which means the runs scored by D has to be 900. So far, we have the following:

Now, the value of p cannot be 750, 850 or 900, so it is either 650 or 700. If p = 650, the value of X for C cannot be negative. Therefore, p = 700. Therefore, the runs scored by C has to be 650. Therefore, the runs scored by A has to be 750. So far, we have:

The runs conceded by A and E have to be one among 850 and 900 (making n = 650). Runs conceded by A and E cannot be 900 and 850 respectively (this will make X for both as –150). Therefore, runs conceded by A and E are 850 and 900 respectively. Thus we get the final table as follows:

A scored 750 runs. Therefore, the required answer is 750.

Correct Answer: 750

Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 340 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 % 2) What is the absolute value of X for D? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

Here, m > n and r < s. Out of [650, 700, 750, 850 and 900], m cannot take the values 650 (since m > n), 850 (because r will become 50 which contradicts III) and 900 (because r will become negative). Therefore, m = 700 or 750. Now, if m = 700, then the runs scored by B has to be 900 (making r = +200). This means that n = 650. If n = 650, then runs scored by D cannot be 650, 700 (from III), 750 (since r < s), 850 (since r < s) or 900 (B has not scored 900 runs as B has scored 900.). Therefore, m cannot be 700, so m = 750. Therefore, the runs scored by B has to be 850. Since s cannot be 150, s is either 200 or 250, which means the runs scored by D has to be 900.

So far, we have the following:

Now, the value of p cannot be 750, 850 or 900, so it is either 650 or 700. If p = 650, the value of X for C cannot be negative. Therefore, p = 700. Therefore, the runs scored by C has to be 650. Therefore, the runs scored by A has to be 750. So far, we have:

The runs conceded by A and E have to be one among 850 and 900 (making n = 650). Runs conceded by A and E cannot be 900 and 850 respectively (this will make X for both as –150). Therefore, runs conceded by A and E are 850 and 900 respectively.

Thus we get the final table as follows:

X = 250 for D.

Therefore, the required answer is 250.

Correct Answer: 250

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 % 3) Who scored 700 runs? B C E Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

Here, m > n and r < s. Out of [650, 700, 750, 850 and 900], m cannot take the values 650 (since m > n), 850 (because r will become 50 which contradicts III) and 900 (because r will become negative). Therefore, m = 700 or 750. Now, if m = 700, then the runs scored by B has to be 900 (making r = +200). This means that n = 650. If n = 650, then runs scored by D cannot be 650, 700 (from III), 750 (since r < s), 850 (since r < s) or 900 (B has not scored 900 runs as B has scored 900.). Therefore, m cannot be 700, so m = 750. Therefore, the runs scored by B has to be 850. Since s cannot be 150, s is either 200 or 250, which means the runs scored by D has to be 900. So far, we have the following:

Now, the value of p cannot be 750, 850 or 900, so it is either 650 or 700. If p = 650, the value of X for C cannot be negative. Therefore, p = 700. Therefore, the runs scored by C has to be 650. Therefore, the runs scored by A has to be 750. So far, we have:

The runs conceded by A and E have to be one among 850 and 900 (making n = 650). Runs conceded by A and E cannot be 900 and 850 respectively (this will make X for both as –150). Therefore, runs conceded by A and E are 850 and 900 respectively. Thus we get the final table as follows:

E scored 700 runs. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: E

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 4) How many cricketers conceded more but scored fewer runs than B? 0 1 2 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Using data from I, II and IV, we begin with the following table:

Here, m > n and r < s. Out of [650, 700, 750, 850 and 900], m cannot take the values 650 (since m > n), 850 (because r will become 50 which contradicts III) and 900 (because r will become negative). Therefore, m = 700 or 750. Now, if m = 700, then the runs scored by B has to be 900 (making r = +200). This means that n = 650. If n = 650, then runs scored by D cannot be 650, 700 (from III), 750 (since r < s), 850 (since r < s) or 900 (B has not scored 900 runs as B has scored 900.). Therefore, m cannot be 700, so m = 750. Therefore, the runs scored by B has to be 850. Since s cannot be 150, s is either 200 or 250, which means the runs scored by D has to be 900. So far, we have the following:

Now, the value of p cannot be 750, 850 or 900, so it is either 650 or 700. If p = 650, the value of X for C cannot be negative. Therefore, p = 700. Therefore, the runs scored by C has to be 650. Therefore, the runs scored by A has to be 750. So far, we have:

The runs conceded by A and E have to be one among 850 and 900 (making n = 650). Runs conceded by A and E cannot be 900 and 850 respectively (this will make X for both as –150). Therefore, runs conceded by A and E are 850 and 900 respectively. Thus we get the final table as follows:

A and E satisfy this condition. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 33 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

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undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Delta Airlines, the national airline of Spain, operates international flights from Madrid airport. The following table shows the total number of flights operated by Delta Airlines in the year 2017 in different periods. The total number of flights that were operated from Jan to Dec 2017 was 3000.

The following graph provides information about the number of flights operated to Portugal as a percentage of the total number of flights operated in that period.

1) For which of the following consecutive ten-month periods was the number of flights operated to Portugal as a percentage of the total number of flights operated in that period the minimum? A. Mar – Dec

B. Jan – Oct C. Feb – Nov A B C A and B Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: A

Time taken by you: 126 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 282 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 % 2) If the total number of flights operated in January is the maximum possible, then what could be the maximum number of flights operated by the airline in the month of November? 220 300 540 600 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Jan + Feb = 3000 – (Mar to Dec) = 3000 – 2460 =540, Nov + Dec = 3000 – (Jan to Oct) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Jan + Dec = 3000 – (Feb to Nov) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Max (Jan) = 540, Min (Feb) = 0 and Min (Dec) = 600 – 540 = 60 Max (Nov) = 600 – 60 = 540 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 540

Time taken by you: 208 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) Which of the following can be the ratio of total number of flights operated in the month of June to that in July? 4: 5 3: 4 2: 3 2: 5 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Jan + Feb = 3000 – (Mar to Dec) = 3000 – 2460 =540, Nov + Dec = 3000 – (Jan to Oct) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Jan + Dec = 3000 – (Feb to Nov) = 3000 – 2400 = 600 From the above three equations, we can calculate Nov + Feb = 540 Therefore, Mar to Oct = 2400 – 540 = 1860; Mar to Jul = 1200, therefore Aug to Oct = 1860 – 1200 = 660 Jun + Jul = (Jun to Oct) – (Aug to Oct) = 1100 – 660 = 440 Option [1], i.e. 4 : 5 is not possible as 4 + 5 = 9 does not divide 440. Option [2], i.e. 3 : 4 is not possible as 3 + 4 = 7 does not divide 440. Option [3], i.e. 2 : 3 is possible as 2 + 3 = 5 divides 440. Option [4], i.e. 2 : 5 is not possible as 2 + 5 = 7 does not divide 440. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 2:3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 % 4) Which of the following can be the number of flights operated to Portugal in June and July? 60 100 125 210 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Flights operated to Portugal from Jun – Oct = 385 Flights operated to Portugal from Jul – Nov = 360 Jun – Nov = 25 Similarly, Jul – Dec = 108 Jun + Jul = 133 + Nov + Dec More than 133 flights were operated to Portugal in June and July. Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 210

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Akash bought an automatic nut and bolt making machine. The machine operates between 8:00 AM and 3:00 PM only on any given day. The following graph provides information about the aggregate number of nuts and bolts with Akash from Monday to Saturday.

Number of nuts and bolts sold in a day = [Number of nuts & bolts at 3:00 PM on that day] – [Number of nuts and bolts at 8:00 AM on the next day] Further, it is known that: 1. Exactly 50% of all the nuts made in any day were sold on the second day after which they were made. For example, 50% of all the nuts made on Monday were sold on Wednesday, 50% of all the nuts made on Tuesday were sold on Thursday, and so on. The remaining 50% nuts that remained unsold in a day were stored in the inventory. 2. All the bolts made in any day are sold the same day. 3. On any day, nuts & bolts were only sold after 3:00 PM till midnight on the same day. 1) How many bolts were sold on Wednesday? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

30 bolts were sold on Wednesday. Therefore, the required answer is 30.

Correct Answer: 30

Time taken by you: 1063 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 150 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 30 %

2) On which of the following days were the maximum number of bolts sold? Monday Tuesday Thursday Friday Video Explanation: Explanation:

The maximum bolts were sold on Tuesday. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Tuesday

Time taken by you: 13 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 % 3) On Thursday, by what percentage is the number of bolts made more than the number of nuts made? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 200

Time taken by you: 38 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 30 % 4) If the number of bolts sold on Saturday is the average of the number of bolts made per day from Monday to Friday, then the minimum number of nuts & bolts with Akash at 3:00 PM on Saturday could be 350 375 450 550 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 450

Time taken by you: 110 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 43 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Nine families (Acharya, Bajpai, Chhawchharia, Damani, Ekbote, Fernandes, Ganguly, Habib and Iyengar) have purchased 9 different flats in the new highrise building “Paradise Towers”. The building has 20 storeys numbered from 1 to 20 (in addition to the ground floor and basement which are reserved for parking) and each storey has only one flat. The flats are priced differentially in four price bands; flats in the bottom five storeys i.e. 1 – 5 are priced at Rs. 60 lakh each, those in storeys 6 – 10 are priced at Rs. 70 lakh each, those in storeys 11 – 15 are priced at Rs. 80 lakh each and those in storeys 16 – 20 are priced at Rs. 90 lakh each. The following data was recorded: 1. At least two flats were purchased in each of the four price bands. 2. Only one pair of families, Damani and Habib, bought flats on consecutive storeys. However, they paid different amounts. 3. The total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. 4. The sum total of the storey numbers of the 9 flats was 100. 5. No flats were bought on storeys 6, 7 and 20 by any of the 9 families. 6. The Acharya and Bajpai families are the farthest apart among these 9 families. 7. Only the Bajpai and Ganguly families paid less than the Damanis. 1) Which of these could not be the amount spent by the Chhawchharia family? Rs. 60 lakh Rs. 70 lakh Rs. 80 lakh Rs. 90 lakh Video Explanation:

Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15). From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied.So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H), in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining twoare from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D.So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2nd storey [and Acharya(A) on the 19th storey].

The amount spent by the Chhawchharia family cannot be Rs. 60 lakh. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Rs. 60 lakh

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 410 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 % 2) Which of the following storeys is occupied by one of the 9 families? 4th 8th

12th 16th Video Explanation: Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15). From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied. So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6 th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H) in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining two are from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D. So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2nd storey [and Acharya (A) on the 19th storey].

The 8th storey is occupied (though we don’t know by whom!). Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 8th

Time taken by you: 308 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 67 % 3)

For how many of the families can we determine the exact storey they have purchased a flat on? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point 3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15).

From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied.So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H) in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining twoare from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D.So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2nd storey [and Acharya (A) on the 19thstorey].

As can be seen from the table, we can determine the exact storey for 5 families (A, B, D, G and H). Therefore, the required answer is 5.

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 41 % 4) If the Iyengar family paid more than the Chhawchharia family, who in turn paid more than the Ekbote family, then how much (in Rs lakhs) did the Fernandes family pay? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: From point 1, there are at least 2 families in each price band. Since there are 9 families in all, this means that one price band has 3 families and the rest have 2 each. Also, from point3, the total amount paid by all the 9 families was Rs. 680 lakh. Now, the total amount for 2 families in each price band would be 2(60 + 70 + 80 + 90) = 600 lakh, and so the 9th family pays Rs. 80 lakh (i.e. there are 3 families in the 80 lakh price band, i.e. floors 11 – 15). From point 2, we can realise that no two consecutive storeys within a price band are occupied. So in the 11-15 price group, the 3 families have to be on the 11th, 13th and 15th storeys.

From point 5, no flats were bought on the 6 th, 7th and 20th storeys. So in the 70 lakh price group, the two occupied flats must be on the 8th and 10th storeys. So the 10 th and 11th storeys must be the consecutive storeys occupied by Damani (D) and Habib (H) in no particular order.

Since there is only one consecutive pair of storeys occupied, the 16th storey must be empty. Consequently, the 17th and 19th must be occupied. The seven occupied storeys we have identified so far have a total floor number of 93. The remaining two are from the 1 – 5 band and their floor numbers should add up to 7. The only possible non-consecutive pairing is the 2nd and 5th storeys.

From point 7, only Bajpai (B) and Ganguly (G) paid less than D. So we can be sure that B and G paid Rs. 60 lakh while D paid Rs. 70 lakh. Also, from point 6, B must be on the 2 nd storey [and Acharya (A) on the 19th storey].

The only possible case which satisfies the given information is Iyengar – 90 lakh, Chhawchharia – 80 lakh and Ekbote – 70 lakh. This leave only one 80 lakh flat empty and hence the Fernandes family must have paid Rs. 80 lakh. Therefore, the required answer is 80.

Correct Answer: 80

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv, Esha and Farzan are playing a game ‘IskiTopiUske Sir’. Initially, each of these children is asked to pick one hat among six hats of different colours – Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Purple. After picking up the hats, children sat in a circle in the following sequence : Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Purple such that the child with the blue cap is on the immediate left to the one with the red cap, the child with the green cap is on immediate left to the one with the blue cap and so on. In each step, each child passes a hat to the next child on his left. A “step” is said to be complete when the red hat is passed on to the child having the blue hat; the blue hat is passed on to the child having the green hat; the green hat is passed to the child having the yellow hat; the yellow hat is passed to the child having the orange hat; the orange hat is passed to the child having the purple hat and the purple hat is passed on to the child having the red hat. 1) If after 4 steps, Bikash has the purple hat, then after which of the following steps will he have the blue hat? 95 96 97 98 Video Explanation: Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above. Given that after 4 steps Bikash has the purple hat. This means that initiallyBikash has the yellow hat. Bikash will have the blue hat after step 2, step 8, step 14….and so on. This is inthe form of 2 + 6k, where k is a natural number. Out of the given options, only option [4] satisfies the above.Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 98

Time taken by you: 204 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 183 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 56 %

2) If after 100 steps, Esha has the orange hat, then which of the following is definitely not correct? Dhruv will have the red hat after 107 steps. Farzan will have the yellow hat after 124 steps. Chandu will have the blue hat after 151 steps. More than one of the above Video Explanation: Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above.

Correct Answer: Chandu will have the blue hat after 151 steps.

Time taken by you: 144 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 % 3) If Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv and Esha have a green hat after steps 2, 11, 18, 31 and 64 respectively, then after which of the following steps will Farzan have a green hat? 121 153 30 182 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above. Given that Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv and Esha have the green hat aftersteps 2, 11, 18, 31 and 64 respectively. 2 = 6 × 0 + 2; 11 = 6 × 1 + 5; 18 = 6 × 3 + 0; 31 = 6 × 5 + 1 and 64 = 6 × 10 + 4 This implies that Farzan will have the green hat after 6k + 3 steps. Out of the options given below, only option [2] will suffice. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 153

Time taken by you: 321 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 131 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 4) If after 7 steps, Abhay, Bikash, Chandu, Dhruv, Esha and Farzan have the green, yellow, red, blue, orange and purple hats respectively, then which of the following is definitely correct? I. Abhay will have the green hat after 42 steps. II. After 20 steps, Bikash will have the same hat as Chandu will have after 29 steps. Only I Only II Both I and II Neither I nor II Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The hats of the children get repeated after every six steps as shown in the table above.

Abhay will have the yellow hat after 42 steps. Chandu will have the green hat after 29 (4× 6 + 5) steps. Bikash will have the green hat after 20 (3 × 6 + 2) steps. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Only II

Time taken by you: 237 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 97 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Players from five countries – India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Nepal participate in the South Asian Games in 2017 in five different sports, namely Shooting, High Jump, Long Jump, Wrestling and Weight Lifting. At most ten players from any country

participated in the games. No player participated in more than one sport. Further it is known that: I. The number of players who participated in Weight Lifting from each country other than India is the same. II. At least one player from each country other than Bangladesh participated in Shooting, while in each sport other than Shooting, at least one player from Bangladesh participated. III. Of the total number of players from Bangladesh who participated in different sports, the maximum number of players participated in Wrestling and at least one player from each country participated in each of the two sports, namely Wrestling and High Jump. IV. The total number of players from India who participated in different sports is two more than that from Nepal, which, in turn, is one more than that from Sri Lanka, which, in turn, is one more than that from Pakistan, which in turn, is one more than that from Bangladesh. V. The total number of players who participated in Shooting was exactly half the total number of players who participated in each of the other four sports. VI. The number of players from India who participated in different sports is different and no player from India participated in Long Jump. VII. Equal number of players from Nepal participated in High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. 1) In which sport did the maximum number of players from Pakistan participate? Long Jump Wrestling High Jump Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most ten players can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number of players from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

The maximum number of players from Pakistan participated in Long Jump. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Long Jump

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 161 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 2) Which country sent maximum number of players in High Jump? Sri Lanka Pakistan India Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most tenplayers can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number ofplayers from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

In High Jump, the maximum number of players were from India. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: India

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 46 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 % 3) Which of the following is true? The number of players in Shooting from Pakistan = The number of players in Wrestling from Bangladesh The number of players in Weightlifting from India = The number of players in Shooting from Nepal The number of players in Wrestling from Nepal = The number of players in Weight Lifting from Sri Lanka The number of players in High Jump from India = The number of players in Long Jump from Sri Lanka Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most tenplayers can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number of players from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

Only option 4 is true. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The number of players in High Jump from India = The number of players in Long Jump from Sri Lanka

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 % 4) For how many countries can the number of participants in each of the sports be uniquely determined? 4 5 3 2 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statement (VI), as from any country at most tenplayers can participate, the number of players from India who participated in the remaining four sports apart from Long Jump are 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any order. Therefore, the total number of participants from India is 10. From (IV), the number of players from Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh is 8, 7, 6 and 5 respectively. From (V), the total number of players who participated in Shooting are 4 and 8 players participated in each of the remaining sports. From (I), the number of players from India who participated in Weight Lifting is 4. Therefore, the number ofplayers from the remaining four countries who participated in Weight Lifting is 1 each. From (II) and (III), the number of players from Bangladesh who participated in Wrestling, High Jump and Long Jump are 2, 1 and 1 respectively. From (II), players from different countries other than those from Bangladesh who participated in Shooting is 1, 1, 1 and 1. From (VII) and the above results, from Nepal exactly two players participated in each of the sports High Jump, Long Jump and Wrestling. From (VI) and the above results, 5 players participated in Long Jump from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and at least one player from each country participated in High Jump and Wrestling. Therefore, the only possibility is that 1 player each participated in High Jump and Wrestling from Pakistan and Sri Lanka and in Long Jump 2 and 3 players participated from Pakistan and Sri Lanka respectively. Therefore, we have the following table:

Now all the questions can be answered. For all the five countries, the number of participants in each of the sports can be uniquely determined. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr. Chatterjee has four children – Ananya, Bholu, Chandu and Debashree. He bought a total of 8 chocolates of 3 types – 3 Bubbly, 3

Caramel and 2 Oreo and distributed the chocolates among his four children such that each child received equal number of chocolates but no two children received the same combination of chocolates. The price of each type of chocolate was different. Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates. After the distribution, Mr. Chatterjee observed the following: 1. The aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu was the least among all the children whereas that with Debashree was the highest among all the children. 2. The aggregate price of chocolates with Ananya has more than that with Bholu Also, Ananya has at least one Caramel and Bholu has at least one Bubbly. 3. Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate. 4. The absolute value of the difference between the prices of Oreo and Caramel was more than the absolute value of the difference between the prices of Bubbly and Caramel. 1) In how many ways could Mr. Chatterjee have distributed the chocolates among his four children? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates areDebashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 %

2) How many children got two chocolates of the same type? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates areDebashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Debashree, Ananya and Bholu got two chocolates of the same type. Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 % 3) Who among the four children got one Bubbly and one Caramel? Bholu Chandu Ananya Cannot be determined

Video Explanation: Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates are Debashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Chandu got one Bubbly and one Caramel Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Bholu

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 34 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 % 4) Who got the two Oreo chocolates? Chandu Debashree Bholu No one Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since Oreo was not the least expensive among the three chocolates, it was either the most expensive or the second most expensive chocolate. But Oreo cannot be the second most expensive chocolate otherwise it will conflict with the data in point IV. Therefore, Oreo was the most expensive chocolate among the three. This means that there are two possibilities for the cost of the chocolates: Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly OR Oreo > Bubbly > Caramel Also, from I and II, the children in decreasing order of aggregate price of chocolates areDebashree > Ananya > Bholu > Chandu. From III, Chandu did not get a caramel chocolate and since the aggregate price of chocolates with Chandu is the least, he must have received two Bubbly chocolates. This means that we disregard the second possibility and consider only the first possibility (Oreo > Caramel > Bubbly). So far, we have Debashree: ___ + ___ Ananya: Caramel + ___ Bholu: Bubbly + ___ Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Now, from IV, the prices of [Oreo – Caramel] > [Caramel – Bubbly]. Therefore, the prices of [Oreo + Bubbly] > [Caramel + Caramel]. Considering the fact that no two children received the same combination of chocolates, the only possible solution is as follows: Debashree: Oreo + Oreo Ananya: Caramel + Caramel Bholu: Bubbly + Caramel Chandu: Bubbly + Bubbly Debashree got the two Oreo chocolates. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Debashree

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined What is the smallest natural value of K for which (K + 2)! + (K + 3)! + (K + 4)! is divisible by 1000?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: (K + 2)! + (K + 3)! + (K + 4)! = (K + 2)! × [1 + K + 3 + (K + 3)(K + 4)] = (K + 2)! × [1 + K + 3 + K 2 + 7K + 12] = (K + 2)! × (K + 4)2 1000 = 23 × 53 So (K + 4)2 × (K + 2)! will be divisible by 2 3 × 53 if (K + 2)! is also divisible by 5 and (K + 4)2 is divisible by 52 . In that case (K + 2)! will definitely be divisible by 23 . Therefore, the minimum value of K for this is 6. Note that for K = 6, (K + 2)! is divisible by 2 3 . Therefore, the required answer is 6. Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined Rajat went from A to B at his usual speed, and then from B to A at twice his previous speed, then A to B at twice his previous speed and again B to A at twice his previous speed. Shouvik went from A to B at his usual speed, then from B to A at half his previous speed, then A to B at half his previous speed and again B to A at half his previous speed. It is known that, the total time taken by Rajat and Shouvik is the same. If Rajat and Shouvik simultaneously start moving towards each other from points A and B respectively at their individual usual speeds, they meet in 16 hours. Find the time taken (in hours) by Shouvik to cover the distance between A and B at his usual speed. 32 24 20 18

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 18 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 168 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 64 %

undefined

3 9 27 81

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 27 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Bholu was given the task to cultivate a garden of width 1 m around a rectangular plot. He was paid Rs. 1400 for the task. If it is known that the length of the plot is 3 metres more than its breadth and that Bholu charges Rs. 20 per square metre of the garden cultivated, then find the area (in sq. m) of the original rectangular plot.

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 270 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Evaluate 2 × 4 + 4 × 6 + 6 × 8 + … + 48 × 50. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 20800 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined Sheetal has only three types of earrings – Gold, Diamond and Silver. All her earrings except X are Diamond, all except Y are Gold and all except Z are Silver. If the ratio of X : Y : Z = 25 : 12 : 17, then what is the ratio of the number of Gold earrings to the number of Silver earrings? 2:1 3:2 4:3 None of these

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the number of Gold, Diamond and Silver earrings be G, D and S respectively. G + S = X, D + S = Y and G + D = Z 2(G + S + D) = X + Y + Z = 25K + 12K + 17K = 54K G + S + D = 27K, D = 2K, G = 15K and S = 10K Required answer = 3: 2

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 3:2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The product of Gauri’s age four years hence and Swati’s age four years ago is 216. The product of Swati’s age four years hence and Gauri’s age four years ago is 200. Find the product of the present ages of Gauri and Swati. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the present ages of Gauri and Swati be ‘g’ years and ‘s’ years respectively. ?(g + 4)(s – 4) = 216 and (g – 4)(s + 4) = 200 ? gs – 4g + 4s – 16 = 216 and gs + 4g – 4s – 16 = 200 ? gs – 4g + 4s = 232 and gs + 4g – 4s = 216 Adding the two equations, we get 2gs = 448. ? gs = 224 ? The required answer is 224.

Correct Answer:

224 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 145 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined It takes 45 litres of oil paint to paint the inner vertical walls of a rectangular room. How many litres of oil paint will be required to paint the inner vertical walls of another room that is twice as long, twice as wide and half as high? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the length, breadth and height of the first room be l‘’, ‘b’ and ‘h’ respectively. Area that is to be painted =l h + bh + l h + bh = 2h(l + b) Length, breadth and height of the second room are ‘2l’, ‘2b’ and ‘0.5h’ respectively. Therefore, area that is to be painted = 2 × 0.5h(2l + 2b) = 2h(l + b) Therefore, this room will also need 45 litres of oil paint for painting. Therefore, the required answer is 45. Correct Answer: 45 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined How many triangles with exactly two sides equal and having integer lengths can have perimeter equal to 30 units? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Exactly two sides of the triangle have equal length. Let the sides of the triangle are (m, m, n) 2m + n = 30 Also, 2m > n [ Note m + n > m] m and n are positive integers. The possible combinations of lengths of the sides are (8, 8, 14), (9, 9, 12), (11, 11, 8), (12, 12, 6), (13, 13, 4) and (14, 14, 2). Therefore, the required answer is 6. Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined A, B, C start from the same point on a linear track and travel in the same direction at constant speeds. The ratio of speeds of A, B and C is 3 : 4 : 6. The ratio of time taken by B and C to overtake A from the time after they start is 2 : 3. B and C started X and Y hours respectively after A’s start. What is the ratio X : Y? 1:3 2:9 1:2 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2:9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined

y2 = x y= x2 y= x3 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: y = x2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

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1 2 8 64

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Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

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1

2

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Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

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19% 22% 25% 28%

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Correct Answer: 22% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 136 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Let F(x) be a polynomial such that F(x) = F(0) + F(3)x3 and F (–1) = 3. Calculate the value of F(1).

3

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined In ΔABC, points D and E are the mid points of sides AB and AC. Points F and G are on side BC such that BF = FG = GC. Find the ratio of the areas of quadrilateral DEGF and ΔABC. 5 : 12 1:3 1:2 2:5

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 : 12 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Three real numbers a, b and c satisfy 0 ≤ a ≤ b ≤ c ≤ 6. If a2, b2, c2 are in AP with common difference 3, then the minimum possible value of |a – b| + |b – c| occurs at a = ? 4

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 : 12 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined The average age of the 25 boys in a class is 13 years. The average age of the 35 girls in that class is 12 years. The average age of the 15 students who are from Maharashtra is 14 years. What is the average age of the students who are not from Maharashtra? 11.2 years 11.9 years 12.4 years 12.8 years Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11.9 years Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 148 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined Seven friends of Malik decided to contribute equal amounts to buy a birthday present for him. When they reached the gift shop, two of them refused to contribute because of which each of the remaining five friends had to contribute Rs. 20 more than what they would had to contribute had the two not backed out. What is the cost (in Rs.) of the gift they were intending to buy for Malik? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 350 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Two trains A and B are running in opposite directions. They both take 4 seconds to pass a man standing on a platform. How much time

Two trains A and B are running in opposite directions. They both take 4 seconds to pass a man standing on a platform. How much time will they take to pass each other? 2 seconds 4 seconds 8 seconds Cannot be determined

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 350 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined Two sides of a triangle can be represented by the equations y = 2x + 2 and y = 11 – x. The coordinates of the centroid of the triangle is (3, 5). Find the equation of the third side.

y=x+ 2 y = 2x + 2 2y = x + 2 Section

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Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined A, B and C purchased 1, 10 and 20 mangoes for a total of Rs. 10, Rs. 120 and Rs. 300 respectively from a fruit shop. In his transaction with A and C, the shopkeeper made a loss of x% and y% respectively such that x = 3y. Approximately how much loss did the shopkeeper make in his transaction with B? (Assume that the shopkeeper purchased each mango at the same price). 28%

31% 34% 37%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 31% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 162 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

undefined If (log 1 + log 8 + log 27 +… + log 1000) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +… log 8) = a log b + b log c (where a, b and c are natural numbers), then what is the value of a – b + c? 15 14 13 12

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Video Explanation:

Explanation: (log 1 + log 8 + log 27 +… + log 1000) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +…+ log 8) = (log 13 + log 23 + log 33 + … + log 103) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +… + log 8) = 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +…+ log 10) – 3(log 1 + log 2 + log 3 +…+ log 8) = 3 log 9 + 3 log 10 = 3 log 32 + 3 log 10 = 6 log 3 + 3 log 10 Comparing with (a log b + b log c), we get a = 6, b = 3 and c = 10. Therefore, a – b + c = 6 – 3 + 10 = 13 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 13 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 92 %

undefined Rambali is a milkman. He mixes 2 litres water with every 18 litres pure milk before selling. He has two sons – P and Q. One fine day, P added 5 litres of milk and Q added 3 litres of water to the milk solution which Rambali prepared for selling. In order to have the same ratio of milk and water as earlier, Rambali added a total of 82 litres of milk and water put together. What was the ratio of milk and water added by Rambali? 38 : 3 35 : 6 37 : 4 None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 38 : 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined A regular hexagon has each side equal to 1 unit. Find the product of lengths of all the diagonals of the hexagon. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 216 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 18 %

undefined Ranga and Billa want to share the numbers 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20. In how many different ways the ten numbers can be split between Ranga and Billa so that each person gets at least one number and either Ranga’s numbers or Billa’s numbers (but not both) sum to an even number? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since, the sum of all the numbers is odd, exactly one ofRanga’s and Billa’s sum must be odd. Therefore, any way of splitting the numbers up where each person receives at least one number is valid. So, the required answer is 210 – 2 = 1022 Therefore, the required answer is 1022.

Correct Answer: 1022 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 3 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 3 %

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5% 6% 7% 7.5%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 %

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Ashutosh has a box containing 8 identical red balls, 9 identical blue balls and 10 identical green balls. He is required to distribute all these balls into three bags A, B and C such that the total number of balls in bag A is more than that in bag B, which, in turn, is more than that in bag C. Moreover, he needs to ensure that the number of red balls in bag A is more than that in bag B which in turn is more than that in bag C, and similarly for the blue and green balls. In how many ways can he do this? Each bag must contain at least one ball of each type. 36 24 48 72

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Explanation:

Note: If a > b > c in case of red, blue and green balls, then total number of ballsin bag A > bag B > bag C. Alternatively, As each bag has one ball of each type, we need to consider 5 red balls, 6 blue balls and 7 green balls. Let a, b and c be number of balls in bags A, B and C respectively. By the given conditions, a > b > c. According to the condition on number of red balls in the three bags, five red balls can be distributed in bags A, B and C in following ways respectively. (3, 2, 0) and (4, 1, 0). Number of ways in which 6 blue balls can be distributed is (5, 1, 0), (4, 2, 0) and (3, 2, 1) Number of ways in which 7 green balls can be distributed is (6, 1, 0), (5, 2, 0), (4, 3, 0) and (4, 2, 1)

Therefore, Ashutosh can distribute the given balls in three bags in 2 × 3 × 4 = 24 ways. Correct Answer: 24 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined The percentage of alcohol in three alcohol-water solutions A, B and C (in that order) are natural numbers in an increasing AP with common difference of +1. When the solutions are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 in that order, it results in a 22.222% alcohol solution. If they are mixed in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2 in that order what will be the concentration of the resulting solution? 20.17% 21.17% 22.17% 23.17%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 22.17% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined If f(2 – x2) = x4 – x2 + p and f(4 – x2) = x4 – 5x2 + q, what is the value of (q – p)?

If f(2 – x2) = x4 – x2 + p and f(4 – x2) = x4 – 5x2 + q, what is the value of (q – p)? 0 2 4 6

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Explanation: We have f(2 – x2) = x4 – x2 + p. Putting x2 = 2, we get f(0) = 4 – 2 + p = 2 + p Also, f(4 – x2) = x4 – 5x2 + q. Putting x2 = 4, we get f(0) = 16 – 20 + q = –4 + q ? 2 + p = –4 + q ?q–p=6 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined The cost price of a trouser is increased by 20%. A trader who revised the selling price of the trouser to maintain the same profit percentage noted that he got Rs. 10 more in profit on selling one trouser after he revised the selling price. What is his new profit (in Rs.)? 50 55 60 65

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Explanation: If the trader maintained his profit percentage unchanged, the selling price of thetrouser must have increased by the same percentage as the cost price. Or the new SP is 20% higher than the old SP. If old CP = c, new CP = 1.2c. Similarly if his old SP = s, new SP = 1.2s. Therefore his old profit = s – c and his new profit = 1.2 (s – c). He made Rs. 10 more in profit. Therefore, 0.2 (s – c) = 10 or s – c = 50. That means he made Rs. 50 in profit before raising the selling price. After raising the selling price he made a profit of 50 + 10 = 60. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 60 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined John and Charles joined an organization together in 1947. The organization agreed to pay John an initial annual salary of Rs. 450 with a fixed yearly increment of Rs. 30. For Charles, the organization agreed to pay an initial annual salary of Rs. 320 with a fixed yearly increment of Rs. 45. Up to which year was Charles’s salary less than John’s salary? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: John’s salary in the nth year (beginning at 1947) = 450 + (n – 1)30 = 30n + 420 Charles’s salary in the nth year (beginning at 1947) = 320 + (n – 1)45 = 45n + 275 Now, 45n + 275 < 30n + 420. Therefore, 15n < 145. Therefore, n < 9.67 ? Charles’s salary was less than John’s salary up to the 9th year, that is, up to 1955. ? The required answer is 1955. Correct Answer: 1955

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

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m – Qn is divisible by 5, where P and Q are natural numbers such that P > Q, P ends in 3 and Q ends in 7. It is known that P m and n are also natural numbers. Which of the following definitely divides (m + n)?

4 5 8 10

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Explanation: The cyclicity of 3 is 3-9-7-1. The cyclicity of 7 is 7-9-3-1. For (Pm – Qn) to be divisible by 5, [m, n] can be of the form [(4k + 1), (4k + 3)], [(4k + 3), (4k + 1)], [(4k + 2), (4k + 2)] or [(4k), (4k)], where k is a positive integer. Therefore, (m + n) will always be divisible by 4. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 96 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 75 %

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50%

25% 12.5%

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Explanation:

Correct Answer: 25% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 72 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The task of creative work is to weave something new and wonderful out of the tattered threads of culture and convention. On the enchanted loom of the mind, our memory and experience, our personal histories and cultural histories, interlace into a particular pattern which only that particular mind can produce — such is the combinatorial nature of creativity. In describing the machinery of his own mind, Albert Einstein called this interweaving “combinatory play.” It cannot be willed. It cannot be rushed. It can only be welcomed — the work of creativity is the work of bearing witness to the weaving. The inner workings of that unwillable loom, which we often call inspiration, is what Rainer Maria Rilke explores in a beautiful passage from his only novel – The Notebooks of Malte Laurids Brigge, which also gave us Rilke on the essence of art. Decades before pioneering psycholinguist Vera John-Steiner noted that “in the course of creative endeavors, artists and scientists join fragments of knowledge into a new unity of understanding,” Rilke writes: For the sake of a few lines one must see many cities, men and things. One must know the animals, one must feel how the birds fly and know the gesture with which the small flowers open in the morning. One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions, to unexpected meetings and to partings which one has long seen coming; to days of childhood that are still unexplained, to parents that one had to hurt when they brought one some joy and one did not grasp it; to childhood illness that so strangely began with a number of profound and grave transformations, to days in rooms withdrawn and quiet and to mornings by the sea, to the sea itself, to seas, to nights of travel that rushed along on high and flew with all the stars — and it is not yet enough if one may think of all of this. One must have memories of many nights of love, none of which was like the others, of the screams of women in labor, and of light, white, sleeping women in childbed, closing again. But one must also have been beside the dying, one must have sat beside the dead in the room with the open window and the fitful noises. More than half a century before neurologist Oliver Sacks enumerated “forgetting” among the three essential elements of creativity, Rilke adds: And still it is not enough to have memories. One must be able to forget them when they are many, and one must have the great patience to wait until they come again. For it is not yet the memories themselves. Not until they have turned to blood within us, to glance, to gesture, nameless and no longer to be distinguished from ourselves — not until then can it happen that in a most rare hour the first word of a verse arises in their midst and goes forth from them. 1) The purpose of this passage is to: show that Rilke was a thinker ahead of his time. explain the inner workings of the creative process. present Rilke’s views on creativity and highlight that Rilke expressed them decades before other prominent thinkers. list the combination of all elements essential in the course of creative endeavors. Video Explanation:

Explanation: The passage starts with an explanation of the combinatorial nature of creativity. It then quotes Rilke on the inspirations crucial for creative work and highlights the fact that his writings expressed these thoughts decades before similar observations were noted by pioneering psycholinguist Vera John-Steiner. The author then states the importance of “forgetting” as essential to creativity and compares Rilke’s writings, written more than half a century before, to those of neurologist Oliver Sacks. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does give examples where the ideas about creativity expressed by Rilke were also expressed by other prominent thinkers, decades later. But, we cannot conclude whether Rilke was ahead of his time i.e. whether he was radical by the standards of his time. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage explains the inner workings of creativity through the writings of Rilke. This explanation of the creative process is the central idea of the excerpts provided from Rilke’s novel, but it is not the purpose of writing the passage. The author’s purpose is to present Rilke’s views on creativity. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does state some elements essential to creative work, but listing the combination of elements is not the primary purpose of the passage. Option 3 is correct. It correctly sums up the author’s purpose for writing the passage, which is, to present Rilke’s views on the creativity and inspiration and to note that Rilke expressed these views decades before similar thoughts were expressed by other thinkers. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: present Rilke’s views on creativity and highlight that Rilke expressed them decades before other prominent thinkers.

Time taken by you: 228 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 114 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 % 2) According to Rilke, poetry reflects all of the following experiences of a poet EXCEPT: Solitude and solitary wanderings. Travel to unfamiliar places. Death and bereavement. The guilt of hurting one’s parents. Video Explanation:

Explanation: The third paragraph describes Rilke’s summary of experiences that are reflected in poetry. He says, “For the sake of a few lines one must see many cities, men and things. One must know the animals, one must feel how the birds fly and know the gesture with which the small flowers open in the morning. One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions, to unexpected meetings and to partings which one has long seen coming;…” and so on. Option 1 is incorrect. Rilke says that, one must be able to think back to days in rooms withdrawn and quiet and to mornings by the sea, to the sea itself, to seas, to nights of travel that rushed along on high and flew with all the stars — and it is not yet enough if one may think of all of this…” Thus, we can safely conclude that experiencing loneliness is one of the important factors in the creative process. Thus, option 1 is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 also states that “One must be able to think back to roads in unknown regions ...” implying option 2. Hence, eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. In the same paragraph we also find that “But one must also have been beside the dying, one must have sat beside the dead in the room with the open window and the fitful noises.” Thus, we can conclude that experiencing death and bereavement are part of the experience that trigger creativity. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 2 states that “One must be able to think back [...] to parents that one had to hurt when they brought one some joy and one did not grasp it ...” Thus, Rilke does not suggest or imply any guilt arising out of the hurt caused to parents. He mentions it merely within the range of experiences reflected in poetry. Hence option 4 is an exception and the answer to this question. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The guilt of hurting one’s parents.

Time taken by you: 124 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 23 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 19 % 3) Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? Inspiration is the accumulation of our experiences, memories and surroundings that unite unconsciously in a new work of creativity. Forgetting is the ability to revisit vast troves of memories so that they come in handy in a rare hour of writing inspiring poetry. Inspiration is a result of a poet’s complete mastery of the medium of poetry. Forgetting must be consciously internalized. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 2 is incorrect. According to the last paragraph, “forgetting” does not mean retaining memories but it means assimilating them in such a way that “they have turned to blood within us, … [they can] no longer be distinguished from ourselves”. In essence, it means that one must not consciously revisit one’s memories while writing poetry. Thus, we can eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the passage. The passage does not mention whether complete mastery of the medium of poetry will spark inspiration. Furthermore, the passage states that inspiration and creativity are a combinatory play of many factors. Thus, inspiration cannot be a result of just complete mastery of the medium of poetry. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The last paragraph which explains the role of memory and “forgetting” in inspiration does not say that “forgetting’ is something that a poet can consciously cultivate. On the contrary, ‘forgetting’ according to the passage is an assimilation of memory which conditions us unconsciously and makes us what we are. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that “On the enchanted loom of the mind, our memory and experience, our personal histories and cultural histories, interlace into a particular pattern which only that particular mind can produce — such is the combinatorial nature of creativity ... It cannot be willed.” Option 1, thus, is the same idea expressed in different words. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Inspiration is the accumulation of our experiences, memories and surroundings that unite unconsciously in a new work of creativity.

Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 66 % 4) Which one of the following statements is true about inspiration? It can be attained by travelling the world and meeting new people. It strikes when we seek experiences, memories and knowledge of different cultures. It may strike when it is least expected. It cannot be attained without knowing ourselves. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Though the entire passage is about inspiration and creativity, at the beginning of the passage, the writer explains the nature of inspiration as something that “cannot be willed. It cannot be rushed. It can only be welcomed — the work of creativity is the work of bearing witness to the weaving. The inner workings of that unwillable loom, which we often call inspiration is what Rainer Maria Rilke explores in a beautiful passage from his only novel … which also gave us Rilke on the essence of art.” From this point of view… Option 1 is incorrect. Since inspiration is a combinatory play of the sum total of one’s life’s experiences a single factor of travelling and meeting new people is not enough to get inspiration. We can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Seeking experiences, memories and knowledge as the option states, similar to option 1, is still another specific effort or pursuit. Inspiration is an unwillable combinatory play of all these and more. So eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the passage. The passage does not state whether one needs to know oneself to attain inspiration. Furthermore, knowing oneself may not be enough to get inspiration. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The 2nd paragraph calls inspiration “The inner workings of that unwillable loom,” Thus we can infer that inspiration is unwillable, and that it strikes unconsciously and when it is least expected. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: It may strike when it is least expected.

Time taken by you: 9 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 20 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. How the world uses energy is a hot topic for a warming planet, and fears of pollution and resource strain have produced a virtual arms race of energy-efficiency strategies. From the European Union to China, economies are vowing to reduce their energy intensity with the help of technological innovations and legislative changes. Yet, despite these promises, consumer demand for energy is forecast by the International Energy Agency to rise until at least 2040. With the world’s energy needs growing, how can policymakers guarantee supply? To put it bluntly, the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves. After 40 years of fearing energy shortages, we have entered an era of abundance. We need to guard against false narratives, not scarce resources. The culprit of this storyline is the Club of Rome, a global think-tank that, in the 1970s, spurred energy anxiety with its absurd prophecies derived from questionable models. As devoted followers of Thomas Malthus and Paul Ehrlich, the club argued that bad things come from exponential growth, and good things from linear growth. This idea fueled the prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020. By adopting this nonsense dogma, developed countries enabled resource-rich authoritarian leaders like Muammar elQaddafi in Libya, and Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini in Iran, to use their oil reserves as tools to oppose the West – and particularly its support for Israel. This contributed to the oil shocks of the 1970s, and reinforced the erroneous perception that hydrocarbon reserves were even more limited, and largely confined to the Middle East. Rapid advances in technology, particularly in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places, eventually upended such narratives. Today’s energy “crisis” stems not from shortages, but from anxiety over pollution. But this anxiety has not slowed our exploration habits. On the contrary, politics and international law, like the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, have been adapted to enable discovery. But perhaps the biggest technology-driven upheaval for global energy markets in recent years has come from shale gas and shale oil production in the United States. At 8.8 million barrels per day, US oil production is now higher than that of Iraq and Iran combined. Taken together, these developments have contributed to lower energy prices, and reduced the strength of

OPEC. Furthermore, because LNG is favored by the transport sector (particularly freight and maritime shippers) for environmental reasons, the ability to use oil as a geopolitical weapon has disappeared. Iran was so desperate to ramp up its oil exports that it agreed to abandon its nuclear program. Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. If they could, there would be no reason for the EU to support renewable energy production through legislation. Moreover, while wind and solar technologies generate electricity, the biggest energy demand comes from heating. In the EU, for example, electricity represents only 22% of final energy demand, while heating and cooling represents 45%; transportation accounts for the remaining 33%. All of these factors help explain why fossil fuels, which currently meet more than 80% of the world’s energy needs, will remain the backbone of global energy production for the foreseeable future. This may not come as welcome news to those pushing for an immediate phase-out of hydrocarbons. But perhaps some solace can be gained from the fact that technological innovation will also play a key role in reducing the negative impacts on air and water quality. Amid the global conversation about climate change, it is understandable that developed economies would promise significant gains in energy efficiency. But while the EU may be committed to reducing CO2 emissions, other signatories of the 2015 Paris climate agreement do not seem as resolute. It would not be surprising if most of the signatories actually raised their energy consumption in coming years, turning to fossil fuels because they cannot afford any other option. Energy policy will remain on the agenda for advanced economies for many years to come. But as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight. 1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? In view of the world’s growing energy needs, the passage cautions the energy policy makers about the impossibility of ideals winning over facts. Energy policy makers ought to take account of the fact that despite fears of shortages or threats from pollution, we have entered an era of fossil fuel abundance that shows no sign of abating. While vowing to reduce their energy intensity with the help of technological innovations, the energy policy makers must realize the prevalence of wrong ideas. Policy makers ought to realize that rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places will soon deplete the world’s oil resources. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The passage talks about how there is a misconception about the availability of resources and how this affects policy-impact. It does not imply or suggest that policies prioritizing energy efficiency are idealistic. He believes they are based on a misapprehension of facts. Reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. In paragraph 2, the writer says: “To put it bluntly, the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves.” Thus, the writer’s intention in the passage is to clarify this fact and he later states that: “We need to guard against false narratives, not scarce resources.” He goes on to discuss how wrong notions about energy scarcity have triggered ineffective policies and ends by saying that “as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight”. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. It refers to the “prevalence of wrong ideas among policy makers” which is an unspecific remark that does not focus on answering the question of what the passage intends to accomplish. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is both unspecific and misrepresentative of the passage. There is no “idealized agenda” that the writer talks about. He refers instead to a misinformed policy. Reject option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Energy policy makers ought to take account of the fact that despite fears of shortages or threats from pollution, we have entered an era of fossil fuel abundance that shows no sign of abating.

Time taken by you: 208 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 133 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 2) What is the ‘false narrative’ that the author mentions in the second paragraph?

The narrative that after 40 years of shortages, we have entered an era of abundance in oil reserves. The prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020. The Malthusian doctrine that linear growth is preferable to exponential growth. The shifting of energy anxiety that stemmed from fear of shortages to anxiety over pollution. Video Explanation: Explanation: The second paragraph mentions that though the world’s energy needs are constantly on the rise, “the world has nothing to worry about when it comes to reserves. We need to guard against false narratives, not scare resources.” In effect, the false narratives are the ones propagating scarcity of oil reserves. Option 1 is incorrect. The era of abundance in oil reserves is currently the reality, and not the false narrative. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The scarcity of oil and the possibility of the world running out of oil reserves by 2020 are the false narrative that writer is referring to. He also mentions that the prediction was fueled by the doctrines of Malthus and Paul Ehrlich. Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Though the writer mentions Malthus and Paul Ehrlich, he does not comment on the general principle of growth patterns, or the principle of these economists. The writer merely states that the scaremongering that the world would run out of oil was fueled by Malthusian principles of growth. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The shifting of the energy anxiety from that of a possible scarcity of oil to that of pollution from fossil fuels is something that happened out of a concern for the environment. The writer does not term it as a false narrative. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: The prediction that the world would run out of oil by 2020.

Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 3) All of the following are said to have reduced the dependence on oil, especially from any particular geopolitical area, EXCEPT: Technological improvements in exploration methods Extraction of hydrocarbons from new places around the globe The preference for LNG by the fuel transporters The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states: “Rapid advances in technology, particularly in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places, eventually upended such narratives.” Thus technological improvements in exploration methods did reduce the dependence on oil. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 mentions that technology enables extraction of hydrocarbons from new places around the world. Therefore, reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 explicitly mentions that LNG is favoured by transporters and that this is another reason why oil is no longer a geopolitical weapon. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage makes the point that fossil fuels will continue to be used precisely because renewable energy sources are NOT energy efficient even if they are environment friendly. Paragraph 6 says about renewable energy sources: “they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. If they could, there would be no reason for the EU to support renewable energy production through legislation”. Thus the discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources is NOT said to be a reason for the reduced dependence on oil. Retain option 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The discovery of energy efficient renewable energy sources

Time taken by you: 148 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 74 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 4) According to the writer, the dependence on fossil fuels for meeting world’s energy needs is unlikely to change in the near future, for all these reasons EXCEPT: A major part of the world’s energy need is for heating which is currently met by gas and oil. Wind and solar energy cannot compete with the traditional sources for electricity generation. Fossil fuels currently meet more than 80 percent of the world’s energy needs. The legislation in European Union to support renewable energy production is unlikely to succeed. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It is not an exception. The sixth paragraph states that “Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation. … Moreover, while wind and solar technologies generate electricity, the biggest energy demand comes from heating. In the EU, for example, electricity represents only 22% of final energy demand, whileheating and cooling represents 45%; transportation accounts for the remaining 33%.” If the biggest demand for energy comes from heating and if wind and solar technology can produce only electricity – the implication is that the demand for heating is met by gas and oil or fossil fuels. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is stated verbatim in paragraph 6 that “Wind and solar are often presented as alternatives to oil and gas, but they cannot compete with traditional sources for electricity generation.” Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 2, option 3 also is an almost verbatim repetition of paragraph 7 which begins, “All of these factors help explain why fossil fuels, which currently meet more than 80% of the world’s energy needs, will remain the backbone of global energy production for the foreseeable future.” Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The legislation in European Union mean to support the production of renewable energy is cited as an example of the dependence on fossil fuels. However, option 4 says it is unlikely to succeed. No such inference is possible from the passage. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The legislation in European Union to support renewable energy production is unlikely to succeed.

Time taken by you: 65 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct

% Students got it correct: 65 % 5) It can be inferred from the passage that one of the fallouts of the unfounded fears about scarce oil reserves is that … authoritarian leaders could not use oil as a geopolitical weapon. oil rich countries could oppose the west in its support to Israel. the US started producing more oil than Iran and Iraq combined. led to rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and the ability to extract hydrocarbons in new places. Video Explanation: Explanation: The first three paragraphs of the passage are about the increasing consumer demand for energy, and how the fear of running out of fuel sources has shaped geopolitics. The writer also states that the oil shock of the 1970s spurred energy anxiety and it became widely accepted that the planet’s oil reserves would run out by the year 2000. This energy anxiety gave the Middle East, which is rich in oil reserves, unprecedented bargaining power politically, because of their oil. It may be worthwhile for you to know what the passage is referring to as the oil shock of the 1970s. During the 1973 ArabIsraeli War, Arab members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)imposed an embargo against the United States, in retaliation to the U.S support to the Israeli military. Arab OPEC members had also extended the embargo to other countries that supported Israel. The embargo both banned petroleum exports to the targeted nations and introduced cuts in oil production to create an artificial scarcity. This is known as the oil shock. From this point of view: Option 1 is incorrect. In fact authoritarian leaders used oil as a geopolitical weapon, and the passage mentions Muammar el-Qaddafi in Libya, and Ayatollah Khomeini in Iran who had used their oil reserves as tools to oppose the West. Eliminate Option 1. Option 2 is correct. The scaremongering in the 1970s about the exhaustibility of the oil reserves gave immense economic and political power to the oil rich countries. Hence the Middle East, rich in oil reserves could use their clout against the west which was heavily dependent on the Middle East for their energy needs. The passage cites the examples of Libya and Iran who could afford to oppose the more powerful West in its support to Israel because of this. Retain Option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Currently option 3 is factually correct. The passage also mentions that the US now produces more oil than Iran and Iraq combined. However, it is not implied as fallout of the scarcity but attributed to technological advances and intensive exploration. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The rapid advances in technology in the field of exploration and extraction of oil are not attributed directly to the unfounded fears of scarce oil reserves. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: oil rich countries could oppose the west in its support to Israel.

Time taken by you: 138 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 6) “How the world uses energy is a hot topic for a warming planet…” The first sentence of the passage serves which of the following purposes in the essay? It leads the reader to a better understanding of the “hot topic” of energy misuse and the warming of the planet. It captures the writer’s thesis that while potential shortages and threats from pollution form the energy narrative, the demand for fossil fuels shows no sign of abating. It introduces the reader to the ideas about to be presented in the passage that have to do with effective use of energy. It makes a sarcastic stress on the “hot topic” which, as the passage later reveals, is not deserving of the urgency it has received. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. The question asks us to identify the reason for a particular choice of words. The answer lies in the broad intent of the passage – its main idea. But energy misuse is not the subject of the passage. Rather, the passage talks about the misinformation surrounding energy sources. Therefore, reject option 1. Option 2 is correct. The author goes on to argue in the passage that while there is good cause for environmental pollution from fossil fuels, the fear of a scarcity of fossil fuels is unfounded. This is the main idea of the passage. Refer the last paragraph – “Energy policy will remain on the agenda for advanced economies for many years to come. But as countries work to balance security of supply with environmental goals, they must also commit to getting their facts straight.” The writer thus points out how the hot topic or the energy narrative is centered around the fear of shortage or pollution, they need to understand that the world cannot and will not do away with fossil fuels in the near future. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not deal with the subject of the effective use of energy but with the misinformation about energy. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage is serious and based on scholarship and sound reasoning. It is factual and persuasive. Option 4 mentions sarcasm which is not correct. Reject option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: It captures the writer’s thesis that while potential shortages and threats from pollution form the energy narrative, the demand for fossil fuels shows no sign of abating.

Time taken by you: 104 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 25 %

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Traditionally, countries’ global political power was assessed according to military might: the one with the largest army had the most power. But that logic was not always reflected in reality. The US lost the Vietnam War; the Soviet Union was defeated in Afghanistan. In its first few years in Iraq, the US discovered the wisdom of Talleyrand’s adage that the one thing you cannot do with a bayonet is sit on it. Enter soft power. The term was coined by Harvard’s Joseph S. Nye in 1990 to account for the influence a country – and, in particular, the US – wields, beyond its military (or “hard”) power. As Nye put it, a country’s power rests on its “ability to alter the behavior of others” to get what it wants, whether through coercion (sticks), payments (carrots), or attraction (soft power). “If you are able to attract others,” he pointed out, “you can economize on the sticks and carrots.” Nye argues that a country’s soft power arises from “its culture (in places where it is attractive to others), its political values (when it lives up to them at home and abroad), and its foreign policies (when they are seen as legitimate and having moral authority.)” But I believe that it also emerges from the world’s perceptions of what a country is about: the associations and attitudes conjured by the mention of a country’s name. Hard power is exercised; soft power is evoked. The US has been the world’s largest economy and oldest democracy, a haven for immigrants, and the land of the American

Dream – the promise that anyone can be anything if they work hard enough. It is also the home of Boeing and Intel, Google and Apple, Microsoft and MTV, Hollywood and Disneyland, McDonald’s and Starbucks. The attractiveness of these assets, and of the American lifestyle that they represent, is that they enable the US to persuade, rather than compel, others to adopt its agenda. In this sense, soft power acts as both an alternative and a complement to hard power. But there are limits to a country’s soft power – even America’s. In the wake of the US terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, there was an outpouring of goodwill for the US. Then the country launched its War on Terror, in which it relied heavily on hard power. The instruments of that power – the Iraq invasion, indefinite detention of “enemy combatants” and other suspects at Guantánamo Bay prison, the Abu Ghraib scandal, and revelations of CIA “black sites,” the killing of Iraqi civilians by private US security contractors – were not received well by the global public. America’s soft power declined sharply, demonstrating that how a country exercises its hard power affects how much soft power it can evoke. America’s domestic narrative soon overcame its foreign-policy setbacks, thanks partly to today’s unprecedented connectivity. In a world of instant mass communications, countries are judged by a global public fed on a diet of relentless online news, smartphone videos, and Twitter gossip. In such an information age, Nye wrote, three types of countries are likely to gain soft power: “those whose dominant cultures and ideals are closer to prevailing global norms (which now emphasize liberalism, pluralism, autonomy); those with the most access to multiple channels of communication and thus more influence over how issues are framed; and those whose credibility is enhanced by their domestic and international performance.” Nye has argued that, in an information age, soft power often accrues to the country with the better story. The US has long been the “land of the better story.” It has a free press and an open society; it welcomes migrants and refugees; it has a thirst for new ideas and a knack for innovation. All of this has given the US an extraordinary ability to tell stories that are more persuasive and attractive than those of its rivals. However, Trump’s ascent to power has shattered America’s image. 1) “The one thing you cannot do with a bayonet is sit on it” – which of the following is the most likely explanation of these words in the context of the passage? A country with military-might must not remain idle without employing its power in some way. Military-might is useful to win a war but is not the correct assessment of a country. Military-might ultimately leads to a country’s downfall. A large military can be defeated by small but well-organized military forces. Video Explanation: Explanation: The context has to be well understood for choosing the correct answer. Briefly, the first two paragraphs state that traditionally the global power of a country is assessed using its military power. However the US lost to Vietnam, and the Soviet Union was defeated n Afghanistan – implying large armies were defeated by very small ones. The next example is of Iraq where the US discovered the wisdom in the words – “Enter soft power.” Then the second paragraph explains the meaning and implications of soft power. The words are used to introduce the concept of soft power. Hence the most likely implication in the context is option 2. Option 1 is incorrect – there is no implication of not remaining idle and having to continue using military might all the time. Option 3 is incorrect – ‘downfall’ of a military power is different from losing a war. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect – organization of the armies is irrelevant. There is no suggestion that large armies are not well organized or that small armies are. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Military-might is useful to win a war but is not the correct assessment of a country.

Time taken by you: 182 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 38 % 2) According to Joseph S Nye, all these are examples of soft power EXCEPT:

The ability to alter the behavior of others. The ability to achieve what a country wants through inducements. The ability to use the military and influence the behaviour of others. The use of the military to win wars. Video Explanation: Explanation: The term soft power is explained in the second paragraph: “Enter soft power. The term was coined by Harvard’s Joseph S. Nye in 1990 to account for the influence a country – and, in particular, the US – wields, beyond its military power. Nye explained that a country’s power rested on its “ability to alter the behavior of others” to get what it wants, whether through coercion, payments, or attraction (soft power). Hence options 1 and 2 are part of Nye’s explanation of soft-power. Eliminate Options 1 and 2. Between options 3 and 4, option 3 states that the ability to use the military to influence others (without war) is implicitly a part of soft power, but option 4 states that it is also the ability to win wars. Since soft power, according to Nye, is “beyond military power,” wars cannot be part of soft power. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The use of the military to win wars.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 90 % 3) All the following have contributed to America’s soft power in the world EXCEPT: The American Dream. American conglomerate. American foreign policy. The American war on terror. Video Explanation: Explanation: In the third and the fourth paragraphs, the writer explains how America was able to ‘evoke soft power’ through its culture, foreign policy, its promise of the American Dream – “that anyone can be anything if they work hard enough,” and its business houses like, Boeing, Intel, Google, Apple etc… And in this sense, “its soft power acts as both an alternative and a complement to hard power”. In the next paragraph, the writer talks about the launch of America’s war on terror which relied heavily on hard power or the military; and as a consequence of the abuses and excesses, the ‘soft power of the US declined’ sharply.” Thus options 1, 2 and 3 – the American Dream, its businesses (the American conglomerate) and its foreign policy have all contributed to the soft power of America. This eliminates options 1, 2, and 3. Though the presence of a large military can evoke power, war itself is not a part of soft-power. Hence America’s war on terror is the exception. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: The American war on terror.

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Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 89 % 4) According the passage, the decline of US soft power can be attributed to which of the following? Its heavy dependence on hard power when it launched its war on terror in the wake of the terrorist attacks of September 2011. The invasion of Iraq and the misuse of the instruments of hard power. Trump’s ascent to power. All of the above. Video Explanation: Explanation: The decline of America’s soft power is explained in the last three paragraphs of the passage. It began with the American response to the September 2011 terror attacks. Immediately after the attacks, there was an outpouring of goodwill for the US. However, the excessive use of its military might to mishandle the instruments that such power afforded - excesses were committed with Prisoners of war and Iraqi civilians were killed by private US security contractors - caused its soft power to decline drastically. The domestic narrative overtook foreign policy setbacks; the American story of liberalism, pluralism, and autonomy were undermined. The last paragraph then mentions the ascent of Trump to presidency as another factor that shattered America’s image. America’s image is also crucial to its soft power. Thus options 1, 2, and 3 are all reasons mentioned in the passage. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: All of the above.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 % 5) According to Joseph S Nye, in a world of instant mass communication which of the following helps a country to gain soft power? I. Its adherence to globally emphasized norms of liberalism, pluralism, autonomy. II. Its access to multiple channels of communication and credible domestic and international performance. III. Its propaganda machine that promotes a better story about itself. All of I, II and III I and II II and III III only Video Explanation:

Explanation: In the last paragraph, the author describes Nye’s view on how ‘in such an information age, three types of countries are likely to gain soft power: “those whose dominant cultures and ideals are closer to prevailing global norms (which now emphasize liberalism, pluralism, autonomy); those with the most access to multiple channels of communication and thus more influence over how issues are framed; and those whose credibility is enhanced by their domestic and international performance.” Hence statements I and II are supported by the passage. Mere propaganda to promote itself by “better story about itself” is incorrect – as the soft power depends on access to channels of communication and not propaganda machine. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: I and II

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 % 6) In the context of the passage, which of the following is likely to be a “country with a better story”? A Utopia A country without borders – akin to the global village. A liberal democratic society and economy. A welfare state with military might. Video Explanation: Explanation: The answer to this question can be derived from the last paragraph of the passage. “Nye has argued that, in an information age, soft power often accrues to the country with the better story. The US has long been the “land of the better story.” It has a free press and an open society; it welcomes migrants and refugees; it has a thirst for new ideas and a knack for innovation. The ‘better story’ is vaguely partly explained by what the US was, perhaps until recently, with free press and open society, open to immigrants etc. Option 1 is incorrect – A utopia is an idea and does not exist in reality. We can eliminate this option because the passage is not about what is ideal and does not exist – it is about realpolitik and soft power. Option 2 is incorrect for the same reason. Nowhere does the passage suggest that a country can be or has to be without borders, for trade or other purposes. Option 3 is correct. Among other things that may be required to be a “better story”, if a country has to have an open society that encourages new ideas and innovation it has to be a liberal democratic economy. Option 4 is incorrect, as military might, though relevant to what the writer has written about soft power earlier in the passage, does not relate to what is a “better story”. We can eliminate option 4. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: A liberal democratic society and economy.

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undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an indigenous development, is still a moot point. But clearly many ideas and influences had penetrated the Indian subcontinent from the north-west. Throughout history the north-west frontier had been more often wide open than not. While the Bactrian, Saka and Kushan empires had actually straddled the Khyber pass, the constant spate of conquests had systematically eroded cultural barriers and washed down onto the Indian plains a rich topsoil of Persian and Mediterranean skills and ideals. The most obvious example was in coins. At the time of the Mauryas (third century BC), Indian coinage was still the unadorned lumps of metal marked with a simple punch that had been in circulation from the earliest times. But the idea of a minted coinage, incorporating a design or portrait and a legend, dates only from the time of these invasions. The evolution of a specifically Indian coinage is clearly marked in the coins of western India, where markedly Indian profiles start to appear about the second century AD. By the fourth century, the distinctive gold coinage of the Guptas was in circulation throughout north India. In literature, it has been suggested that Sanskrit drama owed something to Greek influence; Indian playwrights like Kalidasa may have inherited some of the conventions of Greek comedy as performed at the Bactrian court in the Punjab. In architecture there is a more obvious connection. The temple of Jandial at Taxila in Pakistan has Ionic columns and a layout not unlike that of the Parthenon on a reduced scale. It could hardly look less Indian and indeed it is not Indian; built by Parthian invaders at the beginning of the first century AD, it was probably used by fire-worshipping devotees of the Persian god Zoroaster. But the significant point is that this temple is the earliest structural, as opposed to rock-cut, temple on Indian soil. So did the ancient peoples of India learn about architecture from the invaders? The answer is certainly no. They had been building on a grand scale in wood and brick for centuries. Megasthenes’ description of the gigantic royal palace at Pataliputra is in itself enough to prove the point. But Hellenistic buildings like Jandial did have some impact. In the Himalayan valley of Kashmir the foreign style caught on and produced a distinctive and enduring school of building which employed classical pillars, trefoil arches and triangular pediments. However, it was in the working of stone and in sculpture that foreign skills really made their mark on India. Craftsmen and masons seem to have moved about the ancient world more freely even than ambassadors. The Ashoka pillars with their bell-shaped capitals bear a striking resemblance to the pillars of Persepolis, the ancient Achaemenid capital of Persia. The highly developed modelling shown in the lion capitals found at Sarnath and Sanchi suggest an already well-developed style which must mean that Ashoka borrowed both the idea of the pillars, and the masons to carve them, from Persia. 1) The central point in the first paragraph is that: Historically, many foreign cultural influences entered India from the northwest. It is not clear whether writing entered India from outside, but many other ideas and influences did. In the north-west of India, constant conquests tore down the empires that existed around the Khyber pass. Constant conquests from the north-west resulted in ancient India being unable to develop culturally on its own. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option [1] is correct. This is the point made in the second sentence of theparagraph – ‘many ideas and influences had penetrated the Indian subcontinent from the north-west’ – and then elaborated upon in the rest of the paragraph. Retain option [1]. Option [2] is not a comprehensive answer. It focuses unduly on the first sentence of the paragraph, which is the only one that discusses writing, and ignores important points made in the rest of the paragraph, such as the direction of the entry of the foreign influences. So option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect as well. There is no suggestion in the passage that the constant conquests ‘tore down’ the empires around the Khyber pass, just that these conquests influenced India culturally. Option [3] is thus rejected. Option [4] makes a judgement about India being ‘unable to develop culturally’, that is not warranted. The paragraph only talks about foreign cultural influences on ancient India – it does not suggest that India was ‘unable to develop culturally on its own’. So option [4] is also eliminated. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Historically, many foreign cultural influences entered India from the north- west.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 % 2) What, according to the author, is noteworthy about the temple of Jandial? It was built by Parthian invaders around two millennia ago. It was used by the fire-worshipping devotees of the Persian god Zoroaster. It is the earliest temple on Indian soil that was built rather than carved from rock. It is the earliest example of a typically Indian style of architecture. Video Explanation: Explanation: Option [1] is incorrect. While it is factually true that the temple of Jandial was builtby Parthian invaders around two millennia ago, the author does not claim that this point is particularly noteworthy. So option [1] is eliminated. Option [2] can be ruled out on the same grounds as option [1] – it is correct but not noteworthy, according to the writer. Option [3] is correct. Refer to paragraph 4: ‘But the significant point is that this temple is the earliest structural, as opposed to rock-cut, temple on Indian soil.’ Retain option [3]. Option [4] is incorrect. According to the author, the temple of Jandial ‘could hardly look less Indian’, so it cannot be considered to be of a typically Indian style. So option [4] is rejected. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: It is the earliest temple on Indian soil that was built rather than carved from rock.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 82 % 3) The passage answers all the following questions EXCEPT..

When did distinctly Indian coinage arise in ancient India? Did the Hellenistic style of building have any impact on India? What was the reason for the well-developed style of the Ashoka pillars? Was the art of writing an indigenous development in India? Video Explanation: Explanation: Option [1] is not the answer, as it is a question that is clearly answered in paragraph 2 – distinctly Indian coinage arose in the second century AD in ancient India. So option [1] can be ruled out. Option [2] is not the answer either, as it is answered in paragraph 4 – the Hellenistic style of building caught on in Kashmir and produced a distinctive style of architecture. Thus option [2] is also eliminated. Option [3] is not the answer as well, as it is answered in the last paragraph – the reason for the well-developed style of the Ashoka pillars is that Ashoka borrowed the idea for them, as well as the masons to carve them, from Persia. So option [3] can be rejected as well. Option [4] is the right answer, as it is a question that is not answered in the passage. The first sentence of the passage says that ‘Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an indigenous development, is still a moot point.’ After that, this topic is not brought up again, so the question remains unanswered. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Was the art of writing an indigenous development in India?

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 59 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 89 % 4) What is the central idea of the passage? The effect of foreign invasions on ancient India Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture Indian art and architecture in ancient times The similarity between ancient Indian and foreign art Video Explanation: Explanation: Option [1] is too general. The focus of the passage is not on all the effects of foreign invasions on ancient India, but specifically on the effect on Indian art and culture. So option [1] can be eliminated. Option [2] is correct. The passage discusses the numerous foreign influences on ancient Indian art and culture – in the realms of coinage, literature, architecture, masonry and sculpture. Retain option [1]. Option [3] is a partial answer. It fails to mention the fact that the passage doesn’t just discuss Indian art and architecture in ancient times, but rather foreign influences on the same. So option [3] can be rejected. Option [4] is incorrect. The passage does not focus at any length on similarities between ancient Indian and foreign art, and when it does mention such similarities, it does so in order to point out foreign influences on Indian art. So option [4] can be ruled out. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Foreign influence on ancient Indian art and culture

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undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. Regularly drinking above the UK alcohol guidelines can take years off your life, according to a major report. The study of 600,000 drinkers estimated that having 10 to 15 alcoholic drinks every week could shorten a person's life by between one and two years. And they warned that people who drink more than 18 drinks a week could lose four to five years of their lives. Scientists, who compared the health and drinking habits of alcohol drinkers in 19 countries, found people who drank the equivalent of about five to 10 drinks a week could shorten their lives by up to six months. Recommended limits in Italy, Portugal, and Spain are almost 50% higher than the UK guidelines, and in the USA the upper limit for men is nearly double this. Which of the following can be validly concluded from the above? Mortality rate due to consumption of alcohol in UK is likely to be lower than that in the US, Italy, Portugal, and Spain. Light drinkers, or drinkers who consume alcohol less than the recommended limits lower the risk of several cardiovascular conditions. If you already drink alcohol, drinking less may help you live longer. There are no health benefits from drinking alcohol even below the recommended limits. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: A conclusion is completely and conclusively supported by the passage. The data in the passage can be summarized this way: A study concludes that drinking alcohol above quantities recommended levels progressively reduces one’s longevity. The recommended levels in the US, Italy, Portugal, and Spain are greater than those of UK. Option 1 is incorrect. Though the mortality rate due to consumption of alcohol being higher in countries where recommended levels are higher than those of UK is expressed as a possibility, there is no data about how much people in these countries drink. Hence the possibility expressed in option 1 cannot be evaluated. It is at best data inadequate, hence not a valid conclusion. Eliminate the option. Option 2 is incorrect. Though it may be correct by common sense standards that light drinkers may lower their risk of heart ailments, there is no information in the passage to come to this conclusion. Hence eliminate option 2. Option 4 is also data inadequate. The paragraph gives us no information to evaluate the health benefits of alcohol

consumed below recommended levels. Option 3 is correct. That drinkers may improve their longevity if they reduce their intake is a conclusion, because the passage says that the more one drinks, the more is the risk of reduced longevity. The option states this as a possibility and accounts for other causes of reduced longevity as well. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: If you already drink alcohol, drinking less may help you live longer. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 52 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 34 %

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. After achieving dramatic gains against hunger and famine, the world runs the risk of backsliding, owing to poorly considered choices. But if we accept the claim that climate change is to blame for a recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition, we also risk embracing the costliest and least effective solutions. The argument assumes that: Recent uptick in global hunger and malnutrition is attributable to climate change. Climate policies divert resources from measures that directly reduce hunger. Any realistic effort to combat climate change will be incredibly expensive and have virtually no impact on climate. Very well-intentioned policies to combat global warming could very well exacerbate hunger and malnutrition. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The argument can be simplified this way: poor policies (the passage says ‘poorly considered choices’) have increased the amount of hunger and malnutrition in the world. The increase is sometimes attributed to climate change. The conclusion is that if we accept that climate change is the reason for the increase, we will be accepting the costliest and least effective solutions to the problem of hunger and malnutrition. One of the assumptions is that the efforts to combat climate change are going to be expensive, and at the same time, least effective in dealing with either climate change or, consequently, hunger and malnutrition. This idea is expressed in option 3. Hence Option 3 is the answer. Option 1 is incorrect. In fact, the argument assumes the opposite of what is stated in option 1, that the uptick in hunger and malnutrition is NOT attributable to climate change. The argument states, “If we accept the claim that climate change is to blame...” implies that climate change as the cause is tentative. Hence eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It is true, that the argument assumes that there are other measures to directly reduce hunger and malnutrition. Those measures are also assumed to be cheaper and more effective. However, whether or not resources are diverted from these measures is not assumed in the argument. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The argument states that there is an increase in global hunger and malnutrition. The argument assumes that there is a tendency to link the increase to “poor choices.” One of the poor choices implicitly arises from the belief that the increase is attributable to climate change. However, the policies meant to address climate change will increase or exacerbate global hunger and malnutrition is not implied in the argument. So eliminate option 4. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer:

Any realistic effort to combat climate change will be incredibly expensive and have virtually no impact on climate. Time taken by you: 277 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 %

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. In order to avoid chances of drug addicts getting affected by HIV, National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) would start with oral substitution therapy (OST). Besides, addicts would be motivated to shed use of syringes. Health employees are already being trained in this connection. Under this programme, oral medicines would be given to all drug users to help them kick the habit. This would also help in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from one intravenous drug user to another. Which of the following, if true, would make OST successful in reducing the risk of HIV among drug addicts? Drug addicts are globally marginalized and have high rates of HIV infection. Over 75% of HIV infected drug addicts are used to the sharing of needles. OST is recommended by the World Health Organization for people who inject drugs after diagnosis with HIV infection. Providing Oral Substitution Therapy (OST) alongside other therapies to people who inject drugs results in a significantly greater reduction in deaths. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a “strengthen the argument” question. Simplified, the argument is about Oral Substitution Therapy (or OST), which means administering drugs/medicines orally, to reduce the risk of AIDS among drug addicts. The passage also says that HIV transmission among drug addicts occurs from one intravenous drug user to another. Intravenous means entering the body by way of veins or injection. The assumption in the argument is that HIV spreads through needles – either shared or otherwise. The option that strengthens the argument will establish this relationship between the needles and HIV or support that OST is effective in countering the spread of AIDS. Option 2 states that 75 per cent of HIV infected drug addicts are used to sharing the needles. This establishes a clear cause effect relationship between HIV and the needles. Thus doing away with the needle will clearly eliminate the cause of HIV infection. Hence option 2 sufficiently answers the question and is the correct answer to this question. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 1 does not address the relationship between OST or needles and HIV. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The recommendation of WHO does not explain the reason for the withdrawal of the needles, and for the introduction of OST. These are assumptions in the recommendation. We can eliminate option 3 as inadequate response. Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 is beside the point. The argument is not related to deaths. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: Over 75% of HIV infected drug addicts are used to the sharing of needles. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined Answer the question based on the reasoning contained in the brief passage. A law to completely ban plastic bags has come into force in Maharashtra. The aim is to reduce the choking of drains due to plastic waste, during rainy season and thereby prevent flooding. The government is determined to implement the ban by imposing penalties on users and manufacturers of plastic bags. This will ensure that the ban will achieve its objective. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s conclusion? A blanket ban on plastic bags of all sizes and thickness will make it easier to implement. Maharashtra had banned bags below 50 microns after the Mumbai floods of 2005, but that did not lead to prevention of flooding. The ban does not cover multi-laminated packaging, which is plastic lined with foil, which is most widely in use and the greatest in terms of volume of waste. The government has failed to set-up proper systems to ensure the collection, segregation and disposal of the existing stockpile of plastic bags. Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The author’s conclusion is that imposing penalties will ensure that ban will achieve its objective, which is to reduce the choking of drains and thereby prevent flooding. Option 1 is incorrect. Ease of implementation will help the government to enforce the ban and achieve its objective. Thus this option strengthens the author’s argument that the government will be able to implement the ban and will achieve its objective. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Whether an earlier ban on bags below 50 microns prevented flooding or not is irrelevant to the author’s conclusion. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. If multi-laminated packaging is most widely used and has the greatest volume of plastic waste generated but is not banned, then the government will fail to achieve its objective of reducing choking of drains and thereby prevent flooding. The plastic waste generated by multi-laminated packaging will still choke the drains and cause flooding. Thus, option 3 weakens the author’s conclusion. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Neither the question stem nor the passage specifies the amount or volume of existing stockpile of plastic bags. Even if the existing stockpile of plastic bags is not properly disposed, it is possible that it is not enough to choke the drainage system. Thus, this option does not provide enough information to weaken the author’s conclusion. Eliminate option 4. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: The ban does not cover multi-laminated packaging, which is plastic lined with foil, which is most widely in use and the greatest in terms of volume of waste. Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position. Enter your answer in the space provided using the keypad.

An idea comes to some minds as an intuition, to many in the form of faith or imitation, or a convenient corroboration of a bias. An idea always arrives as a realization, spreads as a belief. The arrival of an idea is a religious moment. But its legitimacy is proved in public and private through the fabrication of rational substantiation. An argument then is reverse engineering of a religious moment. Is debate then as intellectually robust and pure as we are trained to assume? In the hierarchy of intellectual activities, this method of transmission of an idea is unfortunately more respected than the very force that creates ideas—intuition. 1. The religious moment in which ideas arise in some minds spread later as beliefs and unfortunately become more respected. 2. Ideas arise to some minds as a religious realization of their faith or biases. Debates try to reverse- engineer the faith and are unfortunately more respected. 3. Realization happens as a result of the corroboration of a faith or bias. Debates are the unfortunate reverse engineering of realizations arising out of intuition. 4. An idea that comes to some minds as intuition is rationalized to reverse engineer the intuition; this is unfortunate as it ignores the intuition that creates ideas.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It is ambiguous. “The religious moment in which ideas arise in some minds spread later as beliefs and unfortunately become more respected,” means that the idea itself is ‘unfortunately more respected.’ This is contrary to the passage which says that the debate (not the idea itself) unfortunately, becomes more respected. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The option says the debate tries to reverse engineer the faith. This is a misrepresentation. The debate does not try to reverse engineer the faith but the religious moment of realization or the rise of idea through intuition. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. That realisation happens as a result of the corroboration of a faith or bias, is incorrect. Realisation happens in a religious moment as an intuition. The realisation, in many minds, reinforces the faith or bias that they hold. So they do not happen as a result of the faith or bias. The passage explains the relation between the faith and realisation – it does not establish a cause effect relationship. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The main points in the passage are represented in option 4 without ambiguity or distortion. Hence, 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 41 %

undefined The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position. Enter your answer in the space provided using the keypad. Although the category of popular music presupposes differences from serious music, there is limited consensus about the nature of these differences beyond the near-tautology that most people prefer popular music to art music. This obvious disparity in popular reception generates philosophical (and not merely sociological) issues when it is combined with the plausible assumption that popular music is aesthetically different from folk music, art music, and other music types. There is general agreement about the concept’s extension or scope of reference – agreement that the Beatles made popular music but Igor Stravinsky did not. However, there is no comparable agreement about what “popular music” means or which features of the music are distinctively popular. 1. The assumption that popular music is aesthetically different from art music generates philosophical and sociological issues about which there is no consensus except about the extent of reference. 2. There appears to be no difference between popular music and serious music aesthetically except for a broad consensus that Beatles made popular music but Igor Stravinsky did not. 3. Although popular music presupposes differences from serious music, there is limited consensus about their aesthetic differences beyond the near-tautology that most people prefer popular music to serious music. 4. Popular music presupposes differences from serious music; however, the assumption that they are aesthetically different raises philosophical and sociological issues about their distinctive features.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. It incorrectly states that theassumption of difference raises philosophical and sociological issues, whereas the paragraph says that the popular reception generates social and philosophical issues – which only means that the popularity may be studied from the point of view of sociology and philosophy. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. That there appears to be no difference between popular music and serious music is not stated in the passage. The passage leaves it open. The passage merely states that there is no consensus, and not that there is no difference. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. It captures the important points without any distortion. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is a misrepresentation similar to option 1. The assumption does not raise sociological or philosophical issues but only the popular reception does. Also, these issues are unrelated to their distinctive features if any. Eliminate option 4. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 51 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. But it also had an older association with philosophy, going back to Plato, for whom light is knowledge of the true, which we acquire as we leave the caves whose walls of prejudice and ignorance have obscured our vision. 2. Or rather, the English term ‘enlightenment’ is itself a translation, coined in the late 19th century, of two distinct terms, both in use in the 18th century: the French lumières and the German Aufklärung. 3. ‘Enlightenment’ has had many translations. 4. Light then carried a strong religious connotation: Christ was the light of the world, a light that we let into our souls. 5. The two have in common the idea of ‘light’; the French noun, however, is in the plural, while the German one indicates less a light shining than a process of enlightenment.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The only standalone sentence is 3, so we can take it to be the first sentence. The idea of translations of the word ‘enlightenment’ connects sentence 3 to sentence 2. The ‘two’ mentioned in sentence 5 can only refer to the two translations of the word ‘enlightenment’ mentioned in sentence 2, so we get a 2-5 link. The remaining two sentences – 4 and 1 – together form a conclusion to the paragraph, by mentioning past connotations of the idea of light (as mentioned in 5), with 4 describing a Christian view and 1 describing an older, Platonic view. Hence, we get the sequence 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 60 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. The atmosphere is almost entirely made of carbon dioxide, and the atmospheric pressure is only 1 percent that of the Earth, so an astronaut would suffocate within a few minutes if exposed to the thin Martian air and his blood would begin to boil. 2. For one, there are the fierce dust storms, which engulf the planet with a fine red dust that resembles talcum powder and almost tipped over the spacecraft in the movie. 3. The movie was realistic enough to give the public a taste of the difficulties Martian colonists would encounter. 4. In the 2015 movie The Martian, the astronaut played by Matt Damon faces the ultimate challenge: to survive alone on a frozen, desolate, airless planet. 5. To produce enough oxygen to breathe, Matt Damon has to create a chemical reaction in his pressurized space station.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 4 is the first sentence, as it introduces the movie, The Martian, and the topic of survival on Mars. Sentence 3, which expands on this point, follows from 4. Sentence 2 provides one example of the difficulties Martian colonists would encounter, so it links to 3. Sentence 1 provides another example; and sentence 5 explains how this particular difficulty was overcome in the movie. Hence, we get the sequence 43215. Correct Answer: 43215 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined The five sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. Our industrial and commercial age erects universities and museums, huge concert halls and stadiums, railroads, highways, and the World Wide Web. 2. Aztec rulers of ancient Mexico laid out their fifteenth-century capital, Tenochtitlan, ‘the Place of the Prickly Pear Cactus’, in the centre of their vast empire as a depiction in stone and stucco of their cosmos. 3. They are the civilization’s most tangible statement of what is important in its time, and what it would be known for in history.

4. The Pyramids of Giza in Egypt were built at enormous expense as symbolic ladders to heaven for the divine pharaohs who were buried in them 4,500 years ago. 5. Every civilization expresses itself through its great works.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Sentence 5 states the theme of this paragraph, so it has to be the introductory sentence. Sentence 3 continues the point stated in 5, so it is the second sentence. The remaining three sentences – which provide examples of ‘great works’ in three different civilizations – do not have any direct links to each other, but they make most sense when arranged in a chronological order: 4-2-1. Hence, we get the sequence 53421. Correct Answer: 53421 Time taken by you: 1965 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 35 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 31 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer. 1. For several decades Salim Ali’s was the only Indian name that figured in the world of ornithologists or in general knowledge books for schoolchildren. 2. Interestingly, the number of bird species sighted is only increasing, helped no doubt by the vast range of habitats available in the subcontinent. 3. Dividing his time between Delhi, Dehradun and theSunderbans, he has never shied away from doing the hard yards when it comes to birdwatching. 4. BikramGrewal is one such avid birdwatcher who has quietly but persuasively kept his lens focused on the birds of the subcontinent. 5. Today, inspired by Salim Ali, thousands of people have taken to bird study, birdwatching and bird photography.

Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: A comparison of five sentences quickly tells us that only sentence 1 can start theparagraph also that sentence 5 immediately follows sentence 1. Put together the talk about the birdwatchers in India – Salim Ali the only popular birdwatcher in India for several decades and the thousands of people who are inspired by him and are now interested in birdwatching. Sentences 1-5-4 are thus a logical sequence. Out of the two remaining sentences, sentence 3 and sentence 2, we can easily see that sentence 3 talks about the passion and activity of Bikram Grewal and is related to the narration. Sentence 2 is out of place as it is about the increase in the number of bird species. Hence the correct answer is 2. Hence, 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer. 1. The Government of India became a party to the protocol schedule in June 1992, entrusting the responsibility of implementation to the ministry of environment, forest and climate change. 2. Further scaling up the fight against emissions, Montreal Protocol signatories decided to move on from focusing on ozone depletion to tackling global warming in 2016. 3. It played a crucial role in phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), carbon tetrachloride (CTC) and halons. 4. This means an urgent need to find efficient and environment-friendly alternatives to these refrigerants. 5. Implementation of the Montreal Protocol has had a significant impact on protecting the ozone layer for three decades.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

“Party to the protocol…” in sentence 1 refers to the “Montreal Protocol’ in sentence 5. So 5-1 is a mandatory pair. The theme is that Montreal Protocol was implemented three decades ago and has had a significant impact on protecting the ozone layer and the GOI became a signatory in 1992. The pronoun “it’ in sentence 3 can have either of these antecedents – 1. The ministry of environment … 2.The Montreal Protocol. Since 5-1 is we can see that ‘it’ refers to the ministry. It gives us the sequence 5-1-3. So these three sentences can be summarized this way: Montreal Protocol was signed/implemented in 1992 and India entrusted the responsibility of protecting the ozone layer to the ministry of environment. Comparing sentences 2 and 4, now it becomes very easy to understand that “this” in sentence 4 does not refer to anything specific in any of the sentences. Hence, 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in your answer. 1. Every cell that is “you” carries a molecular ID card made of a protein marker. 2. Our body is a nation of trillions of cells working together under a system. 3. To ensure equitable distribution of common facilities only to the “self” and not to hostile or parasitic aliens, human body is armed with a highly specialized UID system. 4. The only agenda they serve is towards their self-gain and growth. 5. This system ensures that each body cell receives common facilities like oxygen, nutrients, protection from attack etc. in exchange for serving in the specific role it is assigned.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: After reading through the five sentences we can start solving the question by focusing on sentence 2 or sentence 5. ‘This system in ensures…’ in sentence 5 refers to the system mentioned in sentence 2 – so we can see that 2-5 is a mandatory pair – that human body is a system of trillions of cells and that this system ensures the well-being of each cell and helps it function well. So the theme is how a system of cells help the smooth functioning of the human body as a whole. Sentence 3 and 1 are related to the same theme. Sentence 3 elaborates on the functioning of the cell and how each cell has a specialized UID and sentence 1 tells us that this unique ID is a protein marker. From this point of view we can be sure that sentence 4 is out of context. Neither the pronoun “they’ nor “the agenda” in sentence 4 is related to the theme. Hence, 4. Correct Answer:

4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 %

undefined In the following question the word given at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the sentence in which the use of the given word is incorrect and key in your answer in the space provided. Slew 1] He has written a slew of books. 2] I was assaulted by the thump andslew of the bus. 3] The knight slew the dragon. 4] He watched the snake slew its skin.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The word slew has several meanings. Most commonly it is used as a noun to mean a large number. So sentence 1 is correct – a slew of books means a large number of books. In its less common use as a noun the word slew means: a violent or uncontrollable sliding movement. That makes sentence 2 correct. The sentence means I was assaulted by the thump and the violent and uncontrollable movement of the bus. Slew is also the past tense of the verb slay. Slay means to kill violently or strike down. So sentence 3 uses the past tense of the verb slay. The knight killed or slew the dragon. Interestingly, slayed can also be used as the past tense of the verb slay. Slay also has a completely different and idiomatic meaning – that is ‘to delight or amuse immensely. That’s why we have sentences like, He slayed the audience. If used in this sense, we cannot use the word slew. He slew his audience will be incorrect, (unless you mean he violently killed his audience). Option 4 is incorrect. A snake sloughs (/slufs/) its skin. Sentence 4 is meaningless. Hence, 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined In the following question the word given at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the sentence in which the use of the given word is incorrect and key in your answer in the space provided. Pin 1] He handed me a pin with a peace sign on it. 2] Bother them all! I don’t care a pin about them. 3] It is hard to pin exactly when things changed. 4] She doesn’t generally pin up her beautiful long hair.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The word Pin, most commonly used as a noun, means something used for fastening things together or as a support by which one thing may be suspended from another. The first sentence, he handed me a pin with the peace sign on it, is thus correct. Pin also means ‘little’ or ‘trifle’ in certain contexts. So the second sentence means I don’t care about them at all. In fact, the second sentence is from Bram Stoker, the famous author of Dracula. So the second sentence is correct. The fourth sentence is correct as pin is used correctly, in its more common use as a verb, meaning to fasten, join or secure with apin. Sentence 3, however, is incorrect. The intended meaning of the sentence appears to be that , it is hard to pin down when things changed – pin down is a phrasal verb which means to define or determine clearly or precisely. Hence, 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. TABLE 1 gives information about the average of the number of questions in each of the 10 sections of an entrance test XYZ. For example, in TABLE 1, in the cell corresponding to Section II and Section I, 28 is the average of the number of questions in Section I and Section II.

TABLE 2 gives information about the average number of questions solved correctly in each of the 10 sections of the entrance test XYZ by a student named Akshay. For example, in TABLE 2 in the cell corresponding to Section II and Section I, 14 is the average of the number of questions solved correctly in Section II and Section I by Akshay. Each question in the entrance test XYZ is either solved correctly, solved incorrectly or left unattempted. Four marks are awarded for each correct answer, one mark is deducted for each unattempted question and two marks are deducted for each incorrect answer.

1) For which section was the difference between the total number of questions and the number of questions solved correctly in that section the lowest? III VI VIII V Video Explanation: Explanation:

In section V, the difference between the number of questions and the number of questions solved correctly is the least i.e., 4. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: V Time taken by you: 19 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 308 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) Which of the following cannot be the ratio of the number of questions solved incorrectly to the number of questions left unattempted in section VI? 3: 11 3: 4 3: 5 1: 1 Video Explanation: Explanation:

The total number of questions in section VI that were answered incorrectly orunattempted were 14. The number of questions solved incorrectly and the number of questions leftunattempted in section VI can be 3 and 11, 6 and 8 or 7 and 7 (individually in no particular order). So options 1, 2 and 4 are possible. But they cannot be in the ratio3 : 5. Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 3 : 5 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 68 % 3) For how many sections (other than section II) is the total number of questions in that section not less than the total number of questions in section II? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The number of questions in sections VI, VII, VIII, IX and X is greater than or equal to the number of questions in section II. So there are 5 such sections. Therefore, the required answer is 5.

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 % 4) For every section, we defined the following quantities: A : The number of questions solved correctly by Akshay in that section. B : The sum of the number of questions left unattempted and the number of questions solved incorrectly by Akshay in that section. For how many sections (other than section X) the value of the absolute difference between A and B not greater than that the corresponding value for section X? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In an extempore competition, six girls – Abha, Bina, Chitra, Deepa, Tina and Urvashi were asked to speak on the latest developments in India with respect to the following topics Literature, Women Empowerment, Sports, Politics and Inflation. The girls in the first six positions in each of the five topics – from 1 st through 6th – are awarded 10, 8, 6, 4, 2 and 1 points respectively. The following table provides partial information about the positions of the four girls (Abha, Bina, Chitra and Deepa) in each of the five topics. For each row, the last column gives the sum of the number of points scored by these four girls together in that topic.

The following points are known: In each topic, exactly two of these four girls stood in the first three positions. No two girls finished in the same position on any topic. No girl was awarded the same number of points in two or more of the five topics. 1) For how many of the above-mentioned four girls can their positions in all the five topics be uniquely determined? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd , 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd , 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd , 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility isthat the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1 st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. All the five positions can be uniquely determined only for Chitra. Therefore, the required answer is 1.

Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 979 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 163 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 24 % 2)

Which girl got the highest total number of points in all the five topics put together? Abha Bina Chitra Deepa Video Explanation: Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. Bina got the top 5 positions in the five topics, so she got the highest total number of points. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Bina

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 102 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) If the total number of points scored by Deepa is more than that scored by Abha, then what position did Abha achieve in the topic Women Empowerment? 1st 3rd 4th 5th Video Explanation:

Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. Abha and Deepa got 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 (in any order). As Deepagot more points than Abha, the possible case is as in the second table given above. Therefore, Abha got the first position in the topic Women Empowerment. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 1st

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 36 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 44 % 4) What was the least total score by a girl out of the four in the given five subjects? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: According to the given points and as exactly two girls finished within the first three positions, we can conclude that:

AsAbha got the 2nd position in Politics, the positions of others can be 3rd, 4th and 6th. But as Chitra got the 3rd and 4th positions in the other topics, she got the 6th position in Politics. In the topic Literature, Abha, Chitra and Deepa finished in the 2 nd, 5th, 6th or 3rd, 4th, 6th positions. But as Chitra got the 3rd, 4th and 6th positions in the other topics, the only possibility is that the three finished 2nd, 5th and 6th positions.

In Sports, as Chitra cannot get the 2nd position, she got the 5th and the 2nd positions in the Sports and Literature respectively. Similarly, in Inflation Abha and Deepa got the 1st and 6th positions in any order. Therefore, Bina got 2nd position in Inflation.

The following are the two possible cases:

Now all the questions can be answered. Chitra got the least number of points. Total points = 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 21 Therefore, the required answer is 21.

Correct Answer: 21 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table provides partial information about 1500 professional footballers from three different countries – Germany, Spain and England. The table lists out for footballers from each of the given countries, the number of footballers who have played for the football clubs MUFC, Real Madrid and Bayern Munich as a percentage of the total number of footballers from that country.

For example, according to the table, 30% of the footballers from Spain have played for MUFC, whereas 60% of the

footballers from Germany have played for Bayern Munich. The following points are also known: 1. Each footballer played for one or two clubs. 2. 20% of all the footballers are from Germany. 3. The total number of footballers who have played for both Real Madrid and Bayern Munich is 420, of which 60 are from Spain. 1) What percentage of total footballers have played for Bayern Munich? 56% 42% 28% 70% Video Explanation: Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20% i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180 Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180 R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180 V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840 Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360 T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180 Now all the questions can be answered.

Correct Answer: 56%

Time taken by you: 94 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 174 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) How many footballers from Spain have played for Bayern Munich? 240 180

120 300 Video Explanation: Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20%i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180 Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180 R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180 V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840 Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360 T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180 Now all the questions can be answered. 180 many footballers from Spain have played for Bayern Munich. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 180

Time taken by you: 86 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) Find the number of footballers from England who have played for MUFC. 420 240 300 360 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20% i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180 Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180 R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180 V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840 Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360 T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180 Now all the questions can be answered. 360 footballers from England have played for MUFC. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 360

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 39 % 4) How many footballers from Germany have not played for Bayern Munich? 150 90 105 120 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given the proportion of footballers from Germany is 20%i.e., 0.2. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from Spain and England put together is 80% i.e., 0.8 Let the proportion of footballers from Spain be X. Therefore, the proportion of footballers from England is (0.8 – X) Let us consider the last column. The total number of footballers who played neither for Real Madrid nor Bayern Munich (i.e. 20% of total) constitutes 40% from Germany, 20% from Spain and 10% from England.

Therefore, we get the following values:

P = 780 – 360 – 240 = 180 Q = 180 + 180 + 120 – 300 = 180 R = 600 – 360 + 60 – 120 = 180 V = 1500 – 780 + 420 – 300 = 840 Therefore, S = 660 – 120 – 180 = 360 T = 840 – 180 – 180 = 480 and U = 420 – 180 – 60 = 180 Now all the questions can be answered. 300 – 180 = 120 footballer from Germany have not played for Bayern Munich. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 120

Time taken by you: 70 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 72 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The diagram given below represents the distribution of the number of persons who speak one or more of the four languages – Kannada, Tamil, Telugu and Malayalam. In the figure given below assume that the number of persons belonging to any particular combination (i.e., combination of languages spoken by the persons) which is not shown is 0.

1) How many persons speaking at least one language out of Telugu and Malayalam also speak either Kannada or Tamil (but not both)? 25 29 32 44 Video Explanation: Explanation: The number that is within the circle or the hexagon, should be within the rhombus or triangle but not both. Required Answer = 2 + 23 + 19 = 44 Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 44

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 267 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 % 2) How many persons who speak Tamil speak exactly one other language? 2 4 7 25 Video Explanation: Explanation: The number should be within the triangle and one more other shape. Required Number = 4. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 79 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 93 % 3) If every person, who speaks more than two of the given languages got an award, then how many persons got the award? 47 48 49 68 Video Explanation: Explanation: The number should be in three or more of the figures. Required Answer = 23 + 19 + 7 + 19 = 68. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 68

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 91 % 4) How many persons speak at least two of the given four languages? 85 90 100 102 Video Explanation: Explanation: Those who speak exactly 4 or 3 or 2 = Total of all numbers given – Total of all numbers appearing in only one figure = 185 – 100 = 85 Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 85

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 84 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In the annual school fair, four students – Arjun, Bipin, Chetan and Devang of Class XII put up a food stall with the help of a local vendor. The food stall opened at 2 PM and was closed at 9 PM. The students monitored the activities at the food stall in one-hour shifts and at least one student monitored the activities in each of the seven shifts. None of the students operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left the shift in between. Further it is known that: I.

Arjun operated in exactly four shifts.

II. At 4:30 PM, two students were monitoring the activities at the food stall and one of them was Bipin. III. Chetan monitored the activities at the food stall in exactly three shifts and one ofthose shifts was 5 PM to 6 PM. IV. Devang monitored the activities at the food stall in exactly two shifts and he was theonly student in those shifts. V. Each of the four students monitored the activities at the food stall in at least twoshifts. VI. Bipin and Chetan recently had an argument and hence did not monitor the activities at the food stall together in any of the shifts. 1) Who monitored the activities at the food stall in the shift just after the shift in which Arjun and Chetan operated together? Bipin Devang Bipin and Devang There was no slot in which Arjun and Chetan operated together Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence). From statement (I), it can be concluded that Arjun monitored the activities in the 1st, 3rd , 5th and 7th shifts. From statement (II), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities along with Arjun in the 3rd shift. From statement (III), it can be concluded that Chetan monitored the activities in the 4th shift. From statement (IV), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which Devang monitored the activities were 2nd and 6th. Hence, Chetan monitored the activities in the 1st and 7th shifts. From statement (V) and (VI), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities in the 5th shift along with Arjun. The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below:

Devang monitored the activities at the food stall in the shift just after the shift in which Arjun and Chetan operated together.

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: Devang

Time taken by you: 360 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 371 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 % 2) In how many shifts only one student monitored the activities at the food stall?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence). From statement (I), it can be concluded that Arjun monitored the activities in the 1st, 3rd , 5th and 7th shifts. From statement (II), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities along with Arjun in the 3rd shift. From statement (III), it can be concluded that Chetan monitored the activities in the 4th shift. From statement (IV), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which Devang monitored the activities were 2nd and 6th. Hence, Chetan monitored the activities in the 1st and 7th shifts. From statement (V) and (VI), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities in the 5th shift along with Arjun. The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below:

Only one student monitored the activities at the foodstallin exactly three shifts.

Therefore, the required answer is 3.

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 72 % 3) Bipin came to the fair just before his shift was about to start and left immediately after his last shift was over. How many hours did he spend at the fair? 3 4 5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence). From statement (I), it can be concluded that Arjun monitored the activities in the 1st, 3rd , 5th and 7th shifts. From statement (II), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities along with Arjun in the 3rd shift. From statement (III), it can be concluded that Chetan monitored the activities in the 4th shift. From statement (IV), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which Devang monitored the activities were 2nd and 6th. Hence, Chetan monitored the activities in the 1st and 7th shifts. From statement (V) and (VI), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities in the 5th shift along with Arjun. The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below:

Bipin monitored the activities from 4 PM to 5 PM and again from 6 PM to 7 PM. AsBipin came to the fair just before his shift was about to start and immediately left after his last shift got over, he spent 3 hours at the fair. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 24 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 31 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 76 % 4) How many student(s) were monitoring the activities at the food stall at 8:40 PM? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence). From statement (I), it can be concluded that Arjun monitored the activities in the 1st, 3rd , 5th and 7th shifts. From statement (II), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities along with Arjun in the 3rd shift. From statement (III), it can be concluded that Chetan monitored the activities in the 4th shift. From statement (IV), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which Devang monitored the activities were 2nd and 6th. Hence, Chetan monitored the activities in the 1st and 7th shifts. From statement (V) and (VI), it can be concluded that Bipin monitored the activities in the 5th shift along with Arjun. The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below:

Arjun and Chetan monitored activities at the food stall from 8 PM to 9 PM.

Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 8 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 21 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 88 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each of the six scholars – K, L, M, N, O and P have exactly two degrees out of B.Tech., M.Sc., B.Com., and B.A. No two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Further it is known that: I. K and M do not have M.Sc. degree. II. L and N do not have B.Com. degree. III. O and P do not have B.Tech. degree. IV. Only one out of L and O has B.A. degree. V. Only one out of M and N has B.A. degree.

1) Which of the following pairs of persons cannot have B.A. degree at the same time? L& M M&P K& O N&P Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

Either L, M and P have B.A. degree or K, N and O have B.A. degree. Therefore, N & P cannot have B.A. degree at the same time.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: N&P

Time taken by you: 783 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 175 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 34 % 2) Which of the following degrees does K definitely not have? B.Tech. & B.Com.

B.Tech. & B.A. B.Com. & B.A. None of these Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the 4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

K can have the degrees given in the first three options.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 21 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 67 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 % 3) If M has a B.A. degree, then for which of the following scholars, the two degrees they have cannot be uniquely determined? L N O

K Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

If M has a B.A. degree, then we need to consider first two cases. Both degrees of K, N and O can be uniquely determined.

Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: L

Time taken by you: 204 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 28 % 4) If N does not have a B.Tech. degree, then which of the following is definitely correct? I. O has B.Com. & B.A. degrees. II. P has M.Sc. & B.Com. degrees. Only I Only II Both I and II

Neither I nor II Video Explanation: Explanation: Each scholar has two degrees and no two scholars have the same pair of degrees. Therefore, each scholar as one of the4C 2 = 6 pairs of degrees. Also, each degree is held by exactly 3 scholars. From II, One among L and N has (M.Sc., B.Tech.) degrees and the other has either (M.Sc., B.A.) or (B.Tech., B.A.) i.e., if L has B.A. degree, N does not have B.A. degree and vice-versa. From III, One among O and P has (B.Com., M.Sc.) degrees and the other has (B.com., B.A.) or (M.Sc., B.A.) degrees. If O has B.A. degree, P does not have B.A. degree and vice versa. Thus, it can be concluded with the help of IV, if L has B.A. degree, O does nothave B.A. degree and hence P has B.A. degree. Also from V, as N does not have B.A. degree, M has B.A. degree. (L, M, P) or (K, N, O) have B.A. degree. If L, M & P have B.A. degree then, K – B.Com., B.Tech. N – M.Sc., B.Tech. O – M.Sc., B.Com. If K, N & O have BA degree then, M – B.Com., B.Tech. L – M.Sc., B.Tech. P – M.Sc., B.Com. Thus, we have

If N is does not have a B.Tech degree, then we need to consider case III. Both the statements are correct.

Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Both I and II

Time taken by you: 179 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 83 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs

Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr. Trump has a number of coins with him. Each coin has two sides, named ‘H’ and ‘T’. He plays a game, which begins with a number of coins all facing either ‘H’ or ‘T’. If the coins face ‘H’ initially, the target of the game is to make all the coins face ‘T’ at the end. Similarly, if the coins face ‘T’ initially, the target of the game is to make all the coins face ‘H’ at the end. The game consists of a number of moves. In each move, Mr. Trump has to flip exactly three coins (from ‘H’ to ‘T’ or from ‘T’ to ‘H’, as the case might be). 1) Mr. trump begins the game with four coins, all facing ‘T’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the target of the game? 2 3 4 More than 4 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on. If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2. Initial configuration: 4T (Sum = +4) Once, the target is achieved, Sum = -4 In the first move, Mr. Trump flips three coins from ‘T’ to ‘H’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (1T & 3H)

The second move can be (1 T to H & 2 H to T) or (3 H to T). But the second move would restore the original configuration of 4T. So, this move is ruled out. Thus, the configuration after the second move: (2T & 2H)

The third move can be (2 T to H & 1 H to T) or (2 H to T & 1 T to H). (2 T to H & 1 H to T) would result in (1T & 3H), which is same as the configuration at the beginning of the second move and hence rules out. Thus, the configuration after the third move: (3T & 1H)

Now in order to achieve target, the fourth move has to be (3 T to H). Thus, the configuration after the fourth move: (4H) Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 2) Mr. trump begins the game with five coins, all facing ‘H’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the target of the game? (Write 0 if the target cannot be achieved.) Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on. If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2. Initial configuration: 5H (Sum = -5) Once, the target is achieved, Sum = +5 In the first move, Mr. Trump flips three coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (2H & 3T) The second move can be (3 T to H) or (1 T to H & 2 H to T) or (2 T to H & 1 H to T) The move (3 T to H) would restore the original configuration of 5H. So, this move is ruled out. The move (1 T to H & 2 H to T) would result into configuration (1H & 4T) while the move (2 T to H & 1 H to T) would result into configuration (3H & 2T). It can be seen that configuration (3H & 2T) would result into 5T by flipping 3 H to T.

Thus, the second move has to be (2 T to H & 1 H to T) and the third move has to be 3 H to T.

Thus, in 3 moves the target can be achieved.

Therefore, the required answer is 3. Correct Answer: 3

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 % 3) Additional information: Mr. Trump now flips 5 coins in each move, instead of 3. All other rules of the game remain unchanged.

Mr. trump begins the game with six coins, all facing ‘H’. What is the minimum number of moves he will need to meet the target of the game? 2 4 5 6 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on. If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2. Initial configuration:6H (Sum = -6) Once, the target is achieved, Sum = +6

In the first move, Mr. Trump flips five coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (1H & 5T) In the first move, Mr. Trump does not flip 1H.

The second move can be (1 H to T & 4 T to H) or (5 T to H). But the second move would restore the original configuration of 6H. So, this move is ruled out. Thus, the configuration after the second move: (2T & 4H) The third move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (4 H to T & 1 T to H). (4 H to T & 1 T to H) would result in (1H & 5T), which is the configuration at the beginning of the second move. So this move is ruled out. So, (2 T to H & 3 H to T) will be the third move and the configuration:(3T & 3H) The fourth move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (2 H to T & 3 T to H). (2 H to T & 3 T to H) would result in (2T & 4H), which is the configuration at the beginning of the third move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, fourth move: (2 T to H & 3 H to T) and configuration:(4T & 2H) The fifth move can be (3 T to H & 2 H to T) or (1 H to T & 4 T to H). The move (3 T to H & 2 H to T) would result in (3T & 3H) which is the configuration at the beginning of the fourth move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, the fifth move: (1 H to T & 4 T to H) and configuration:(1T & 5H) Now, the target can be achieved in the sixth move by flipping 5 H to T.

Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 % 4) Additional information: Mr. Trump now flips 5 coins in each move, instead of 3. All other rules of the game remain unchanged.

Mr. trump begins the game with six coins, all facing ‘H’ and achieves the target in minimum possible moves. What is the absolute value of the difference between the number of coins that face ‘H’ and the number of coins that face ‘T’ just before he makes the last move? (Write 7 if it is not possible to achieve the target.)

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let us denote ‘T’ by +1 and ‘H' by -1. Accordingly, we can get ‘sum’ at the end of any move. If there are 5 T at the end of a move, its ‘sum’ = +5 and so on. If a coin is flipped from ‘T’ to ‘H’, the ‘sum’ reduces by 2. Similarly, if a coin is flipped from ‘H’ to ‘T’, the sum increases by 2. Initial configuration: 6H (Sum = -6) Once, the target is achieved, Sum = +6

In the first move, Mr. Trump flips five coins from ‘H’ to ‘T’. Thus, the configuration after the first move: (1H & 5T) In the first move, Mr. Trump does not flip 1H.

The second move can be (1 H to T & 4 T to H) or (5 T to H). But the second move would restore the original configuration of 6H. So, this move is ruled out. Thus, the configuration after the second move: (2T & 4H)

The third move can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (4 H to T & 1 T to H). (4 H to T & 1 T to H) would result in (1H & 5T), which is the configuration at the beginning of the second move. So this move is ruled out. So, (2 T to H & 3 H to T) will be the third move and the configuration:(3T & 3H)

The fourth can be (2 T to H & 3 H to T) or (2 H to T & 3 T to H). (2 H to T & 3 T to H) would result in (2T & 4H), which is the configuration at the beginning of the third move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, fourth move: (2 T to H & 3 H to T) and configuration:(4T & 2H)

The fifth move can be (3 T to H & 2 H to T) or (1 H to T & 4 T to H). The move (3 T to H & 2 H to T) would result in (3T & 3H) which is the configuration at the beginning of the fourth move. So this move is ruled out. Thus, the fifth move: (1 H to T & 4 T to H) and configuration:(1T & 5H)

Now, the target can be achieved in the sixth move by flipping 5 H to T.

Thus, just before the last move, the configuration: 1T & 5H The absolute value of the difference between the number of coins that face ‘H’ and the number of coins that face ‘T’ just before he makes the last move = 5 – 1 = 4 Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 65 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 16 students (2 from each school) – K to Z participated in the inter-school chess competition.

In the above arrangement of the 16 students, each row and column has at least two students from the same school. It is known that K and the other student from his school are in the same row. This holds true for students P, U and Z as well. It is known that N and the other student from his school are in the same column. This holds true for students Q, T and W as well. 1) If K and L are from the same school, then which of the following pairs of students are definitely from the same school? N and R W and O S and U Y and Z Video Explanation: Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since K and L are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

Y and Z are definitely from the same school.

Hence, [4]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools. Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.

Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools. The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}.

If K and L are from the same school, Y has to be from same school as Z. W can be from O’s of S’s school. N can be from R’s or V’s school.

Correct Answer: Y and Z

Time taken by you: 297 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 248 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 % 2) If O and P are from the same school, then for how many of the remaining 14 students, the other student from the same school can be uniquely determined? 6 8 4 12 Video Explanation: Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since O and P are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

(W and S), (N and R) and (U and V) are pairs of students from the same school. Therefore, for 6 students, the other student from the same school can be uniquely determined.Hence, [1]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools. Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.

Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools.

The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}. If O and P are from the same school, then W& S, U & V, N & R are pairs from three schools. Nothing can be decided uniquely about the remaining 8 students.

Therefore, of the remaining 14 students, for remaining 6 students, the other student from the sameschool can be uniquely determined.

Correct Answer: 6

Time taken by you: 119 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 52 % 3) If Q and Y are from the same school, then the student from the same school as O is: P W R Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since Q and Y are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

(X and Z), (T and L) and (K and M) are definitely from same school. Remaining pairs of students from the same school cannot be determined. Hence, [4]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools. Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school. Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools. The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}. Either P or W is from the same school as O.

Correct Answer: Cannot be determined

Time taken by you: 182 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 4) If N and V are from the same school, then the student from the same school as U is: V S T Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The arrow placed alongside a student denotes that the other student from his school is in the same row or column. Also, each row will have exactly one pair of students from the same school and each column will have exactly one pair of students from the same school accounting for all eight pairs of students from the same school. Since N and V are from the same school, we can update the table as follows:

P and R are from the same school. U and S are from the same school. O and W are from the same school. Hence, [2]. Alternatively, K has a student from his school in the same row. N has a student from his school in the same column. Exactly two students from each school participated in the competition. Therefore K and N cannot be from the same school. Similarly, K and W cannot be from the same school. Also, N and W are not from the same school. With the help of similar logic, it can be concluded that K, N, P, Q, T, U, W and Z are students from eight different schools.

Assume that K and L are from the same school. So, the student from same school as T in his column has to be X. The student from same school as Z in his row has to be Y. Hence, Y cannot be in the same school as Q. Therefore, Q and M are from the same school.

Thus K & L, T & X, Z & Y and Q & M are pairs from four schools. The other possibility is K & M, Q & Y, Z & X and T & L.

Now, about the remaining 8 students, the two possibilities are {W& S, U & V, N & R, P & O} or (W & O, P & R, N & V, U & S}. If N and V are from the same school, then S is from the same school as U.

Correct Answer: S

Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 93 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined If x < 40, y > 60 and z < 20, then which of the following is definitely false? (x – y + z) < −10 (y − 4z) > 5 (z − 2y) > −100 None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (z - 2y) > -100

(z - 2y) > -100 Time taken by you: 3 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 %

undefined Mohan sold a certain number of chocolates and suffered a loss of Rs. 231. If he had sold 100 fewer chocolates, his loss would have reduced to Rs. 147. How many chocolates should he have sold so that his loss would be only Rs. 42? 25 50 75 100

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 50

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 152 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 87 %

undefined A class of students is divided into two groups – A and B. The number of all possible pairs of students in group A is thrice the number of all possible pairs of students in group B. When 4 students are transferred from group A to B, the number of all possible pairs of students in group A becomes equal to the earlier value of the number of all possible pairs of group B. How many possible pairs can be formed if both groups are combined into one single group? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 120 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 64 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 26 %

undefined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined For how many positive integers m is m3 – 5m2 – 25 m + 125 ≤ 0? 0 1 2 More than 2 Section

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: m3 – 5m2– 25m + 125 = 0 m2(m – 5) – 25(m – 5) = 0 (m2 – 25)(m – 5) = 0 (m + 5)(m – 5)2 = 0

Given that m is positive, m + 5 > 0. Also, (m – 5)2 always greater than or equal to 0. Hence, only for m = 5, the inequality holds. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 76 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 42 %

undefined If | log(x – 1) (x + 1) | = 2, then how many real values of x satisfy the givenequation? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 28 %

undefined A, B and C have a certain number of balls with them. If B gives 6 balls to C, then the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C will become 2 : 3 : 5. Instead, if C gives 4 balls to A, then the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C will become 6 : 9 : 10. If, from the original distribution, had B given 4 balls each to A and C, then what would have been the ratio of the number of balls with A, B and C? 6:7: 12 3:4: 6 6:7: 11 7:6: 12 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 : 7 : 12 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 186 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined The coordinates of two of the vertices of a triangle are (0, 0) and (0, 6). The coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle are (4, 3). Which of the following can be the coordinates of the third vertex of the triangle? (7, 0) (8, 0) (9, 0) (6, 0) Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (8, 0) Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined It is known that A and B are two real numbers such that A > B. The difference between 40% of A and 60% of B is the same as the difference between 30% of A and 44% of B. By what percentage can B be less than A? 30% 33.3% 37.5% 40%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 37.5% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 128 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined What is the minimum value of |x – 2| + |2.25 – x| + |3 – x|, where x is a real number? 1 1.25 2 2.25

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: 2 = x = 2.25 : f(x) = x – 2 + 2.25 – x + 3 – x = 3.25 – x 2.25 = x = 3 : f(x) = x – 2 + x – 2.25 + 3 – x = x – 1.25 f(x) will attain its minimum value at x = 2.25. Minimum value of |x – 2| + |2.25 – x| + |3 – x| = 1 Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 1 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Raju has got a birthday cap on his birthday. It is in the shape of a hollow right circular cone with radius of the base 9 cm and height 12 cm. What is the radius of the largest tennis ball (which is spherical in shape) that can be completely enclosed within the cap? 4 cm 3.5 cm 4.5 cm 4 cm Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4.5 cm Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined Ranveer bought a new motorbike on loan for 2 years at 12% compound interest without paying any down payment. If the interest accrued in the second year was Rs. 6,048, what was the cost of the motorbike? It is known that the loan’s principal amount was equal to the cost of the motorbike? Rs. 40,000 Rs. 50,000 Rs. 48,000 Rs. 45,000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the principal amount be Rs. P. ? Interest at the end of the first year = P × 0.12 × 1 = Rs. 0.12P Principal for the second year = P + 0.12P = 1.12P ? Interest for the second year = 1.12P × 0.12 × 1 = 0.1344P = 6048 ? P = 45000 Hence, [4]. Correct Answer: Rs. 45,000 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined

45° 15°

60° 30°

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30° Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined How many distinct numbers can be formed using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 (without repetition) such that they lie between 2000 and 4000? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Number of numbers of the form 2 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24

Number of numbers of the form 2 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 Number of numbers of the form 3 _ _ _ = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 Therefore, requiredanswer is 48. Correct Answer: 48 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined Given that (l, m), (m, n) and (n, l) are the roots of the equation x2 – 3ax + 6 = 0, x2 – 3bx + 10 = 0 and x2 – 3cx + 15 = 0 respectively. If l, m and n are natural numbers, then what is the value of (a – b + c)? 2 3 4 6

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 145 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 78 %

undefined Mishka selects a single-digit number in base 10 and expresses its square in bases 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. She adds these 7 representations as if they were decimal numbers. Which of the following cannot be the unit’s digit of the sum? 0 1 4 8

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: We can tabulate the possible answers as follows:

Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 14 %

undefined Virat and Anushka are standing on the first floor of Palladium mall in Mumbai. They want to go to the ground floor using an escalator. On the escalator, Virat moves with a constant speed of 10 steps/second while Anushka moves with a constant speed of X steps/second. When the escalator moves downward at a constant speed, Virat takes 150 steps while Anushka takes 126 steps to reach the ground floor. If the escalator has 210 steps, what is the value of X? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 6 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined For an arithmetic progression with terms a n, the average of a6, a7, a8, a9 and a10 is 26 and the average of a11, a12, a13, a14 and a15 is 41. What is the sum of the first fifteen terms of the same AP? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Alternatively, The terms a1, …., a5, a6, … a10, a11, …, a15 are in AP. ? Average of first fifteen terms of the AP = a8 Average of (a6, ….., a10) = a8 = 26 ? Sum of the first fifteen terms of the AP = 26 × 15 = 390 Correct Answer: 390 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 112 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined While calculating the average score of 20 students, Jennifer took the marks ofone student less by 20 than his actual score. The average computed by her had a percentage error of 1%. What was the correct average of the marks scored by the 20 students? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 100 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined Find the area (in cm2) of the largest regular hexagon that can be fit inside a rectangle with dimensions 10 cm × 15 cm.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined

311 312 313 314

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 312

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 101 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 81 %

undefined In how many ways can you distribute 25 identical chocolates among Alex, Benjamin and Chris such that Alex receives at least one chocolate, Benjamin receives at least two chocolates and Chris receives at least three chocolates? 969 210 420 231

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 210 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined In a milk shop, three different types of milk – P, Q and R are sold. The concentrations of milk in P, Q and R are 72%, 81% and c% respectively. If 200 ml of P when mixed with X ml of R, produces milk having 90% concentration and 200 ml of Q when mixed with X ml of R produces a milk concentration of 93%, find X. 600 500 400 300

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 400 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 165 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined In a class, each student likes at least one of the four colours – Red, Blue, Green and Black. 90% like at least 2 colours, 70% like at least 3 colours and 30% like all four colours. What percentage of the students like either one colour or exactly three colours? 30% 40% 50% 60%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Percentage of students who like exactly 1 colour = 100 – 90 = 10% Percentage of students who like exactly 3 colours = 70 – 30 = 40% Therefore, required percentage = 10 + 40 = 50% Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 50% Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 82 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined ABCDEFGH is a cuboid with edges AD and AE of equal length and AB = 2AD. Point M is the centre of face EFGH and point N is the centre of face BCGF. What is the ratio of the lengths of AM and AN?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 62 %

undefined Manan, Naman and Omar entered into a partnership. The ratio of their investments was a : b : c and the ratio of the periods of their investments was b : c : a. If it is known that the ratio of the profit shares of Manan and Naman is equal to the ratio of the profit shares of Naman and Omar, then which of the following is true? a2 = bc b2 = ac c2 = ab a= bc Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: a2 = bc Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined Consider the equations x = a + m and mx + 2 = 0. Ifm and a are real numbers, then what is the minimum possible value of |a|?

None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 81 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Bulbs B1, B2, B3, … B8 and B9 are connected in series in that order to a light a design system. Bulb B1 flickers at the instant the system is turned on and then the fourth bulb flickers after every 5 seconds (B5 after 5 seconds, B9 after 10 seconds, B4 after 15 seconds, and so on). If the system was turned on at 10:00:00 hrs, then which bulb flickered at 10:05:30 hrs? B4 B6 B3 B8 Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: B4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined Xavier and Yohana simultaneously start running towards point C on a straight line from the points A and B respectively with constant speeds ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Point B is between points A and C such that AB : BC = 2 : 5. Once they reach point C, they immediately turn back and run towards their starting point. On their return journey from point C, if they cross each other at point D such that AD : BD = 3 : 1, then what is the ratio a : b? 3: 1 9: 11 1: 3 11 : 9 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11 : 9 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 119 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined A class has 25 students with roll numbers from 1 to 25. Five students are selected at random from the class. What is the probability that exactly two students have odd numbered roll numbers?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 %

undefined Zach and Liz have a son John. Liz’s present age is four times the age of her son’s present age. Zach was as old as Liz is now when Liz was seven times as old as John was back then. After 25 years, Zach will be twice as old as John will be then. Find the sum of the present ages of all Zach, Liz and John. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let the present ages of Liz and John be 4x and x respectively. Let Zach’s age be 4x years ‘m’ years ago. Therefore, his present age is (4x + m)years. Also, (4x – m) = 7(x – m) x = 2m The present ages of Zach, Liz and John are 9m, 8m and 2m years respectively. 9m + 25 = 2 × (2m + 25) m=5 The sum of the present ages of all the members of the family = 9m + 8m + 2m = 19m = 95 years Therefore, the required answer is 95.

Correct Answer: 95 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 91 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined OAB is a quadrant of a circle. Square OCDE is drawn inside it. Inside this square, quadrant DCPE is drawn. Inside this quadrant, square PRDQ is drawn. This process is continued infinite times. What is the ratio of the sum of the areas of all the quadrants to the sum of the areas of all the squares?

11 : 7 22 : 7 14 : 11

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 11 : 7 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 118 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 %

undefined A and B are given a job to complete together. When A works 3 hours a day for 6 days and B works 4 hours a day for 8 days, then the job is completed. If B matches A’s work output per hour, then he needs to work only for 4 days (instead of 8 days) for the entire job to be done by them together (A works for the same number of hours and days as before and B works for the same number of hours per day as before). If A matches B’s work output per hour and they both begin the job together and work exactly 8.5 hours a day, then how many days will it take for them to complete the job together? 4 days 5 days 6 days

7 days

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 4 days Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 192 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. The contemporary theory of what is standardly referred to as economic rationality is descended from Adam Smith’s egoistic model of economic behaviour; it is based on a much more sophisticated and quantitatively precise but still-idealized model of the psychology of individual choice. The modern discipline of decision theory has permitted a great increase in the exactness of what we can say about this type of human motivation, by introducing quantitative measures of subjective degrees of belief and subjective degrees of preference. If, for example, on a cloudy day you have to decide whether or not to take an umbrella when you go out, you face four possibilities: (1) rain and umbrella; (2) no rain and umbrella; (3) rain and no umbrella; (4) no rain and no umbrella. Obviously, your decision will depend both on your estimate of the likelihood of rain and on how much you mind getting wet, or alternatively how much you mind carrying an umbrella when it isn’t raining, but decision theory makes this more precise. It says your choice is explained by the fact that you assign a probability p between zero and one to the prospect of rain, and (ignoring misty in-between states) a probability of one minus p to the prospect of no rain, and that you assign a desirability, positive or negative, to each of the possibilities (1) to (4). By multiplying the probability and the desirability for each of these outcomes, one can calculate what is called the “expected value” of each of them, and therefore the expected value of taking an umbrella and of not taking an umbrella. The rational choice is to do what has the higher expected value. Decision theory applies this kind of calculus to choices among alternatives of any complexity, with any possible assignment of subjective probabilities and desirabilities. With the help of game theory, it can be extended to multi-person interactions, as in a market economy. Decision theory assigns these supposed quantifiable psychological states to individuals only on the basis of an idealization. They are not discovered by asking people to report their subjective probabilities and desirabilities: in general, people do not have introspective access to these numbers. Rather, precise psychological states of this type are assigned by the theory itself, on the basis of something to which people do have access, namely their preferences or rankings (better, worse, indifferent) among alternatives. This by itself does not imply that the states are fictional: real but unobservable underlying causes can often be inferred from observable effects. The fiction comes from the way the inference proceeds in this case. Given a sufficiently extensive set of preferences (rankings of alternatives) by an individual, it is possible, employing relatively simple laws, to assign to that individual a set of subjective probabilities and desirabilities that would account for those preferences,if the individual were rational in the sense of the theory. But since rationality in the sense of the theory involves such superhuman capacities as immunity to logical error, instantaneous calculation of logical consequences, and assigning equal probability and desirability to all possibilities that are logically equivalent, it is clear that no actual humans are rational in this sense. So if we use the theory of economic rationality to think about the behaviour of real human beings, we are treating themas if they were superrational; we are employing a useful fiction, which allows us to bring human action under quantitative laws. The fiction is useful only for certain purposes. If it is not to lead us astray, we have to recognise the ways in which it deviates from reality, and to correct for those deviations when they make a difference that matters. This is, in fact, the concern of the recently developed field of behavioural economics, which tries to identify the consequences of systematic deviations of actual human behaviour from the standards of classical economic rationality. For example, people often fail to count logically equivalent possibilities as equally desirable: an outcome described in terms of the probability of death will be evaluated differently from the same outcome described in terms of the probability of survival. If we try to formulate laws of human psychology, we will inevitably have to ignore a great deal of the messy complexity of actual human life. This is sometimes legitimate, provided that we recognize the idealization and are prepared to restore the complexity when necessary—when, for example, assuming the rationality of every free market would send us off an economic cliff. 1) The main conclusion of the passage is that the theory of economic rationality: is a flawed theory that is based on an incorrect view of human nature relies on an unrealistic view of human behaviour that has now influenceddecision theory is incompatible with actual human behaviour and knowing its limitations can help economies avoid major pitfalls no longer valid since it ignores the fact that human behaviour oftenoperates outside the boundaries of rationality. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question: The passage begins by telling us that, what economists routinely refer to as ‘economic rationality’ has roots in Adam smith’s model of economic behavior. The passage then explains how modern decision theory achieves accuracy by ignoring subjective probabilities and desirabilities of individual choices. The author spends the better part of the passage debunking the central premise of economic rationality. He explains that human beings are not super-rational and do not always make decisions that are rationally the best for them. In the last two paragraphs he concedes that observing deviations from economic rationality, as is done in the field of behavioral economics, can yield useful results and help us avoid economic disasters. Option 3 best captures this. Option 1 correctly captures the argument of the passage that economic rationality is a flawed theory but it does not capture the idea expressed in the last paragraph. Option 2 incorrectly brings in decision theory. The main conclusion of the passage is not about decision theory but about ‘economic rationality.’ Option 4 is incorrect since the author does not a claim that economic rationality is no more valid, nor is it the conclusion of the passage. So the answer choice is option 3.

Correct Answer: is incompatible with actual human behaviour and knowing its limitations can help economies avoid major pitfalls

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 212 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 53 % 2) The author is most likely to agree with all of the following statements about psychological states as used in decision theory EXCEPT? Not all psychological states are necessarily quantifiable. Psychological states are fictional and hence unobservable. Precise psychological states are not defined by people but by decision theory. People cannot quantify the desirability of a psychological state but canonly indicate a preference or lack of it for the same. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Options 1, 3 and 4 are statements that the writer is likely to agree with. They can all be derived from paragraph 3, in which the writer states, “Decision theory assigns these supposed quantifiable psychological states to individuals only on the basis of an idealization. They are not discovered by asking people to report their subjective probabilities and desirabilities: in general, people do not have introspective access to these numbers.” Option 1 states that, “not all psychological states are necessarily quantifiable.” When the writer says 'supposed quantifiable psychological states’, it implies that "some psychological states are not quantifiable.” So, option 1 is not an exception and can be eliminated. The writer will agree with option 3 as it is explicitly stated that decision theory assigns values on the basis of idealization and not by any concrete definition. So, we can eliminate option 3. The first sentence of the paragraph which reads “Decision theory applies this kind of calculus to choices among alternatives of any complexity, with any possible assignment of subjective probabilities and desirabilities,” makes option 4 correct and not an exception. However, Option 2 states the exact opposite of what is stated in the first sentence of the fourth paragraph which reads, “this by itself does not imply that the states are fictional: real but unobservable underlying causes can often be inferred from observable effects. The fiction comes from the way the inference proceeds in this case.” In other words, psychological states real but unobservable, they have to be inferred from their effects. Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Psychological states are fictional and hence unobservable.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 60 % 3) The passage suggests that human beings are prone to all of the following EXCEPT? taking time to estimate the logical implications of their actions or decisions making logical errors being rational in the sense of decision theory. giving unequal preferences to logically equivalent possibilities Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. All options except 3 are mentioned in this sentence in the fourth paragraph — “But since rationality in the sense of the theory involves such superhuman capacities as immunity to logical error, instantaneous calculation of logical consequences, and assigning equal probability and desirability to all possibilities that are logically equivalent, it is clear that no actual humans are rational in this sense.” Option 1 is implied as the writer calls the instantaneous calculation of logical consequences a superhuman capacity. So human beings are prone to take time to estimate logical implications of their actions. Eliminate option 1 Option 2 is explicit in the statement that human beings do not have immunity to logical errors. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Giving equal preferences to logically equivalent possibilities is attributed to super humans and not actual human beings. Hence human beings are susceptible to giving unequal preferences to equal possibilities. This eliminates option 4. Option 3 is correct. Being rational in the sense of decision theory is said to be impossible for actual human beings. Hence option 3 provides the exception that we are looking for. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: being rational in the sense of decision theory.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 4) “The fiction is useful only for certain purposes”. The author uses the phrase "this fiction" to refer to which of the following? the inability of human beings to make super-rational decisions the failure of people to ascribe equal desirability to logically equivalent possibilities the quantitative laws used to describe human behavior the idealization of human behavior to correspond to rational objective Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The quoted text, “the fiction is useful only for certain purposes”, is in the beginning of paragraph 5. The last sentence of the preceding paragraph says that the decision theory treats people as if they were super-rational. And that we have to recognize the ways in which decision theory deviates from reality. Earlier in the passage the writer states, “Decision theory assigns these supposed quantifiable psychological states to individuals only on the basis of an idealization” So the fiction is essentially an incorrect or unreal view of human behavior. Option 4 correctly captures this. Options 1 and 2 are facts. That people are unable to make super rational decisions, and that people fail to ascribe equal desirability to logically equivalent possibilities, are stated in the passage as facts, and not fiction even by commonsense standards. So we can eliminate options 1 and 2 Option 3 is a sweeping generalization. Though the writer does mention that in decision theory, quantifying human behavior is based incorrectly on idealization, to say that, generally, “the quantitative laws used to describe human behavior” is fiction is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence option 3 is incorrect and must be eliminated. So, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: the idealization of human behavior to correspond to rational objective

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 42 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 43 % 5) The primary purpose of the second paragraph is to show using an example how decision theory incorrectly quantifies subjectivedegrees of belief and subjective degrees of preference. illustrate how the subjectivity involved in human decision-making is quantified inthe discipline of decision science. highlight how the desired exactness can be achieved in understanding humandecision making by introducing quantitative measures demonstrate how people can always make rational decisions by introducingquantitative measures into their decisionmaking. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The first paragraph ends by stating the purpose of the second paragraph. “The modern discipline of decision theory has permitted a great increase in the exactness of what we can say about … human motivation, by introducing quantitative measures of subjective degrees of belief and subjective degrees of preference.” Then, the second paragraph begins, “If, for example, on a cloudy day you have to decide whether or not to take an umbrella when you go out…” So the second paragraph is an example the principle the writer has spelt out in the first paragraph. Option 2 explains this purpose precisely. Option 1 mentions that the second paragraph intends to show that this argument is incorrect, which is nowhere mentioned in the paragraph. Option 3, paints the author’s view of exactness by introducing quantitative measures in a positive light, whereas the author presents it is an objective light. Option 4, is incorrect since the author never makes a point that using quantitative measures can always help us make rational decisions. So, options 1, 3, 4 are incorrect and get eliminated. The scoring option in this question is option 2.

Correct Answer: illustrate how the subjectivity involved in human decision-making is quantified inthe discipline of decision science.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 32 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 37 % 6) “If we try to formulate laws of human psychology, we will inevitably have to ignorea great deal of the messy complexity of actual human life”. Which of the following best captures the reason why the author makes this statement? Human behaviour is too vast and varied to be codified into simple laws. Human behaviour is unpredictable and does not conform to laws. Human beings are incapable of consistently making rational choices. Human behaviour cannot always be explained in psychological terms. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The concluding paragraph of the essay begins with the text quoted in the question. The reason for ignoring the "messy complexity of actual human life" to create mathematical models of human behavior is explained in the concluding part of the essay. The writer says, “This is sometimes legitimate, provided that we recognize the idealization, and are prepared to restore the complexity when necessary.” In simple words, the writer states that idealizing and reducing human behavior on instrumental grounds is a legitimate exercise only as long as we acknowledge that life is more complex than the mathematics that we have reduce it to, and are ready to give them up and embrace life whenever circumstances require us to do so. Option 1 best captures this and becomes our answer. Option 2 is incorrect since the author does not say that human behavior is unpredictable. Complexity does not imply unpredictability. That human behavior does not conform to laws is too general a statement seen in the light of the paragraph about economic rationality. Option 3 is incorrect because the consistency of making rational choices is again not stated or implied in the passage nor related to the quoted text. So we can eliminate option 3. Option 4, similarly, goes beyond the scope of the passage. That human behaviour cannot be explained in psychological terms is an argument that is neither stated nor implied in the passage. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Human behaviour is too vast and varied to be codified into simple laws.

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 %

undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

The complexity of modern problems often precludes any one person from fully understanding them. Factors contributing to rising obesity levels, for example, include transportation systems and infrastructure, media, convenience foods, changing social norms, human biology and psychological factors. Designing an aircraft carrier, to take another example, requires knowledge of nuclear engineering, naval architecture, metallurgy, hydrodynamics, information systems, military protocols, the exercise of modern warfare and, given the long building time, the ability to predict trends in weapon systems. The multidimensional or layered character of complex problems undermines the principle of meritocracy: the idea that the ‘best person’ should be hired. There is no best person. When putting together an oncological research team, a biotech company would not construct a multiple-choice test and hire the top scorers, or hire people whose resume`s score highest according to some performance criteria. Instead, they would seek diversity. They would build a team of people who bring diverse knowledge bases, tools and analytic skills. That team would more likely than not include mathematicians. And the mathematicians would likely study dynamical systems and differential equations. Believers in a meritocracy might grant that teams ought to be diverse but then argue that meritocratic principles should apply within each category. Thus the team should consist of the ‘best’ mathematicians, the ‘best’ oncologists, and the ‘best’ biostatisticians from within the pool. That position suffers from a similar flaw. Even within a knowledge domain, no test or criteria applied to individuals will produce the best team. Each of these domains possesses such depth and breadth, that no test can exist. Consider the field of neuroscience. Upwards of 50,000 papers were published last year covering various techniques, domains of enquiry and levels of analysis, ranging from molecules and synapses up through networks of neurons. Given that complexity, any

attempt to rank a collection of neuroscientists from best to worst, as if they were competitors in a race, must fail. What could be true is that given a specific task and the composition of a particular team, one scientist would be more likely to contribute than another. Optimal hiring depends on context. Optimal teams will be diverse. Evidence for this claim can be seen in the way that papers and patents that combine diverse ideas tend to rank as high-impact. Yet the fallacy of meritocracy persists. Corporations, non-profits, governments, universities and even preschools test, score and hire the ‘best’. This all but guarantees not creating the best team. Ranking people by common criteria produces homogeneity. And when biases creep in, it results in people who look like those making the decisions. That’s not likely to lead to breakthroughs. As Astro Teller, CEO of X, the ‘moon shoot factory’ at Alphabet, Google’s parent company, has said: ‘Having people who have different mental perspectives is what’s important. If you want to explore things you haven’t explored, having people who think just like you is not the best way.’ We must see the forest. 1) What, according to the author, is the fallacy of meritocracy? The view that superlative ability or performance should be prioritized above diversity when hiring people The view that problem-solving teams should be diverse rather than made up of the ‘best’ people in each field The idea that only the ‘best’ individuals in a field, rather than teams of people,can solve complex problems The idea that the best person should be identified and hired to solve the complexmodern problems Video Explanation: Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [1] is a misinterpretation of the fallacy of meritocracy as described in this passage. The author does not consider it a fallacy to want to hire people with superlative ability or performance – rather, his point is that it is impossible to identify the ‘best’ person to hire for solving complex problems. So option [1] can be rejected. Option [2] is incorrect, as it describes the view that the author recommends as an alternative to the fallacy of meritocracy, rather than the fallacy itself. So option [2] is eliminated. Option [3] is incorrect, as it implies that the fallacy of meritocracy privileges individuals over teams, which is not necessarily the case. Option [3] can thus be ruled out. Option [4] is correct. Refer to paragraph 2: ‘The multidimensional or layered character of complex problems undermines the principle of meritocracy: the idea that the “best person” should be hired. There is no best person.’ Throughout the passage, the author argues against this adherence to meritocracy, which he considers a fallacy, as adhering to it is neither strictly possible nor necessarily desirable in order to produce quality work: ‘Optimal teams will be diverse. Evidence for this claim can be seen in the way that papers and patents that combine diverse ideas tend to rank as high-impact. Yet the fallacy of meritocracy persists.’ Therefore, option [4] is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: The idea that the best person should be identified and hired to solve the complexmodern problems

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 106 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 33 % 2) Which of these, if true, would most strengthen the author’s assertion that‘there is no best person’ for any job? Every field of knowledge today is vast and complex, requiring a high level ofunderstanding of each aspect. Training in a specific field of knowledge often ignores training people in soft skillssuch as effective communication and almost all jobs require such skills. The complexity inherent in any field of knowledge today is too high to beadequately evaluated by any test. Training on the job in any field of expertise has been consistently proved to bemore effective in creating people suited for the field than informing potential job seekers through academic courses on the subject.

Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Refer paragraph 2: “The multidimensional or layered character of complexproblems undermines the principle of meritocracy: the idea that the ‘best person’ should be hired. There is no best person.” Thus the author believes that it is the complexity of modern problems that make the idea of a ‘best person’ an overly simplistic one. Option 1 is incorrect. It states that a high degree of understanding is required, which suggests that a person with this high degree of understanding would be the ‘best person’. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The option implies that training in communication skills would resolve the issue of finding the best person for a job. Reject option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Training on the job maybe more effective but this does not oppose the idea that ‘there is no best person’. It is a statement that misses the point of the question. Reject option 4. Option 3 is correct. Refer paragraph 3: “Even within a knowledge domain, no test or criteria applied to individuals will produce the best team. Each of these domains possesses such depth and breadth, that no test can exist.” Option 3 reiterates this point and leads to the conclusion that there can be no best person for a job as there is no test that could indicate such a ‘best person’. Thus the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The complexity inherent in any field of knowledge today is too high to beadequately evaluated by any test.

Time taken by you: 2 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 57 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) What does the author mean by saying ‘We must see the forest’? Instead of focusing on the perfect individual for a job, one must focus onthe best team for the job. It is important to have a diverse team to tackle the different individual issues in a project or job. Any specific problem needs to be seen from the perspective of a teamand not from that of a member of the team. It makes sense to have a diverse team with different specializations inorder to avoid homogeneity. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is a difficult one. Option [2] is incorrect. While the importance on a variety of perspectives is a point that the author makes throughout the passage, it is not what the quoted sentence means. So option [2] can be ruled out. Option [3] is incorrect. The phrase sums up the author’s position on the idea of meritocracy which he points out, is based on wrong ideas about the individual contributor. Reject option 3. Option [4] can be ruled out on the same grounds as option [2] – that they do not capture the meaning of the quoted sentence. Option [1] is correct. The quoted sentence is the last sentence of the passage. It sums up the attitude that the author believes is essential to the hiring process. In the course of the passage, the author claims that modern problems are too complex for any individual to fully understand or solve. So he advocates tackling them using a diverse team of people, all of whom bring different skills and knowledge to the table, which would allow them to collectively understand the problem as a whole. The quote therefore refers to this focus on the whole, or the team, instead of the best individual. Hence, the right answer is option [1]. Correct Answer: Instead of focusing on the perfect individual for a job, one must focus onthe best team for the job.

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 12 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Western civilization in the first half of the twentieth century was not very civilized. Human rights were trampled. Class war destroyed entire political systems. There were large-scale violent conflicts and much ethnic cleansing. Given this history, Westerners are in no position to lecture on civil liberties or humane values. It is also worth noting that the global march toward democracy, which seemed nearly inexorable after the fall of the Berlin Wall, now seems to be reversing. According to Stanford University’s Larry Diamond, several countries that were democracies at the beginning of this century have since shifted to different systems. Of course, elections alone do not a democracy make. Consider those cases when elections empower a majority ethnic or religious group, which then rides roughshod over minorities – an outcome that has been seen all too often in the Balkans, for example.

Then there are the cases when the election of a leader is treated as if it somehow legitimizes the subsequent emergence of dictatorship. This has been the case in Russia, which, since President Vladimir Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000, has become a Potemkin democracy. In a real democracy, free and fair elections are complemented more broadly by the rule of law, due process, an independent judiciary, an active civil society, and freedom of the press, worship, assembly, and association. In fact, it is theoretically possible – though unlikely – for political systems to have all these elements without elections at all. Democracies depend on institutional software, not just hardware. The people who make them work accept a set of norms that often do not have to be codified. The problem comes when the people – or, worse, their leaders – refuse to adhere to democratic norms. That is what is happening today in the United States, as US President Donald Trump challenges some of the foundational rules, norms, and principles of American democracy. While some parts of America’s democratic political system – for example, the judicial check on executive authority – have proved resilient, others are breaking down. But Trump is a consequence of this breakdown, not its cause. Economic challenges, together with fears about migration, have created similar pressures in Europe, reflected in sizable support for right-wing populist parties in elections in Germany and France in the last year, as well as the rise of “illiberal democracy” in Hungary and Poland. Countering such assaults on democracy will require political leaders to show courage and vision – as French President Emmanuel Macron has so far – in defending the values that underpin democratic governance. In the European Union, this means that leaders must not turn a blind eye to elected governments’ assault on the institutions that safeguard freedom. After all, the EU not just a customs union; it is a union of shared values. If it fails to act accordingly, it will crumble. In the 1930s, some admired Adolf Hitler’s autobahns and Benito Mussolini’s success in getting the trains to run on time. But it was clearly not worth the cost. The same is true of China today. Yes, the country has become an economic powerhouse in recent decades. But if a system cannot survive basic dissent – from legal challenges to television parodies – can it really be as strong as its leaders claim? And if a crackdown on corruption is carried out by a corrupt dictatorship, can it really be considered legitimate? Contrast this with India, which may have lost the economic race in the last few years, but has held together since independence, despite vast ethnic, religious, and linguistic differences – without needing to create a Bamboo Gulag. This does not mean that there is no dissent or disagreement. But, no matter how much Indians argue, they are not locking up or “disappearing” dissidents, thanks to the safety valves afforded by their democracy. No society can manage indefinitely without such mechanisms. Even Karl Marx, I think, would not have disagreed. 1) The primary purpose of the passage is to ... point out that even though the economic progress of democratic countries may be slow, democracy protects the fundamental rights of the people. state the importance of safety mechanisms in a democracy to protect dissidents and thereby defend the values that underpin democratic governance. emphasize the current need to preserve liberal democracies as they are the best form of government that can safeguard the natural, civil and political rights of citizens. denounce dictatorships and authoritarianism even though several countries that were democracies at the beginning of this century have since shifted to different systems. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. The passage states that several countries have shifted from democracy to other systems in the recent past. Passage also gives examples of how democratic values can be undermined by elected governments and goes on to explain the characteristics of a real democracy. It states that the social and political freedom – “safety valves” & “not locking up or‘disappearing’ dissidents” – offered by a real democracy outweigh the economic progress that other systems government might offer. The writer refers to Hitler’s’ autobahn and Benito Mussolini’s success in getting the trains to run on time, and remarks that it was clearly not the worth the cost; costs in terms of security and liberty. Thus, the purpose of the passage is to defend true form of democracy against the rise of other systems like dictatorships and authoritarianism. Option 1 is incorrect. Though option 1 is factually correct, the purpose of the passage is not merely to state that democracy protects people’s fundamental rights, but also to highlight the current assault on democracy in several traditionally democratic countries like the US and others, and to drive home the need to preserve true democracy. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions the importance of safety valves that must be present in a true democracy. The author mentions the security that a true democracy offers to dissidents; however these are advanced as arguments in favor of his main thesis and not as purpose of the passage. Hence, eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. The primary purpose of the passage is not to denounce or criticize dictatorships and other forms of government but to defend true democracy as the best form of government. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. It briefly captures the main purpose of the passage. It mentions the merits of a real democracy over other systems and the safety valves (social and political freedom) afforded by a democracy. Hence, the correct answer choice is option 3.

Correct Answer: emphasize the current need to preserve liberal democracies as they are the best form of government that can safeguard the natural, civil and political rights of citizens.

Time taken by you: 374 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 129 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) The author uses “Potemkin democracy” in the fourth paragraph to imply that democracy in Russia is more a façade, while in reality Russia hasbecome a dictatorship after President Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000. President Vladimir Putin, since his first electoral victory in 2000, governsRussia according to the questionable tenets of democracy laid down by Potemkin. The election of Putin as the President of Russia in 2000 cannot legitimizethe subsequent emergence of dictatorship. Russia, in the fundamentals of its constitutional system is not democratic. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. It is not necessary to know the technical meaning of Potemkin democracy to answer this question. One can easily guess the meaning of the term using the surrounding information in the passage. However, Potemkin means: having a false or deceptive appearance, especially one presented for the purpose of propaganda. Historically the term Potemkin originated in the 1930s, from Grigori Aleksandrovich Potyomkin, a favourite of Empress Catherine II of Russia, who reputedly gave the order for sham villages to be built for the empress's tour of the Crimea in 1787. So we use it today to refer to certain news channels as ‘a Potemkin news network, set up only to give the appearance of a free press’ Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not imply any doctrine or tenets laid down by Potemkin that are followed by Putin. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The author states that election of a leader cannot legitimize the subsequent emergence of dictatorship, but does not allude to this fact as “Potemkin democracy.” Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Whatever information the passage includes about Russia is not sufficient to comment on the fundamentals of its constitutional system. The option can be eliminated as data inadequate. However, in fact, constitutionally Russia is a democracy. Eliminate option 4.

Option 1 is correct. The passage states that “… the election of a leader is treated as if it somehow legitimizes the subsequent emergence of dictatorship. This has been the case in Russia, which, since President Vladimir Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000, has become a "Potemkin democracy.” Essentially, this implies that Russia has become a dictatorship since Putin’s electoral victory in 2000 while merely outwardly pretending to be a democracy. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: democracy in Russia is more a façade, while in reality Russia hasbecome a dictatorship after President Putin’s first electoral victory in 2000.

Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 75 % 3) The author will most likely agree with which of the following statements? China has become an economic powerhouse not because of but despiteits political system which does not tolerate dissent. It is doubtful whether political systems other than democracy can be liberal. The safety valves afforded by Indian democracy ensure that there isno dissidence in the country. A crackdown on corruption in China cannot be considered legitimate. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not speculate on reasons why China has become an economic powerhouse. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage states that the safety valves in the Indian democracy ensure that there is no dissidence. Passage mentions that dissidence in India does not meet the same fate as in some other democracies where they are locked up or ‘disappeared.’ Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option alters the intended meaning by eliminating certain words. The author’s innuendo in the question “And if a crackdown on corruption is carried out by a corrupt dictatorship, can it really be considered legitimate?’ Option 4 makes it categorical that no crackdown on corruption in china can be considered legitimate. This is a misrepresentation. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. The passage states that “In a real democracy, free and fair elections are complemented more broadly by the rule of law, due process, an independent judiciary, an active civil society, and freedom of the press, worship, assembly, and association. In fact, it is theoretically possible –though unlikely – for political systems to have all these elements without elections at all.” Thus, it implies that it is unlikely for political systems other than democracy to follow “the rule of law, due process …” etc. i.e. in essence to be tolerant or liberal. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: It is doubtful whether political systems other than democracy can be liberal.

Time taken by you: 88 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 22 % 4) The author would most likely disapprove of all of the following hypothetical events EXCEPT: Electoral victory of a populist party which considers social hierarchy andsocial inequality as inevitable for the normal functioning of the society. Ethnic cleansing of a population deemed to breed terrorists. The judiciary blocking an executive order issued by the elected leader of a country. A labor camp organized by the elected government to re-educate thetribal population. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The question is essentially asking which hypothetical event the author will agree with. Option 1 is incorrect. In the 7th paragraph, the author disapproves of the rise of populist right-wing parties in Germany and France. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. In the 3rd paragraph, the author disapproves of a majority ethnic or religious group riding roughshod over minorities. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. In the last paragraph, the author states that India has held together since independence despite a variety of differences among its people without the need to create a Bamboo Gulag. (Gulag means: a system of labour camps maintained in the Soviet Union from 1930 to 1955 in which many people died. Bamboo gulag refers to such labor camps in Vietnam) Thus, the author would not approve of the formation of a labor camp for ‘re-educating’ or converting a minority population. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. In the 6th paragraph, the author states that “While some parts of America’s democratic political system – for example, the judicial check on executive authority – have proved resilient, others are breaking down.” This implies that the author approves of the resilience provided by the judiciary to the executive authority. Also, in the last paragraph the author states the importance of “safety valves afforded by their [Indian] democracy.” This implies that the author is of the view that checks and balances must counter the concentration of power. Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: The judiciary blocking an executive order issued by the elected leader of acountry.

Time taken by you: 124 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 44 % 5) Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from the passage with regards to the European Union? It will crumble if its leaders fail to protect institutions that safeguard freedom. It is facing economic and social challenges. It is founded on shared ideals among its member countries. Its leaders have shown courage and vision in defending the values thatunderpin democratic governance. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage clearly states that the European Union’s leaders must not turn a blind eye to elected governments’ assault on the institutions that safeguard freedom. Thus, option 1 can be inferred. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that economic challenges and migration have created pressures in Europe. Thus, option 2 is inferable and can be eliminated. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage clearly states that the EU is not just a customs union but a union of shared values. Thus we can eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage states that “Countering such assaults on democracy will require political leaders to show courage and vision – as French President Emmanuel Macron has so far – in defending the values that underpin democratic governance.” It then goes on to talk about the European Union. Thus the quoted statement is a general statement abouthow political leader should act to counter assaults on democracy. It does not reflect how EU’s leaders have acted. Thus, option 4 is not inferable and is the correct answer choice.

Correct Answer: Its leaders have shown courage and vision in defending the values thatunderpin democratic governance.

Time taken by you: 143 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 33 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 33 % 6) According to the author, Karl Marx would agree with which of the followingstatements? A political system that encourages censorship will ultimately lead to the downfall of a society. No society can manage indefinitely without dissent or disagreement. Holding a nation together is more important than winning the economic race. Safety valves afforded by a democracy are superior to those offered by other political systems. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Prior knowledge about Karl Marx is not necessary to answer this question. The passage is sufficiently clear about what Karl Marx would agree with. The reference is to Communism, (of Karl Marx) which is a theory or system of social organization in which all property is owned by the community and each person contributes and receives according to their ability and needs. Dissent is irrelevant in such a social organisation as the individual exists for the society and vice versa. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that a society cannot manage indefinitely without the safety features that protect dissidents or the democratic institutions. It doesn’t imply that society cannot manage without dissent itself. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant. The passage states that India, may have lost the economic race, but has held together since independence. The passage does not state or imply anything about Karl Marx’s view on holding a nation together. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is out of context. The author does not discuss whether Karl Marx would agree of a comparison of safety valves afforded by different political systems. Eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. The passage states that “… no matter how much Indians argue, they are not locking up or “disappearing” dissidents, thanks to the safety valves afforded by their democracy. No society can manage indefinitely without such mechanisms. Even Karl Marx, I think, would not have disagreed.” Thus, it implies that Karl Marx would have agreed that a society cannot manage indefinitely (or eventually fail) without the safety mechanisms that allow dissent and protect dissidents. To allow dissent means to NOT encourage censorship. Retain option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: A political system that encourages censorship will ultimately lead to the downfall of a society.

Time taken by you: 49 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 9 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 9 %

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undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. What do a strangely fading faraway star, an oddly shaped interstellar interloper in the solar system and a curious spate of UFO sightings by members of the U.S. military all have in common? They are all mysterious, for one thing—eye-catchingly

weird, yet still just hazy outlines that let the imagination run wild. All have recently generated headlines as possible signs of life and intelligence beyond Earth, of some mind-bogglingly advanced alien culture revealing its existence at last to our relatively primitive and planet-bound civilization. Yet their most salient shared trait so far is the certainty they provoke in most scientists, who insist these developments represent nothing so sensational. Ask a savvy astronomer or physicist about any of these oddities, and they will tell you, as they have time and time before: It’s not aliens. In fact, it’s never aliens. Far from being close-minded killjoys, most scientists in the “never aliens” camp desperately want to be convinced otherwise. Their default skeptical stance is a prophylactic against the wiles of wishful thinking, a dare to true believers to provide extraordinary evidence in support of extraordinary claims. What is really extraordinary, the skeptics say, is not so much the possibility of extraterrestrial intelligence but rather the notion that its existence nearby or visitation of Earth could be something easily unnoticed or overlooked. If aliens are out there—or even right here—in abundance, particularly ones wildly advanced beyond our state, why would incontrovertible proof of that reality be so annoyingly elusive? To put it more succinctly, as the nuclear physicist Enrico Fermi did more than a half century ago, “Where are they?” Given a 10-billion-year-old galaxy filled with stars and planets, and an Earth less than half that age, Fermi guessed we are unlikely to be the first technological culture on the galactic stage. If just one spacefaring civilization predated our own in the Milky Way, he calculated, even moving at a very languorous pace it should have had more than enough time to visit, explore and colonize every planetary system in the galaxy. Ever since, practitioners of the search for extraterrestrial intelligence (SETI) have been brainstorming about why we do not encounter glaringly obvious signposts of an interstellar diaspora: Maybe there are nigh-universal bottlenecks in the odds for the emergence of life, intelligence or high technology, and we are indeed alone. Maybe we are not alone at all, but interstellar travel is so hard that everyone just stays home. Maybe we are being quarantined, and UFOs are drone-like documentarians recording an intergalactic Planet Earth miniseries. Maybe our galaxy is bursting at the seams with alien civilizations, and we simply have not looked hard enough—presuming we are capable of properly looking at all. Even the know-it-alls in the “never aliens” crowd would concede that the diversity of possible answers to Fermi’s question says more about our ignorance than our knowledge. One of Fermi’s SETI-pioneering peers, the physicist Freeman Dyson, once summarized the situation thus: “Our imaginings about the ways that aliens might make themselves detectable are always like stories of black cats in a dark room. If there are any real aliens, they are likely to behave in ways that we never imagined.” Even so, he added, “the failure of one guess does not mean that we should stop looking”—particularly because whatever may keep our skies alien-free would likely keep the rest of the universe free of star-trekking humans as well. Contemplating Fermi’s question is a way of exploring pathways to our possible futures. Finding aliens—or coming up empty in our searches—has profound implications for our own ultimate cosmic fate. That is something to keep in mind while considering the latest near-hits (or near-misses), in the ongoing search for cosmic company. 1) When the writer says, “most scientists in the ‘never aliens’ camp, desperatelywant to be convinced otherwise,” she implies: The scientists in the “never aliens” camp strongly deny the existence of aliens. The scientists wish that true believers in aliens would fail in their effort to find evidence. The ‘never aliens” camp believes that looking for aliens is a futile exercise. The scientists are expressing their repressed hope of finding evidence of aliens. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The quoted text is the beginning of the second paragraph. The completesentence reads: Far from being close-minded killjoys, most scientists in the “never aliens” camp desperately want to be convinced otherwise. Their default skeptical stance is a prophylactic against the wiles of wishful thinking, a dare to true believers to provide extraordinary evidence in support of extraordinary claims.” To explain the stance of the non-believers the writer then quotes Enrico Fermi’s famous question, “where are they?” and explains the several reasons why evidence for the existence of aliens is unavailable. The non-existence of aliens is not emphatically stated, but, “even the know-it-alls in the “never aliens” crowd would concede that the diversity of possible answers to Fermi’s question says more about our ignorance than our knowledge.” This implies that the never aliens camp does not deny the existence of aliens but desperately wants evidence to convince themselves otherwise. This is clearly expressed in option 4. Option 1 is incorrect. The scientists of the ‘never aliens’ camp do not deny the existence of aliens, but they wish that there would be evidence so that they are convinced otherwise. This eliminates option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. If never aliens camp desperately wants to be convinced otherwise, the camp would wish that true believers in aliens , or the scientists who are looking for the evidence, would one day succeed in finding the evidence. We can eliminate option 2 as it is contrary to the passage. Option 3 appears to be true – the fourth paragraph mentions that we may not be capable of properly looking at all for aliens; however, this is only one of the possible answers to Fermi’s question. Hence it is incorrect to take it as the only answer. Eliminate option 3. Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: The scientists are expressing their repressed hope of finding evidence ofaliens.

Time taken by you: 295 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 213 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 67 % 2) One can infer from the passage that Enrico Fermi was: Skeptical about the possibility of intelligent life having existed outside theearth in our universe while some scientists proposed that they did. Certain that spacefaring civilizations had existed in the universe before humans as the galaxy significantly predated the earth. Confident that a technologically advanced culture predating humans had once existed in the universe. Bewildered by the lack of evidence for intelligent life outside of the earthas the existence of such life is plausible. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. The third paragraph mentions Enrico Fermi’s famous question “Where are they?”which is popularly known as Fermi Paradox. The passage explains this paradox: Given a 10-billion-year-old galaxy filled with stars and planets, and an Earth less than half that age, Fermi guessed we are unlikely to be the first technological culture on the galactic stage. If just one spacefaring civilization predated our own in the Milky Way, he calculated, even moving at a very languorous pace it should have had more than enough time to visit, explore and colonize every planetary system in the galaxy.” In simple words, it is puzzling that we have no evidence of the existence of aliens. Seen from another angle it can also mean that, lack of evidence proves that they don’t exist. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3 – Given a 10-billion-year-old galaxy filled with stars and planets, and an Earth less than half that age, if Enrico Fermi had guessed that we are unlikely to be the first technological culture on the galactic stage, it means that intelligent life must exist outside the Earth. Therefore reject option 1. Option 2 is eliminate because a space faring civilization is too specific an assumption about the possible aliens. Option 3 is incorrect. The question in fact highlights the confusion over the existence of aliens and does not reflect any confidence in a theory of their existence. Reject option 3. Thus, option 4 is right in its assessment, that Fermi’s question shows that he was bewildered by the lack of evidence for intelligent life outside of the earth as the existence of such life is so plausible. Thus option 4 answers this question correctly. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: Bewildered by the lack of evidence for intelligent life outside of the earthas the existence of such life is plausible.

Time taken by you: 273 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 58 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 3) According to the passage, the fact that the universe had been in existence for billions of years even before the earth formed, is: Indicative of the irrationality of the idea that life exists only on planet earth. The reason why it is impossible for aliens to not have contacted humans. A clue to the earth’s potential for encountering aliens in the near future. A sobering call to action for all the naysayers in the “never aliens” crowd. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 2 is incorrect in that the age of the galaxy is not related to the likelihood of aliens contacting humans. Similarly option 3 incorrectly relates the age of the universe to encounters with aliens in the near future. Reject options 2 and 3. Option 4 is incorrect. A call to action is not suggested for the ‘never aliens’ crowd in the passage. Reject option 4. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 3 explains the meaning of Enrico Fermi’s question where are they? The galaxy is said to be 10 billion years old and the earth less than half that age. Hence it is possible that life might have originated mush before it originated on earth. Hence the age of the galaxy in comparison to the age of the earth is invoked to imply that the point of view that life is unique to earth may be preposterous. Option 1 expresses the same idea. Hence option 1 correctly answers the question. Thus the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: Indicative of the irrationality of the idea that life exists only on planetearth.

Time taken by you: 74 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 % 4) The tone of the passage is: critical but hopeful. suspicious but speculative. speculative but hopeful. critical and speculative. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question, though tone questions generally tend to be difficult. Option 1 can be eliminated because the passage is not critical. Option 2 can be similarly eliminated for the word suspicious. The passage is popular science – commenting on the search for extraterrestrial intelligence. There is nothing suspicious about it. Option 4 can eliminated for the same reason as option 1, as the writer is not critical. Option 3 is correct. Both speculative and hopeful correctly describe the tone of the passage. It is speculative about the existence of alien life, and about the lack of evidence about its existence. However, the passage is hopeful in tone towards the end. On the issue whether we should stop looking for alien life, the writer strikes quite a positive note by projecting a future in which mankind may be undertaking interstellar travels, and the necessity to continue the search. Hence speculative and hopeful, or option 3, correctly describes the tone of the passage. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: speculative but hopeful.

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 27 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 54 % 5) The physicist Freeman Dyson used the example of “black cats in a dark room” in order to… Define the apparent reality for the human mind while it is formulating ideas about how alien civilisations might possibly be contacted Point to the limits of imagination in comprehending the alien civilisations and realities that are outside the range of human experience. Assert the impossibility of understanding alien civilisations with the help of human devices and current understanding of space. Define the physics of the possible human experience when it eventually encounters alien life. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Refer the last paragraph – the reference to the black cats ina dark room does not in any way define any apparent reality while the mind is formulating ideas of any kind. Reject option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. There is no reference to human devices or current understanding of space in the passage. Reject option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The black cats do not refer to any “eventual” encounter with aliens. Reject option 4. Option 2 is correct. The reference to black cats in dark rooms is a pointer to the inability of humans to imagine or comprehend the reality which is possibly outside the realm of human experience. As the passage states: “Our imaginings about the ways that aliens might make themselves detectable are always like stories of black cats in a dark room. If there are any real aliens, they are likely to behave in ways that we never imagined.” Thus the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Point to the limits of imagination in comprehending the alien civilisations and realities that are outside the range of human experience.

Time taken by you: 147 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 61 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 72 % 6) According to the passage, continuing to search for extra-terrestrial intelligence is: A sensible approach to the seemingly impossible task of finding evidence for aliens’ existence as it underscores the knowledge that there has to be life outside of earth. Not something that needs to be debated but something to be acted on as it is the only way to follow up on Fermi’s question – by seeing where it leads. A meaningful contribution towards a knowledge base of space travel which could enable future interstellar voyages. A sensible goal post for a spacefaring civilization to have as the possibility of encountering aliens also reveals the ingenuity of the inhabitants of the universe.

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undefined undefined The passage is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Genome editing (also called gene editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. Several approaches to genome editing have been developed. A recent one is known as CRISPR-Cas9, which is short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9. The CRISPR-Cas9 system has generated a lot of excitement in the scientific community because it is faster, cheaper, more accurate, and more efficient than other existing genome editing methods. CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from a naturally occurring genome editing system in bacteria. The bacteria capture snippets of DNA from invading viruses and use them to create DNA segments known as CRISPR arrays. The CRISPR arrays allow the bacteria to "remember" the viruses (or closely related ones). If the viruses attack again, the bacteria produce RNA segments from the CRISPR arrays to target the viruses' DNA. The bacteria then use Cas9 or a similar enzyme to cut the DNA apart, which disables the virus. The CRISPR-Cas9 system works similarly in the lab. Researchers create a small piece of RNA with a short "guide" sequence that attaches (binds) to a specific target sequence of DNA in a genome. The RNA also binds to the Cas9 enzyme. As in bacteria, the modified RNA is used to recognize the DNA sequence, and the Cas9 enzyme cuts the DNA at the targeted location. Although Cas9 is the enzyme that is used most often, other enzymes (for example Cpf1) can also be used. Once the DNA is cut, researchers use the cell's own DNA repair machinery to add or delete pieces of genetic material, or to make changes to the DNA by replacing an existing segment with a customized DNA sequence. Genome editing is of great interest in the prevention and treatment of human diseases. Currently, most research on genome editing is done to understand diseases using cells and animal models. Scientists are still working to determine whether this approach is safe and effective for use in people. It is being explored in research on a wide variety of diseases, including single-gene disorders such ascystic fibrosis,hemophilia, andsickle cell disease. It also holds promise for the treatment and prevention of morecomplex diseases, such as cancer, heart disease, mental illness, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Ethical concerns arise when genome editing, using technologies such as CRISPR-Cas9, is used to alter human genomes. Most of the changes introduced with genome editing are limited to somatic cells, which are cells other than egg and sperm cells. These changes affect only certain tissues and are not passed from one generation to the next. However, changes made to genes in egg or sperm cells (germline cells) or in the genes of an embryo could be passed to future generations. Germline cell and embryo genome editing bring up a number of ethical challenges, including whether it would be permissible to use this technology to enhance normal human traits (such as height or intelligence). Based on concerns about ethics and safety, germline cell and embryo genome editing are currently illegal in many countries. 1) According to the passage, all of the following are true for CRISPR, EXCEPT it has the potential to prevent and cure diseases. it is capable of altering somatic cells but not germline cells. it plays a role in regulating bacterial immunity. its promise also raises ethical concerns. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 in the passage states that CRISPR is being explored to cure a wide variety of diseases. Hence, it is not an exception. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 2. It states that bacteria use CRISPR to disable the virus. Hence, it is not an exception. Eliminate option 3. Option 2 is correct. The last paragraph states that “Most of the changes introduced with genome editing are limited to somatic cells...” It does not refer to the current capability of CRISPR w.r.t somatic and germline cells. Retain option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. Last paragraph states that ethical concerns arise when CRISPR is used to alter human genomes. This option is not an exception. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: it is capable of altering somatic cells but not germline cells.

Time taken by you: 198 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 170 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 63 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following is true of Cas9? The enzyme Cas9 activates the cell’s DNA repair mechanism to introduce changes to genetic material. The target location where Cas9 cuts the DNA cannot be predetermined. Cas9 is an enzyme in bacteria that cuts foreign DNA. Cas9 is an enzyme in bacteria that cuts native DNA. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 3explains that Cas9 is used to cut the DNA and once the DNA is cut, researchers use the cell's own DNA repair machinery to add or delete pieces of genetic material. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states that as in bacteria, the modified RNA is used to recognize the DNA sequence, and the Cas9 enzyme cuts the DNA at the targeted location. This implies that the target site is specific and predetermined. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. As stated earlier Cas9 cuts foreign DNA and not native DNA. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The passage explains the process “CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from a naturally occurring genome editing system in bacteria. The bacteria capture snippets of DNA from invading viruses and use them to create DNA segments known as CRISPR arrays. The CRISPR arrays allow the bacteria to "remember" the viruses (or closely related ones). If the viruses attack again, the bacteria produce RNA segments from the CRISPR arrays to target the viruses' DNA, which disables the virus.” Thus, enzyme Cas9 cuts the DNA of the “foreign” virus. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Cas9 is an enzyme in bacteria that cuts foreign DNA.

Time taken by you: 291 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 63 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 3) The primary purpose of the passage is to highlight the ethical concerns that arise because of tampering with genomes. explain the findings of research conducted in the area of CRISPR-Cas9 technology. examine how CRISPR-Cas9 technology has the potential to affect the future of humanity. explain the CRISPR-Cas9 approach to genome editing and the ethical concerns in genetic modification. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The last paragraph does raise the question of ethical concerns, but simply raising ethical concerns is not the primary purpose of the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not mention any research and its findings to explain CRISPR-Cas9. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not try to examine how CRISPR-Cas9 may affect the future of humanity. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 correctly summarizes the purpose of the passage. The passage as a whole intends to explain the CRISPR-Cas9 technology, its uses andthe ethical concerns that may arise from its use. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: explain the CRISPR-Cas9 approach to genome editing and the ethical concerns in genetic modification.

Time taken by you: 48 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

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undefined Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. When corruption charges were leveled against it, the government was found to be obstinate and_______, even when policy demanded a conduct of _______ and transparency. ineffable, insouciance inexorable, forbearance disruptive, passivity arrogant, intolerance Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The question is difficult mainly because of the medium and low frequency words in the options. However, the context makes the type of words that are required in the blanks amply clear. When corruption charges were leveled against the government, it became “obstinate and ____.” So the word in the blank has to be similar to obstinate (stubborn, adamant or intransigent) implying that the government’s behavior was characterized by refusal to compromise and it assumed an extreme position. Option 1, ineffable means incapable of being expressed in words or indescribable. Option 2, inexorable means not to be persuaded, moved or stopped; or relentless, adopting an extreme position.Inexorable goes with obstinate and correctly fits in the blank. Option 3, disruptive means breaking things apart or throwing something else into disorder. Though the word is as negative as obstinate, the government itself becoming disruptive is vague and unspecific in the context. Option 4, arrogant and obstinate may also go well together. However, inexorable is the best option for the first blank. The second word has to be similar in implication to transparency. Option 1, insouciance means light-hearted and unconcerned; nonchalance; casualness or apathy – so, insouciance does not fit. Option 2, forbearance means patience or tolerance – which goes with transparency, and correctly fits the blank. Option 3, passivity means lacking in energy or will power, lethargic and inactive – hence, it is incorrect in the context. Option 4, intolerance is negative and synonymous with arrogance whereas the context requires a positive word. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: inexorable, forbearance Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 40 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. Too much inequality _______ social mobility, thereby potentially stoking political instability, and weaker economic performance; yet some amount of _______ is vital to create appropriate incentives, support competition, and provide reasonable rewards. inhibits, equality facilitates, stability impedes, inequality accelerates, equality Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. The first blank in the sentence requires a verb that relates what too much inequality does to social mobility – resulting in political instability and weaker economic performance. It is rather a stretch to say that inequality will facilitate or accelerate social mobility – hence we can eliminate options 2 and 4. Between ‘equality’, and ‘inequality’ for the second blank, ‘inequality’ completes the sentence logically. “yet some amount of ………… is vital..’ to create incentive and competition, precludes ‘equality.’ Hence the option 3 contains the most appropriate words for the blanks – that too much inequality is has negative results, but some amount of inequality is necessary for growth. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: impedes, inequality Time taken by you: 42 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 70 %

undefined Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. Despite his _______ that philosophy must be historical, Nietzsche simultaneously understood writing philosophy historically to be a deeply _______ endeavor. skepticism, unproductive conviction, problematic reservation, nihilistic

certitude, absurdist

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Explanation: This is a difficult question. Since the sentence begins with ‘despite’, it must contain contrasting ideas. So, let us look at two contrasting options available in the answer choices. The first part is about Nietzsche’s point of view about philosophy must be historical – it could be his skepticism, or his conviction that philosophy is historical. So his skepticism or conviction is contrasted with his simultaneous belief that writing about philosophy historically is unproductive or problematic – is he was skeptic, and unproductive do not provide the contrast – so the conjunction despite is a misfit. We can eliminate option 1. At eh same time we can also see that option 2 provides the contrast we are looking for and is correct. So we need to consider options that are contrasting in them, similar to conviction and problematic. Nihilism and absurdism are tow doctrines. Nihilism is a doctrine or a viewpoint that traditional values and beliefs are unfounded and that existence is senseless and useless. Absurdism, similarly, is a philosophy based on the belief that the universe is irrational and meaningless and that the search for order brings the individual into conflict with the universe. Hence, both the words are narrow in scope and technical, with narrow and specific meanings - cannot describe an effort to write historically about philosophy. We can eliminate options 3 and 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: conviction, problematic Time taken by you: 22 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position and enter its number in the space given below. Meditation is a process of expanding our awareness. Through meditation, we discover deep within ourselves the qualities of peace, calmness and love – and an underlying joy that doesn’t change under any circumstances. This expansion of consciousness is the essence of spiritual growth, and our relationships can be an excellent catalyst in that process. When we nurture these expanded states in ourselves and in others, profound changes can happen in our relationships. Instead of demanding, even subconsciously, that others fulfill our “needs”, we can rest in the inner fulfillment and contentment we experience in a meditative state. Thus cooperation replaces competition, and the joy of mutual giving replaces the tension of reciprocating demands. 1. Meditation is essential for the expansion of our consciousness and spiritual growth. Our relationships change from tension to cooperation and mutual giving. 2. Meditation affects us deeply by helping us grow spiritually and our relationships become the cause of innerfulfillment and contentment rather than competition and strife. 3. Meditation is the process of expanding our awareness to discover joy, peace, calmness and love not only in ourselves but also in our relationships.

4. Meditation helps us grow spiritually and to discover long lasting joy, peace, calmness and love in ourselves. Our relationships become catalysts of inner fulfillment rather than conflicts.

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Explanation: This is a difficult question. The main points in the passage to be captured in the précis are: Meditation helps us grow spiritually We discover peace, calmness, love, and joy that do not change. Relationships change to catalysts for inner fulfillment rather than conflict. Option 1 is incorrect. The paragraph describes the benefits of meditation – it does not state that it is essential for the expansion for our awareness. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The resulting joy through meditation is absent in option 2. With its general statement that it helps us to grow spiritually, it misses the essence of the paragraph – the resulting peace and love. Also, it is incorrect to say that relationships become the cause of inner fulfillment. Catalysts being changed to source is an overstatement. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 3 misses a nuance; otherwise it is almost right. the paragraph states – we discover joy through meditation in ourselves. Our relationships then become catalysts to discover the same peace and inner fulfillment with others. This idea is lost in the third option. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. It is the best précis and captures the key elements without any distortion. Hence the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: 4 Time taken by you: 307 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 86 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position and enter its number in the space given below. Compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism. But there’s room for violence as well. Medieval Tibetan tales describe religious teachers breaking students’ bones, and then healing them magically to bring them insight; they tell of monks assassinating corrupt kings to save Buddhism in Tibet. Modern history brings us the stories, often neglected in the West, of the CIAbacked violent insurgency that Tibetan Buddhists waged against the Chinese occupation from the 1950s to the mid-1970s – and of an all-Tibetan refugee unit formed in India to fight the Chinese in a 1962 war.

1. Compassion was central to Tibetan Buddhism in the medieval times. But in the modern times, it has embraced violence to free itself from Chinese occupation. 2. Though compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism, violence has been deeply ingrained into its traditions from medieval times to the modern. 3. Though compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism, it has also accommodated violence for religious and political reasons. 4. From the teacher breaking students’ bones to violent insurgency against occupying Chinese, Tibetans Buddhism has always made room for violence.

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Explanation: This is an easy question. The main points in the paragraph that an ideal précis should capture are: Compassion is central to Tibetan Buddhism. But there’s room for violence as well. The examples are: religious teachers breaking students’ bones in the medieval times, and the CIA-backed violent insurgency against the Chinese occupation. Option 1 wrongly states that compassion was central to Tibetan Buddhism in the medieval times. The paragraph does not limit compassion of Tibetan Buddhism to medieval times alone. So eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. It incorrectly states that ‘violence has been deeply ingrained into Tibetan Buddhism. This is an overstatement, because the paragraph states that Tibetan Buddhism has “made room for violence” under certain circumstances. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. ‘There’s room for violence’ is correctly presented as accommodating violence while retaining the basic tenet of compassion, and the examples of violence are presented in generalized forms as “for religious and political reasons.” Thus option 3 is correct. Option 4 is incorrect. It misses the most important part of the paragraph about compassion being the central tenet of Tibetan Buddhism. Eliminate option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 76 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 62 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 54 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the question, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the sentences does not fit into the context. Find the odd sentence and enter its number in the space given below.

. 1. According to a study, 9-32% of the workforce in developed economies couldbe displaced within the next decade. 2. As artificial intelligence and robotic technologies advance faster, many of thetasks and occupations that employ people can already be automated. 3. We urgently need to start furnishing workers with new skills to meet futurelabor-market demands. 4. Estimates of the share of automatable employment vary widely, from 14% of all jobs in OECD countries to nearly 50% of all jobs in the US. 5. A week rarely goes by without a new dystopian prediction about technologicallydriven mass unemployment.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The best way to deal with difficult out of context sentence questions is to first discover a mandatory pair. In this case even that looks at little tricky. However, “technologically driven mass unemployment” in sentence 5 is explained as result of what is stated in sentence 2 that “as artificial intelligence and robotic technologies advance faster, many of the tasks and occupations that employ people can already be automated.” So 5-1 is a mandatory pair. We are now able to identify the theme of the paragraph- mass unemployment resulting from automation. Sentence 4 directly relates to this theme as it states an estimate of automatable employment and hence the potential loss of jobs in the OECD countries and the US. Now, our task is limited to relating sentences 1 and 3 to this theme. Sentence 1 continues the theme by predicting that up to 32 per cent of jobs can be lost in developed economies. Sentence 3, however, talks about preparing workers to meet future labor market demands. There is no information in the other sentences or the paragraph as a whole about the future market demands. Hence the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: 3 Time taken by you: 159 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 48 %

undefined Four out of five sentences in the question, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. One of the sentences does not fit into the context. Find the odd sentence and enter its number in the space given below.

1. There was also a proposal for Facebook fully to disclose its spending on political lobbying. 2. The challenge runs far deeper than whether users click “Agree” on a new set of “Terms and Conditions.”

3. And there were proposals to nominate an independent board chair and change the shareholder-voting structure to reduce Zuckerberg’s influence. 4. That included proposals to publish a report on gender pay equity, and one on the public-policy issues associated with managing fake news and hate speech, including the impact on the democratic process, free speech, and a cohesive society. 5. At the company’s annual stockholder meeting, five proposals for how to begin addressing some of Facebook’s weaknesses were voted down.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question We can identify sentence 5 as the starter of the paragraph. This is the only standalone sentence. All other sentences have incomplete ideas apparently mentioned or clarified earlier. Sentence 5 says that the at the company’s annual stockholder meeting five proposals to address some of the weaknesses of Facebook were voted down. Sentence 4 describes what these proposals included – matters related to gender pay equity, public policy issues, fake news etc. Sentences 3 and 1 list the other proposals raised at the meeting and were voted down. So we can see that all the sentences except sentence 2 about the proposals made at the annual meeting of Facebook and were subsequently voted down. Sentence 2 is not related to this theme as it begins abruptly with “the challenge runs far deeper….” There is no mention of any challenge in the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is option 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 89 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 68 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 76 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. This may happen all over India, but in this exact way it happens only in my city. 2. It was an act that one sees every day in this town, and indeed all over the country, but seeing it in the company of an outsider put it in a completely different context. 3. The other day I was taking a visitor around my city and I saw something that made me stop in my tracks. 4. People from across classes sat on the parapets on the seafront in every kind of weather — single people, couples, friends, all turning their backs to the city and gazing at infinity.

5. It made me realize that this rather ordinary occurrence was a lens through which one could see a whole culture and understand, if not everything, a lot about the citizens of a place.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Sentences 1, 2 and 5 can be ruled for the starter, as they have references to something that has to be made clear. Comparing sentences 3 and 4, we see that sentence 3 starts the narration – the writer was taking a friend through his city – when he saw something that made him stop in his tracks. “Something” is the antecedent for the “it” in sentences 2 and 5. Whether the sequence is 325 or 352 needs some deliberation. 3-2-5- is a better sequence than 3-5-2 because 32 explains why the ordinary event (which we later learn that of people sitting on parapets) stopped him in his tracks – the reason was that the company of his friend put that incident in completely different context – that context is then explained in sentence 5. The event suddenly became “a lens through which one could see a whole culture and understand, if not everything, a lot about the citizens of a place.” Also, “it was an act one sees everyday … but it made me realize…” is better than “It made me realize …. It was a lens …,” and the “it was an act…” So we can decide on the sequence 325. Placing sentence 4 and 1 after the 3-2-5 sequence e is not difficult. “This may happen all over India …’ in sentence 1 refers to a particular incident the writer saw in Mumbai. The incident is that of ‘people sitting on parapets gazing at the horizon..” Hence 4-1 becomes the correct order after 325. Hence the correct answer is 32541. Correct Answer: 32541 Time taken by you: 225 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 1 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 1 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. When an organism changes in some fundamental way, it typically starts with a genetic mutation - a change to the DNA. 2. This is weird because that's really not how adaptations usually happen in multicellular animals. 3. But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions - occasionally it improvises changing which proteins are produced in the cell in a rare process called RNA editing.

4. Those genetic changes are then translated into action by DNA's molecular sidekick, RNA. 5. In a surprising twist, scientists discovered that octopuses, along with some squid and cuttlefish species, routinely edit their RNA (ribonucleic acid) sequences to adapt to their environment.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. Sentence 1 explains how a typical genetic mutation or ‘fundamental’ evolutionary changes happen – by a change to the DNA. So sentence 1 begins the narrative. In comparison, the other sentences contain elements that make them unfit for the starter – “this is weird in sentence 2 will be an abrupt start. Similarly “but RNA doesn’t’’ in sentence 3, ‘those genetic changes in sentence 4, and ‘in a surprising twist’ in sentence 5, make them unsuitable as the starter. Sentence 1 is followed by sentence 4 – the ‘genetic mutation’ mentioned in 1 is referred to as “those genetic changes in sentence 4. Thus 1-4 is a mandatory pair. “This is weird” in sentence 2 is contrary to the “typical” process mentioned in 1. Also, the mention of RNA in sentence 3 and 5 has nothing to refer back to in sentence 1. Hence 1-4 is a mandatory pair. The 1-4 pair is then followed by sentence 3, because “translated into action by RNA” in sentence 4 is continued in sentence 3 as “But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions …” (or “translate into action”). Thus we get the sequence of 1-4-3. The remaining two sentences, sentences 5 and 2 can be placed more easily after the 143 sequence, in that order because, “this is weird….’ In sentence 2 refers back to the “RNA editing octopuses and some other marine animals carry out” without the typical genetic mutation that starts with DNA. Also, “In a surprising twist” mentioned in sentence 5 refers back to whole process explained in 143. Hence sentence 5 has to be placed after 143 and sentence 2 at the end to conclude the paragraph. Hence the correct answer is 14352. Correct Answer: 14352 Time taken by you: 166 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in the space provided.

1. This highly uneven dispersion is a surprise. 2. Those populations are typically large in extended regions and gradually tail off in many directions. 3. Reptiles do not. 4. The number of mammal and bird species varies from place to place, but these groups of vertebrates still span much of the world. 5. New research shows they are highly concentrated in hotspots and are largely absent across the rest of the earth.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a difficult question. The starter sentence is fairly easy to identify. Only sentence 4 fits the bill as all the other sentences have references that derive their meaning from elsewhere. ‘This highly uneven dispersion’ in sentence 1, ‘those populations’ is sentence 2, make them unfit for the starter. Sentence 3 is too short and abrupt. Sentence 5 says “new research shows they are highly concentrated …” – the pronoun ‘they’ needs an antecedent. So we are sure that the paragraph starts with sentence 4. Finding the next sentence is difficult. Hence, change strategy and try to get a mandatory pair, instead of wasting time looking for the sentence to follow 4. Sentence 1 is a dangler. “This highly uneven dispersion is a surprise,” so, look for the sentence that defines the ‘uneven dispersion.’ Sentence 5 says, “… they are highly concentrated in hotspots and are largely absent across the rest of the earth.” So, 5-1- is a mandatory pair. So far we have 4 as the starter and 5-1 a mandatory pair. However, 5-1 cannot be placed immediately after 4, because 4 and 5-1 have contrary ideas. Sentence 4 says that mammals span much of the world. 5-1 pair talks about uneven dispersion. Hence they are contrary. Sentence 3 says ‘Reptiles do not’. This can bridge the gap between sentence 4 and the 5-1- pair. That mammals span the world – reptiles do not. So, “they” in sentence 5 refers to the reptiles in sentence 4. Hence we get the sequence 4351. Sentence 2 comes at the end of the paragraph and concludes it logically because “those populations” in sentence 5 refers to the “uneven dispersion” of reptiles in sentence 1. Hence the correct sequence is 43512. Correct Answer: 43512 Time taken by you: 142 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 11 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 6 %

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Prakash, Qadir, Roshni, Smita and Trisha secured the first five ranks – 1 to 5, not necessarily in the same order, in the IIT JEE 2017 Mains examination. The Mains examination had four sections namely; A, B, C & D. The following table provides information about the first three highest marks scored by the students in each section. The lowest and the second lowest marks scored by thestudents in each section is more than 4% but less than or equal to 12% of the total marks scored by these five students in that section (Refer to the bar chart given below). Marks scored by any student in any of these given four sections is an integer. Distinct marks were scored by these five students in Section A. The same holds true for all other sections as well. The total score of the students is equal to the sum of their marks in the individual four sections and the student with the highest total score is ranked 1st, the student with 2nd highest total score is ranked 2nd and so on.

1) Who obtained the first rank in the IIT JEE 2017 Mains examination? Qadir Prakash Smita Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

It can be seen that Smita has scored 235 marks and the maximum possible marks scored by all other students is less than 235. Therefore, Smita got the first rank. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: Smita

Time taken by you: 291 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 457 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 % 2) If Qadir and Prakash scored 214 and 199 respectively in all the foursections combined together, then which of the following can be the total score of Roshni in all the four sections combined together? 176 183 203 212 Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Qadir scored 14 in Section C and Prakash scored 33 in Section A. This means that Roshni scored 22 in Section A. So Roshni could have scored between (22 + 36 + 120 + 24 = 202)and (22 + 24 + 120 + 11 = 177) (both inclusive) in all the four sections put together. Out of the given options, only 183 is a possible score. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 183

Time taken by you: 105 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 144 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 3) If Trisha obtained the maximum possible total score in all the sections and if the total scores of Prakash and Roshni are equal, then what is the total score ofQadir? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Trisha scored 200. Prakash and Roshni could have scored equal marks only when Roshni scored 33 in Section A and Prakash scored 11 in Section C. This means that Qadir scored a total of 214 marks. Therefore, the required answer is 214.

Correct Answer: 214

Time taken by you: 73 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 4) What could be the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible total scores obtained by Trisha in all the four sections combined together? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Maximum total score Trisha could obtain = 200 Minimum total score Trisha could obtain = 175 The required difference = 200 – 175 = 25 Therefore, the required answer is 25.

Correct Answer: 25 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 27 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A recruitment board declared the results of an examination for various job positions in the year 2017. Pie Chart - I shows the position-wise distribution of the candidates. A : Assistant-Savings Bank B : Assistant-Circle Office C : Assistant-Sorting D : Stenographers

E : Translators F : Typists G : Inspectors Pie Chart - II shows the region-wise distribution of the candidates. 60% of all the candidates were boys and the remaining 40% were girls.

1) If none of the candidates selected as Assistant-Sorting was from South & East, then at least what percentage of candidates from North were selected as Assistant-Sorting? 30% 32% 25% 24% Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30%

Time taken by you: 416 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 185 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 73 % 2) Given that not more than 25% of the candidates from any region selected as Assistant-Savings Bank, then the number of regions from where no candidate was selected as Assistant-Savings Bank cannot be more than

2 1 3 4 Video Explanation: Explanation: 15% of thecandidates were selected for post Assistant-Savings Bank. 25% of (North + East + South) = 25% of 74% = 18.75% Therefore, there were at least 3 regions from where one or the other candidate was selected as Assistant-Savings Bank. Hence, the number of regions from where no candidates selected as Assistant-Savings Bank cannot be more than 2. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 103 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 76 % 3) If all the girls were selected as either Assistant-Savings Bank or Assistant- Sorting, then at most what percentage of the boys from East, North & Central put together were selected as either Assistant-Savings Bank or Assistant-Sorting?

Video Explanation: Explanation: Let number ofcandidates be Y. Girls = 0.4Y and Boys = 0.6Y Number of candidates who were selected for position Assistant-Savings Bank or Assistant-Sorting = 0.5Y Boys who were selected for positions Assistant-Savings Bank and Assistant- Sorting = (0.5Y – 0.4Y) = 0.1Y Assume all the girls are from East, North or Central. Therefore, total number of boys from East, North & Central = 0.64Y – 0.4Y = 0.24Y

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 55 % 4) It is known that the number of distinct positions for which candidates were selected from North and East is six each, out of which exactly five are identical. Also, the number of candidates who were selected for each of these six positions in North is equal (this holds true for candidates in East as well). At most what percentage of candidates from South could be selected as Stenographers? 5% 10% 15% 20% Video Explanation: Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5%

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped

% Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. A consumer electronics giant launched six flagship mobile handset models – S6, P9, I4, K7, M8 and Z5 in the span of eight years. No two handset models were launched within a period of 18 months. The launch dates of the handsetmodels are given below:

1) Which mobile handset model was the sixth to be launched? S6 P9 K7 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handsetmodels were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th

September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible.

Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

The handset model that was launched sixth was S6. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: S6

Time taken by you: 450 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 175 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 2) Which mobile handset model was the second to be launched? K7 M8 Z5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handsetmodels were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

The handset model that was launched second was M8. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: M8

Time taken by you: 12 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 25 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 3) Which mobile handset model was the fifth to be launched? P9 K7 Z5 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handsetmodels were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

K7 was launched fifth. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: K7

Time taken by you: 7 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 13 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 75 % 4) Which handset model/s was/were launched between K7 and I4? Z5 M8 Both Z5 and M8 Neither Z5 nor M8 Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given: Total of 6 handset models were launched in the span of 8 years (96 months) such that no two handset models were launched within a period of 18 months. Also the handset models can be launched only on specific dates given. Case 1: The first handset model is launched first on 31st January of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 31st January of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7 and the sixth handset model can be launched on 20th February of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 2: The first handset model is launched on 20th February of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th February of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 5, the fifth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model launched on 31st January of year 9. This case is possible. Case 3: The first handset model is launched on 1st April of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 1st April of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 2, the third handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 1st April of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 4: The first handset model is launched on 19th June of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 19th June of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 31 st January of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 7. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 19th June of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 5: The first handset model is launched on 20th September of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 20th September of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 5th November of year 4, the fourth handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 20th September of year 9. This case is not possible. Case 6: The first handset model is launched on 5th November of year 1. Therefore, the last handset model must be launched before 5th November of year 9. In that case, the second handset model will be launched on 19th June of year 3, the third handset model will be launched on 31st January of year 5, the fourth handset model will be launched on 20th September of year 6, the fifth handset model will be launched on 1st April of year 8. In this case, the sixth handset model cannot be launched before 5th November of year 9. This case is not possible. Therefore, only case 2 is possible. We get the following timetable:

Z5 was launched between K7 and I4. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Z5

Time taken by you: 16 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 100 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Each of Pragya, Firdausi, Rimi, and Shekhar purchased marbles worth Rs. 500. The marbles purchased were of one or the other of the following four types: A, B, C and D. The prices of one marble each of type A, B, C and D was Rs. 10, Rs. 20, Rs. 50 and Rs. 100 respectively. Each of the given four persons purchased marbles of three different types and no two persons purchased the identical set of three types of marbles. The first bar chart provides information about the sum of the number of marbles of each type purchased by these four persons. The second bar chart provides information about the total number of marbles purchased by each of these four persons. It is known that Pragya purchased 10 marbles of type A. It is also known that the person who did not purchase marbles of type B purchased three marbles of type D.

1) Shekhar did not purchase marbles of type ___. D A C Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Shekhar did not purchase marbles of type A. Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: A

Time taken by you: 478 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 351 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 65 % 2) Rimi did not purchase marbles of type ___. A C B Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Rimi did not purchase marbles of type B. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: B

Time taken by you: 5 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 81 % 3) How many marbles of type A were purchased by Firdausi? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Firdausi purchased 10 marbles of type A. Therefore, the required answer is 10.

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 14 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 61 % 4) The number of marbles of type C purchased by Firdausi was ___. Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation:

The only possible solution in this case is X = 3, Y = 1 and d = 1. So, 5X + 2Y + d = 18 As Shekhar purchased 18 marbles, he purchased 15, 2 and 1 marbles of type B, C and D respectively.

Firdausi purchased 4 marbles of type C. Therefore, the required answer is 4.

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 4 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 58 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a live hypnosis show, a famous hypnotist called one participant named Donald on stage. During the show, the hypnotist displayed a number on an electronic screen for only one second. He then gave Donald instructions to use the digits of the number that were displayed on the screen to create a new number (which used the same digits as the number displayed on the screen) and say the new number aloud. The hypnotist claimed that Donald could arrive at the new number in just three seconds’ time after conforming to all the instructions given to him. 1) The hypnotist displayed a 7-digit number (with all digits different) on the screenand said,”Donald, rearrange the digits of the number to create a number such that at least 4 digits of the number are in the same position as thenumber on the screen. Say the number you have created aloud!” How many different numbers could Donald have said aloud if he followed theinstructions of the hypnotist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: At least 4 digits are in the same position that means at most 3 digits arerearranged. If no digit is rearranged, Donald can say only one number (i.e. the number on the screen). If only one digit is rearranged, the remaining six digits must be in their correct positions. It is not possible to obtain a number like this. If two digits are rearranged, the remaining five digits are in their correct positions. The number of ways of selecting the five digits out of 7 that are in their correctpositions is 7C 5 = 21. The number of ways in which the remaining two digits can be misplaced = derangement of 2 = 1. Therefore, the required number of ways = 21 × 1 = 21 If three digits are rearranged, the remaining four digits are in their correct positions. The number of ways of selecting the four digits out of 7 that are in their correct positions is 7C 4 = 35. The number of ways in which the remaining three digits can be rearranged = derangement of 3 = 2. Therefore, the required number of ways = 35 × 2 = 70. Therefore, the required total number of numbers = 1 + 21 + 70 = 92. Therefore, the required answer is 92.

Correct Answer: 92

Time taken by you: 505 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 1 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 0 %

2) The hypnotist displayed a 7-digit number (with all digits different) on the screen and said,”Donald, rearrange the digits of the number to create a number. The position of each digit in the number can vary from its position in the number on the screen by at most one place. Donald, say the number you have created aloud” How many different numbers Donald could have said aloud if he followed the instructions of the hypnotist? 21 28 29 30 Video Explanation: Explanation: If the digits of the number can be misplaced by exactly one position, the digits that are getting misplaced will necessarily occupy the position of the adjacent digit in the original number. Suppose the original number is 1-2-3-4-5-6-7. We have the following cases: Case 1: When no digit is misplaced: In that case, the new number is same as the number displayed on the screen. There can be only one number of this type. Case 2: When exactly one pair of digits is misplaced: The pair of digits that are misplaced can be 1-2 or 2-3 or 3-4 or 4-5 or 5-6 or 6-7 (total 6). Case 3: When exactly two pairs of digits are misplaced: In all two pairs of digits are misplaced. If the first pair is 1-2, the second pair can be 3-4 or 4-5 or 5-6 or 6-7 (total 4). If the first pair is 2-3, the second pair can be 4-5 or 5-6 or 6-7 (total 3). If the first pair is 3-4, the second pair can be 5-6 or 6-7 (total 2). If the first pair is 4-5, the second pair can be 6-7 (total 1). We can get the required two pairs in 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 different ways. Case 4: When exactly three pairs of digits are misplaced: If in all six digits are misplaced, only one digit is in its correct position. If digits 2, 4 or 6 are in their correct positions, it is not possible to get three pairs of numbers that are getting misplaced. If digit 1 is in correct position, we can get the three pairs as 2-3, 4-5 and 6-7 (total 3). Similarly we will get 3 pairs each if digits 3 or 5 or 7 are in correct positions. Thus we will get 4 different numbers such that exactly six digits are misplaced. Therefore, the required number of new numbers = 1 + 6 + 10 + 4 = 21. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: 21

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 % 3)

The hypnotist displayed an 8-digit number (with only one digit repeated exactly once) and said,”Donald,rearrange the digits of the number to create a number such that at most two digits of the number you have created (out of the eight) can be out of place. Say the number you have created aloud”. How many different numbers could Donald have said aloud if he followed the instructions of the hypnotist? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation: Explanation: Suppose seven digits of the number are 1-2-3-4-5-6-7 and the 8th(say 7) digit can be any one of these 7 placed next to any of the 7 digits. If no digit is out of place, the number is same as the number displayed on the screen. We cannot get exactly one digit out of the place. If exactly two digits are out of the place, we get the following three cases: Case 1: The two digits that are out of place do not include the repeated digit. In that case, the two digits that are out of place can be selected from the remaining digits in 6C 2 = 15 different ways. Case 2: The two digits that are out of place include the repeated digit one time. In that case, the second digit that is out of place can be any of the remaining 6 non-repeated digits. Therefore, the new number can be created in 2 × 6 = 12 different ways. Case 3: The two digits that are out of the place include the repeated digit two times. The repeated digits cannot be misplaced as in that case the new number will be same as the number displayed on the screen. Therefore, we can get 15 + 12 = 27 different numbers such that exactly two digits are misplaced. Therefore, the required answer = 1 + 27 = 28.

Correct Answer: 28

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 12 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 11 % 4) The hypnotist displayed the 8-digit number 12314356 on the screen and said, ”Donald, rearrange the digits of the number to create a number suchthat at most four digits in the number on the screen can be allowed to vary from their positions by upto one position in the number. Donald, say the number you have created aloud”. How many different numbers could Donald have said aloud if he followed the instructions of the hypnotist?

22 23 24 25 Video Explanation: Explanation: If the digits of the number are misplaced by one position, the consecutive digitsare swapping their positions. We have the following cases: Case 1: When no digit is misplaced In this case, there can be only one number 12314356. Case 2: When one pair of digits is misplaced In this case, there are 7 pairs of digits that can be misplaced. They are 1-2 or 2-3or 3-1 or 1-4 or 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6. The new number can be created in 7 different ways. Case 3: When two pairs of digits are misplaced We have the following cases: If the first pair is 1-2, the second pair can be 3-1 or 1-4 or 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6(total 5). If the first pair is 2-3, the second pair can be 1-4 or 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6 (total 4). If the first pair is 3-1, the second pair can be 4-3 or 3-5 or 5-6 (total 3). If the first pair is 1-4, the second pair can be 3-5 or 5-6 (total 2). If the first pair is 4-3, the second pair can be 5-6 (total 1). Thus, we can get 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15 different numbers such that four digitsare misplaced. Therefore, the required number of new numbers = 1 + 7 + 15 = 23. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 23

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 15 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Eight flowers, coded as F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6, F7 and F8, are planted in a garden in the shape of a circle (not necessarily in that order). The flowers are of different types – Rose, Lotus, Daffodil, Sunflower, Daisy, Calendula, Dahlia and Marigold, not necessarily in that order. The flowers are ranked in the descending order of their prices, rank 1 being the costliest, and no two flowers have the same price. The numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd. Further it is known that: I. The costliest flower is not opposite to the cheapest flower, which, in turn, isDaffodil. II. F1, Sunflower, is the fourth costliest and is planted opposite to the flower which isfourth cheapest and which is Marigold. III. Rose and Dahlia are adjacent to each other. IV. F2 is opposite to F3 and one of them is Calendula and the other is Lotus. V. Exactly one flower is planted between F5 and F1. The flower planted opposite to F5 is Rose. VI. F4 is planted to the immediate right of F1.The flower planted opposite to F4 is Daisy. VII. There is exactly one flower planted between F6 (which is the second cheapest flower) and the second costliest flower. 1) If F7 is adjacent to the Calendula, then Lotus is adjacent to F1 and F5 F1 and F7 F5 and F7 Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

If F7 is adjacent to Calendula, then Lotus is adjacent to F1 and F5. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: F1 and F5

Time taken by you: 390 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 596 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 84 % 2) It is known that if the costliest and the cheapest flowers interchange their places,then the Lotus will be opposite to F7, then what must be the rank of F8? 1 2 3 5 Video Explanation:

Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

Either F1 or F5 is opposite to F7. F1 is Sunflower of rank 4. F5 is cheapest flower of Daffodil. Daffodil interchanges place with the costliest flower. So, costliest flower has to be Lotus. As Lotus is opposite to F7, F7 must be Rose and F8 should be Marigold. Rank of Marigold is 5. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 5

Time taken by you: 113 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 64 % 3) If F7 is planted directly opposite to Sunflower, then F8 is 4th costliest 3rd costliest 5thcostliest Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

If F7 is planted directly opposite Sunflower, F7 is Marigold and F8 is Rose. Rose is the 3rd costliest flower. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 3rd costliest

Time taken by you: 61 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 57 % 4) Codes as well as ranks of how many flowers can be uniquely determined? 3 5 4 6 Video Explanation: Explanation: From II, V and VI, we have two cases:

But the first case is not possible for both III and IV to be true.So using III, IV and the second part of I in the second case, we get the following:

Using VII and the fact that the numeric sum of the ranks of any two flowers planted opposite to each other is odd, we get the final arrangement as follows:

We know the following: F1 – Sunflower – Rank 4 F4 – Dahlia – Rank 6 F5 – Daffodil – Rank 8 F6 – Daisy – Rank 7 Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: 4

Time taken by you: 35 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 37 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 45 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Three couples (three males and three females) went together to Berlin for a vacation. Their names were A, B, C, D, E and F, in no particular order. Each of the six persons is carrying exactly one luggage bag. The weights of the luggage bags were W1 to W6 in no particular order such that W1 >W2 > W3 > W4 > W5 > W6. The heights of the luggage bags were H1 to H6 in no particular order such that H1 > H2 > H3 > H4 > H5 > H6. Further it is known that: 1. In exactly one of the three couples, the luggage bag with the female was heavier than that with the male . 2. The height of the luggage bag with C was H3. 3. The weight of the luggage bag with height H6 was W1.

4. E’s male partner is the only person having bag with less height than that of E’s bag. 5. For exactly one person, the height and weight of his/her luggage bag wereHj and Wj respectively. 6. The heights and weights of luggage bags of A and his female partner F were (Hm andWk) and (Hk and Wm) respectively. 7. The weight of the luggage bag with D was neither W5 nor W6. D, a female, was not the female partnerof B. 8. In points 5 and 6, the variables m, k and j can take values from 1 to 6. 1) For which of the following persons, the height and the weight of his/her luggagebag were Hj and Wj respectively (j can take values from 1 to 6)? B C E Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

From statement (6), the weights and the heights of the luggage bags with A and F must have been Hj and Wj (j = 2 and 4), not necessarily in that order. From statement (7), the weight of the luggage with D must have been W3. From statement (5), we can conclude that the person is E and therefore, the height and weight of the luggage bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, the weight of the luggage bag with C must have been W6. From statement (1), the weight of the luggage bag with A must have been W2 and that with F was W4.Hence, the height of the luggage bags with A and F must have been H4 and H2 respectively. The final arrangement can be tabulated as shown below:

The height and the weight of the bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, [3].

Correct Answer: E

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 299 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 50 % 2) Which of the given persons has a luggage bag weighing W6? C A

E Cannot be determined Video Explanation: Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

From statement (6), the weights and the heights of the luggage bags with A and F must have beenHj and Wj (j = 2 and 4), not necessarily in that order. From statement (7), the weight of the luggage with D must have been W3. From statement (5), we can conclude that the person is E and therefore, the height and weight of the luggage bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, the weight of the luggage bag with C must have been W6. From statement (1), the weight of the luggage bag with A must have been W2 and that with F was W4.Hence, the height of the luggage bags with A and F must have been H4 and H2 respectively. The final arrangement can be tabulated as shown below:

C has a luggage bag weighing W6. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: C

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 22 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 51 % 3) Which of the given persons has a luggage bag having height H1? F D A Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

From statement (6), the weights and the heights of the luggage bags with A and F must have been Hj and Wj (j = 2 and 4), not necessarily in that order. From statement (7), the weight of the luggage with D must have been W3. From statement (5), we can conclude that the person is E and therefore, the height and weight of the luggage bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, the weight of the luggage bag with C must have been W6. From statement (1), the weight of the luggage bag with A must have been W2 and that with F was W4.Hence, the height of the luggage bags with A and F must have been H4 and H2 respectively. The final arrangement can be tabulated as shown below:

D has a luggage bag having height H1. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: D

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 % 4) What is the weight of the luggage bag with A? W6 W2 W4 Cannot be determined Video Explanation:

Explanation: From statements (4), (6) and (7), it can be concluded that A, B and C were the male partners of F, E and D respectively. From statement (4), the height of the luggage bag with E was H5 and that of B was H6. Now, from statement (3), the weight of the luggage bag with B was W1. From statement (2), the height of the luggage bag with C was H3. The conclusions drawn so far can be tabulated as shown below:

From statement (6), the weights and the heights of the luggage bags with A and F must have been Hj and Wj (j = 2 and 4), not necessarily in that order. From statement (7), the weight of the luggage with D must have been W3. From statement (5), we can conclude that the person is E and therefore, the height and weight of the luggage bag with E is H5 and W5 respectively. Hence, the weight of the luggage bag with C must have been W6. From statement (1), the weight of the luggage bag with A must have been W2 and that with F was W4.Hence, the height of the luggage bags with A and F must have been H4 and H2 respectively. The final arrangement can be tabulated as shown below:

The luggage bag with A has weight W2. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: W2

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 14 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 46 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Total 6 teams, namely Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium, participated in Euro Cup Soccer Championship-2018. Each team played every other team twice in the tournament, once in its own country (called ‘home’ game) and once in the country of the opposite team (called ‘away’ game). All the games in the tournament were played at one of the following 6 venues: Munich (in Germany), Madrid (in Spain), Milan (in Italy), Paris (in France), Manchester (in England) and Brussels (in Belgium).

The following points are known about the tournament: 1. The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. 2. Germany lost to France at Munich. 3. France defeated Italy at Paris. 4. No match in the tournament ended in a draw. 1) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. France defeated England at Paris. b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels. c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester. d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. Which of the following teams given in the options won fewer total number ofgames (home + away) than the other teams given in the options? Germany France England Belgium Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Step 1: The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, Spain won all the home games while Italy lost all the home games. Also, if team A lost its home game against team B, that means team B won its away game against team A. We can develop the following table. (In the table,’1’ denotes victory while ‘0’ denotes defeat for a team. Also ‘G’ denotes Germany, ‘S’ denotes Spain, ‘I’ denotes Italy, ‘F’ denotes France, ‘E’ denotes England, ‘B’ denotes Belgium.)

Step 2: Germany lost to France in Munich (i.e. Germany lost its home game against France) and France defeated Italy at Paris (i.e. France won its home game against Italy). Also, out of the 5 home games, Germany won 4 and the only home game it lost was against France. We can now fill the table as follows:

We know the following: a. France defeated England at Paris (i.e France won its home game against England) b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels.(i.e. Belgium won its home game against Germany) c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester (i.e. England lost its home games against Italy and France) d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. (i.e. Belgium won its home game against Italy) Thus the table can be filled as follows:

It can be seen that Belgium won total 4 matches, England won total 5games, while both Germany and France won 6 games. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: Belgium

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 341 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 63 % 2) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. France defeated England at Paris. b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels. c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester. d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. Which two teams won equal total number ofgames (home + away) in the tournament? Germany and France Belgium and England France and Spain No such two teams Video Explanation: Explanation:

Step 1: The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, Spain won all the home games while Italy lost all the home games. Also, if team A lost its home game against team B, that means team B won its away game against team A. We can develop the following table. (In the table,’1’ denotes victory while ‘0’ denotes defeat for a team. Also ‘G’ denotes Germany, ‘S’ denotes Spain, ‘I’ denotes Italy, ‘F’ denotes France, ‘E’ denotes England, ‘B’ denotes Belgium.)

Step 2: Germany lost to France in Munich (i.e. Germany lost its home game against France) and France defeated Italy at Paris (i.e. France won its home game against Italy). Also, out of the 5 home games, Germany won 4 and the only home game it lost was against France. We can now fill the table as follows:

We know the following: a. France defeated England at Paris (i.e France won its home game against England) b. Germany lost to Belgium at Brussels.(i.e. Belgium won its home game against Germany) c. England lost to both Italy and France at Manchester (i.e. England lost its home games against Italy and France) d. Belgium won against Italy at Brussels. (i.e. Belgium won its home game againstItaly) Thus the table can be filled as follows:

It can be seen that both Germany and France won total 6 games. Hence, [1].

Correct Answer: Germany and France

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 57 % 3) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester. b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels. Results of how many games can be known? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Step 1: The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, Spain won all the home games while Italy lost all the home games. Also, if team A lost its home game against team B, that means team B won its away game against team A. We can develop the following table. (In the table,’1’ denotes victory while ‘0’ denotes defeat for a team. Also ‘G’ denotes Germany, ‘S’ denotes Spain, ‘I’ denotes Italy, ‘F’ denotes France, ‘E’ denotes England, ‘B’ denotes Belgium.)

Step 2: Germany lost to France in Munich (i.e. Germany lost its home game against France) and France defeated Italy at Paris (i.e. France won its home game against Italy). Also, out of the 5 home games, Germany won 4 and the only home game it lost was against France. We can now fill the table as follows:

We also know: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester (i.e. England lost its home games against France and Belgium) b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels (i.e. Belgium won its home games against Germany and Spain) Now the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that the results of the games played by France at Paris cannot be determined: France vs. Germany, France vs. Spain, France vs. England, France vs. Belgium. Thus there are 4 such games. The results of the remaining 26 games can be determined. Therefore, the required answer is 26.

Correct Answer: Time taken by you:260 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 28 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 17 % 4) Additional information : Additionally, the following points are known: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester. b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels. Out of the away games played by Italy against Germany, Spain, France andEngland, how many games were won by Italy? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Step 1: The number of ‘home’ games won by Germany, Spain, Italy, France, England and Belgium was 4, 5, 0, 2, 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, Spain won all the home games while Italy lost all the home games. Also, if team A lost its home game against team B, that means team B won its away game against team A. We can develop the following table. (In the table,’1’ denotes victory while ‘0’ denotes defeat for a team. Also ‘G’ denotes Germany, ‘S’ denotes Spain, ‘I’ denotes Italy, ‘F’ denotes France, ‘E’ denotes England, ‘B’ denotes Belgium.)

Step 2: Germany lost to France in Munich (i.e. Germany lost its home game against France) and France defeated Italy at Paris (i.e. France won its home game against Italy). Also, out of the 5 home games, Germany won 4 and the only home game it lost was against France. We can now fill the table as follows:

We also know: a. England lost to both France and Belgium at Manchester (i.e. England lost its home games against France and Belgium) b. Belgium won against both Germany and Spain at Brussels (i.e. Belgium won its home games against Germany and Spain) Now the table can be completed as follows:

It can be seen that Italy lost all the away games against Germany, Spain, France and England. Therefore, the required answer is 0.

Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 47 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 29 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined The number of males and females in a town in 2017 was in the ratio 3 : 2. In 2018, both the male and female populations of the town increased such that the new ratio of the number of males and females in 2018 became 5 : 4. It is knownthat the male population increased by 20%. By what percentage did the total population of the town increase in 2018 over 2017? 9.6% 19.6% 20% 29.6%

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 29.6%

Time taken by you: 80 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 166 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined ‘p’ is a composite natural number that is less than 100. ‘p 2 – 4’ is the product oftwo prime numbers. Both the prime numbers are less than 100. How many such values of ‘p’ are possible?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: p2 – 4 = (p – 2) × (p + 2) If p2 – 4 is the product of two prime numbers, then (p – 2) and (p + 2) shouldbe prime numbers below 100.

There are 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100. They are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, and 97. Out of these, the values of p that satisfy our condition are 9, 15, 21, 39, 45, 69 and 81. Therefore, the required answer is 7.

Correct Answer: 7 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 26 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 11 %

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60° 30° 75° 15°

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 30°

Time taken by you: 71 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 80 secs

Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 40 %

undefined

1 – log10099 1 –1 log10099 – 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –1

Time taken by you: 103 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 66 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined The cost price of product P is same as the selling price of product Q. If P is soldat Rs. 15 and the cost price of Q is Rs. 27, then the loss percentage on P is equal to the profit percentage on Q. What is the cost price (in Rs.) of product P? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 45 Time taken by you: 119 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 155 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 60 %

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Both of the above None of the above Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Both of the above Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 73 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 47 %

undefined Consider the quadratic equation x2 – (10m + 8)x + 25n = 0 where m and n are natural numbers. If the equation has real and equal roots, then how many solutions for (n, m) exist? 0 –1 1 Cannot be determined

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: x2 – (10m + 8)x + 25n = 0 For the equation to have real and equal roots, b2 = 4ac Therefore, (10m + 8)2 = 4 × 25n 4(5m + 4)2 = 4 × 25n ? (5m + 4)2 = 52n ? 5m + 4 = 5n or –5n If m is a natural number 5m + 4 cannot be –5 n. Thus, no solution of (n, m) exist. Hence, [1]. Correct Answer: 0 Time taken by you: 159 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 69 %

undefined A sequence of real numbers t0, t1, t2, t3 … is such that t0 = 2 and tn+1 + tn+1 × tn = tn for n > 0. The value of t999 is:

None of these Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 230 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 139 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 80 %

undefined A cone with height twice its base radius fits exactly inside a sphere. What is the ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cone? 125 : 48 125 : 32 125 : 64 125 : 27

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 125 : 32

Time taken by you: 77 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 84 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 41 %

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25 10 12 11

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 10

Time taken by you: 97 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 121 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 82 %

undefined 100 ml of 45% concentrated alcohol solution is continuously heated. It is observed that after 10 minutes of heating, the concentration of alcohol in the solution increases to 60% due to evaporation of water alone. What is the rate (in ml/hour) at which

water is evaporating?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 150 Time taken by you: 46 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 77 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 59 %

undefined The angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock at 03 :10 is half the angle made at time ______. 04 : 35 05 : 40 06 : 45 10 : 50

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation: In 60 minutes, hour hand covers 30°. So in 10 minutes, it covers 5° and in 5 minutes, it moves 2.5°. At 3 : 10, the hour hand is 5° ahead of mark 3. As minute hand is at mark 2, the angle between the two 30 + 5 = 35°. At 4 : 35, the hour hand has covered (5 × 3 + 2.5) = 17.5° ahead of mark 4. Minute hand is at mark 7, As angle between 4 and 7 is 90°, the angle between the two 90 – 17.5 = 62.5°. At 5 : 40, the hour hand has covered (5 × 4) = 20° ahead of mark 5. Minute hand is at mark 8, as angle between 5 and 8 is 90°, the angle between the two 90 – 20 = 70°. At 6 : 45, the hour hand has covered (5 × 4 + 2.5) = 22.5° ahead of mark 6. Minute hand is at mark 9, As angle between 6 and 9 is 90°, the angle between the two 90 – 22.5 = 67.5°. At 10 : 50, minute hand is at mark 10 while hour hand is close to 11. So the angle between the two is less than 30°. Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 05 : 40 Time taken by you: 116 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 89 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 50 %

undefined A parallelogram has three of its vertices at (1, 2), (3, 8) and (4, 1). If the fourthvertex D lies in the fourth quadrant, then the x coordinate of D is:

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 78 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 55 %

undefined The average of ‘n’ consecutive integers is 22, where ‘p’ is the first of these integers. Which of the following cannot be the average of ‘3n’ consecutive integers that begin with ‘p’? (Assume that n > 1) 25 26 27 29

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Since the average of ‘n’ consecutive integers is 22 (which is an integer), n is odd. Therefore, n can take values 3, 5, 7, …. We can create the following table.

Hence, [2].

Correct Answer: 26 Time taken by you: 172 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 61 %

undefined

–2 2 –1 1

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: –2 Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 37 %

undefined A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J participate in a race in which only one person canwin. The probabilities that B, C, D, E … J win are

8, 27, 64, 125 … 1000 times respectively the probability that A wins. What is the probability that E wins the race?

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 51 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 120 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 79 %

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80°

70° 60° None of these

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 70° Time taken by you: 56 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 90 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 73 %

undefined The ratio of the length of the train Shramjeevi Express to the length of the platform AB is 2 : 5. The train enters the platform from the end A. If the train took 77 seconds to cross the platform completely, then how many moreseconds the rear end of the train would have taken to reach end B of the platform after the front end has reached B? 28 21 33 22

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 22

Time taken by you: 44 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 109 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 %

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0 1 2 More than 2

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: The number of points on the circle equals the number of spaces between thepoints around the circle. Moving from the point labelled (N – 7) to the point labelled (N – 44) requires moving (N – 7) – (N – 44) = 37 points and so 37 spaces around the circle.

Since the points labelled (N – 7) and (N – 44) are diametrically opposite, then moving along the circle from (N – 44) to (N – 7) results in travelling halfway around the circle. Therefore, N = 37 × 2 = 74.

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 74

Time taken by you: 389 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 88 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

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0 1 2 More than 2

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0

Time taken by you: 82 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 87 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 %

undefined Shyam bought 12 mangoes. He lost 3 mangoes in transit and sold the remaining mangoes at a price such that he gained an overall profit of 25%. By what percentage was the selling price of a mango more than its cost price?

None of these

Section

Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: None of these

Time taken by you: 92 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 124 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Mohan has to distribute 57 identical chocolates among 10 identical boxes such that each box has a distinct number of chocolates (at least 1). In how many ways can this distribution be done? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let us first distribute 1, 2, 3, …, 9 and 10 chocolates in those 10 individual boxes. This amounts to total 55 chocolates. That means only 2 chocolates remain to be distributed.

Both these 2 chocolates can either be put in the box with 9 chocolates (1, 2, 3 … 8, 11, 10), the box with 10 chocolates (1, 2, 3 … 8, 9, 12) or one chocolate each in boxes with 9 and 10 chocolates (1, 2, 3 … 8, 10, 11).

But notice that the first and third case would result the same way of distributions. Therefore, the total number of possibilities will be 2.

Therefore, the required answer is 2. Correct Answer: 2 Time taken by you: 83 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 20 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 17 %

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1: 12

1: 9 1: 8 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 : 12 Time taken by you: 186 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 77 %

undefined Durgesh can do a piece of work in 12 days whereas Murugesh can do 50% of the same work in 10 days. The same piece of work was completed by Durgesh and Murugesh in 11 days as follows: Initially both of them together started the work and worked together for 5 days. For the remaining days, Murugesh worked alone for a few days and then Durgesh completed the remaining work alone. For how many days did Murugesh work alone?

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 5 Time taken by you: 150 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 115 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 68 %

undefined Bag A contains balls that are numbered 1, bag B contains balls that are numbered 2 and bag C contains balls that are numbered 3. Preetam is required to take at least one ball from each bag such that the total sum of all the numbers on the balls drawn doesn’t exceed 100. Assume following cases: A : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag A and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. B : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag B and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. C : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag C and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. What is the sum total of the number of balls drawn from bag A in case A, bag B in case B and bag C in case C? 173 174 175 176

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 132

Time taken by you: 125 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 135 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 74 %

undefined Bag A contains balls that are numbered 1, bag B contains balls that are numbered 2 and bag C contains balls that are numbered 3. Preetam is required to take at least one ball from each bag such that the total sum of all the numbers on the balls drawn doesn’t exceed 100. Assume following cases: A : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag A and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. B : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag B and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. C : Maximum possible balls are drawn from bag C and the summation of the numbers on the balls is exactly 100. What is the sum total of the number of balls drawn from bag A in case A, bag B in case B and bag C in case C? 173 174 175 176

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Let a, b and c bethe number of balls drawn from bag A, bag B and bag C respectively.

Therefore, a + 2b + 3c < 100. Case A: Maximum value of ‘a’ will be when ‘b’ and ‘c’ are minimized to 1. The corresponding value of a = 95. Case B: Maximum value of ‘b’ will be when ‘a’ and ‘c’ are minimized to 1. The corresponding value of b = 48. Case C: Maximum value of ‘c’ will be when ‘a’ and ‘b’ are minimized to 1. The corresponding value of c = 32. [Note that for sum of numbers to be 100, one more ball from bag A must have drawn.] Therefore, the required answer = 95 + 48 + 32 = 175 Hence, [3]. Correct Answer: 175 Time taken by you: 133 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 108 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined undefined Two sides of an isosceles triangle have lengths 18 units and 41 units. What will be the area (in sq. units) of the triangle formed by joining the midpoints of all the sides? Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 90 Time taken by you: 25 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 71 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 52 %

Mahesh has a bottle full of pineapple juice. He pours half the contents of the bottle into an empty can, fills the bottle completely with water, and mixes thoroughly. He then repeats this process 27 more times. Afterwards, he pours the contents of the bottle into the can. What is the ratio of the volumes of pineapple juice and water in the can, if capacity of the bottle is 4 litres? 1 : 13 1 : 14 1 : 15 1 : 16

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1 : 14

Time taken by you: 295 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 48 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 39 %

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1: 2 1: 4 2: 5 1: 8 Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 1:4 Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 117 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 66 %

undefined Sohan distributed equal number of coins among his three children A, B and C. It is known that A, B and C have four, five and eight children respectively. A distributed his share of coins equally among his children. The same was done by B and C. What could be the minimum possible number of coins distributed by Sohan? 144 108 96 120

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: Given that A, B and C have four, five and eight children respectively. Also, A, B and C received same number of coins from Sohan. Therefore, to minimize the number of coins distributed by Sohan, the number of coins with each of A, B, and C must be LCM of 4, 5 and 8, i.e., 40. Therefore, minimum possible number of coins distributed by Sohan is 40 × 3 = 120. Hence, [4].

Correct Answer: 120

Time taken by you: 75 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 95 %

undefined The volume of water in a glass is two-fifth of the capacity of the glass.If 'V' litres of water is added to the glass, the volume of water in the glass will be 5 litres less than three-fifth of the capacity of the glass. Which of the following relations correctly represents the capacity (in litres) of glass? (2V + 25) (V + 25) (5V – 155) (5V + 25) Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (5V + 25) Time taken by you: 26 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 92 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 93 %

undefined In a class of 60 students, the average age of the 25 girls is 12 yearsand that of the boys is 18 years. Three of the students aged 18, 19 and 20 years leave the class and are replaced by 4 students of ages 10, 11, 10 and 11 years. Find the change in the average age of the class.

0.167 years 0.25 years 1.2 years 0.5 years

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer: 0.5 years

Time taken by you: 58 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 130 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined There is an infinite supply of red, blue, orange and green marbles. The number of ways in which 2001 marbles can be arranged in a line such that no red marble is adjacent to a blue marble and no orange marble is adjacent to a green marble is 6 × 42001 4 × 32000 2 × 32001 3 × 42000

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation: If the first marble is red, the next marble can be red, green or orange. If the first marble is green, the next marble can be red, blue or green. If the first marble is blue, the next can be green, orange or blue. If first marble is orange, the next one can be red, blue or orange. Thus, there are 4 choices for the first marble. After that, there are 3 choices for each of the remaining 2000 marbles. Therefore, the total number of ways = 4 × 32000

Hence, [2]. Correct Answer: 4 × 32000

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 54 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 49 %

undefined The lengths of the inradius and base of an isosceles triangle are 6 cm and 16 cm respectively. Find the perimeter of the triangle.

Section Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Time taken by you: 0 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 113 secs Your Attempt: Skipped % Students got it correct: 35 %

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Around 13,000 years ago North America had a more diverse mammal community than modern-day Africa. There were multiple horse species, camels, llamas and a now-extinct animal called Glyptodon, which looked something like a Volkswagen bug–size armadillo. Smilodon, a saber-toothed cat around the size of today’s African lion, skulked across the grasslands in search of ground sloths and mammoths. Seven-foot-long giant otters chowed down on massive trees. And such massive creatures were not just found in North America. On every continent mammals on average were a lot larger in the late Pleistocene, the geologic epoch spanning from around 2.5 million until about 11,700 years ago.

Scientists have long debated what caused all these large-bodied critters to go extinct while many of their smaller counterparts survived. A team of researchers led by University of New Mexico biologist Felisa Smith analyzed evidence from millions of years’ worth of mammalian extinctions and found that on each continent large mammals started to die out around the same time humans first showed up.

If the extinction trend continues apace, modern elephants, rhinos, giraffes, hippos, bison, tigers and many more large mammals will soon disappear as well, as the primary threats from humans have expanded from overhunting, poaching or other types of killing to include indirect processes such as habitat loss and fragmentation. The largest terrestrial mammal 200 years from now could well be the domestic cow, Smith’s research suggests. Some scientists lay the blame squarely on humanity’s shoulders, arguing overhunting doomed the planet's megafauna. After our hominid relative Homo erectus fanned out from Africa into Eurasia starting some two million years ago, Homo sapiens followed around 60,000 to 80,000 years ago and became widespread in Eurasia, joining our close cousins, the Neandertals and Denisovans. It is thought Homo sapiens later reached Australia between 50,000 and 60,000 years ago and finally settled the Americas between 13,000 and 15,000 years ago. In the time line of mammalian extinctions, large animals started to disappear only after humans or their hominid cousins showed up. But could that be a coincidence? Others have argued the main culprit behind these die-offs was the changing climate.

In North America the average mammal weighed around 98 kilograms before the ancestors of humans showed up. Today the average size is closer to eight kilograms. “We’ve lopped a couple orders of magnitude off the distribution of mammals’ [body sizes],” Smith says. For most of mammalian evolutionary history, an animal’ s size was not predictive of its extinction risk. That link only appeared once hominids began to live alongside large mammals. This finding does not mean climate-related changes could not have stressed some wildlife populations, enabling humans to more easily bring about their eventual downfall. Rather it suggests the greater likelihood of large-bodied mammals going extinct is tied to human activities. A suite of animals that evolved in Eurasia, Australia and the Americas without the risk of predation from tool-using, fire-making, group-living hominids were suddenly faced with a new threat. They simply could not adapt fast enough to survive the incursion of these omnivorous bipedal apes. In addition, Smith’s analysis looked at the size distribution of African mammals prior to the hominid migration into Eurasia. She found African mammals were also smaller on average once hominids began appearing on the landscape there—and they evolved right alongside one another. “They have evidence that hominids in Africa had already been impacting the size distribution of mammals on that continent before Homo sapiens evolved,” says paleoecologist Emily Lindsey, assistant curator and excavation site director of the La Brea Tar Pits Museum in Los Angeles, who was not involved in the study. What that means, she says, is “these groups of hominid species were having impacts on a continental scale before the evolution of modern humans.” And it does not take all that many hominids to have such broad effects. Driving a large species to extinction does not mean killing every last one of its members. “You just have to kill slightly more than are being produced each year,” Lindsey says. If a population's reproduction rate cannot compensate for its losses each year, within a few hundred to a couple thousand years the species will simply die out. Large-bodied mammals are especially vulnerable because they reproduce slowly. Mammoths and mastodons, for example, likely had a two-year gestation period, akin to modern elephants, and would have typically produced just one offspring at a time. It is therefore a lot easier to decimate a population of 100,000 mammoths than a population of 100,000 rabbits, which reproduce twice a year and birth by litter. 1) The central idea of the passage is that … Humans and other hominids have historically driven large animals to extinction but it is high time we start thinking about minimizing our impact on the Earth.

Human evolution and progress is replete with killing of large animals accelerating their extinction. Humans and other hominids accelerated the extinction of large species in the past and human activities are driving modern large mammals to extinction as well. Human activities combined with failure of large mammals to adapt to the changing climate led to their eventual downfall in the Pleistocene. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. The passage starts by claiming that“On every continent mammals on average were a lot larger in the late Pleistocene …” The second paragraph ties the cause of extinction of these large mammals to human evolution by stating that “large mammals started to die out around the same time as humans first showed up.” The next paragraph states that if this extinction trend continues, then modern large mammals will also disappear, and the domestic cow may be the largest mammal alive 200 years from now. The author then explores in detail the link between human activities and the extinction of large species. Later, the passage states that “Large-bodied mammals are especially vulnerable [to extinction] because they reproduce slowly.” Thus, the main idea of the passage is that among other reasons human activities accelerate the extinction of large mammals even today. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest whether we must start thinking about minimizing our impact on Earth. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. This option is an exaggeration, we cannot conclude from the passage whether humans or their ancestors deliberately killed huge number of large mammals. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. This option correctly covers one of the themes of the passage that human activities led to the extinction of large mammals in the late Pleistocene. But it fails to mention the other major point of the passage that human activities are driving modern large mammals to extinct as well. Eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. This option covers the idea that human and other hominids were primarily responsible for extinction of large species in the past, and that humans may be driving modern large mammals to extinction through their activities. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: Humans and other hominids accelerated the extinction of large species in the past and human activities are driving modern large mammals to extinction as well.

Time taken by you: 363 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 243 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 58 % 2) According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a risk to the existenceof modern large mammals? The emergence of discontinuities in the environment of these animals. The destruction of the environment inhabited by these animals. Human activities coupled with the slow reproductive rate and longer gestation period of these mammals. The growing demand for meat due to human population explosion and overconsumption. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states“If the extinction trend continues apace, modern elephants, rhinos, giraffes, hippos, bison, tigers and many more large mammals will soon disappear as well, as the primary threats from humans have expanded from overhunting, poaching or other types of killing to include indirect processes such as habitat loss and fragmentation.” The discontinuities in the environment of large mammals mean habitat fragmentation of large mammals. It is an extinction risk for modern large mammals according to the passage. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The destruction of the environment inhabited by large mammals amounts to habitat loss mentioned in paragraph 2. Thus, it is an extinction risk and we can eliminate the option. Option 3 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “Large-bodied mammals are especially vulnerable because they reproduce slowly.” Thus, we can conclude that large mammals are at a greater risk of extinction due to human activities since they have a slower reproductive rate and longer gestation period. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The passage contains no reference to the growing demand for meat and overpopulation of humans; also, large mammals are generally killed not for meat but for other commercial purposes. Also, even if they are killed for meat we have no data from the passage to conclude if they are being killed more than are being produced each year. So, option 4 is not advanced as an extinction risk to modern mammals. The correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: The growing demand for meat due to human population explosion and overconsumption.

Time taken by you: 62 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 56 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 61 % 3) Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? The extinction of a majority of large mammals in Australia between50,000 to 60,000 years ago was the first significant impact that Homo sapiens had on a continental scale. Modern humans settled in the Americas in the late Pleistocene. An animal’s size cannot be linked to its extinction risk. Changing climate is the main reason behind extinction of large species. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The information in paragraph 4 is inadequate to infer that the arrival of Homo sapiens in Australia between 50000 to 60000 years ago was the“first” significant impact that Homo sapiens had. Eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 states that the extinction risk of an animal does relate to its size after the hominids began to live alongside large mammals. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author states in paragraphs 5 and 6 that generally the size of the animal is not linked to its extinction risk, but the link appeared after hominids began to live alongside large mammals. And, though there could have been climate related reasons for their extinction, there is “the greater likelihood of large-bodied mammals going extinct (because of) human activities.” Thus, we can infer that human activities were the primary reason for extinction while climate change only aided that process. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 4 states that “It is thought Homo sapiens later reached Australia between 50,000 and 60,000 years ago and finally settled the Americas between 13,000 and 15,000 years ago.” Also, paragraph 1 states that Pleistocene was the geological epoch spanning from around 2.5 million until 11,700 years ago. Thus, we can conclude that modern humans settle in the Americas in the late Pleistocene. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Modern humans settled in the Americas in the late Pleistocene.

Time taken by you: 167 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 49 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 4) Which of the following best sums up the findings of the study led by biologist Felisa Smith? Climate change aided by human activities was responsible for driving the extinction of large mammals. Climate-related changes could not have stressed wildlife populations, rather human activities are to be squarely blamed for their eventual downfall. Hominids were extremely proficient predators. Large animals faced greater extinction risk after humans or hominids started living alongside them. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The 6th paragraph states that human activities were primarily responsible for the extinction of large mammals and climate-change may have aided this extinction, not the other way round. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. We see in the6th paragraph that the author does not deny the role of climate change in the extinction of large mammals. He states climate change could have stressed the large mammalian populations. Hence, eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant in the context of the question asked. The findings were not that hominids were extremely proficient predators but that the link between extinction-risk of animals and their size appeared only after hominids began living alongside them. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 5 states that“For most of mammalian evolutionary history, an animal’ s size was not predictive of its extinction risk. That link only appeared once hominids began to live alongside large mammals.” Thus, option 4 correctly sums up the findings of the team of researchers led by biologist Felisa Smith and is the correct answer. Thus the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Large animals faced greater extinction risk after humans or hominids started living alongside them.

Time taken by you: 90 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 94 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 67 % 5) All of the following statements about hominids are true EXCEPT: They fed only on food of animal origin. They tended to associate in social and cooperative groups. They could start and maintain fire. They walked on two feet. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 2 is incorrect. The third last paragraph describes hominids as“tool-using, fire-making, group living”. Thus, groupliving implies that hominids tended to live in social groups and cooperated with each other. This option is not an exception. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. “fire-making” suggests that hominids could start and maintain fire. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The 6th paragraph describes hominids as “omnivorous bipedal apes”. The word ‘bipedal’ means “twofooted”. So, eliminate option 4. Option 1 is correct. The word omnivorous means: feeding on both animal and vegetable substances. “Omnivorous” is used to describe hominids; hence, option 1 is contrary to the passage. Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: They fed only on food of animal origin.

Time taken by you: 87 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 53 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 62 % 6) Large mammals could not survive the incursion of hominids because… Hominids killed every last one of the members of these large species. Hominids caused the death of more Pleistocene megafauna than it could reproduce. Hominids adapted fast enough to get a survival advantage over these mammals. Hominids impacted the size distribution of mammals on a continental scale. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The second last paragraph states“Driving a large species to extinction does not mean killing every last one of its members,” implying that such mass killing did not take place. Thus we can eliminate option 1. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage makes no reference to ability of hominids to adapt fast and get a survival advantage. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. This option is irrelevant to the question. Even though hominids impacted the size distribution of mammals, it is not the reason why large mammals could not survive the incursion of hominids. Eliminate option 4. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 6 states, “They (the large mammals) simply could not adapt fast enough to survive the incursion of these omnivorous bipedal apes.” Also, the 7th paragraph explains further that “If a population's reproduction rate cannot compensate for its losses each year, within a few hundred to a couple thousand years the species will simply die out.” Thus, we can conclude that hominids caused the death of more individuals of large mammals than those mammals could reproduce. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Hominids caused the death of more Pleistocene megafauna than it could reproduce.

Time taken by you: 17 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 63 %

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. It was, quite literally, a dark and stormy night. The volcanic eruption of MountTambora in faraway Indonesia had plunged Europe beneath unceasing cloud; 1816 was known as “the year without a summer”. Rain was falling on the shore of Lake Geneva as, on an evening in mid-June, five young people gathered in a swanky villa for a ghost-story competition. The host was Lord Byron, at 28 already a jaded superstar. With him was John Polidori, a doctor of 20. They were joined by Percy

Bysshe Shelley, a 23 year old poet; his girlfriend Mary Godwin; and Mary’s stepsister Claire Claremont, also 18.

The contest yielded two ideas that became gothic classics. One was Polidori’s“The Vampyre”, originally intended as a queasy satire on Byron and the bloodsucking nature of celebrity. The other, infinitely more famous outcome was Mary’s tale of a scientist who confects a humanoid out of body parts. In the following weeks her story grew into “Frankenstein”, which was first published two centuries ago, in 1818. Few novels have had such mythical beginnings, and few have themselves achieved the status of myths, as“Frankenstein” has. It was the founding text of modern science fiction. Each generation of its readers finds new allegories for the anxieties and ambitions of what they take for modernity; the monster each sees is a reflection of themselves. Yet at the heart of the story, as of Mary’s biography, were primeval sadnesses and fears. Mary Shelley (as she soon became) was born into the radical aristocracy of her day. Writing her imaginary story of a being jolted to life by Victor Frankenstein, Mary drew on the cutting-edge science of her time, including galvanism and electricity. She formulated her plot as modern science itself was in its birth-throes. In the year of the novel’s publication an experiment was conducted in which electrical currents were passed through a corpse in a failed attempt at reanimation. The cadaver convulsed; its fingers twitched. But it remained resolutely dead—unlike Frankenstein’s monster: “With an anxiety that almost amounted to agony, I collected the instruments of life around me, that I might infuse a spark of being into the lifeless thing that lay at my feet…by the glimmer of the half-extinguished light, I saw the dull yellow eye of the creature open; it breathed hard, and a convulsive motion agitated its limbs.” For all the historical specificity of these references, the novel’s qualms about the underside of progress have never resonated more than in the 21st century. The issues raised by artificial life are no longer hypothetical. Genetic modification and robotics, current attitudes among scientists to techniques commonly known as “playing God” have made them urgent. Over the centuries the monster has been enlisted as an avatar for other sorts of change. Just as Frankenstein loses control of his creation, Mary’s story has travelled around the world, metastasising in ways she could not have imagined. It is celebrated in the form of books, plays and films. Mary’s monster, though, is not confined to page, stage and screen. Every time children stick out their arms and affect a ghoulish plod, he lives again. He has entered the English language as a byword for hubris and unintended consequences. Those coming to the original for the first time, expecting the sort of B-movie schlock horror it has inspired, may be surprised by its knotty, highbrow prose. Mary was a disciple of her philosopher father and, for all the science, the novel’s primary concern is ethics. That description of the monster’s birth, which became the primal scene in all the films, is actually fairly cursory. Her underlying aim was to explore the idea—derived from John Locke—of the newborn as a tabula rasa, whose character is determined by experience rather than innate qualities. It is because the creature is scorned, and deprived of a moral framework, that he becomes monstrous and seeks a gruesome revenge. “I was benevolent and good,” he pathetically tells Frankenstein; “misery made me a friend. Make me happy, and I shall again be virtuous.” The common error of thinking Frankenstein the name of the monster, rather than of his maker, can be traced not just to his namelessness in the novel but to the fact that, in the cast-list for the first stage blockbuster, the part was called simply “----”. The conflation, though, is more than a mistake. It captures the symbiosis of the two figures—the mutual cruelties of wayward offspring and remiss parent—and an eternal truth about neglect and its sequel. 1) In the context of the passage, what is implicit when children, during play,“stick out their arms and affect a ghoulish plod”? The grim associations, in the minds of people who may not even haveread Frankenstein, between pride and its downfall. The mythical status of Mary’s monster as a figure of horror that has caught the popular imagination. The association of pride and arrogance with a dangerous tendency to generate hate and violence. The unexpected spread of Mary Shelley’s story as something evoking fear rather than something that arouses philosophical debate. 2) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage, regarding JohnPolidori’s “The Vampyre”? It was not successful in showing that Byron’s ennui was a product of hisown desire for fame at the cost of his peace of mind.

It created a new type of creature in the world of ghost stories but was notas popular as Frankenstein It emerged as a genre by itself as it spawned countless other storiesabout creatures that drank blood. The initial intention of John Polidori was not to inspire horror even though he wrote a ghost story. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. The writer does not comment on how “successful” The Vampyre was at any criteria. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. While the passage does state that Frankenstein was a more famous book than The Vampyre, we cannot infer from the passage that “It created a new type of creature in the world of ghost stories”. There is just one reference to the book and not enough information to proceed on. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The Vampyre is mentioned only in passing. The passage makes one point about it when it refers to the intentions of the author while writing the book. We cannot therefore infer from the passage that it “emerged as a genre by itself”. Reject option 3. Option 4 is correct. The second paragraph states: “The contest yielded two ideas that became gothic classics. One was Polidori’s “The Vampyre”, originally intended as a queasy satire on Byron and the bloodsucking nature of celebrity”. Thus one can infer that the intention of Polidori while writing the book, was to satirise celebrity as something that was bloodsucking, figuratively, ruthless and inhumane. The passage reveals that while both he and Mary Shelley wrote ghost stories, Polidori’s intention originally was not so much to inspire horror through the story but to mock celebrity by painting a queasy or nauseating look at its “bloodsucking nature”. Retain option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: The initial intention of John Polidori was not to inspire horror even though he wrote a ghost story. Time taken by you: 143 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 43 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 38 % 3)According to the passage, Mary Shelley’s book Frankenstein, is: Highbrow and hard to comprehend because of its philosophical perspective onthe ethics of scientific progress. Considerably popular because of its populist appeal to the sensational horror it inspires. Surprisingly intellectual considering the kind of lowbrow fame it has acquired through films based on it. A difficult book to read for those who have formulated an opinion of the story byviewing films based on it. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage refers to the book as one having “knotty, highbrow prose”. It does not state anywhere that “its philosophical perspective on the ethics of scientific progress” is what makes it difficult to comprehend. Reject option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The book is said to be “knotty” or difficult to read. It cannot then be said to be a populist or commonly appealing work. Reject option 2. Option 3 is correct. The writer states that: “Those coming to the original for the first time, expecting the sort of B-movie schlock horror it has inspired, may be surprised by its knotty, highbrow prose”. In other words, her book is surprisingly intellectual for people who have associated Frankenstein with the “B-movies” based on the book. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect as it derives a false conclusion from the given facts in the passage. The book is said to be“surprisingly complex” in comparison with the films derived from it. That does not mean that it is difficult, specifically, for those who have seen the films based on it. Reject option 4. Thus the correct answer is option 3. Correct Answer: Surprisingly intellectual considering the kind of lowbrow fame it has acquired through films based on it. Time taken by you: 58 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 24 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 23 % 4) According to the passage, “common error of thinking Frankenstein the name ofthe monster rather than of his maker is more than a mistake” for the following reasons EXCEPT: It signifies the intimate association of the novel’s author and its protagonist.

It signifies the intimate association of the monster and its creator. It signifies the unity of the two characters in the novel. It stands for the eternal truth about neglect and its consequences. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is an easy question. The last paragraph of the passage states, “The common error of thinking Frankenstein the name of the monster, rather than of his maker, can be traced not just to his namelessness in the novel but to the fact that, in the cast-list for the first stage blockbuster, the part was called simply “----”. The conflation, though, is more than a mistake. It captures the symbiosis of the two figures—the mutual cruelties of wayward offspring and remiss parent—and an eternal truth about neglect and its sequel.” The author of the essay suggests that the conflation somehow helped signify the subtle ethical issue on the novel. In the readers’, the nameless monster came to be known by its creator’s name as Frankenstein. The essayist suggests that the symbolism of the novel unifies the characters in the theme of neglect and its sequel, or the relation between and irresponsible child and the inefficient and careless parent. Option 1 is correct. The nameless monster had no association with the writer of the novel but only with its own creator, Victor Frankenstein. The novel does not highlight this aspect. Hence option 1 is the exception that will answer this question. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. As stated in the last paragraph, it signifies the symbiosis or the intimate association between the monster and its creator. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The creator of the monster Victor Frankenstein and the nameless monster are two main characters in the novel. Eliminate option 2. Option 4 is incorrect. As the last line of the passage suggests, the two characters in the novel symbolize the truth about neglect and its consequences. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: It signifies the intimate association of the novel’s author and its protagonist.

Time taken by you: 118 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 44 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 47 % 5) The passage does NOT attribute which of the following motifs (themes)to thenovel Frankenstein? Monsters are not born monsters. Science can go too far. Actions have consequences. Bloodsucking nature of celebrity. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a medium difficulty question. Though they are not analyzed in detail the passage, it hints at several motifs (themes) that are pursued in Mary Shelley ’s novel. The question asks us to find a theme that is not pursued. So we know that three of the given options are themes mentioned in the passage. Option is incorrect. It is a theme pursed in the novel. The penultimate paragraph states,“Mary Shelley’s underlying aim was to explore the idea—derived from John Locke—of the newborn as a tabula rasa, whose character is determined by experience rather than innate qualities.” Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The sixth paragraph states, “For all the historical specificity of these references, the novel’s qualms about the underside of progress have never resonated more than in the 21st century. The issues raised by artificial life are no longer hypothetical. Genetic modification and robotics, current attitudes among scientists to techniques commonly known as “playing God” have made them urgent.”Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The seventh paragraph states that the word Frankenstein has entered the English language as a byword for hubris and unintended consequences. Further the last paragraph also states that the novel is about the eternal truth about neglect and its consequences. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. The theme of bloodsucking nature of celebrity is mentioned as the theme of Polidori ’s “The Vampyre”, and not Frankenstein. Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Answer: Bloodsucking nature of celebrity.

Time taken by you: 30 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 29 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 83 % 6) It can be inferred from the passage that… Frankenstein was a collaborative effort between Mary Shelley and her futurehusband Percy Bysshe Shelley. Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein is the first Gothic novel in literature. In 1818, when Frankenstein was published it became the first science fiction novel. The story of Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein is largely auto biographical. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is medium difficulty question. Option 1 is incorrect. The first paragraph mentions Percy Bysshe Shelley as one of the five young people who gathered in a villa on Lake Geneva for a ghost-story competition. No collaborative effort is mentioned or implied. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions that the contest yielded two ideas that became gothic classics. There is no information in the passage from which it is possible to infer that Frankenstein was the first Gothic novel. In fact, historically there were Gothic novels before Frankenstein. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is correct. The third paragraph mentions that Frankenstein “was the founding text of modern science fiction.” So, the inference that it was science fiction novel is correct. Retain option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Though the passage mentions the influence of her philosopher father on Mary Shelley, and“at the heart of the story (like her biography) were primeval sadness and fears,” we cannot conclude that the novel itself was autobiographical. Primeval sadness and fears are not personal sadness or fears. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Answer: In 1818, when Frankenstein was published it became the first science fictionnovel.

Time taken by you: 134 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 45 secs

Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 56 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. It’s always a welcome thing to learn that ideas that are commonplace in science fiction have a basis in science fact. One such fictional concept, “the warp drive” – alternately known as FTL (Faster-Than-Light) travel, Hyperspace, Lightspeed, etc. – actually has one foot in the world of real science. In physics, it is what is known as the Alcubierre Warp Drive. On paper, it is a highly speculative, but possibly valid solution of the Einstein field equations, specifically how space, time and energy interact.

Since Einstein first proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905, scientists have been operating under the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe. One of these restrictions is the belief that the speed of light is unbreakable and hence, that there will never be such a thing as FTL space travel or exploration. But then, in 1994, a Mexican physicist by the name of Miguel Alcubierre came along with proposed method for stretching the fabric of space-time in way which would, in theory, allow FTL travel to take pace. To put it simply, this method of space travel involves stretching the fabric of space-time in a wave which would (in theory) cause the space ahead of an object to contract while the space behind it would expand. An object inside this wave (i.e. a spaceship) would then be able to ride this region, known as a “warp bubble” of flat space. This is what is known as the “Alcubierre Metric”. Interpreted in the context of General Relativity, the metric allows a warp bubble to appear in a previously flat region of spacetime and move away, effectively at speeds that exceed the speed of light. The interior of the bubble is the inertial reference frame for any object inhabiting it. The mathematical formulation of the Alcubierre metric is consistent with the conventional claims of the laws of relativity and conventionalrelativisticeffects. Since the ship is not moving within this bubble, but is being carried along as the region itself moves, the laws of relativity would not be violated in the conventional sense. One of the reasons for this is because this method would not rely on moving faster than light in the local sense, since a light beam within this bubble would still always move faster than the ship. It is only “faster than light” in the sense that the ship could reach its destination faster than a beam of light that was traveling outside the warp bubble. However, there are few problems with this theory. For one, there are no known methods to create such a warp bubble in a region of space that would not already contain one. Second, assuming there was a way to create such a bubble, there is not yet any known way of leaving once inside it. As a result, the Alcubierre drive (or metric) remains in the category of theory at this time. In 2012, NASA’s Advanced Propulsion Physics Laboratory (aka.Eagleworks) announced that they had begun conducting experiments to see if a “warp drive” was in fact possible. This included developing an interferometer to detect the spatial distortions produced by the expanding and contracting space-time of the Alcubierre metric.

The team lead – Dr. Harold Sonny White – described their work in a NASA paper titled Warp Field Mechanics 101. He also explained their work in NASA’s 2012 Roundup publication: “We’ve initiated an interferometer test bed in this lab, where we’re going to go through and try and generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble. And although this is just a microscopic instance of the phenomena, we’re perturbing space time, one part in 10 million, a very tiny amount… The math would allow you to go to Alpha Centauri in two weeks as measured by clocks here on Earth. So somebody’s clock onboard the spacecraft has the same rate of time as somebody in mission control here in Houston might have. There are no tidal forces, no undue issues, and the proper acceleration is zero. When you turn the field on, everybody doesn’t go slamming against the bulkhead, (which) would be a very short and sad trip.”In 2013, Dr. White and members of Eagleworks published their results, which were deemed to be inconclusive. When it comes to the future of space exploration, some questions like“how long will it take us to get the nearest star?” seem rather troubling when we don’t make allowances for some kind of hypervelocity or faster-than-light transit method. How can we expect to become an interstellar species when all available methods will either take centuries (or longer), or will involve sending a nanocraft instead? At present, such a thing just doesn’t seem to be entirely within the realm of possibility. And attempts to prove otherwise remain inconclusive. But as history has taught us, what is considered to be impossible changes over time. Until then, we’ll just have to be patient and wait on future research. 1) Which of the following best describes the 2012 experiment of Eagleworks? They attempted to create a wave that would slightly distort spacetime andthen to detect the wave using investigative tools. They attempted to create conditions in which there would be no tidalforces, no undue issues, and the proper acceleration would be zero. They attempted to create a microscopic instance of a spacecraft whichwould not send the occupants slamming against the bulkhead. They attempted to make a microscopic spacecraft to go to Alpha Centauriin two weeks time as measured by clocks on Earth but the attempt was inconclusive. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is correct. In paragraph 8, the passage quotes NASA’s 2012 Roundup publication as “We’ve initiated an interferometer test bed in this lab, where we’re going to go through and try and generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble.” Thus, we can infer that the team attempted to create a warp bubble and to detect that bubble using an interferometer (which can be said to be an investigative tool). Also, paragraph 3 states that “This method of space travel involves stretching the fabric of space-time in a wave which would (in theory) cause the space ahead of an object to contract while the space behind it would expand. An object inside this wave (i.e. a spaceship) would then be able to ride this region, known as a “warp bubble” of flat space.” Thus, we can infer that a warp bubble can be obtained by creating a wave that would distort spacetime. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. As seen in paragraph 8, “no tidal forces, no undue issues, and the proper acceleration is zero” are the just conditions necessary for the experiment to be successful, they do not sum up the research done by the NASA team. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 8 states that the NASA team attempted to create a microscopic instance of a warp bubble, not of a spacecraft. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, paragraph 8 states that the NASA team attempted to created a microscopic warp bubble not a spacecraft. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: They attempted to create a wave that would slightly distort spacetime andthen to detect the wave using investigative tools.

Time taken by you: 340 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 142 secs

Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 36 % 2) Which of the following statements holds true for Alcubierre Warp drive? It is inspired from ideas in science fiction. It can overcome the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe. It is possibly a valid solution of the Einstein field equations, which may, infuture, allow an object to travel at speeds that exceed the speed of light. It would require expanding and contracting space around an object. Video Explanation: Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that “the fictional concept [of] warp drive […] actually has one foot in the world of real science. In physics, it is what is known as the Alcubierre Warp Drive.” We cannot infer whether the concept in physics is inspired from ideas in science fiction. Thus we can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states that “Since Einstein first proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905, scientists have been operating under the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe.” Also, paragraph 4 states that, “[In Alcubierre metric] Since the ship is not moving within this bubble, but is being carried along as the region itself moves, the laws of relativity would not be violated in the conventional sense.” Thus, we can infer that Alcubierre metric would work under the restrictions imposed by a relativistic universe. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 states that “… the metric allows a warp bubble to […] move away, effectively at speeds that exceed the speed of light.” Thus, we can conclude that the warp bubble and not an object would move at speeds greater than the speed of light. Also, if an object moves at speeds greater than speed of light, then it would violate Einstein’s laws of relativity. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 3 states that “… this method of space travel involves stretching the fabric of space-time in a wave which would (in theory) cause the space ahead of an object to contract while the space behind it would expand.” Thus, we can conclude that creating an Alcubierre warp drive requires expanding and contracting space around an object. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Correct Answer: It would require expanding and contracting space around an object. Time taken by you: 96 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 38 % 3) It can be inferred from the passage that the interferometer developed by NASAEagleworks team would … measure speeds greater than the speed of light. identify even minute disturbances in spacetime. generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble. maintain somebody’s clock onboard the spacecraft at the same rate oftime as somebody in mission control in Houston might have. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty. Option 1 is incorrect. Paragraph 7 clearly states that the NASA team developed an interferometer to detect spatial distortions. There is no mention of any relation between interferometer and measuring speed of light. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 7 states,“This included developing an interferometer to detect the spatial distortions …” Also, paragraph 8 states that “We’ve initiated an interferometer test bed in this lab, where we’re going to go through and try and generate a microscopic instance of a little warp bubble.” Thus, we can conclude that the interferometer would be able detect minute disturbances in space time. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. From paragraphs 7 & 8 we can infer that the interferometer would detect the microscopic instance of a little warp bubble generated on an interferometer test bed. Thus, the interferometer itself does not generate a microscopic warp bubble. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. “[To] maintain somebody’s clock onboard the spacecraft at the same rate of time as somebody in mission control in Houston might have” is a procedure to be followed during the experiment. It is not an activity done by the interferometer. Eliminate option 4. Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: identify even minute disturbances in spacetime.

Time taken by you: 67 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 30 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 42 % 4) All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT: Speed of light is unbreakable. Alcubierre metric is consistent with Einstein’s equations. Sending a nanocraft into space is a more viable solution than sending a spacecraft, which will take centuries or longer. FTL travel remains a hypothesis, since experimental verifications haveproved inconclusive. 5) Alcubierre metric remains in the category of theory because It is proven only mathematically. Survivability inside the warp bubble is questionable. The amount of energy required to warp spacetime is currently unattainable. An object inside the warp bubble will not experience time since the bubblewould effectively travel at speeds greater than the speed of light. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is correct. Paragraph 4 states that“The mathematical formulation of the Alcubierre metric is consistent with the conventional claims of the laws of relativity and conventionalrelativisticeffects.” Also, paragraph 6 lists some problems with the Alcubierre metric and states that “As a result, the Alcubierre drive (or metric) remains in the category of theory at this time.” Further, paragraph 8 states that experiment to prove the Alcubierre metric“was deemed inconclusive”. Thus, we can conclude that Alcubierre metric remains in the category of theory since it is proven only mathematically. Retain option 1. Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 6 mentions that “…there is not yet any known way of leaving once inside it.” But, the passage does not speculate on the survivability inside the warp bubble. Eliminate option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not speculate on the amount of energy required to warp spacetime. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not speculate on the time experienced by an object inside the warp bubble. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Answer: It is proven only mathematically.

Time taken by you: 112 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 39 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 57 % 6) The author comes to the conclusion that: FTL or Hypervelocity travel is not within the realm of possibility becauseattempts to prove otherwise remain inconclusive. Though interstellar travel is not considered possible today, over time itmay become a reality. History has taught us that humans continuously challenge what is considered impossible. It will take us centuries to get to the nearest star. Video Explanation:

Explanation: Option 1 is incorrect. In the last paragraph, the author is optimistic that even though Alcubierre drive or FTL travel does not seem possible at present, history has shown that what we consider impossible changes over time. Option 1 does not convey the optimistic tone of the conclusion made by the author. Thus, we can eliminate option 1. Option 2 is correct. The last paragraph states that“At present, such a thing just doesn’t seem to be entirely within the realm of possibility. [...] But as history has taught us, what is considered to be impossible changes over time. Until then, we’ll just have to be patient and wait on future research.” Option 2 conveys the optimism expressed by the author. Retain option 2. Option 3 is incorrect. The passage is about the “Alcubierre warp drive” and the possibility of humans becoming interstellar species. Compared to option 2, option 3 does not convey the conclusion of the author in its entirety and is also a distortion of the passage. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect. It is irrelevant to the conclusion made by the author. In second last paragraph, the author contemplates over questions like “how long will it take us to get the nearest star?” and “How can we expect to become an interstellar species when all available methods will either take centuries (or longer) … ?” But, it is not the conclusion of the passage. Eliminate option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Answer: Though interstellar travel is not considered possible today, over time itmay become a reality.

Time taken by you: 64 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 41 secs Your Attempt: Correct % Students got it correct: 71 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question. For an obscure temple no one’s heard of, Cholula (now part of Mexico) holds an impressive array of records: it’s the largest pyramid on the planet, with a base four times larger than theGreat Pyramid at Gizaand nearly twice the volume. Never mind the largest pyramid – it’s the largest monument ever constructed anywhere, by any civilisation, to this day. To locals it’s aptly known as Tlachihualtepetl ("man-made mountain”). Thanks to the church on top, it’ s also the oldest continuously occupied building on the continent. The story goes that until the locals began construction of an insane asylum in 1910, nobody knew it was a pyramid. Certainly, by the time the Spanish conquistador, Hernan Cortez and his army arrived in the 16th century, it was already a thousand years old and entirely concealed by vegetation.

Despite its enormous size, very little is known about the pyramid’s early history. It’s thought that the construction began around 300 BC; by who exactly remains a mystery. According to myth it was built by a giant named Xelhua, after he escaped a flood in the neighbouring Valley of Mexico. Most likely, the city’s inhabitants – known as the Choluteca – were a cosmopolitan mix. “It appears to have been multi-ethnic, with a great deal of migration,” says David Carballo, an archaeologist at Boston University, Massachusetts. Whoever they were, they probably had a lot of money. Cholula is conveniently located in the Mexican highlands and was an important trading post for thousands of years, linking the Tolteca-Chichimeca kingdoms in the North with the Maya in the South. Cortez called it "the most beautiful city outside Spain”. By the time he arrived, it was the second-largest city in the Aztec empire, though it had already exchanged hands numerous times. And here there are even more surprises. Infact it’s not one pyramid at all, but a great Russian doll of a construction, consisting of no less than six, one on top of the other. It grew in stages, as successive civilisations improved on what had already been built.“They made a conscious effort to maintain and in some cases display previous construction episodes. This is pretty novel, and shows deliberate efforts to link to the past,” says Carballo. According to legend, when they heard the conquistadors were coming, the locals covered the precious temple with soil themselves. In fact it may have happened by accident. That’ s because, incredibly, the largest pyramid in the world is made of mud.“Adobe” bricks are made by mixing mud with other materials such as sand or straw, and baking it hard in the sun. To make the pyramid, the outer bricks were smoothed with more earth to create a painting surface. In its prime, the temple was covered in red, black and yellow insects. In dry climates, mud bricks are extremely durable – lasting thousands of years. In humid Mexico, the mud creation was a fertile platform for tropical jungle. Today the city has reclaimed their pyramid, which can be explored via over five miles of tunnels constructed in the early 20thCentury. Nearly 500 years after the colonial conquest, the city must contend with a new invasion: tourists. 1) The central idea of the passage is that: The arrival of tourists could be detrimental to the Cholula temple which isof significant historical importance. The Pyramid of Cholula is incorrectly classified as a pyramid; in reality itis a great Russian doll of a construction built by successive civilisations that dominated the region. Even though the temple at Cholula is the largest monument everconstructed, it went unnoticed till the early 20th century because it was covered in vegetation. The Choluteca were prosperous and made an effort to maintain and buildupon the constructions of previous civilizations. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “... the city must contend with a new invasion: tourists.” However, it does not imply that arrival of tourists can cause damage to the temple site. Also, the reference to tourists is to provide a contrast in the last paragraph. It is not the main concern of the passage. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The author does state that the structure “... is not a pyramid at all, but a great Russian doll of a construction ...” However, later in the passage the author repeatedly refers to the temple as a“pyramid”. The “Russian doll of a construction” is mentioned only to emphasize that the temple was developed in stages. It is not the central idea of the passage. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is correct. The passage starts with “For an obscure temple no one’s heard of, Cholula (now part of Mexico) holds an impressive array of records ...” This sentence clearly sets the tone of the passage by providing a contrast between the impressive records held by the temple and its relative anonymity. Throughout the passage the author highlights the fact that the pyramid was covered by forest and was discovered in the 20th century, in the year 1910. Thus, the author’s main concern is to emphasize that in spite of its impressive construction, the existence of the temple was not known till the early 20th century because it was covered in vegetation. Retain 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The author states that “...they (the natives of Cholula) probably had a lot of money.” Also, it states that “It (the temple) grew in stages, as successive civilisations improved on what had already been built.” But, these points are made to emphasize the enormity of the temple and are not the central idea of the passage. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is option [3].

Correct Answer: Even though the temple at Cholula is the largest monument everconstructed, it went unnoticed till the early 20th century because it was covered in vegetation.

Time taken by you: 84 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 107 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 39 % 2) It can be inferred from the passage that the relics of the “great Russian doll of a construction” were covered with soil by the locals themselves. looked like a mountain. were built by a giant named Xelhua. were home to insects. Video Explanation:

Explanation: “Relics”mean remains or remnants of an historical object. Option 1 is incorrect. Second last paragraph states that “According to legend, ... the locals covered the precious temple with soil themselves. In fact it may have happened by accident.” Thus, according to the author, the legend may not be true. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is correct. The passage states that “To locals it’s aptly known as Tlachihualtepetl ("man-made mountain”).” Thus, we can infer that the relics looked like a mountain. Retain 2. Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states that, according to myth the pyramid was built by the giant named Xelhua, not the relics. Eliminate 3. Option 4 is incorrect. According to the passage, the temple in its prime was covered by insects and not the relics. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is [2].

Correct Answer: looked like a mountain.

Time taken by you: 121 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 38 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 36 % 3) All these are true about Cholula EXCEPT: It had a tradition of folklore. It was a regional centre of importance. It was conquered by Hernan Cortez and his army. It was governed by various rulers in its history. Video Explanation:

Explanation: This is an easy question. Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states that “According to myth it was built by a giant named Xelhua, after he escaped a flood in the neighbouring Valley of Mexico.” Thus, we can conclude that the story of Xelhua was passed down by a tradition of myths i.e. folklore. Thus, this option is not an exception. Eliminate 1. Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that “Cholula is conveniently located in the Mexican highlands and was an important trading post for thousands of years, linking the Tolteca-Chichimeca kingdoms in the North with the Maya in the South.” Thus, we can conclude that it was a center of regional importance. Eliminate 2. Option 3 is correct. The passage states that “Certainly, by the time the Spanish conquistador, Hernan Cortez and his army arrived in the 16th century, it was already a thousand years old and entirely concealed by vegetation.” We cannot deduce from the word “arrived”, whether Hernan Cortez and his army conquered Cholula or not. Thus, option 3 is not inferable. Retain 3. Option 4 is incorrect. The passage states that “By the time he [Cortez] arrived, it was the second-largest city in the Aztec empire, though it had already exchanged hands numerous times.” Thus, we can safely infer that it was governed by various rulers. Eliminate 4. Hence, the correct answer is [3].

Correct Answer: It was conquered by Hernan Cortez and his army.

Time taken by you: 81 secs Avg Time taken by all students: 18 secs Your Attempt: Wrong % Students got it correct: 19 %

undefined Section Video Explanation: Explanation: Correct Answer: Time taken by you: xx secs Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs Your Attempt: xx secs % Students got it correct: xx secs

undefined undefined The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

How can you tell if someone is angry or happy? How do you know when you feel that way yourself? If you suffer from alexithymia, you can’t. The disorder, first identified in the 1970s, describes people who are unable to articulate their own feelings and can’t understand the feelings of others. They tend to have literal-minded dreams, and have trouble reading others’ facial expressions and nonverbal cues. They often run into difficulties at work and in their personal lives because of this emotional awareness deficit. They are, for all intents and purposes, emotionally blind. Alexithymia is rare. For most of us, the ability to read other people’s emotional signals and expressions develops gradually and with varying degrees of skill over a lifetime.

But while studying research by Clifford Nass, a Stanford University psychologist and expert on multitasking, I was reminded of alexithymia. Nass found that spending a lot of time in mediated environments undermines our ability to read others’ emotions. When Nass showed avid Internet users pictures of human faces or told them stories about people, they had trouble identifying the emotions being expressed. “Human interaction is a learned skill,” Nass concluded, “and they don’t get to practice it enough.”If emotions use our bodies as their theater, as the NeuroscientistAntonio Damasio puts it, what happens when that theater becomes virtual? As more of our emotional experiences occur online, we expand the quantity of our connections, more easily finding likeminded people with whom to share our feelings At the same time, we lose the physical cues that define face-to-face interaction and so risk undermining a crucial skill: how to read each other’s intentions and understand others’ feelings. If the vitriolic discussions about climate change on my favorite weather blogs are any guide, this leads many of us to assume the worst about each other’s motives. Although we all recognize rationally that there is another human being on the other side of the screen, ’s it becoming clear that our use of certain technology elevates some emotional responses over others. A recent study published in the Journal of Computer-Mediated Communication explored whether incivility online influenced people’s perceptions of an article, in this instance a neutral explanation of emerging technologies such as nanotechnology. The results were startling. Rude comments didn’t merely polarize readers; they changed their perception of the article. The researchers noted how“social reprimands such as nonverbal communication and isolation can curb incivility in face-to-face discussion,” but that, by contrast, “the Internet may foster uncivil discussion because of its lack of offline, in-person consequences.” As a result, they argued, this form of online incivility, which they called “the nasty effect,” may impede the “democratic goal” of public deliberation online. 1) Which of the following best sums up the findings of the research done by Clifford Nass? Multitasking on the internet inhibits our ability to identify human emotions. Social isolation can cause alexithymia. Alexithymics genuinely cannot read other people’s emotions since they don’t get enough opportunities to practice huma